Download Colloquium IV 1. Cause acute right ventricular failure can be a

Colloquium IV
1. Cause acute right ventricular failure can be
a) Aortic insufficiency
b) failure of the mitral valve
c) Aortic stenosis
+ d) pulmonary stenosis
e) Mitral stenosis
2. One of the causes of left ventricular failure is
a) Lung disease
b) stenosis of the pulmonary artery
c) the tricuspid valve
d) right ventricular infarction
+ e) failure of the mitral valve
3. Overload form of heart failure results:
+ a) hypervolemia
b) Myocardial ischemia
c) Myocarditis
d) Extrasystole
e) myocardial
4. Overload heart "resistance" develops in
a) eritremia
+ b) Hypertension
c) physical exertion
d) hypervolemia
5. Long-term adaptation of cardiac function provides
a) Tachycardia
+ b) myocardial hypertrophia
c) Heterometric mechanism
d) Homeometric mechanism
e) Myogenic dilatation
6. For compensation stage heart failure is characterized by:
+ a) tonogenic dilatation of heart
+ b) Tachycardia
+ c) myocardial hypertrophy
d) Myogenic dilatation
e) Increase in residual blood in the cavities of the heart
7. Name extracardiac compensation mechanisms in heart diseases
+ a) Increased erythropoiesis
b) Tonogenic dilatation of heart
c) Hypertrophia myocardium
8. Emergency hyperfunction stage heart on Meerson characterized
+ a) Hyperfunction non hypertrophic infarction
b) Hyperfunction hypertrophic myocardium
c) normalization of energy production per unit mass of the myocardium
d) growth of connective tissue
e) reduction of protein synthesis per unit of muscle mass
9. Stage decompensation heart failure manifests itself:
+ a) cyanosis
+b) Edema
c) increase in systolic volume
+ d) increased residual volume of blood in the cavities of the heart
e) increase in blood pressure
10. Hemodinamic indicators in chronic heart failure characterized by
a) reduction of central venous pressure
+ b) reduction of cardiac output
c) increasing the flow velocity
d) increasing the capacity of the left ventricle contraction
e) increasing the total peripheral vascular resistance
11. Myogenic dilatation - is
+ a) expansion of the cavities of heart due to distension of the muscle fibers;
b) reduction of heart cavities.
12. Myocardial form of heart failure occurs when
a) valvular heart disease; b) hypertension;
c) arteriovenous shunting of blood; d) coarctation of the aorta; + e) myocardial infarction.
13. Myocardial form of heart failure is consequence of:
a) valvular heart disease;
b) arterial hypertension;
c) arteriovenous shunting of blood;
d) coarctation of the aorta;
+ e) myocarditis.
14. Myocardial form of heart failure is consequence of:
a) hypertension of pulmonary circulation;
b) hypertension of the systemic circulation;
c) aortic stenosis;
+ d) primary violations of metabolic processes in the heart muscle;
e) hypervolemia.
15. Myocardial form of heart failure develops in
a) hypervolemia;
b) stenosis of the heart valves;
c) failure of the heart valves;
d) primary arterial hypertension;
+ e) ischemic heart disease.
16. The ion imbalance in damaged cardiomyocytes is manifested by:
+ a) increase in the intracellular concentration of sodium;
+ b) increase in intracellular calcium concentration;
c) increasing the concentration of potassium;
d) decrease in the concentration of sodium;
+ e) a decrease in the intracellular concentration of potassium.
