Download Comprehenexam- - HCC Learning Web

Houston Community College –Southwest
Gen. Biol 1406. Take-home exam.
Instructor: Dr. Joseph Mathew
Comprehensive
1) List sequences that represent the hierarchy of biological organization from the least to the
most complex level? _____ ______ ______ _______ ______ _____ ______
2) A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called a ____________
3) The main source of energy for producers in an ecosystem is _________________
4) The lowest level of biological organization that can perform all the activities required for life
is the ____________________
5) A type of protein critical to all cells is organic (biologic) catalysts called _______________
6) Which branch of biology is concerned with the naming and classifying of organisms? ______
7) A water sample from a hot thermal vent contained a single-celled organism that had a cell
wall but lacked a nucleus. What is its most likely classification? ____________
8) What is a hypothesis? ______________________________________________
9) The application of scientific knowledge for some specific purpose is known as _________
10) About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25
elements make up approximately 96% of living matter? _______________________________
11) What is the approximate atomic mass of an atom with 16 neutrons, 15 protons, and 15
electrons? _____________________
12) What term best describes the relationship between the atoms described below?
Atom 1
31
15 P
Atom 2
32
15 P
________
13) Electrons exist only at fixed levels of potential energy. However, if an atom absorbs
sufficient energy, a possible result is that _______________________________
Use the information extracted from the periodic table in Figure 2.2 to answer the following
questions.
Figure 2.2
1
14) How many electrons does nitrogen have in its valence shell? _______________
15) How many electrons does phosphorus have in its valence shell? _________________
16) How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of a phosphorus atom? ________________
17) Based on electron configuration, which of these elements would exhibit chemical behavior
most like that of oxygen? __________________
18) What is the maximum number of covalent bonds an element with atomic number 8 can make
with hydrogen? ____________________
19) Name a compound that contains strong polar covalent bond. __________________
The following questions refer to Figure 2.3.
Figure 2.3
20) What is the atomic number of the cation formed in the reaction illustrated in Figure 2.3? ___
21) What gives rise to the cohesiveness of water molecules? ____________________
22) At what temperature is water at its densest?____________ Why? _______________
23) How will make a liter of one mole glucose solution?
________________________________________________________________24) The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain that functions in aerobic oxidative
phosphorylation is _____________________
25) How many times will the acidity of a solution increase/decrease if the pH of a solution is
increased from pH 5 to pH 7? ___________________________
26) What is a buffer? ________________________________________
27) List 3 differences between DNA and RNA.
______________________ ___________________________ ___________________
28) Why are hydrocarbons hydrophobic?
____________________________________________________________________
29) Draw the structure of the amino acid Cysteine. Label the amino group, carboxyl group and
the sulphydril group.
2
30) Plants store carbohydrate as a polymer called _______________ while animals store
carbohydrates as a polymer called _________________
31) How will you distinguish between hydrolysis and dehydration reactions? Give an example
each. _______________________________________________________________
32) The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a
molecule made by linking three glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?
_____________________________________________________________________________
33) There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?
34) If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5'ATTGCA3', the other
complementary strand would have the sequence ____________________
35) Name the compound that is the major structural components of the cell membrane. _______
36) In order for a protein to be an integral membrane protein it would have to be _________
37) What kind of proteins often serve as receptors or cell recognition molecules on cell
surfaces? __________________
38) What kinds of molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily? ______________
39) Define diffusion __________________________________________________________
40) Define Osmosis _______________________________________________________
41) Water passes quickly through cell membranes because a protein called ______________
.
42) White blood cells engulf bacteria through what process? ___________________
43) When plant cells are placed in hypertonic solution plasma membrane pulls away
from the cell wall. This condition is called
____________________
44) Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules
into smaller ones? _____________________
45) Define the first law of thermodynamics. __________________________________
46) Whenever energy is transformed, there is always an increase in the _______________
.
