Download PATHOLOGY WRITTEN AND PRACTICAL EXAM 1

PATHOLOGY WRITTEN EXAM III
1. A 70 year old male presents to the emergency room complaining of rectal bleeding. Physical
examination confirms guiac-positive stool that contains some bright red blood. He experiences
some left lower quadrant pain on palpation. Which of the following clinical entities should be
considered first in your differential diagnosis of this patient's bowel problems?
A. Diverticulitis
B. Carcinoid tumor
C. Zenker's diverticulum
D. Acute appendicitis
E. Cecal carcinoma
2. Which of the following is NOT a tumor of the testis?
A. Choriocarcinoma
B. Seminoma
C. Serous cystadenoma
D. Embryonal carcinoma
E. Spermatocytic seminoma
3. Non-specific chronic endometritis is best identified by the presence of:
A. Macrophages
B. Granulomas
C. Germinal centers
D. Plasma cells
E. Lymphocytes
4. The most common cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding is:
A. Inadequate luteal phase
B. Endometrial polyp
C. Luteal phase defect
D. Chronic endometritis
E. Anovulatory cycle
5. Surfactant is produced by:
A. Interstitial stromal cells
B. Type I pneumocytes
C. Endothelial cells
D. Type II pneumocytes
-1-
6. Addison's Disease (Primary Chronic Adrenocortical Insufficiency) is characterized by all of
the following EXCEPT:
A. Increased serum potassium
B. Fatigue and weakness
C. Hypotension
D. Increased serum sodium
E. Skin pigmentation
7. A 40 year old male presents with anorexia, nausea and anemia. Further work-up of the anemia
confirms that it is from iron deficiency. Because the patient has also experienced early
postprandial fullness and vague abdominal discomfort, you decide to perform endoscopy. A
"leather bottle" appearance and stiffening of the wall of the stomach with focal ulceration is
noted by endoscopy. The MOST LIKELY diagnosis based on these clinical features is:
A. Diffuse type gastric adenocarcinoma
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Diffuse squamous metaplasia
D. Diffuse antral gastritis
E. Familial polyposis
8. Which ONE of the following types of colon polyps is considered NEOPLASTIC?
A. Lymphoid polyp
B. Hyperplastic polyp
C. Juvenile polyp
D. Hamartoma (hamartomatous polyp)
E. Adenomatous polyp
9. A 30 year old man presents to your office complaining of headaches, tunnel vision,
galactorrhea, and impotence. An MRI of the sella turcica confirms a large mass pressing against
the optic chiasm and obliterating the pituitary gland. Which hormone is this tumor most likely
overproducing?
A. thyroid stimulating hormone
B. prolactin
C. growth hormone
D. adrenocorticotrophic hormone
E. melatonin
10. Posterior urethral valves:
A. is associated with few complications and minimal morbidity.
B. are localized to the lower ureteral outlets.
C. are associated with t(2:13) chromosomal aberration
D. is a disease of females.
E. results in dilatation of the bladder, bilateral hydroureter and hydronephrosis.
-2-
11. Which of the following human papillomavirus type is more likely to be associated with
condyloma acuminatum:
A. 31
B. 6
C. 33
D. 16
E. 18
12. A 16 year old male develops mumps. A genitourinary complication that may occur
approximately one week after onset of parotid swelling is:
A. Prostatitis
B. Urethritis
C. Epididymitis
D. Cystitis
E. Orchitis
13. A 40 year old female presents with hematuria, back pain, and serologic evidence of renal
failure. Complete work-up and evaluation of this patient confirms the presence of cortical and
medullary renal cysts, liver cysts and a bent' aneurysm of the left middle cerebral artery. Which
diagnosis is MOST LIKELY?
A. Acquired cystic disease
B. Simple cysts of the kidney
C. Medullary cystic disease
D. Autosomal recessive polycystic disease
E. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
14. Cystic Fibrosis may present as all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Dehydration
B. Meconium aspiration
C. Infertility
D. Meconium ileus
E. Recurrent respiratory infection
MATCHING: For each numbered item (Column 1) choose the most appropriate answer
(Column 2). Each answer may be used once, more than once, not at all.
_____15. Herpes Simplex Virus
bodies
_____16. Chlamydia trachomatis
_____17. Chancroid
_____18. Rubeola
A. Elementary or reticulate
B. Warthin - Finkeldey cells
C. Positive tzanck smear
D. Donovan bodies
E. Gram negative
coccobacilli
-3-
19. What are the pathologic effects of a cardiac ventricular septal defect with an unobstructed
pulmonary valve?