17. Name likely causes of symptomatic arterial hypertension:
+ a) Hyperthyroidism
b) chronic psychoemotional overstrain
+ c) Chronic nephritis
d) Repeated prolonged negative emotions
+ e) of atherosclerotic vascular lesions
f) Genetic defects of the centers of the autonomic nervous system, regulating blood pressure
g) Genetic defects cation transport membrane systems that lead to calcium accumulation within
the cytoplasm of smooth muscle cells of the vascular wall
18. Name diseases and conditions that are accompanied by increases in blood pressure:
+ a) Cushing's syndrome
b) Klinefelter's syndrome
+ c) Cushing's disease
d) hypo(adreno)corticism
e) Hypothyroidism
+ f) Hyperthyroidism
+ g) Cushing
+ h) Pheochromocytoma
19. Name hemodynamic form of hypotension:
+ a) heart failure
+ b) decreased the volume circulating of blood
+ c) When lowering the tone of resistance vessels
d) hypovolemia
20. Name substances that have a direct pressor effect:
+ a) Renin
b) Angiotensin-2
+ c) ADH
+ d) Adrenaline
e) Histamine
+ f) Norepinephrine
21. Cause renoprive hypertension:
a) the two main stenosis of the renal arteries
b) Polycystic Kidney Disease
c) nephrosis
d) nephritis
+ e) All answers are correct
22. Complications of hypertension are:
+ a) Heart failure
+ b) Myocardial infarction
+ c) Stroke
+ d) Lack of intestinal blood flow
+ e) Disturbance of adrenal function
23. Pathogenesis of hypertension presumably includes the following links:
+ a) Stable increase of excitability and reactivity of the sympathetic nerve center of the back of
the hypothalamus
+ b) Reducing the inhibitory effect of the cortex, it is normally exerted on the subcortical centers
pressor
c) Depletion of adrenocortical function
+ d) Genetically caused a steady decline sodium, chlorine and water-excretory kidney function
+ e) Generalized hereditary defect of membrane ion pumps;
f) genetically determined hypoproduction mineralocorticoid
24. Increase renin secretion is caused by:
a) an increase in perfusion pressure in the arterioles of kidney cells
+ b) reduced perfusion pressure in the arterioles of kidney cells
c) hyponatremia and hyperkalemia
+ d) hypernatremia and hypokalemia
e) reduction of angiotensin II in the blood
+ f) Increased levels of angiotensin II in the blood
25. Name differences of hypertension from other arterial hypertension:
+ a) Increased blood pressure arises because of the lack of significant organic lesions of the
internal organs involved in its regulation
b) result from primary renal dysfunction and endocrine glands
+ c) is important in its development has a genetic predisposition
d) resulting from a violation of the adrenal glands
e) develops as a result of damage to the primary receptor of the aortic arch and carotid sinus area
+ f) is essential to improve the reactive properties of neurons of the sympathetic center of the
back of the hypothalamus
26. Pathogenesis of hypotension matter following mechanisms:
+ a) Increased activity of the parasympathetic nervous system while reducing the activity of the
sympathetic
+ b) The genetic defect of ion transport into the cell with the accumulation of calcium in the
cytoplasm smooth muscles cell vessel walls
+ c) Decrease in renal renin production
+ d) reducing the sensitivity of receptors smooth muscles cell vascular angiotensin II
e) disturbance of the conversion of dopamine to norepinephrine at nerve endings
f) Decrease production of glucocorticoids
g) Increased activity of the sympathetic division of the ANS
27. Name heterotopic rhythms:
+ a) Nodal rhythm
+ b) Migration supraventricular pacemaker
c) Sinus tachycardia
d) Sinus bradycardia
e) Sinus arrhythmia
+ f) AV-dissociation
+ g) idioventricular rhythm
28. For premature atrial contraction is characterized by:
+ a) The presence of P-wave
b) The absence of P wave
c) Severe deformity ventricular complex
+ d) Minor changes in ventricular complex
e) The full compensatory pause
+ f) Incomplete compensatory pause
29. For ventricular arrhythmia characterized by:
a) The presence of P-wave
+ b) The absence of P wave
+ c) Severe deformity ventricular complex
d) Minor changes in ventricular complex
+ e) Full compensatory pause
f) Incomplete compensatory pause
30. Name pathogenetic factors of ventricular fibrillation:
a) increase in the concentration of intracellular potassium
+ b) Decrease in the concentration of intracellular potassium
+ c) Reduction of the membrane potential of cardiomyocytesd) Increase in the membrane
potential of cardiomyocytes
31. For flutter and fibrillation atrial is characterized by:
a) Lack of pulses AV-node
+ b) Partial functional unit of the excitation by AV-node
c) The normal conduction of impulses by AV-node
32. Name causes of ventricular fibrillation:
+ a) passage of electric current through the heart
+ b) Toxic doses of cardiac glycosides
c) Introduction of acetylcholine
+ d) Severe myocardial hypoxia
e) The action of botulinum toxin
33. Show pacemaker with ventricular flutter:
a) the atrioventricular node
b) the bundle of His
+ c) of ectopic foci located in the ventricles
d) Some of ectopic foci submitted by individual groups of muscle fibers of the ventricles
34. Show pacemaker with ventricular fibrillation:
a) the atrioventricular node
b) the bundle of His
c) of ectopic foci located in the ventricles
+ d) Several of ectopic foci submitted by individual groups of muscle fibers of the ventricles
35. Show source of impulses at a nodal rhythm:
a) the sinoatrial node
+ b) atrioventricular node
c) the bundle of His
d) of ectopic foci located in the ventricles
36. Name conditions necessary for the formation of the mechanism of excitation of re-entry
(re-entry):
a) Accelerated impulse conduction in a small portion of the conductive system (in the twig A
Purkinje cells)
+ b) Delayed impulse conduction in a small section of wire system (a twig A Purkinje cells)
