Download EOC Review Questions

EOC Review Questions:
Scientific Inquiry
1. Identify the following data as either quantitative or qualitative:
A). no change in growth. B.) moved 5 cm to the left. C.) fish were larger in pond A versus pond B. D.)
the fish consumed 0.25 grams of food in a day
2.
Based on the graph the dependent variable is:
A) time. B) number of days. C) the month of the year. D) population of birds
3. Juan and Shanice took samples from around their classroom to grow bacterial cultures. Which tool would they use
to find the mass of the bacterial populations as they grow?
A) yard stick. B) metric ruler C) graduated cylinder D) triple beam balance
4. Holly has planted a garden in her backyard, but the garden will not grow. After doing some research,
Holly has constructed a hypothesis. She thinks her garden will not grow because the soil does not have
enough potassium. Holly adds potassium to the soil around half of her plants and does nothing to the
remaining half. Her hypothesis seems to be supported. The plants with additional potassium grew taller
and fuller than the plants without potassium.
A) Draw a conclusion B) replicate her results C) do background research D) Construct a new
hypothesis
5. The ring in the image has a volume of exactly 1.0mL. How much water is in the graduated cylinder?
6. The factor being changed in a controlled experiment is called the
A) data. B) controlled variable. C) dependent variable. D) independent variable
7.
Salt
Hot Water
Chicken Liver
Light
Moved Away Moved Away Moved Toward Moved Away
Juan and Carol were investigating the responses of organisms called planaria. These are simple flatworms that
have a one-way digestive system and a very simple nervous system. Juan and Carol placed the planaria in a
petri dish containing cool, distilled water that was partially covered with black paper. They shined a light on the
dish. Next, they removed the paper and placed a small amount of chicken liver at one end of the dish. They
added a few large salt crystals to the water. Finally, they added drops of hot water to the cool water in the petri
dish. Their results can be seen in the data table. According to their experiment, Juan and Carol accurately
concluded that
A) Planaria only eat meat. B) Planaria are found in the tropics. C) Planaria are only found in fresh-water.
D) Planaria have specialized cells to detect light intensity.
8. For measuring the height of a tree in the savanna biome, which of these units of measurement would be
MOST meaningful to the world's scientific community? A) grams B) inches C) meters D) yards
9. Dr. Bob hypothesizes that drug X causes scabs and cuts to heal more quickly. He performs a medical
experiment on a group of 100 people and confirms his original hypothesis. In the control group, a 1 cm cut took
7 days to heal. In the experimental group, a 1 cm cut took 4.5 days to heal. What should Dr. Bob do next?
A) Repeat the experiment for accuracy. B) Begin selling drug X to the public. C) Write a scientific
theory about drug X. D) Publish the results of the experiment in a scientific journal.
10. What is the independent variable?
What is the dependent variable?
11. The standard unit of mass in the SI (Metric) system is the
A) kilogram. B) liter. C) meter. D) Newton
12.
The graph shows the solubility of different compounds at different temperatures. Solubility refers to how much
of something will dissolve in the given amount of water at a particular temperature.
_______ shows the greatest change in solubility over the temperature range shown.
A) KBr B) KNO3 C) NaCl D) NaClO3
13.
Carl watched a commercial about Zero Zits blemish cream and decided to try the product. He bought a tube and
carefully followed the directions. With the prom only ten days away, Carl was hoping to look his best. The
results of Zero Zits use can be seen in the graph. What is the MOST valid conclusion regarding Carl’s
experience with Zero Zits?
A) Carl used the cream incorrectly B) The cream removed all of Carl’s blemishes C) Carl’s diet caused
many more blemishes to develop D) Initially the cream worked but new blemishes developed.
What is the independent variable?
What is the dependent variable?
14. Which specimen would BEST be viewed using a compound light microscope?
A) cork cell B) carbon atom C) DNA molecule D) sugar molecule
15. All BUT one action will help increase the accuracy of a scientific experiment. It is
A) increasing the number of trials. B) decreasing the number of participants. C) having several doctors
do the same experiment. D) practicing the procedures before doing the experiment.
16. Which type of microscope should Dr. Sherman use to try to see the 3-dimensional shape of a virus in the
patient's sample?
A) light microscope B) stereomicroscope C) scanning electron microscope D) transmission electron
microscope
17. The EPA has recommended water quality criteria that include the pH in both freshwater and salt water. The
recommended pH range for freshwater is 6.5 to 9.0, and for salt water it is 6.6 to 8.5. In the eastern United
States, 75% of the lakes have a pH in the acidic range, from 6.5 to 4.2. Based on this new information, what
species are most likely to survive in eastern U.S. lakes, if the pH drops and remains at 4.2?
A) frogs B) clams and snails
C) none of the species D) frogs, perch, trout, salamanders
Plant
Mass of Plant
Amount of
After 3 weeks (kg)
Fertilizer (grams)
1
0.2
0
2
0.4
2
3
1.2
3
4
1.0
4
5
Died
5
18. “Plant growth is dependent on the amount of fertilizer applied.” That was the hypothesis Mel and Bill
decided on for their science project. They planted identical seeds in the same potting mix, and they used
identical pots for each plant. Each pot received the same amount of water, and all the pots were placed in the
same location in the greenhouse. After three weeks, Mel and Bill were able to summarize their data. Based on
the data collected, what would be the MOST appropriate research question for further study?
A) How much fertilizer in grams, will kill the plants? B) What happens when plants are given too much
fertilizer? C) What environmental conditions will result in the most plant growth? D) What is the
optimum amount of fertilizer for continued plant growth?
19.A scientist wants to determine how water temperature affects the development of fish eggs. Which of the following
would be an appropriate control group for such an experiment?
A) Ice is added to the water of one group of fish eggs and the tank is covered B). One group of fish eggs and
water is placed in a sunny window C). The water of one group of fish eggs is kept at the same temperature as
would be found in nature D). The water of one group of fish eggs is kept at the same temperature as would be
found in nature and the tank is covered.
20. Which microscope would be MOST useful for quickly estimating the number of red blood cells in a patient's
blood sample? A) compound light microscope B) binocular stereomicroscope C) scanning electron microscope
D) transmission electron microscope
21.
As resources, such as food and space, become depleted, the bacterial population density will decrease. From the
choices offered, during which month would resources be the most limited?
A) March B) May C) July D) September
22.
Which predator identified on the graph would probably be responsible for consuming the LARGEST number of
small rodents in Georgia?
23
Jerry enters a hospital blood lab and notices a metal canister with the symbol above printed on all
four sides. The symbol is MOST LIKELY a ____________ caution sign.
A) biohazard B) broken glass C) corrosive chemical D) flammable substance
24. OMIT
25. A reasonable explanation of an observation or experimental result, or a possible answer to a scientific
question that can be tested is known as: A) variable B) control C) scientific law D) hypothesis
26. Four students were to measure the mass of a substance. Each was to repeat the process three times. The
substance’s mass was 63.5 grams. Which of the following students’ measurements exhibit precision?
A) Larry: 61g, 65g, 63g B) Sue: 56g, 56.8g, 57.1g C) Pat: 65.7g, 61g, 70g D) Ann: 55g, 65g, 70g
27. Which type of graph would be used to best represent the percentage of each type of element found in the
human body? A) line graph B) scatter plot C) bar graph D) pie graph
28.
Based on the graph the independent variable is
A. Cadmium dosage. B. tadpole population C. gallons of pond water D. total bullfrog population
Chemistry/Biochemistry:
29. Carbohydrates, fats, proteins: These organic molecules ALL have this element in common. This
element can form multiple bonds, and it bonds with other elements as well as with itself. This element is
A) Calcium. B) Carbon. C) Proteins. D) Nitrogen
30. If you ate a jelly doughnut for breakfast, the majority of the energy would come from the _________
in the doughnut because it _________.