3
47) If an enzyme solution is saturated with substrate, the most effective way to obtain a faster
yield of products is to ______________________________
48) What term is used to describe the transfer of free energy from catabolic pathways to anabolic
pathways? ________________________________
49) Define ‘Feedback Inhibition’ _____________________________________________
50) Cyanide binds with at least one molecule involved in producing ATP. If a cell is exposed to
cyanide, most of the cyanide would be found within the __________________
51) Name the products of the following reactions:
I. Glycolysis ________________ __________________
__________________
II. Citric Acid Cycle __________________ _________________ _________________
III. Oxidative phosphorylation ______________ ________________ ____________
IV. Fermentation.
____________________ ____________________ ___________________
52) A
small molecule that specifically binds to receptors on cell surface is called ___________
53) The three stages of cell signaling (action of a ligand on a target cell) include: ____ ____ __
54) Membrane receptors that attach phosphates to specific amino acids in proteins are ________
55) Caffeine is an inhibitor of phosphodiesterase. Therefore, the cells of a person who has
recently consumed coffee would have increased levels of _____________
A) phosphorylated proteins.
B) GTP.
C) cAMP.
D) adenylyl cyclase.
E) activated G proteins.
56) Define Apoptosis. ______________________________________________
57) List 3 events that take place during Prophase of cell division _______ ______ ______
58) Name an event that takes place during each of the following process of cell dividsion
Metaphase _____________________________
Anaphase ______________________________
Telophase _______________________________
Cytokinesis. _____________________________
59) The centromere is a region in which ________________________________________
60) Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant and animal
cells? ____________________________
A) centromere
B) centrosome C) nucleus
D) chromatid
E) kinetochore
61) The formation of a cell plate is beginning across the middle of a cell and nuclei are reforming at opposite ends of the cell. What kind of cell is this? ___________________
4
62) During which phases of cell cycle are chromosomes composed of two chromatids? _______
63) The somatic cells of our body are derived from a single-celled zygote by which process?
A) meiosis
B) mitosis
C) replication
D) cytokinesis alone E) binary fission
64) Cells that are in a nondividing state are in which phase? _________________
A) G0
B) G2
C) G1
D) S
E) M
65) Which of the following is released by blood platelets in the vicinity of an injury? _______
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk
66) Name the protein synthesized at specific times during the cell cycle that associates with a
kinase to form a catalytically active complex (MPF)? ____________________
67) What is a genome? _________________________________________________________
68) Asexual reproduction results in identical offspring unless _____________ occurs?
69) What is a karyotype? _________________________________________
70) For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations
of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes? ___________________
71) Which life cycle stage is found in some plants but not animals? ___________________
72) Chiasmata are what we see under a microscope that let us know which of the following has
occurred? ______________________
73) How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an
individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE? ______________________
74) A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for
tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete
from this organism? _______ (A) HT
B) Hh
C) HhTt
D) T
E) tt)
75) When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with a
heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive
phenotype? ____________
76) In a cross AaBbCc × AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABBCC?
A) ¼
B) 1/8
C) 1/16
D) 1/32
E) 1/64
77) Which describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects? ________
78) Which of the following terms best describes when the phenotype of the heterozygote differs
from the phenotypes of both homozygotes?
5
A) Incomplete dominance
B) Multiple alleles
C) Pleiotropy
D) Epistasis
79) When a disease is said to have a multifactorial basis, it means that _________________
A) both genetic and environmental factors contribute to the disease.
B) it is caused by a gene with a large number of alleles.
C) it affects a large number of people.
D) it has many different symptoms.
E) it tends to skip a generation.
80) A man with Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY) is expected to have any of the following
EXCEPT
A) lower sperm count.
B) possible breast enlargement.
C) long limbs
D) increased testosterone.
E) female body characteristics.
81) A woman is found to have 47 chromosomes, including 3 X chromosomes. Which of the
following describes her expected phenotype? ______________
A) Masculine characteristics such as facial hair
B) Enlarged genital structures
C) Excessive emotional instability
D) Normal female
E) Sterile female
82) What is the chromosomal system of sex determination in most species of ants and bees? ___
83) Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. Two people with normal
color vision have a color-blind son. What are the genotypes of the parents?