+ c) One-way flow of excitation in the twig B Purkinje cells
d) two-way flow of excitation in the twig B Purkinje cells
37. For acute intestinal auto-intoxication is characterized by:
a) a drop in blood pressure
b) Reduction of pain sensitivity
c) The weakening of the heart rate
d) Development of coma
+ e) All signs
38. Base pathogenesis of malabsorption syndrome are:
a) enhancing the hydrolysis of food components in the gut
b) accumulation in the intestinal lumen decay products of incomplete meals
c) the body hydropenia
d) Increased excretion of the vassel of water, protein electrolytes
+ e) All of the above features
39. Show main manifestations of insufficiency of digestion:
+ a) depletion of the body
+ b) hypo- and avitaminosis
c) Hypervitaminosis
+ d) negative nitrogen balance
e) A positive nitrogen balance
f) Increasing resistance of the organism
g) Hyperproteinemia
+ h) Reduction of reactivity
40. Show protective and adaptive changes at the failure of the digestive system:
a) Reduction and dysorexia
b) Heartburn
c) Belching
d) Frequent and profuse vomiting
+ e) Increased production of lysozyme and hydrochloric acid
+ f) increased peristalsis
+ g) Increased intestinal barrier function
41. What changes digestion with hypo-secretion of gastric juice and achlorhydria?
a) slows gastric emptying
+ b) accelerates gastric emptying
+ c) Nutritional weight substantially do not undergo digestion in the stomach
d) digestion of food mass varies slightly
42. Show change the digestive process with achlorhydria:
a) Slowing food mass evacuation from the stomach into the intestine
+ b) Reducing the activity of enzymes peptic stomach
+ c) Reducing the formation of secretin in the duodenal mucosa
d) Decreased activity of enterokinase
43. Show hypersalivation consequences:
a) The difficulty of the act of chewing and swallowing
+ b) maceration and inflammatory changes in the skin around the lips
c) Occurrence of inflammatory processes in the oral mucosa
d) Decrease of gastric secretory function
+ e) neutralization of gastric acid salt
44. Show consequences hypoptyalism:
+ a) The difficulty of the act of chewing and swallowing
b) maceration and inflammatory skin changes in the lips
+ c) inflammatory processes in the oral mucosa
+ d) Decrease of gastric secretory function
e) neutralization of gastric acid salt
45. What disturbance occur when hypo- or acholia?
+ a) disturbance of digestion and absorption of fats
+ b) Deficiency of fat-soluble vitamins
c) Absorption of fat-soluble vitamins are not disturbance
+ d) Laxation weakens
e) enhanced Laxation
+ f) pH of the duodenal contents is shifted to the acid side
g) The pH of the duodenal contents is shifted to the alkaline side
46. Show substance, the lack of which can lead to hyposecretion of gastric juice:
+ a) Gastrin
b) enteroanthelone
+ c) Cholecystokinin
d) Secretin
+ e) Glucocorticoids
+ f) Insulin
g) Glucagon
47. Secondary liver failure develops in
a) the action of carbon tetrachloride
+ b) circulatory failure
c) phosphoric intoxication
d) viral hepatitis
e) Chronic alcohol intoxication
48. Primary liver failure develops in
a) Heart Failure
b) Shockt