A) fat; has the most kilocalories per gram. B) sugar; because it is the body’s preferred fuel source C)
Protein ; contains the most amino acids
31. A __________ chain is a sequence of amino acids that is the foundation for the basic structure of
protein. A) polynomial B) polypeptide C) polysaccharide D) Polyunsaturated
32. Which of these organic molecules functions to help speed up biological chemical reactions?
A) lipids B) proteins C) nucleic acids D) carbohydrates
33. Animals store most of their excess energy reserves as ______ because
A) glucose; it is easy to break down B) fat;they store twice as much energy per gram. C) protein;
it is a compact source of energy in their bodies. D) carbohydrates; they store twice as much energy per
gram of glucose.
34. The digestion of pizza, the light reactions in photosynthesis, and the removal of a stain by laundry
detergent all require _______ which are biological proteins that lower activation energy for chemical
reactions.
A) enzymes B) antibiotics C)phospholipids D) monosaccharides
35. Only about 60% of the Calories in a food are used by the body to perform cellular functions. What
accounts for the other 40% of calories?
a. released thermal energy b. stored thermal energy c. energy stored in chemical bonds d.
energy stored in fats
36. Which of the following comprises an ATP molecule?
a. Adenine, the sugar deoxyribose, and two phosphate groups b. a nitrogenous base, a phosphate
group, and the sugar ribose c. adenine, the sugar ribose, and three phosphate groups d. a complex
molecule of amino acids
37. What are the bonds between water molecules called?
a. Covalent bonds only b. hydrogen bonds only c. ionic and covalent bonds d. covalent and
hydrogen bonds
38. What is the role of a catalyst?
a. Provides extra energy for a reaction b. lowers the activation energy of a reaction c. eliminates the
activation energy of a reaction d. raises the activation energy of a reaction
39. Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between calories and types of biomolecules?
a. Carbohydrates have the highest Caloric yield because they contain glucose b. Fats have a much
higher Caloric yield than carbohydrates do, which is why they are used for energy storage c. The
primary fuel for cellular respiration is protein, which is why there are so many ribosomes in cells d.
Starches and glucose can easily be broken down to sucrose, which goes straight into the Krebs cycle
and results in extremely high caloric yields
40. Which of the following refers to the necessity of an organism to maintain constant or stable conditions?
a. Permeability b. homeostasis c. facilitation
d. stimulus
41. Identify the molecule in the image?
a. cellulose b. adenosine diphosphate c. a nucleotide d. adenosine triphosphate
42. Which of the following is the process of breaking down ATP into ADP.
a. an exergonic reaction b. a synthesis reaction c. fermentation d. an endergonic reaction
43. Which of the following is not a component of ATP?
a. a phosphate group b. a nitrogen base c. a sugar d. a lipid
44. Based on the image below, identify the area where bonds are broken in order to supply a cell with energy
from ATP? a. point A b. point B c. Both A and B d. none of the above, energy is released when bonds are
made
45. In order for the ATP-ADP cycle to continue, what must happen to ADP molecules? (B 3.3)
a. A phosphate must be removed from ADP b. A phosphate must be removed from ATP
combine with a free phosphate
d. ATP must combine with a free phosphate
c. ADP must
46. Which structure in the image below represents a sugar. (B 3.3)
a. Structure A b. Structure B c. Structures C d. None of the above
47. The brown paper test for lipids is positive when food is placed on the paper and a spot forms which will
allow light to pass through it. Which food would give the strongest positive test for lipids? A) potato chips B)
bread C) sugar D) carrots
48. Living cells use ____ as their main source of energy. A) carbohydrates B) cellulose C) lipids D) proteins
49.Which biological polymer consists of many simple monosaccharides joined together? A) Lipids B) proteins
C) carbohydrates D) nucleic acids
50. _______ are cellular macromolecules containing hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, carbon and phosphorus.
A). Fatty acids B) Nucleic acids C) Simple sugars D) Complex carbohydrates
51. If you ate bacon and fried eggs for breakfast, the largest component of the energy would come from the
A) carbohydrates B) fats C) proteins D) sugars
52.Which type of macromolecule is made up of amino acids
A) carbohydrate B) DNA C) lipid D) protein
53.The macromolecules in biochemistry are proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids. What main
elements do all of these have in common? A) carbon and sulfur B) carbon and hydrogen C) oxygen and
nitrogen D) oxygen and phosphorus
54. One of the most important macromolecules to the cell membrane would be A) protein B) phospholipids C)
glucose D) nucleic acids
55. Water is a _______ molecule. A) polar B) nonpolar C)organic D) useless
56. Individuals who lack lactase are unable to break down the sugar lactose. Which term best describes lactase?
a. enzyme b. fatty acid c. lipid d. starch
57. Hormones regulate many functions and processes that take place in the human body. Hormones belong to
which group of biomolecules? a. proteins b. nucleic acids c. disaccharides d. monosaccharides
58. In an experiment involving an enzyme, the pH is raised from 2 to 11. What will be the MOST likely effect
of this on the reaction? a) The enzyme will denature, stopping the reaction. b) the activation energy of the
reaction would be reduced. c) The rate of reaction will reduce due to a decrease in the kinetic energy of the
molecules d.) The rate of reaction will increase due to the increased number of collisions of the enzyme and
substrate.
Cells/ Transport
59. What happens when you water a plant with drooping leaves?
a. The environment changes to hypotonic, water moves into the cell filling the vacuoles and the leaves stop
drooping b. The environment changes to hypertonic, the cytoplasm swells and the leaves stop drooping c. The
environment changes to hypertonic, mitochondria in the plant cells take up the water and the leaves stop drooping d. The
sudden movement of water by osmosis into the plant cells causes the cells to swell and burst.
60. Which of the following is not part of the cell theory?
a. All cells come from existing cells. b. The cell is the basic unit of all living things, c. All organisms are
made up of one or more cells. d. All cells contain a nucleus.
61. Susan finds some old celery in the refrigerator that is limp and bendable. She places it in a bowl of water for an hour
and when she returns the celery stalk is rigid. Which organelle in the cells of the celery is responsible for this change?
a. Cell membrane b. Nucleus c. Chloroplast d. Central vacuole
62. If the mitochondria lacked the inner membrane this would affect
a. The cells ability to reproduce because it could not make any ATP b. The cells ability to make proteins because
there would be no ribosomes. c. the cells ability to produce energy because the vacuoles could no longer contract. d.
The cells ability to produce energy because the mitochondria could not hold as many ATP producing enzymes in the ETC.
63. Which of the following would happen if the rough endoplasmic reticulum in the cell of an organism lost all its
ribosomes?
a. Protein production would stop b. storage of proteins within the cell would increase c. ATP production in the
cell would stop d. proteins would no longer be exported from the cell.
64. An oxygen molecule comes into contact with the outside of a cell’s lipid bilayer. What process would allow
the molecule to move into the cell?
a.Osmosis b. simple diffusion
c. facilitated diffusion
d. active transport
65. How would glucose and amino acids enter a cell membrane? a. osmosis b. diffusion c. facilitated
diffusion d. endocytosis
66. We would expect cells found in the digestive glands of animals to contain relatively large amounts of which
cellular organelle? A) centrioles
B) lysosome C) mitochondria D) nuclei
67. Which description represents the effects of osmosis on a plant cell when the concentration of sugar particles
is greater inside the cell than outside the cell?
a. Water diffuses out of the cell, and the cell shrinks. b. Water moves into and out of the cell at equal
rates, and the cell size remains the same. c. Water diffuses into the cell, and the cell swells. d. Water is
blocked from moving into or out of the cell
68. What would happen to a freshwater protozoan if removed from its normal habitat and placed into a saltwater
pool? A) loss of water through osmosis B) gain of water through osmosis C) loss of water through active
transport D) gain of water through active transport
69. What disease is caused by uncontrolled, abnormal cell division?
a. Leprosy b. cancer c. heart disease d. tuberculosis
70. What is the purpose of DNA polymerase? A) It carries genetic information to the ribosomes.
B) It produces a complementary copy of a strand of DNA. C) It constructs RNA chains using a template
from DNA genes. D) It retrieves amino acids from the cytoplasm for protein construction.