A) XcXc and XcY
B) XcXc and XCY
C) XC XC and XcY
D) XCXC and XCY
E) XCXc and XCY
84) Cinnabar eyes is a sex-linked recessive characteristic in fruit flies. If a female having
cinnabar eyes is crossed with a wild-type male, what percentage of the F1 males will have
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
cinnabar eyes? _____A) 0%
85) The following is a map of four genes on a chromosome:
Figure 27.1
Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination? ______
What is the reason that linked genes are inherited together? ____________________
86) A cell that has 2n + 1 chromosomes is ____________________
87) One possible result of chromosomal breakage is for a fragment to join a nonhomologous
chromosome. What is this alteration called? _____________________________
88) Match the following:
6
1) Gene
2) Allele
3) Character
4) Trait
5) Dominant allele
A) An alternative version of a gene
B) A variant for a character
C) A cross between individuals heterozygous for a single character
D) A heritable feature that varies among individuals
E) A heritable unit that determines a character and can exist in
different forms.
6) Recessive allele
F) Having two identical alleles for a gene
7) Genotype
G) Determines phenotype in a heterozygote
8) Phenotype
H) Has no effect on phenotype in a heterozygote
9) Homozygous
I) An organism's appearance or observable traits
10) Heterozygous
J) The genetic makeup of an individual
11) Testcross
K) A cross between an individual with an unknown genotype and a
homozygous recessive individual
12) Monohybrid cross L) Having two different alleles for a gene
Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism.
Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine? ______
89)
90) Name the following:
A. In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around _____________________
B. What kind of chemical bond is found between paired bases of the DNA double helix? ____
C. Which of the following separates the DNA strands during replication? __________
D. Which of the following covalently connects segments of DNA? _________________
E. Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5' → 3' direction? _____
F. Which of the following help to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated?
91. What are polyribosomes? _______________________
92. A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 5' AGT 3'. The corresponding
codon for the mRNA transcribed is _____________
93. The nitrogenous base adenine is found in all members of which group?
A) proteins, triglycerides, and testosterone
B) proteins, ATP, and DNA
C) ATP, RNA, and DNA
D) alpha glucose, ATP, and DNA
94. What is a ribozyme? _____________________________
95. What are the coding segments of a stretch of eukaryotic DNA called? _____________
96. Sickle-cell disease is probably the result of which kind of mutation? __________
A) point
B) frameshift
C) nonsense D) nondisjunction
E) both B and D
97. A mutation in this section of DNA could influence the binding of RNA polymerase to the
DNA: _______________________
A) operon
B) inducer
C) promoter
D) repressor
E) corepressor
98. Muscle cells and nerve cells in one species of animal owe their differences in structure to
7
A) having different genes.
C) using different genetic codes.
E) having unique ribosomes.
99.
B) having different chromosomes.
D) having different genes expressed.
DNA methylation, and histone acetylation are examples of _______________
100. Approximately what proportion of the DNA in the human genome codes for proteins or
functional RNA? ________________
A) 83%
B) 46%
C) 32%
D) 13%
E) 1.5%
101. What would occur if the repressor of an inducible operon were mutated so it could not bind
the operator? ________________________________
102. The general process that leads to the differentiation of cells is called ______________
103. The product of the bicoid gene in Drosophila provides essential information about _______
.
104. What is the name given to viruses that are single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for
DNA synthesis? _________________________
105. The functioning of enhancers is an example of
A) transcriptional control of gene expression.
B) a post-transcriptional mechanism for editing mRNA.
C) the stimulation of translation by initiation factors.
D) post-translational control that activates certain proteins.
E) a eukaryotic equivalent of prokaryotic promoter functioning.
106. Why are viruses referred to as obligate parasites? __________________________
107. What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses? _______________________
.
