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BIOLOGICAL PSYCHOLOGY I (2012 sec 003)
MIDTERM EXAM 3 (Practice exam)
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1. Muscular actin and myosin filaments are important for which function?
a) the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
b) the transport of neurotransmitter receptors.
c) the re-uptake of calcium.
d) the production of endplate potentials.
e) muscle fiber contraction (twitch).
2. What is the name of the specific motor neurons that contact extrafusal (striate) muscle fibers called?
a) gamma motor neurons.
b) delta motor neurons.
c) alpha motor neurons.
d) kappa motor neurons.
e) theta motor neurons.
3. About how many motor neurons could be contained in a large motor unit?
a) 1.
b) from 3 to 5.
c) up to 2000.
d) 100.
e) up to 10 000.
4. Which neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction?
a) lactic acid.
b) nicotine.
c) muscarine.
d) acetylcholine.
e) glutamate.
5. The cell bodies of motor neurons that innervate (project to) muscles of the legs are located where?
a) dorsal horn of spinal cord.
b) ventral horn of spinal cord.
c) dorsal root ganglia.
d) the primary motor cortex.
e) none of the above.
6. In somatosensation, “two-point discrimination/sensitivity” is greatest on:
a) hairy skin.
b) smooth skin.
c) glabrous skin.
d) epidermal skin.
e) tough skin.
7. Which of the following receptors is most responsive to pain and temperature?
a) pacinian corpuscules
b) golgi tendon organs.
c) dendrites of alpha motor neurons.
d) merkel’s receptors.
e) free nerve endings.
8. Which of the following is not a major class of somatosensory receptors?
a) hair cells.
b) nocioceptors.
c) proprioceptors.
d) hapsis.
e) none of the above.
9. There are several motor tracts that carry information from the brain to the muscles. What is the name of
the tract that starts in the primary motor cortex and innervates the motor neurons that control the muscles
of the neck and head?
a) reticulospinal tract.
b) tectospinal tract.
c) corticospinal tract.
d) corticobulbar tract.
e) rubrospinal tract.
10. Which receptor is responsible for telling the nervous system how stretched our muscles are?
a) golgi tendon organs.
b) muscle spindles.
c) free nerve endings.
d) Meissner’s corpuscules.
e) joint receptors.
11. Pain in internal organs that is felt as pain at the body surface is known as:
a) transferred pain.
b) relocated pain.
c) referred pain.
d) acquired pain.
e) transposed pain.
12. Your nervous system is built with a safety mechanism that normally prevents you from breaking your
bones and tear your tendons. What is this mechanism called?
a) golgi tendon reflex.
b) monosynaptic reflex.
c) inhibitory reflex.
d) crossed-extensor reflex.
e) joint receptor reflex.
13. Wilder Penfield identified a motor homunculus in the:
a) orbitofrontal cortex.
b) primary motor cortex.
c) basal ganglia.
d) cerebellum.
e) temporal lobe.
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14. Which part of the brain is responsible for planning and initiating voluntary movements?
a) hippocampus.
b) frontal lobe.
c) cerebellum.
d) amygdala.
e) occipital lobe.
15. Our emotional states are often influencing our movements and actions. Which part of the brain is known
to influence our actions based on emotional states?
a) supplementary motor area.
b) premotor area.
c) cingulate motor areas.
d) somatosensory areas.
e) prefrontal motor areas.
16. Normally, most muscles on one side of our body are controlled by:
a) the posterior side of the brain.
b) the anterior side of the brain.
c) the brain bilaterally.
d) the ipsilateral side of the brain.
e) the contralateral side of the brain.
17. Ballistic body movements are controlled by which brain region?
a) the basal ganglia.
b) the motor cortex.
c) the caudate/putamen.
d) the substantia nigra.
e) the cerebellum.
18. Parkinson’s disease is a motor dysfunction produced by neuron cell loss (death) in which part of the
brain?
a) primary motor cortex.
b) cerebellum.
c) globus pallidus.
d) substantia nigra.
e) supplementary motor area.
19. What is the name of the disease of the basal ganglia in which the main symptoms are involuntary
movements and hyperkinesia?
a) Parkinson’s disease.
b) Muscular dystrophy.
c) Huntington’s disease.
d) Multiple sclerosis.
e) Alzheimer’s disease.