71. Some organelles have their own DNA that is distinct from the cell’s nuclear DNA. This is true of which
organelle? a.Cell wall b. mitochondrion c. plasma membrane d. vacuole
72. Which of the following are found in eukaryotes but not prokaryotes?
a. Mitochondria b. DNA c. cell membranes d. receptor proteins
73. If you wanted to see the Golgi apparatus inside an animal cell which would be the best microscope to use?
a. Compound light microscope b. Scanning electron microscope c. Transmission electron
microscope d. Stereomicroscope
74. Which structure is most like a furnace that heats your home?
a. Endoplasmic reticulum b. mitochondrion c. nucleus d. ribosome
75. Which of the following would represent a prokaryotic cell?
76. Passive transport is a process by which substances move across a cell membrane but do NOT require energy
from the cell. Which of the following is NOT a type of passive transport?
a. Simple diffusion of oxygen across a cell’s membrane b. the facilitated diffusion of glucose across a
cell’s membrane c. osmosis d. the pumping of sodium
77. Transport of materials into a cell against a concentration gradient, from low to high, requires
A) water. B) energy. C) osmosis. D) a passageway.
78. Which of the following organelles is not responsible for storage, packaging, and/or transportation of
substances within a eukaryotic cell?
a. Mitochondria b. golgi apparatus c. vacuoles d. endoplasmic reticulum
79. Which of the following organelles listed below would most likely be involved in the digestion and
elimination of worn out cellular components? a. Chloroplasts b. cilia c. lysosomes d. vacuole
80. Based on the conditions provided, select the image below that accurately depicts the facilitated diffusion of
glucose molecules that would occur in order for the cell to reach equilibrium?
81. Which of the following does not require the cell to expend energy in order to move substances across its
membrane? a. Osmosis b. endocytosis c. sodium-potassium pumping d. exocytosis
82. Which process is occurring?
a. Endocytosis b. exocytosis c. facilitated diffusion d. sodium potassium pump
83. Correctly identify the structure below.
a.Chromosome b. centrioles
c. sister chromatids
d. spindle fibers
84. Which of the following terms can best be used to describe cells that do not heed the regulation system that
controls cell growth and division? a. regulatory b. skin cells c. Non-compliant d. cancerous
85. As cell division proceeds, the cells increase in number, but also become specialized in structure and
function. What is this specialization process called?
a. respiration b. synthesis c. identification
d. differentiation
86. Which type of cell is unspecialized and can continually reproduce themselves and have the ability to
differentiate into various cell types? a. skin cells
b. brain cells c. stem cells d. blood cells
87. Due to excessive exposure to sunshine, a gene for skin color has mutated in a group of cells in a snake’s
epidermis. The skin cells in this group make red pigment instead of brown pigment. Which of the following is
likely to happen as a result of this mutation?
a. All of the snake’s offspring will have this group of red skin cells. b. If the red skin cells give the
snake a competitive advantage over other snakes, it will pass this trait on to its offspring. c. Some of he
snake’s offspring are likely to have this group of red skin cells d. Since the mutation is not in gamete
cells, this trait will not be passed on to the snake’s offspring.
88. A person with swollen gums rinses his mouth with warm salt water, and the swelling decreases. Which has
occurred? a. The swollen gums have absorbed the saltwater solution. B) The saltwater solution lowers the
temperature of the water in the gums. C) The salt in the solution has moved against the concentration
gradient. D) The water in the gums has moved from a low to a high concentration of solutes.
89. What repackages proteins into forms the cell can use, expel, or keep stored?
a. Centrioles b. Golgi bodies c. Mitochondria d. lysosomes
90. In order to make hydrochloric acid, which is required in human digestion, ATP is used to move hydrogen ions
from the blood to the stomach lining. This is an example of
a. active transport b. passive transport c. osmotic potential d. facilitated diffusion
91. Heart muscle cells beat in unison to push blood in timing with the rhythm of the heart, at the direction of nearby
nerve cells. These muscle cells could best be called a: A) organ B) tissue C) macromolecule D) organ system.
92. Motile sperm in fungi, plants and animals depend upon _____ to drive the microtubule interaction in their
flagella. A) ADP B) ATP C) NADPH D) sucrose
93. A new nurse notices that the hospital is running low on blood so she decides to dilute the blood with water to
make it last longer. Later, Dr. Dingo checks the blood under a microscope before giving a patient a transfusion. He
immediately starts to fuss at the nurse Why? A) the blood cells burst because they were placed in a hypotonic
solution. B) the blood cells burst because they were placed in water an isotonic solution. C) the blood cells burst
because they were in a hypertonic solution. D) she did not dilute the blood enough causing the cell walls to
collapse.
94. In some freshwater organisms there is a structure called a contractile vacuole that regulates water movement
into and out of the cell. What explains the existence of the CV?
a. The CV prevents the organism from drying out. b. The CV assists the organism in capturing prey. c. The CV
helps the organism move through the water. d. The CV helps the organism maintain osmotic pressure.
95. Jim is looking for his girlfriend Tully in a crowded mall all of a sudden he smells her overpowering perfume.
Which process explains why he is able to smell her perfume? A) osmosis B) facilitated diffusion C) diffusion D)
endocytosis
96. Which organelle is considered a transport organelle? A) mitochondria B) vesicles C) nucleus D) ribosome
97. A catalyzed reaction will have a _______ activation energy, and this leads to a __________ in the reaction rate.
A). lower, decrease B) lower, increase C) higher, decrease D) higher, increase
98. Which of these statements is true about plant and animal cells during the process of cell division? A) Both
animal and plant cells develop a cell plate. B) Both animal and plant cells develop a cleavage furrow. C) Plant cells
develop a cell plate while animal cells develop a cleavage furrow. D) Animal cells develop a cell plate while plant
cells develop a cleavage furrow.
99. While cleaning a saltwater aquarium, students placed a family of fiddler crabs from the saltwater aquarium into a
container of distilled water. What effect will this have on the crabs? A) the crabs will not be affected. B) the crabs
will excrete excess salts left in their systems. C) the crabs will die; their cells will burst. D) the crabs will die; their
cells will shrink.
100. A scientist treats a cell with a chemical that destroys the ribosomes. As a result which cell process will be
stopped? A) Osmosis B) photosynthesis C) protein synthesis D) respiration
101. ____________ is the process of taking material into the cell by means of infoldings of the cell membrane.
a. diffusion b. osmosis c. exocytosis d. endocytosis
102. A liver cell requires energy to move vitamins from an area of low concentration, across the cell membrane, to
an area of high concentration. The process used by the liver cell is called a. diffusion b. active transport c.
osmosis d. passive transport
Mitosis/ Meiosis
103. Which stage of mitosis is similar to the dismantling of a bridge?
a. Prophase b. metaphase c. anaphase d. telophase
104. A human skin cell has 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in a human gamete?
a. 2
b. 23 c. 44
d. 46
105. During meiosis, homologous chromosomes line up next to each other. In some cases, one arm of a
chromatid crosses over the arm of another chromatid. What is the result of this process? a. Additional variation
in the DNA of each sex cell formed b. the independent assortment of genetic material c. the creation of an
additional sex cell d. continuity in the offspring cell’s DNA
106. What kind of reproduction produces the most genetic variability within a species?
a. asexual reproduction
b. budding
c. binary fission
d. sexual reproduction
107. If sex cells divided by mitosis instead of meiosis, predict the result of fertilization of an ovum by a sperm
cell. a. Fertilization would result in the formation of two identical cells b. Fertilization would cause crossing
over and recombination of genes
c. Cells of the new individual would have double the necessary number of
chromosomes d. the new individual would be identical to only one of the parents
108. Which of the following cells would not reproduce through mitosis?
a. Germ cells b. hair cells
c. intestinal cells
d. skin cells
109. Pollen in plants is most similar to which type of cell in humans?
a. Egg b. embryo c. sperm d. mitochondrion
110. Which term best describes the type of cell division in which parent cells produce daughter cells with the
same number of chromosomes as the parent cell?