Figure 20.1
108. Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in Figure 20.1? __________________
109. Name the process that produces multiple identical copies of a gene for basic research or for
large-scale production of a gene product? _____________________________
110. Name the enzyme used to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA?
8
111. Name the process that separates molecules by movement due to size and electrical charge?
__________________________
112. Which was developed by a British researcher and causes DNA sequences to be transferred
to a membrane and identified with a probe? _____________________
A) Southern blotting
B) Northern blotting
C) Western blotting
D) Eastern blotting
E) RT-PCR
113. Plants are more readily manipulated by genetic engineering than are animals because
114. DNA evidence collected from crime scenes is usually too little to perform direct analysis
such as the saliva on a cigarette butt. Name the process used for increasing the amount of DNA
available for testing? ________________________
115. Modern structure of DNA was proposed in 1953 by _________________________
116. How might identical and obviously duplicated gene sequences have gotten from one
chromosome to another? ____________________________
117. What is proteomics? ________________________________________________
118. What is the difference between a linkage map and a physical map?
A) For a linkage map, markers are spaced by recombination frequency, whereas for a physical
map they are spaced by numbers of base pairs (bp).
B) For a physical map, ATCG order and sequence must be achieved, but not for the linkage map.
C) For a linkage map, it is shown how each gene is linked to every other gene.
D) For a physical map, the distances must be calculable in units such as nanometers.
E) There is no difference between the two except in the type of pictorial representation.
119. Which of the following most correctly describes a shotgun technique for sequencing a
genome?
A) genetic mapping followed immediately by sequencing
B) physical mapping followed immediately by sequencing
C) cloning large genome fragments into very large vectors such as YACs, followed by
sequencing
D) cloning several sizes of fragments into various size vectors, ordering the clones, and then
sequencing them
E) cloning the whole genome directly, from one end to the other
120. When does exon shuffling occur?
A) during splicing of DNA
B) during mitotic recombination
C) as an alternative splicing pattern in post-transcriptional processing
D) as an alternative cleavage or modification post-translationally
E) as the result of faulty DNA repair
9
121. Multigene families are
A) groups of enhancers that control transcription.
B) usually clustered at the telomeres.
C) equivalent to the operons of prokaryotes.
D) sets of genes that are coordinately controlled.
E) identical or similar genes that have evolved by gene duplication
122) Where do the enzymatic reactions of the Calvin cycle take place?
A) stroma of the chloroplast
B) thylakoid membranes
C) outer membrane of the chloroplast
D) electron transport chain
E) thylakoid space
123) In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthase complexes located?
A) thylakoid membrane
B) plasma membrane
C) inner mitochondrial membrane
D) A and C
E) A, B, and C
124) Define Glycolysis. _________________________________________
125. Where does it take place? _______________________________
_______________________________________________________________________
Bonus Questions
I) In the thylakoid membranes, what is the main role of the antenna pigment molecules?
A) split water and release oxygen to the reaction-center chlorophyll
B) harvest photons and transfer light energy to the reaction-center chlorophyll
C) synthesize ATP from ADP and Pi
D) transfer electrons to ferredoxin and then NADPH
E) concentrate photons within the stroma
II) Which of the events listed below occur in the light reactions of photosynthesis?
A) NADP is produced.
B) NADPH is reduced to NADP+.
C) carbon dioxide is incorporated into PGA.
D) ATP is phosphorylated to yield ADP.
E) light is absorbed and funneled to reaction-center chlorophyll a.
III) Which statement describes the functioning of photosystem II?
A) Light energy excites electrons in the electron transport chain in a photosynthetic unit.
B) The excitation is passed along to a molecule of P700 chlorophyll in the photosynthetic unit.
C) The P680 chlorophyll donates a pair of protons to NADPH, which is thus converted to
NADP+.
10
D) The electron vacancies in P680 are filled by electrons derived from water.
E) The splitting of water yields molecular carbon dioxide as a by-product.
IV) Which of the following are directly associated with photosystem I?
A) harvesting of light energy by ATP
B) receiving electrons from plastocyanin
C) P680 reaction-center chlorophyll
D) extraction of hydrogen electrons from the splitting of water
E) passing electrons to plastoquinone
V) Some photosynthetic organisms contain chloroplasts that lack photosystem II, yet are able to
survive. The best way to detect the lack of photosystem II in these organisms would be
A) to determine if they have thylakoids in the chloroplasts.
B) to test for liberation of O2 in the light.
C) to test for CO2 fixation in the dark.