c) Renal insufficiency
+ d) viral infection of the liver
e) diabetes mellitus
49. Manifestations of liver failure include:
+ a) Increasing the concentration of ammonia in the blood
+ b) Hypoproteinemia
c) decrease in the activity of ALT and AST in the blood
+ d) Bleedingd) Dehydration
50. Pathogenesis of hepatic coma significant dose:
+ a) Lack of neutralizing function of the liver
+ b) Metabolic acidosis
+ c) Lack ureaformation liver function
d) Increase in blood direct bilirubin
e) Hyperglycemia
51. Causes hemolytic jaundice include:
+ a) Action hemolitic poisons
+ b) Rhesus conflict between maternal and fetal body
+ c) incompatible blood transfusion
d) hemorrhagic anemia
e) gallbladder dyskinesia
52. For hemolytic jaundice characterized by an increase in blood
+ a) indirect bilirubin
b) direct bilirubin
c) urobilin
d) stercobilin
e) bile acids
53. General pathogenesis obstructive jaundice is
a) Damage to hepatocytes
b) sialolithiasis
c) Urolithiasis
d) Reinforced hemolysis
+ e) Disturbance of the outflow of bile
54. Show causes of obstructive jaundice
+ a) Obturation hepatic and common bile duct
b) hemolysis
55. Obstructive jaundice is observed:
+ a) Hypotension
+ b) bilirubinuria
+ c) Acholia
+ d) Itching
e) Tachycardia
56. Obstructive jaundice is characterized by an increase in blood
a) biliverdin
b) sterkobilinogen
c) urobilinogen
+ d) direct bilirubin
e) indirect bilirubin
57. Basis of the violation of feedback mechanism is
+ a) reducing the sensitivity of hypothalamic centers sensing fluctuations in hormone
concentrations in the blood; b) the decrease in the production of liberins; c) the increase in the
production of statins; d) an increase in anterior pituitary hormone production; e) reduction of the
production of statins.
58. Peripheral breaking mechanism of activity of hormones are:
+ a) Disturbance of the hormone binding to plasma proteins
+ b) blockade of hormone receptors
c) Disturbance of generating releasing hormones of the hypothalamus
+ d) Inactivation of circulating hormone
e) Disturbance of hormone synthesis
59. Reducing the production of adrenocorticotropic hormone leads to
a) reduction of synthesis of insulin; + b) a decrease in the synthesis of adrenal hormones;
c) a decrease in the synthesis of hormones of the adrenal medulla; d) an increase in the synthesis
of thyroid hormones; e) an increase in the synthesis of sex hormones.
60. Exceeding production adrenocorticotropic hormone to increased secretion:
a) Insulin
b) PTH
c) Thyroxine
+ d) Cortisol
e) Adrenaline
61. Hyperproduction growth hormone can lead to
+ a) Gigantism
b) pituitary dwarfism
62. Cause Addison's disease most often
a) adrenal hypertrophy
+ b) adrenal atrophy
c) pituitary tumor
d) Autoimmune thyroiditis
e) Hyperplasia epiphysis
63. Increment concentrations of thyroid stimulating hormone in blood hypothyroidism
indicates the localization of the pathological process in
a) by the pituitary gland
+ b) of the thyroid gland
c) of the parathyroid glands
d) of the hypothalamus
e) of the thymus
64. Hypoparathyroidism occurs when the pathology of
a) the gonads; b) thyroid gland; + c) parathyroid glands; d) thymus; e) pancreas.