a. Meiosis b. Mitosis c. Spermatogenesis
d. oogenesis
111. Which of the following summarizes the purpose of interphase?
a. Cell growth b. chromosome replication c. protein synthesis d. all of the above
112. Scientists produce plants from tissue culture in the lab. The new plants are produced under sterile
conditions, to produce clones of the parent plant. The new plants a) have traits of both parents. b) are identical
to the parent plant c) are the product of sexual reproduction d) are different from the parent plant
113. During the S (synthesis) phase of interphase, chromosomes replicate and divide to form identical sister
chromatids as seen in the image below. Identify the structure known as the centromere based on the image
below. a. Structure A
B. structure B C. structure C
D. none of the above
114. Which of the following correctly provides the stages of mitosis in the order that they would occur?
a. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase b. Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase c.
Anaphase, Telophase, Metaphase, Prophase d. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Cytokinesis
115. Identify the correct sequence of Mitosis using the picture below.
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 2,4,3,1
c. 3,2,1,4
d. 2,3,4,1
116.
The image above represents a cell in Meiosis I and meiosis II. Which answer choice places the phases in the
correct order? a. 8, 1,2,4,7,5,3,6 b. 1,2,4,6,8,5,7,3 c. 8,5,7,3,1,2,4,6 d. 7,5,3,6,8,1,2,4
117. DNA replication occurs in a cell in all of the following situations, except when: a) cells undergo meiosis
b) cells undergo mitosis c) proteins are synthesized d) cells repair damage from UV light.
118. At the end of meiosis II, how does the DNA in each of the four new cells compare to the DNA from the
original cell? a) half as much and genetically the same as the original b) twice as much and genetically the
same as the original c) half as much and genetically different from the original d) twice as much and
genetically different from the original
Genetics
119. A gardener crossed a plant with red flowers with a plant that had white flowers. The offspring plants had
pink flowers. What is the most likely genetic reason for these differences in color?
a. Polygenic inheritance b. codominance
c. recessive pink genes d. incomplete dominance
120. Sickle cell anemia is caused by a defect in the allele that codes for hemoglobin. One nucleotide is
switched for a different nucleotide therefore Sickle cell anemia results from which type of mutation?
a. Point mutation (substitution) b. silent mutation c. chromosomal mutation d. gene rearrangement
121. Inheriting two copies of a recessive allele causes an individual to die before reaching sexual maturity.
How is it that this recessive allele can be passed on from one generation to the next? a. Homozygous dominant
individuals usually live past sexual maturity to pass on the dominant allele to their offspring b. Heterozygous
individuals can pass on the recessive allele because they do not die from having only one copy of the allele c.
Two homozygous dominant parents will not give the recessive allele to their offspring, so all will reach sexual
maturity d. Two heterozygous parents who have reached sexual maturity will not give the recessive allele to
their offspring, so all will reach sexual maturity.
122. For a certain plant purple flowers (P) are dominant, and white flowers (p) are recessive. A homozygous
purple plant is crossed with a homozygous white plant. What are the possible genotypes of the offspring?
a. pp only b. PP only c. Pp only d. PP, pp, and Pp
123.) Several matings between the same male black guinea pig and female brown guinea pig produce a total of
12 brown and 14 black guinea pigs. If black is dominant and brown is recessive, what are the genotypes of the
parents? a. BB x bb
b. Bb x bb c. BB x Bb
d. Bb x Bb
124.) Most sex-linked, recessive traits such as hemophilia and color blindness appear in males. This
phenomenon is best explained by which statement?
a. Males have an X chromosome with dominant genes
b. Most of the genes on the X and Y chromosome of males are recessive c. In males, the recessive sex linked
genes appear only on the Y chromosome d. In males the Y chromosome lacks the genes needed to mask the
recessive genes on the X chromosome.
125. In genetics research, what is the purpose of a test cross? a. To determine the phenotypes of the parents
b. to determine the genotypes of a parent with a dominant characteristic c. to determine whether or not two
parents could produce viable offspring d. to determine how many offspring can be produced by two parents
126. Huntington’s disease is a dominant trait. What are the chances that a child will develop Huntington’s
disease if one parent is heterozygous and the other is normal?
a. 0 out of 4
b. 1 out of 4
c. 2 out of 4
d. 3 out of 4
127. A couple has five children with blood type A. The mother’s blood type is O and the father’s is A. Based
on this information which describes the most probable genotype of the father?
a. Diploid
b. haploid
c. heterozygous
d. homozygous
128. A karyotype of a human female shows that she only has one sex chromosome. Which genotype would
represent her genetic condition?
a. XO b. XXX c. XY
d. XYY
129. Some flowers show incomplete dominance. If RR= white and R’R’ = red, which phenotypic ratio would
be expected in the offspring of two pink flowers?
a.1 red : 2 pink : 1 white
b. 2 red : 1 pink : 1 white c. 3 red : 0 pink : 1 white
130. A mutation may be passed along to human offspring if it happens in which of the following?
a. Somatic cells
b. gametes
c. introns
d. proteins
131. Down Syndrome is the result of a mutation in which a chromosome fails to separate from its copy
during meiosis. As a result one gamete receives an extra chromosome, while the other lacks a chromosome.
What type of mutation is Down Syndrome? a. silent b. gene mutation c. nondisjunction d. point mutation
132. Different versions or choices in the same gene are known as __________________.
a. chromosomes b. centromeres c. chromatids d. alleles
133. Which of the following describes a phenotype? a. tall b. heterozygous c. Tt
d. homozygous
134. In a particular type of plant, purple petals are completely dominant over white flowers.
Which of the following symbolizes the genotypic cross of a homozygous purple flower with
a white flower? a. pp x pp b. Pp x pp c. PP x pp d. Pp x Pp
135. Which genetic abnormality can be identified through karyotyping? a. point mutation b. recessive allele
c. extra chromosome d. sex-linked allele
136. Hemophilia is a sex-linked, recessive trait. Which of the following describes the probability of hemophilia in the offspring
of a man who does not have hemophilia and a woman whose father is a hemophiliac?
a. All of their sons will have
hemophilia b. All of their daughters will carry the hemophilia trait c. Their sons have a 50% chance of having hemophilia
d. There is a 50% chance that their daughters will have hemophilia.
137.) One parent has phenylketonuria (PKU), which is caused by recessive alleles. The other parent does not have the PKU
alleles. What is the chance that the couple will have a child with phenylketonuria? a. 0% b. 50% c. 75% d.100%
138.
This diagram shows a pedigree for colorblindness a recessive genetic disorder. Color blindness must be a _______
inherited trait because the only sex that can be a carrier is the ________ while _________ are guaranteed to be
colorblind if they inherit just one allele A. Autosomal, male, females
B. Sex-linked, female, males
C. Sexlinked, males, females D. Autosomal, females, males
139 . A human baby boy inherits a recessive allele from his mother. In which circumstance would he most likely
show the trait coded for by the recessive allele? A. The baby inherits the dominant allele from his father. B.
The allele is on an autosomal chromosome and the baby is a twin. C. The allele is on the X chromosome. D.
The allele is on the Y chromosome
140. A litter of guinea pigs can vary in color. The color and pattern of each guinea pig are distinct from those
of its parents and siblings. What process is responsible for the differences seen in each guinea pig?