D) to do experiments to generate an action spectrum.
E) to test for production of either sucrose or starch.
VI) As a research scientist, you measure the amount of ATP and NADPH consumed by the
Calvin cycle in 1 hour. You find 30,000 molecules of ATP consumed, but only 20,000 molecules
of NADPH. Where did the extra ATP molecules come from?
A) photosystem II
B) photosystem I
C) cyclic electron flow
D) linear electron flow
E) chlorophyll
VII) Assume a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer
separated from the stroma. This damage will have the most direct effect on which of the
following processes?
A) the splitting of water
B) the absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
C) the flow of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I
D) the synthesis of ATP
E) the reduction of NADP+
VIII) What does the chemiosmotic process in chloroplasts involve?
A) establishment of a proton gradient
B) diffusion of electrons through the thylakoid membrane
C) reduction of water to produce ATP energy
D) movement of water by osmosis into the thylakoid space from the stroma
E) formation of glucose, using carbon dioxide, NADPH, and ATP
IX) In mitochondria, chemiosmosis translocates protons from the matrix into the intermembrane
space, whereas in chloroplasts, chemiosmosis translocates protons from
A) the stroma to the photosystem II.
B) the matrix to the stroma.
C) the stroma to the thylakoid space.
D) the intermembrane space to the matrix.
E) ATP synthase to NADP+ reductase.
X) What is the purpose of beta oxidation in respiration?
A) oxidation of glucose
B) oxidation of pyruvate
C) feedback regulation
D) control of ATP accumulation
E) breakdown of fatty acids
11
XI) Where do the catabolic products of fatty acid breakdown enter into the citric acid cycle?
A) pyruvate
B) malate or fumarate
C) acetyl CoA
D) α-ketoglutarate
E) succinyl CoA
XII) The splitting of carbon dioxide to form oxygen gas and carbon compounds occurs during
A) photosynthesis.
B) respiration.
C) both photosynthesis and respiration.
D) neither photosynthesis nor respiration.
E) photorespiration
XII) When muscle cells undergo anaerobic respiration, they become fatigued and painful. This is
now known to be caused by
A) buildup of pyruvate.
B) buildup of lactate. C) increase in sodium ions.
D) increase in potassium ions.
E) increase in ethanol.
XIII) You have a friend who lost 7 kg (about 15 pounds) of fat on a "low carb" diet. How did the
fat leave her body?
A) It was released as CO2 and H2O.
B) Chemical energy was converted to heat and then released.
C) It was converted to ATP, which weighs much less than fat.
D) It was broken down to amino acids and eliminated from the body.
E) It was converted to urine and eliminated from the body.
XIV) What is the reducing agent in the following reaction?
Pyruvate + NADH + H+ → Lactate + NAD+
A) oxygen
B) NADH
C) NAD+
D) lactate
E) pyruvate
XV) The immediate energy source that drives ATP synthesis by ATP synthase during oxidative
phosphorylation is
A) the oxidation of glucose and other organic compounds.
B) the flow of electrons down the electron transport chain.
C) the affinity of oxygen for electrons.
D) the H+ concentration gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
E) the transfer of phosphate to ADP.
12
For Review
following questions are based on the 15 molecules illustrated in Figure 5.8. Each molecule
may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
The
Figure 5.8
1) Which molecule has hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties and would be found in plasma
membranes? _____________________
2) Which of the following combinations could be linked together to form a nucleotide? ______
3) Which of the following molecules contain(s) an aldehyde type of carbonyl functional group?
4) Which molecule is glycerol? ______________
5) Which molecule is a saturated fatty acid? _____________
13
6) Which of the molecules is a purine type of nitrogenous base? ________
7) Which of the molecules act as building blocks (monomers) of polypeptides?
8) Which of the molecules is an amino acid with a hydrophobic R group or side chain?
________________
9) Which of the molecules could be joined together by a peptide bond as a result of a dehydration
reaction? ______________
10) A fat (or triacylglycerol) would be formed as a result of a dehydration reaction between
11) Which of the molecules could be joined together by a phosphodiester type of covalent bond?
14