65. Excessive production of ACTH leads to increased secretion of:
+ a) androgenic corticosteroids; b) norepinephrine; c) insulin; d) epinephrine; + e) cortisol.
66. In which cases increased secretion of aldosterone?
+ a) decrease in volume of circulating blood; b) an increase in volume of circulating blood;
+ c) hyponatremia and hyperkalemia; d) hypernatremia and hypokalemia;
+ e) increased activity of the renin-angiotensin system.
67. Specify the pathogenetic factors of disorders of the nervous system in tumor process:
+ a) irritant effect of tumor on the nearby nerve centers; + b) atrophy of nerve cells and the
fibers, which are compressed during tumor growth; c) hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the
surrounding nerve cells during tumor growth; + d) increased intracranial pressure and decrease in
blood filling of the brain; e) the reduction of intracranial pressure and increased blood filling of
the brain.
68. Show pathogenetic factors of disorders of the nervous system in meningitis and
encephalitis:
+ a) gives products and outflow of cerebrospinal fluid
b) Products and outflow of cerebrospinal fluid did not change
+ c) Increased intracranial pressure
d) it reduces intracranial pressure
+ e) triggers autoimmune processes
f) activates the process of retrograde degeneration
69. What a generator of pathologically enhanced excitation?
+ a) A group of neurons that work with varying degrees of autonomy and produce excessive
stimulation
b) A group of neurons that produce excessive stimulation due to sharp activation of the higher
nerve centers
70. What characteristic of denervated tissues?
+ a) Increased sensitivity to mediators released upon stimulation of the transected nerve
b) Reduced sensitivity to mediators released during stimulation of the transected nerve
71. What are the consequences of deafferentation?
a) motion of deafferented limbs are not recovered; + b) motion of deafferented limbs are
restored, but not completely; + c) there are disorders of microcirculation, resembling those in
venous hyperemia; + d) arise disorders of microcirculation resembling those in the arterial
hyperemia; e) develop degenerative processes in the deafferented tissue; f) trophism of
deafferented tissue is not disturbed.
72. What is pain?
+ a) subjectively painful sensation reflecting psychophysiological state of a person, which arises
as a result of the impact of super-strong or damaging stimuli
b) Increased sensitivity to stimuli of the senses, which arises as a result of the impact of superstrong or damaging stimuli.
73. What anatomic formations are highly sensitive to pain?
+ a) mesentery and parietal peritoneum; b) lung tissue; c) the visceral pleura; d) the parietal
pleura; e) the heart muscle; + f) arteries; + g) the pericardium.
74. What characteristic epicritic pain?
+ a) arises immediately after injury
b) arises after a short period of time after injury
+ c) clearly localized
d) Has diffuse
+ e) Quickly subsides
f) lasts a long time
75. What characteristic protopathic pain?
a) arises immediately after injury
+ b) arises after a short period of time after injury
c) clearly localized
+ d) has a diffuse character
e) Fast subsides
+ f) lasts a long time.
76. What accompanies pain sensations arising from damage of the skin and mucous
membranes?
+ a) high blood pressure; b) decrease in blood pressure; + c) hyperglycemia; d) hypoglycemia.
77. What are characteristics of visceral pain?
a) is localized precisely; + b) has a diffuse nature; + c) is accompanied by painful feelings,
depression; d) is accompanied by psychomotor agitation.
78. What is phantom pain?
a) syndrome that develops after injury of peripheral nerve and is caused by irritation his
sympathetic fibers;
+ b) pain, which is localized by patients in missing limb.
79. Are connected occurrence of phantom pain and causalgia with the appearance of the
generator of pathologically enhanced excitation in the central nervous system?
+ a) yes; b) no.
80. What is neurosis?
+ a) psychogenic (usually conflictogenic) neuropsychological disorder that occurs as a result of
violations of a particularly significant human relationships in life, manifested in specific clinical
phenomena in the absence of psychotic phenomena;
b) an extreme variant of the norm, in which the some character traits is enhanced excessively, as
result is detected selective vulnerability in relation to a particular kind of psychogenic impacts
with good and even increased resistance to the other.