.
a. meiosis
b. mitosis
c. replication
d. translation
141. When viewing a human karyotype to detect genetic disorders, which situation would indicate a genetic
problem? A) two X chromosomes B) three chromosomes in any one set C) twenty-three pairs of
chromosomes D) different chromosomes of different lengths
142. During winter, the pigment-producing genes of the arctic fox and other arctic animals do not function and
the result is a white coat. This is an example of ___ change due to environmental influence.
A) codominant B) genetic C) genotypic D) phenotypic
143. Your gender, whether you are male or female, is determined by the
A) X or Y chromosome, inherited from father B) X or Y chromosome, inherited from your mother C)
autosomes D) mothers X chromosome
144. In flies, long wings are a dominant trait, and short wings are a recessive trait. Medium wings are the
heterozygous trait. Based on this information, if a homozygous long-winged fly is crossed with a heterozygous
fly, their offspring will have which percentages for long, medium, and short wings? A) 25% long, 75%
medium, 0% short. B) 50% long, 25% medium, 25% short C) 50% long, 50% medium, 0% short D) 0%
long, 100% medium, 0% short
145. If red “R” is dominant to white “r” flowers and a Sue has only white flowered plants what should she do to
produce red flowers. A) She must introduce a plant that is homozygous dominant for white flowers. B) she
must introduce at least one parent that is heterozygous for red flowers. C) She cannot manipulate the flower
color. It would be best to begin with a different set of parent plants. D) flower color variation would depend on
mutations in this case; there is no other way to change flower color of this population of plants
146. If a genetic disorder is primarily seen in males in every other generation, while females seem unaffected
what could you conclude about this disorder? A) it is sex-linked, dominant B) it is a sex-linked, recessive
C) it is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder. D) it is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder.
147. When Jane crossed a purple flowered plant with a white flowered plant the offspring were purple with
white spots. This could be explained by A) classic dominance B) a mutation C) Codominance D)
incomplete dominance
148. In a dihybrid cross both the plants have the heterozygous genotype RrYy. What is the expected phenotypic
ratio of this dihybrid cross? A. 9:3:3:1
B. 9:5:1:1 C. 9:3:2:2 D. 9:4:2:1
149. According to Mendel's _______________, one copy of a gene is passed randomly from each parent to
their offspring. This is why gametes have half the usual number of chromosomes. The ______________ states
that different genes are not connected. In other words, the gene for eye color is not influenced by, nor does it
influence, the gene for hair color. The cell division that creates gametes according to these principles is known
as __________. A) Law of Segregation; Law of Independent Assortment; meiosis B) Law of Segregation;
Law of Independent Assortment; mitosis C) Law of Independent Assortment; Law of Segregation; mitosis
D) Law of Independent Assortment; Law of Segregation; meiosis
150. Gene therapy may provide cures for genetic disorders such as severe combined immunodeficiency or
cystic fibrosis. In this case, scientists are using __________ to deliver good genes, or genes to halt a disorder, to
the cells of a patient's body. A) viruses B) bacteria C) vaccines D) carrier proteins
151. Molecular biologists are using __________ to directly manipulate genes for practical purposes.
A) DNA cloning B) DNA polymerization C) genetic engineering D) bacteriophage infestation
152. African zebra cichlids have two color alleles. Blue coloration is B, while the gene for orange coloration is
O. A fish that has both alleles will be marbled orange and blue. Suppose that a male with genotype BO mates
with a female that is also BO. What percentage of each PHENOTYPE will their offspring have?
A) 25% blue; 50% marbled; 25% orange B) 25% BB; 50% BB, 25% BB C) 50% blue; 50% orang
DNA Transcription and Translation
153. Assume that a polypeptide chain of amino acids being produced represents an enzyme humans use to help
digest starch. The original blueprint for the production of this enzyme can be found, most specifically, in the
A.) salivary glands. B) nuclei of gland cells. C) ribosomes of gland cells. D) saliva of the human mouth.
154. What is one difference between DNA and RNA? A) only DNA contains the base adenine. B) only RNA
contains the base guanine. C) only RNA contains the sugar fructose D) only DNA contains the sugar
deoxyribose.
155. If the sequence of the nucleotides in a portion of one strand of DNA is CCTATGGCC, what is the order of
the nucleotides in the complementary DNA strand?
a. AAGCGTTAA
b. CCTATGGCC
c. GGATACCGG d. TTCGCAATT
156. What would most likely happen if tRNA malfunctioned during the assembly of a protein molecule?
a. Mutations would happen in the segment of mRNA as it formed b. amino acids would no longer
be transported into the cell c. the amino acids would be added in the wrong order to the new
protein molecule d. Bonds between the amino acids would no longer form inside the ribosome.
157. If the codon in messenger RNA has the code GAA what would be the most likely transfer RNA anticodon?
a. CTT b. CUU
c. GAA
d. TUU
158. A strand of mRNA contains 36 nucleotides. How many amino acids are there on the corresponding
polypeptide chain?
a. 10 b. 12 c. 36 d. 108
159. Which nucleic acid does the following image represent?
a. RNA b. DNA c. ATP d. ADP
160. What is the most significant purpose for DNA replication in cells?
a. DNA must be replicated so that the double helix can be constructed in each nucleus b. Like all cell
organelles, DNA must be periodically remade to replace the old DNA material c. As cells divide and
multiply, it is critical that DNA also be divided to ensure every cell has the same copy of the organism’s
genetic code d. As DNA is used up in the production of proteins, more DNA must be made to carry on
cellular metabolism
161. A scientist analyzed four samples of nitrogenous bases to determine whether or not they
contain DNA. Her results are shown in this table:
Sample Bases
C
A
G
T
43
28
43
7
A
43
28
43
28
B
37
34
37
17
C
Based on her results, in which sample(s) contains mostly DNA?
a. Sample A b. Sample B c. Sample C d. Samples A and C e. All contain DNA
162. DNA contains the code for protein production. Proteins are produced in the ribosomes. Which of the
following best explains how this can occur, given that DNA cannot leave the nucleus of the cell?
a. the nucleus receives a chemical signal which initiates a temporary portal opening in the
nucleus during protein synthesis. b. a specialized RNA strand is used to carry a template DNA code outside of
the nucleus. c. a separate copy of the DNA is contained in the ribosomes for the single purpose of
protein synthesis. d. the ribosomes are temporarily allowed inside the nucleus of the cell for the purpose of
protein synthesis.
163. Complete the following analogy: mRNA : uracil :: DNA : a. thymine b. guanine c. adenine d.
cytosine
164. A sequence of three nucleotides on mRNA that codes for an amino acid is called
a. Promoter
b. nucleus
c. anticodon
d. codon
165. In humans, glucose is kept in balance in the bloodstream by insulin which is a protein produced by the
pancreas. Which concept does this best illustrate?
a. Adaptation b. homeostasis c. metabolism d. organization
166. Tissue samples taken from the heart and stomach of a grasshopper would be expected to have the same
a. DNA b. metabolic rates c. cell shape d. cell size
167. Although Watson and Crick are credited with producing the double helix model of DNA, Chargaff’s rule
states that A) nitrogen bases are joined with hydrogen bonds B) the backbone of the double helix must be a
sugar-phosphate combination C) adenine always pairs with uracil and guanine always pairs with cytosine D)
there is a 1:1 ratio of purine bases to pyrimidine bases in a DNA molecule.
168. Josh is assigned a project in class to make a strand of m-RNA from DNA. The DNA code that he has been
assigned is : CGG TCG AGT GAT. What would be the correct codons for Josh to use in transcription?
A) GCC AGC TCA CTA B) GCC AGG TGA CTA C) GCC UGC TCA CTU D) GCC AGC UCA CUA
169 . Which type of nucleic acid is responsible for the transmission of information from the genetic code in the
nucleus to the ribosome? A) DNA B) mRNA C) rRNA D) tRNA
170. A section of DNA that codes for a specific trait or protein is called a
A) chromosome B) codon C) gene D) phenotype
171. DNA replication occurs just before _____.
A) cytokinesis B) translation C) cell division D) transcription
172. The site of protein synthesis is the A) nucleus B) mitochondria C) ribosome D) nucleolus
173.