20. Which of the following best describes the flow of information in the basal ganglia?
a) neocortex > caudate/putamen > globus pallidus > thalamus > motor cortex.
b) caudate/putamen > thalamus > globus pallidus > neocortex > motor cortex.
c) caudate/putamen > globus pallidus > neocortex > thalamus > motor cortex.
d) motor cortex > neocortex > thalamus > caudate putamen > globus pallidus.
e) globus pallidus > neocortex > thalamus > motor cortex > caudate/putamen.
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21. We have discussed the involvement of several brain regions in the control of voluntary movements.
Damage to which of these regions would be most likely to give rise to the symptom of “reaching (or
action) tremors” (not tremors at rest)?
a) primary motor cortex.
b) primary somatosensory cortex.
c) caudate nucleus.
d) corticospinal tract.
e) cerebellum.
22. Delta waves are associated with which stage of sleep/wakefulness?
a) REM sleep.
b) stage 1.
c) awake.
d) stage 4.
e) drowsy.
23. On the other hand, the fast Beta waves (above 12 Hz) are associated with which stage of
sleep/wakefulness?
a) Stage 3 sleep.
b) Stage 1 sleep.
c) Stage 2 sleep.
d) Stage 4 sleep.
e) Aroused awake.
24. The non-REM sleep stage that provides the lightest sleep is:
a) Stage 4.
b) Stage 5.
c) Stage 1.
d) Stage 3.
e) Stage 2.
25. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of REM sleep?
a) sexual activation.
b) normal muscle tone.
c) vivid, action-packed dreams.
d) desynchronized EEG.
e) PGO spikes present.
26. Sleep is normally cyclical during the night. What is the normal order of the different stages of
sleep, starting when you first go to bed?
a) 1>2>3>4>REM>1>2>3>4.
b) 1>2>3>4>3>2>1>REM.
c) 4>3>2>1>REM>4>3>2>1.
d) REM>1>2>3>4>3>2>1.
e) 4>3>2>1>REM>1>2>3>4.
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27. As mentioned above, sleep is a cyclical phenomenon. How long do each “cycle” of sleep lasts, on
average, in normal individuals?
a) 15 minutes.
b) 30 minutes.
c) 90 minutes.
d) 3 hours.
e) 4 hours.
28. During which part of the night do you normally spend longer in REM sleep?
a) immediately upon going to sleep.
b) two hours after you go to sleep.
c) four hours after you go to sleep.
d) late at night, upon waking up.
e) we spend the same amount of time in REM sleep throughout the night.
29. Which stage of sleep is NORMALLY associated with vivid, action-pack dreams?
a) REM sleep.
b) slow-wave sleep.
c) stage 2 sleep.
d) stage 3 sleep.
e) stage 4 sleep.
30. Theories postulating that sleep permits the body to recover from internal deficits produced by
wakefulness are often referred to as:
a) adaptive theories.
b) circadian theories.
c) passive theories.
d) restorative theories.
e) diurnal theories.
31. The theory that argues that sleep has evolved as an energy conserving strategy to cope with time of low
resources (food supply) is known as the:
a) adaptive theories.
b) circadian theories.
c) passive theories.
d) restorative theories.
e) diurnal theories.
32. Studies of dream content found that most dreams are associated with:
a) sex.
b) happiness.
c) sensations of falling.
d) sadness and anger.
e) strangers.
33. An insomniac is a person who:
a) sleeps excessively.
b) falls asleep without warning.
c) only sleeps during the day.
d) suffers from sleep paralysis attacks.
e) has problems falling asleep.
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34. Sleep paralysis is a sleep disorder where
a) one cannot go into REM sleep.
b) muscle atonia does not occur during REM and people “act out their dreams”.
c) muscle atonia suddenly occurs in an awake, alert individual.
d) one is overcome by a sudden urge to sleep.
e) one loses consciousness and muscle tone.
35. What are lucid dreams?
a) extremely vivid dreams.
b) daytime dreaming.
c) dreams occurring during slow-wave sleep.
d) night terrors.
e) dreams in which dreamer is aware of dreaming.
36. Which of the following statement, with regard to sleeping pills (mild tranquilizers), is correct?
a) use of sleeping pills is often associated with impaired performance during the day.
b) use of sleeping pills has no effect on REM sleep.
c) sleeping pills are not addictive.
d) tolerance does not develop to sleeping pills.
e) cocaine and amphetamines are used as sleeping pills.