Using the chart above what amino acid would be produced from a DNA sequence of : GGA
A) Valine B) glycine C) proline D) tryptophan
174. Using the chart above what would happen if there was a mutation in DNA that produced a codon of UGG
instead of UGU? A) nothing they code for the same amino acid B) threonine would be coded for instead of
cysteine C) tryptophan would be coded for instead of cysteine D) cysteine would be coded for instead of
tryptophan
175. Identify the pairings you would see when DNA makes RNA.
A) T-C and A-G B) A-U and C-G C) A-T and C-U
D) G-U and A-T
176. During the process of protein synthesis, each tRNA carries one
A) codon B) amino acid C) amino D) nucleotide
177. ________ produce protein by following coded instruction in __________ that come from the nucleus of
the cell. A) ribosomes, DNA B) flagella, DNA C) ribosomes, tRNA D) ribosomes, mRNA
178. ____ is the process that produces mRNA and ____ is the process that produces a protein.
A) translation, transcription B) translation, protein synthesis C) transcription, translation D)
photosynthesis, cellular respiration
179.________ is the enzyme responsible for transcription while _______ is the enzyme responsible for
replication. A) DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase, replicase C) DNA polymerase,
insulin D) RNA polymerase, DNA polymerase
180. There are twenty different types of _____________ which join together in differing sequences and
numbers to form different proteins.
A) fatty acids B) amino acids C) nucleic acids D) monosaccharides
181. Recombinant DNA, involves either the combining of DNA from different genomes (organisms) or the
insertion of foreign DNA into a genome. This technology is used to produce all of the following EXCEPT
A) human insulin. B) cancer fighting drugs. C) new genetic varieties of plants. D) preferred genotypes for
human offspring.
182. Transgenic animals have foreign DNA, (recombinant DNA) therefore, a change in _________ and
phenotype may occur. A) genotype B) prototype C) sequencing D) titration
Photosynthesis/Cellular Respiration
183. Which of the following processes is important to a runner at the end of a marathon?
a.) Alcoholic fermentation to release carbon dioxide, b.) ETC to produce ATP, c.) Krebs cycle to produce NADH
and FADH2, d.) lactic acid fermentation to produce ATP without oxygen
184. What effect does a cold, sunny day have on the rate of photosynthesis?
a.) Abundant sunshine speeds up photosynthesis, b.) the amount of sunlight and temperature have no effect on
photosynthesis, c.) cold temperatures decrease the activity of some enzymes, so photosynthesis slows down
d.) photosynthesis stops because the chloroplasts freeze.
185. What is the primary source of energy for photosynthesis?
a. ATP b. fermentation c. heat d. sunlight
186. The follow equation 6CO2 + 6H2O light → C6H12O6 + 6O2 best describes which process
a. Glycolysis b. photosynthesis c. cellular respiration
d. fermentation
187. In terms of ATP production, which process results in the most stored energy?
a. Aerobic respiration b. anaerobic respiration c. fermentation d. photosynthesis
188.
Which statement best distinguishes aerobic from anaerobic respiration?
a. Only aerobic respiration involves fermentation. b. Only anaerobic respiration occurs in the
mitochondria. c. Only aerobic respiration requires oxygen
d. Only anaerobic respiration
produces carbon dioxide
189. The mitochondrion is the site of cellular respiration in Eukaryotic cells. After glycolysis, which occurs in
the cytoplasm, if oxygen is absent what process do cells use to recycle NAD+ for glycolysis to occur again?
a. The Krebs cycle b. the Calvin cycle
c. fermentation
d. the electron transport chain
190. How many molecules of carbon dioxide are required to make three molecules of glucose?
a. 3
b. 9
c. 12
d. 18
191. Tetanus is caused by bacteria that can survive in a healed puncture wound of the skin. Through what
process do these bacteria acquire the energy they need to survive?
a. aerobic respiration b. anaerobic respiration c. chemosynthesis d. photosynthesis
192. The process by which radiant energy is converted into chemical energy is known as _________
a. phosphorylation b. photosynthesis. c. mitosis d. cellular respiration
193. Which of the following are the essential reactants (raw materials) for photosynthesis?
a. radiant energy, carbon dioxide, and water b. radiant energy, oxygen, and water c. glucose, water, and
carbon dioxide d. glucose, water, and oxygen
194. Photosynthesis : Chloroplast :: Cellular Respiration : _________
a. thylakoid b. vacuole c. nucleus
d. mitochondria
195. Atmospheric oxygen comes from: a) splitting water to replace electrons for PSII b) splitting water to
replace electrons for PSI c) splitting carbon dioxide to make glucose d) splitting carbon dioxide to make ATP
196. The carbon in glucose comes from which reactant? a) water b) carbon dioxide c) nucleotides d) sunlight
197. The products of the light dependent stages of photosynthesis are: a) ATP, NADH b) ATP, NADPH c)
ADP, ATP d)ATP, NADP+
198. The ________cycle is part of photosynthesis that makes glucose while the _________ cycle of cellular
respiration helps break down glucose. a) calvin, krebs b) krebs, calvin c)G3P, citric acid d) ETC, calvin
199. When oxygen is present, the correct sequence in the stages of cellular respiration would be…
a. glycolysis, fermentation, Krebs cycle b. Krebs cycle, fermentation, glycolysis c. electron
transport chain, glycolysis, fermentation d. glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain
200. Glycolysis takes place inside the a. mitochondria
b. chloroplast
c. cytoplasm
d. Golgi
201. Which organism is most likely to use anaerobic respiration? A) Bird B) moss C) tree D) yeast
202.. The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is A) ATP B) NADPH C) oxygen D) water
203. Which of these products is formed during the metabolic reactions of cellular respiration? A) Fructose B)
Glucose C) Oxygen D) Water
204.. Energy from food must be transformed into the bonds of ________ before it can be used by cells. A)
ATP B) GNC C) ADP D) cellulose
205. Bacteria like Lactobacillus acidophilus use sugar as an energy source for anaerobic cellular respiration.
The process produces much less ATP that aerobic respiration. It does, however, give yogurt its sour taste
and prevents other food spoiling bacteria from developing. This is a description of A) phosphorylation B)
alcohol fermentation C) lactic acid fermentation D) electron transport system
206. During bread making, _____________ by yeast produces _______ which makes the bread rise. A) water
respiration, oxygen B) lactic acid fermentation, sugar C) alcoholic fermentation, oxygen D) alcoholic
fermentation, carbon dioxide
207. Bacteria, like the Lactobacillus acidophilus use sugar as an energy source for anaerobic cellular respiration.
This process produces much less ATP than aerobic respiration and does not produce carbon dioxide as a
by-product. It does, however, give yogurt its sour taste and prevents other food spoiling bacteria from
developing. This is a description of
A) phosphorylation. B) alcohol fermentation C) lactic acid fermentation. D) electron transport system.
208. Plant cells make their own food by taking in A) oxygen and water B) oxygen and hydrogen C) carbon
dioxide and water D) carbon dioxide and oxygen
209. In cellular respiration ______ ATP molecules must be input to initiate the process of glycolysis.
A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 6
210. During the first step of cellular respiration, glucose is converted into A) ATP B) NADPH C) pyruvic
acid (pyruvate) D) citric acid
.211.This type of molecule is the MOST common energy source for all cells and enters the cell by facilitated
diffusion. The molecule is A) DNA B) a lipid C) glucose D) a protein
212. Plants turn Carbon dioxide into which organic molecule
A) lipid B) protein C) carbohydrate D) nucleic acid
213. Carotenoids are red, orange, or yellow pigments found in many plants. We know that plants contain
chlorophyll a and b. What is the benefit of having multiple pigments within the leaves of plants? A) So
plants will have exceptional fall color. B) Only the carotenoids absorbed solar energy. C) The more
pigments, the more solar energy absorbed. D) The accessory pigments are responsible for photosynthesis
in the winter
214. Cells produce ATP both aerobically and anaerobically. One process is an integral part of aerobic
respiration that produces the majority of ATP molecules. That process is A) glycolysis B)fermentation C)
Krebs cycle D) electron transport chain
215. During metabolism, the complete breakdown of one molecule of glucose results in a maximum yield of 38
molecules of a) ADP b) ATP c) GTP d) NADH
Evolution
216. What is the major source of new alleles in a natural population?
a. Mutations in somatic cells
b. mutations in sex cells c. adaptations in individual organisms d. trait
selection by natural selection
217. Some large snakes, such as pythons, have small internal leg bones. These bones are examples of what?
a. Extinction
b. fossil organs
c. polyploidy
d. vestigial structures
218. Which could be considered biochemical evidence of an evolutionary relationship?
a. Absence of vestigial structures b. presence of embryonic gill slits c. similar anatomical
structures d. presence of identical proteins
219 To which of the following does convergent evolution lead?
a. Shared homologous characters b. infertile hybrid offspring c. shared analogous characters
fertile cladistic offspring
220. According to fossil records, the horses that lived 50 million years ago were much smaller, weaker and
slower than modern horses. Which process is most likely responsible for the changes that have led to the
increased size, strength, and speed in horses?
a. commensalism b. inbreeding c. migration d. evolution by natural selection
d.
221. The hypothesis that evolution occurs at a slow, constant rate is known as
a. directional evolution b. punctuated equilibrium c. gradualism d. natural selection
222.. The hypothesis that evolution occurs at an irregular rate through time is known as
a. directional evolution b. punctuated equilibrium c. gradualism d. natural selection
223. Over many generations, unrelated or distantly related species may come to resemble each other due to
a. competition with each other b. homologous structural adaptations c. similar genetic mutations d. similar
environmental factors
224. Which fossil is the youngest?
A. 1 b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
225. Over an extended period of time, what would most likely happen to a population of squirrels separated by
a river at the bottom of an 1800-meter-deep canyon?
a. The population would become extinct b. Two
separate species would form c. The two populations would remain the same d. The population would
undergo an accelerated rate of mutations.
226. An aquatic food web consists of phytoplankton → krill → seals → sharks. The removal of which
component is MOST LIKELY to cause an immediate impact on the food web?
A) phytoplankton B) krill C) seals D) sharks
227. Which statement best describes the composition and function of proteins in organisms?
A) long chains of hydrocarbons used for digestion and respiration B) sugars and starches that provide
energy for metabolic processes C) fats and oils which are well suited for long term energy storage D) long
chains of amino acids used for building, repair, and maintenance
228. All of the following circumstances, except ___ can produce new combinations of genetic traits in sperm
and eggs that are different from the parents. A) errors during meiosis B) errors during mitosis C) crossing
over during meiosis D) mutations due to exposure to chemicals
229. Sal was very sick with a bacterial infection she took antibiotics and seemed to get well, but in a few
weeks, she was sick again. How can this be explained using natural selection? A) The antibiotics were
ineffective to this strain of bacteria. B) The stronger, resistant bacteria survived the antibiotics and reproduced.
C) The antibiotics did not kill the bacteria; it only forced them to be dormant. D) Antibiotics will only kill a
portion of the bacteria, no matter how much medicine Sal takes.
230. What is the process of evolution in which different species that are in a close relationship evolve
adaptations that complement each other? A) coevolution B) mass extinction C) adaptive radiation D)
divergent evolution
231. Which term is used to describe body structures that look alike and serve a similar function but are not
descended from a common ancestor? A) Analogous structures B) Vestigial structures C) Evolutionary
features D) Homologous structures
232. Which term describes body structures in different organisms that have different outward appearances
from the same embryonic tissue? A) analogous B) homologous C) remedial D) vestigial
233. Charles Darwin is best known for developing his theory of evolution based on his observation of what
characteristic A) beaks of finches B) scales of snakes C) necks of giraffes D) trunks of elephants
234. Scientists believe the first giraffes on Earth had shorter legs and a shorter neck than giraffes today. What
can you conclude about these first giraffes? A) They ate meat and leaves from trees. B) They had food
sources that were low to the ground. C) They found it necessary to flee quickly from predators. D) They had
abundant sources of water from which to drink.
235. The distribution of related animals and plants across the world A) shows that many organisms were
distributed at random B) provides evidence that many evolved from common ancestors. C) shows that most
evolution probably took place in one common area D) provides evidence that the continents of the Earth have
largely always been in their present positions.
236. Charles Darwin theorized that evolution must occur slowly, over long periods of time. This is a(n) ____
theory. A) catastrophist B) creationist C) gradualist D) punctuated
237. Scientist think that the development of warning coloration in insects is the result of A) parasitism B)
succession C) natural selection D) selective breeding
238. All evolutionary changes that allow a species to change in response to the environment are originally a
result of A) beneficial DNA mutations B) movement to a new environment where survival is easier. C)
cross-breeding with other species of closely related organisms. D) adaptations that organisms choose to make
to the environment during their lifetimes.
239. When an existing population of organisms gives rise to two or more new species, the new species cannot
effectively breed with one another. Which term is used to describe this phenomenon? A) adaptive seclusion
B) species limitation C) reproductive isolation D) competitive exclusion principle
240. According to Darwin’s theory of evolution, which organisms are BEST able to survive in nature? A)
those with the best camouflage and coloration B) organisms that possess the greatest number of mutations C)
those that possess characteristics acquired during their lifetime D) organisms that possess overall
characteristics best suited to their environment.
241. The genetic information in human and chimpanzee DNA shows a high degree of similarity. What is an
explanation for this similarity? A) They evolved from each other B) They evolved at the same time. C) They
evolved from a common ancestor. D) a mutation occurred that made our DNA similar
242. The peppered moth has alleles that can make it light or dark in coloration. During the Industrial
Revolution, the dark peppered moth had an advantage because it A) was larger and hardier. B) reproduced
easily and quickly C) was poisonous to many of its predators D) blended in with the soot from the factories.
243. Stabilizing selection tend to A) eliminate or decrease any extreme expression of a trait in a population B)
increase genetic diversity C) increase the frequency of mutations D) increase the frequency of two rare
alleles.
244. Divergent evolution happens as a result of similar organisms moving out to different environments and
through natural selection changing over time to reflect characteristics that are more suited to the different
environments this leads to __________ A) homologous structures B) analogous structures C) vestigial
structures D) little differences between once similar organisms.
245. A mule is an example of ____. A) prezygotic isolation B) postzygotic isolation C) a new species D)
speciation.
246. In 1957, some Formosan termites were accidentally brought to the US from Asia. These termites were cut
off from breeding with termites in their native Asia. How does this isolation impact the potential evolutionary
development of the termites in the US? A) termites in the US and Asia will evolve at exactly the same rate
since they are one species. B) termites in the US and Asia will evolve differently because the termites in the US
will have more mutations. C) termites are unlikely to evolve in either the US or Asia since both have existed
for millions of years. D) since the termites in the US and Asia are reproductively isolated from one another,
they may evolve in different ways.
247. There are no living species of hippos that are medium-sized only large and pigmy. Which term is used to
describe evolutionary selection which results in greater numbers of individuals at the extremes of the
distribution and few at the center of the distribution? A. disruptive B. directional C. stabilizing D. sexual
248. According to Darwin's model of evolution, evolution can only occur if there is some variation present
among the individual members of a population. Which statement BEST describes the source of this variation
among members of a species? A) Individuals will vary depending on geography and climate. B) Variation
exists because not all genes will be expressed. C) Variation among individuals may arise as a result of
mutations in the genetic code. D) Variation exists because different individuals will have different access to
food and other resources.