37. Which of the following situations could lead to sleep disturbances?
a) you fly to Paris from the United States.
b) your work involves switching between dayshifts (8:00 am-4:00pm) and nightshifts (4:00 pm12:00am).
c) you go to bed every night at 11:00 pm.
d) all of the above.
e) both a and b could lead to sleep disturbances.
38. Which of the following sleep phenomenon is normally experienced only in children?
a) night terrors.
b) insomnia.
c) sleep apnea.
d) narcolepsy.
e) delayed sleep/wake syndrome.
39. What evidence did Bremer obtain for the “passive” control of sleep by the brain?
a) the encephale isole preparation shows abnormal sleep-wake cycle.
b) the cerveau isole preparation, depriving the forebrain of most sensory inputs, shows a slow wave sleep
pattern.
c) lesions of the pontine reticular formation abolish slow-wave sleep.
d) some cholinergic drugs reduce the amount of REM sleep.
e) electrical stimulation of pontine reticular formation awakens cats.
40. Which of the following brain regions has NOT been associated with sleep?
a) the prefrontal cortex.
b) the basal forebrain region.
c) the median raphe nucleus.
d) the peribrachial area.
e) the subcoerulear nucleus.
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41. Which of the following neurotransmitters are likely responsible for desynchronization of the neocortical
EEG (fast Beta waves)?
a) serotonin and dopamine.
b) serotonin and acetylcholine.
c) acetylcholine and dopamine.
d) acetylcholine and GABA.
e) GABA and norepinephrine.
42. Which brainstem nucleus, when lesioned, leads to disruption of muscle atonia such that when
performed in cats, they appear “act their dreams”?
a) the peribrachial area.
b) the medial pontine reticular formation (MPRF).
c) the median raphe nucleus.
d) the cholinergic basal forebrain.
e) the subcoerulear nucleus.
43. Which of the following is NOT a process by which the brain reorganizes itself (neuroplasticity)?
a) neurons get to contact different nerve cells.
b) existing synapses are strengthened.
c) existing synapses are weakened.
d) a neuron starts making a new neurotransmitter.
e) existing synapses are eliminated.
44. If you blindfold a cat’s left eye during early development (critical period), this eye will
a) lose its ability to activate the visual cortex.
b) increase its ability to activate the visual cortex.
c) show no effects.
d) fall out!
e) develop the ability to activate the auditory cortex.
45. Habituation and sensitization are types of
a) classical conditioning.
b) non-associative learning.
c) constrained learning.
d) associative learning.
e) instrumental conditioning.
46. In the marine snail Aplysia, repeated touch to the siphon every 30 seconds for 30 min produces:
a) long-term habituation.
b) long-term sensitization.
c) short-term habituation.
d) short-term sensitization.
e) associative learning.
47. In classical conditioning terminology, what does UCR stand for?
a) unconceivable response.
b) unconditioned reflex.
c) unbelievable response.
d) unconditioned response.
e) unavoidable response.
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48. A dog is conditioned to salivate by repeatedly pairing the sound of a bell with food. According to
classical conditioning terminology, salivation that is elicited by the bell alone once conditioned is
a) a reward.
b) a conditioned response.
c) a reinforcement.
d) an unconditioned response.
e) a discriminatory response.
49. Fear conditioning (conditioning of emotional responses) involves neural circuits in the:
a) hypothalamus.
b) amygdala.
c) frontal lobe.
d) cerebellum.
e) hippocampus.
50. The classical conditioning of skeletal motor responses normally requires:
a) a single pairing.
b) 100’s of pairings.
c) increasing the US intensity.
d) reducing the US intensity.
e) present the CS and US separately.
Exam answers:
1. E
11. C
21. E
31. A
41. B
2. C
12. A
22. D
32. D
42. E
3. A
13. B
23. E
33. E
43. D
4. D
14. B
24. C
34. C
44. A
5. B
15. C
25. B
35. E
45. B
6. C
16. E
26. B
36. A
46. C
7. E
17. E
27. C
37. E
47. D
8
8. A
18. D
28. D
38. A
48. B
9. D
19. C
29. A
39. B
49. B
10. B
20. A
30. D
40. A
50. B