249. In a given field butterflies prefer plants of medium height, birds prefer only tall plants and bees are
attracted to short plants. If a pesticide is sprayed that kills all the butterflies then the medium height plants will
be selected against because of lack of a pollinator. The field now has more tall and small plants this would be
an example of ___ selection.
A) directional B) disruptive C) environmental D) stabilizing
250. Somatic mutations affect the _________ while germ or gamete mutations affect the______.
A) offspring, body B) body, offspring C) body, body D) body, DNA
Ecology
251. In 1859, two dozen rabbits were introduced to Australia. By 1953 there were an estimated one billion
rabbits in Australia. The rabbits caused many problems to the ecosystem by decreasing the native plants. They
left little food for native animals. This is an example of how A) diversity improves an established ecosystem.
B) genetic variation leads to the formation of a new species. C) the introduction of a non-native species upsets
a balanced ecosystem. D) changing in one part of a system does not affect other parts
252. A volcanic island experienced an eruption that doubled its size. Which of the following would you expect
to observe on the new land within a few months of the eruption?
a. The presence of pioneer species
b. the lack of pioneer species c. an increased growth of trees and
large plants d. the presence of rich organic soil
253. Water is cycled from the ground to the atmosphere through a process known as
a. Photosynthesis b. precipitation c. respiration d. transpiration
254. Grizzly bears, snakes, and worms can all be members of the same
a. Species b. trophic level c. ecosystem
d. population
255. How would an ecosystem with few recycling organisms be affected? a. It would be able to support more
life b. It would have more materials and resources available c. It would have fewer materials available to
organisms d. It would contain more plants
256. Mistletoe grows on trees. It sends its roots into the tree and uses the nutrients that could otherwise be used
by the tree. What kind of relationship is this? a. commensalism b. mutualism c. parasitism d. predation
257. Which of the following circumstances will allow a population to grow? a. Emigration is greater than
immigration b. birth rate is equal to death rate c. death rate is higher than birth rate
d. birth rate is
greater than death rate
258. Which of the following is a result of the heat-trapping ability of some gases in the atmosphere?
a. Acid rain b. greenhouse effect
c. creation of CFCs d. increased levels of ultraviolet radiation
259. In which biogeochemical cycle do the symbiotic bacteria in the roots of many plans play an important
role? a. Carbon cycle b. nitrogen cycle c. phosphorus cycle d. water cycle
260. Crops are protected from disease-causing fungi by use of fungicides or by the use of genetically
engineered fungi-resistant crops. Which statement BEST describes how the two techniques differ in reducing
fungal infestations of crop plants? A. Fungicides kill plants infected with fungi, while genetic engineering
modifies fungal DNA. B) Fungicides kill the source of food for fungi, while genetic engineering helps to
make fungi-infected plants edible. C) Fungicides interfere with fungal growth and reproduction, while genetic
engineering produces plants resistant to fungi. D) Fungicides change fungal DNA, while genetic engineering
helps the crops and the fungi to form a symbiotic relationship.
261. Refer to the graph what is happening to the rabbit population around August 1st
a.. The rabbits are not reproducing so the line is constant b. the death rate is higher than the birth rate c. the
rabbits have all died off d. they have reached carrying capacity
262. What happens to a population when carrying capacity is reached? a. The population dies off b. the birth
rates are higher than the death rates c. the death rates are higher than the birth rates d. the birth and death
rates are equal
263. Which situation would result in the greatest increase in the human population?
a. Decreased birth rate and increased death rate b. increased infant mortality and decreased death rate c.
decreased death rate and increased birth rate d. increased birth rate and increased infant mortality
264. In a forest ecosystem, which is an abiotic factor?
a. The amount of rainfall b. the size of the deer c. the type of trees d. the number of birds
265. In the carbon cycle, atmospheric carbon dioxide is converted into organic material by which process?
a. Cellular respiration
b. decomposition c. photosynthesis d. transpiration
266. Why do ecosystems rarely contain more than a few trophic levels?
a. Energy transfer efficiency is high
b. Energy transfer efficiency is low c. Energy amounts remain
constant d. Energy cannot flow through levels
267. Recent climate data suggests a global warming trend. The most likely cause could be an increase in which
gas?
a. Oxygen
b. carbon dioxide
c. nitrogen d. hydrogen sulfide
268. Which relationship illustrates mutualism? a. a tick feeding on a dog b. a vine that climbs a tree in order
to capture sunlight c. the mitochondria found in a human muscle cell d. a nonpoisonous snake that mimics
the color of a poisonous snake
269. In a population of clover flowers, there are both white and purple varieties. The cows that graze the field
where the clovers grow prefer the purple variety. Over time, the white clover flowers become much more
numerous and the purple ones more scarce. This is an example of what process?
a. Evolution b. commensalism
c. natural selection
d. competition
270. An animal that feeds on plants is, at least, in which of the following?
a. first trophic level b. second trophic level c. third trophic level d. fourth trophic level
271. Scientists have genetically engineered corn to contain a gene from a bacterium that produces a toxin that
can kill the European corn borer. (a pest that causes major damage to corn crops) Based on the above
information, which of the following represents a potential concern associated with using the engineered corn?
a. The corn will be more susceptible to damage from the corn borer b. The corn will require more irrigation,
which will cost farmers more money c. The corn may kill other insects that eat the corn, affecting the
ecosystem in the area d. The corn will grow much more quickly than other corn crops, outcompeting native
plants.
272. A crab carries a pair of sea anemones on its claws. The crab uses the anemone as protection and the
anemone obtains small food particles released by the crab as it feeds. Which type of symbiotic relationship
does this best illustrate? A) Commensalism B) mutualism C) parasitism D) predation
273. Which substance is considered to be a factor affecting the Earth’s ozone layer?
A) Chlorofluorocarbons B) ethyl alcohol C) nitrogen gas D) water vapor
274. In an ecosystem, which is the most likely reason for an increase in the producer population if there is an
increase in the carnivore population? A) fewer herbivores B) higher temperatures C) less food D) more
oxygen
275. In an aquatic habitat an example of organisms from the pioneer community would be
A) grass B) water reeds C) algae D) water lilies
276. The correct order of stages in the primary succession of a volcanic island environment is illustrated by
A) shrubs-mosses- coconut trees- sea grasses B) volcanic rock-lichen-mosses- sea grasses C) volcanic
rock- shrubs-coconut trees –sea grasses D) volcanic rock-sea grasses- coconut trees – shrubs
277. Excess carbon gases released into the atmosphere cause additional radiation to be retained and Earth’s
temperature increases. This phenomenon is known as A) solar radiation B) ozone layer C) greenhouse
effect D) air pollution
278. In many areas of the US the rate of soil erosion is greater than the rate of soil formation. Soil should then
be considered a _________ resource. A) renewable B) non-renewable C) natural D) recyclable
279. All of the following statements about bacteria are true EXCEPT A) a number of useful pharmaceutical
drugs are made by bacteria. B) they are thought to be the first group of photosynthetic organisms. C) Bacteria
are the only group of organisms that can fix nitrogen into the soil D) the majority of bacteria on Earth can
cause disease if given the opportunity.
280. How much energy is available to organisms A) 20% of the trophic level before it B) 10% of the trophic
level before it C) 10% of the trophic level after it D) 50% of the trophic level before it.
281. The selective breeding of wild mustard has _________ _________ and produced at least four other
vegetable crops. A) increased biodiversity B) decreased biodiversity C) maintained biodiversity D)
eliminated biodiversity
Practice Test
282.Animals play a role in the hydrologic cycle by a) fixation b)respiration c) transpiration d) photosynthesis
283. During translation amino acids bind to a) DNA
b)mRNA c) rRNA d) tRNA
284. Organs consist of many tissues what is different about these tissues at the cellular level? A) activation of
specific genes b) # of chromosomes c) process for transcription d)types of DNA bases