A. Diminished pulmonary blood flow
B. Splanchnic hypoperfusion
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Diminished pulse pressures in the lower extremities
E. Systemic arterial oxygen unsaturation and cyanosis
20. Xerostomia is characteristically caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Anticholinergic drug
B. Vitamin C deficiency
C. Sjogren's disease
D. Radiation
E. Mikulicz's syndrome
21. Which of the following is the MOST COMMON form of prostatitis?
A. Granulomatous prostatitis
B. Tuberculous prostatitis
C. Acute bacterial prostatitis
D. Chronic abacterial prostatitis
E. Chronic bacterial prostatitis
22. A 60 year old obese man presents to your office with complaints of sour eructations, mild
odynophagia and retrosternal discomfort and burning that is exacerbated after heavy meals. The
discomfort is relieved with antacids. He has not lost weight, noticed change in bowel habits, or
experienced aspiration or vomiting. Endoscopy confirms small patches of erythematous mucosa
surrounded by normal mucosa within the lower third of the esophagus. The stomach and
proximal duodenum appear normal. You biopsy the erythematous regions of the esophagus and
submit them to pathology. Microscopic examination confirms intestinal metaplasia in the regions
of esophageal erythema. Based on these findings, you conclude:
A. that the biopsy shows findings consistent with Barrett's esophagus.
B. that the biopsy shows findings consistent with adenocarcinoma.
C. that the biopsy shows findings consistent with normal constituents of gastroesophageal
mucosa.
D. that the biopsy shows findings consistent with esophageal ulceration.
E. that the biopsy shows findings consistent with dysplasia.
23. Which of the following anatomic structures would be expected in a normal infant born at 40
weeks gestation?
A. Germinal centers in the lymph nodes
B. Valve competent foramen ovale
C. Nephrogenic zone in the kidney
D. Germinal centers in the thymic medulla
-4-
24. A 22-year-old woman notices a small amount of bloody nipple discharge. On physical
examination, there is a small subareolar mass. A biopsy of the mass shows a stalk covered by
columnar cells. Based on these findings, which of the following is the MOST LIKELY
diagnosis?
A. Intraductal papilloma
B. Fibrocystic change
C. Lobular carcinoma
D. Ductal carcinoma
E. Fat necrosis
25. Erysipelas is caused by which of the following organisms?
A. Streptococcus rubidans
B. Vibrio parahemolyticus
C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. None of the above
26. A 57-year-old woman notices a firm nodule in her right breast which on biopsy is shown to
be an invasive adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the MOST IMPORTANT in the
prognosis for this patient?
A. Size of the tumor
B. Nuclear grade of the tumor
C. Number of mitoses per high power field
D. Histologic type of adenocarcinoma
E. Presence of axillary lymph node metastases
27. Phimosis is defined as:
A. abnormal pathway of testicular descent.
B. congenital absence of foreskin.
C. prepuce opening too small to permit normal retraction.
D. opening of urethra onto the ventral surface of the penis.
E. None of the above
28. A 30-year-old woman has breast tenderness and finds some irregular "lumps" in her breasts.
Her physician is fairly certain these changes are benign, but because of the patient's concern, a
needle biopsy is performed. The pathologist issues a diagnosis of apocrine metaplasia. Which of
the following best describes what the patient should be told?
A. She has an infiltrative type of breast cancer.
B. She has an increased risk of developing breast cancer.
C. She has a precursor lesion to breast cancer.
D. She has an entirely benign condition.
E. She has an early stage of breast cancer.
-5-
29. Oligohydramniios, a diminution in volume of amniotic fluid, has a high association with
what fetal anomaly?
A. Germinal matrix hemorrhage
B. Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation
C. Tetralogy of Fallot
D. Urinary tract obstruction
30. The most common cause of hyperpituitarism is which of the following?
A. Sheehan's syndrome
B. Head trauma
C. Empty sella syndrome
D. Pituitary adenoma
E. Pituitary hyperplasia
31. In hyperparathyroidism, the most marked hypercaicemia is usually associated with:
A. Ectopic hormone production
B. Parathyroid hyperplasia
C. Chronic renal insufficiency
D. Parathyroid carcinoma
E. Parathyroid adenoma
32. Which of these malformations accompanies systemic hypertension and left ventricular
hypertrophy?
A. Aortic valve atresia
B. Intramuscular ventricular septal defect
C. Coarctation of the aorta
D. Truncus arteriosus
E. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage to the right atrium
33. A 70 year old male with a history of diffuse chronic atrophic gastritis and intestinal
metaplasia presents to your office complaining of gnawing upper abdominal pain that is
somewhat relieved with eating. He also feels fatigued and has lost 20 pounds over the last
several months. Endoscopy is performed and confirms a gastric ulcer with indiscrete margins, an
irregular, uneven base and sloping borders on all sides. The gastric rugae do not radiate from the
margins of the ulcer. Based on these findings, the MOST LIKELY diagnosis is:
A. Mallory-Weiss tears
B. Gastric adenocarcinoma
C. Zenker's diverticulum
D. Peptic ulcer
E. Leiomyosarcoma
-6-
34. Which of the following is TRUE of prostate carcinoma?
A. Obstructive symptoms are usually produced early in the course of the disease
B. There is poor correlation between histologic grade and clinical stage/prognosis
C. Prostate-specific antigen levels and digital rectal exam are the usual screening
methods
D. The premalignant precursor lesion to prostate carcinoma is benign glandular and
fibromuscular hyperplasia (BPH)
E. It is the least common form of cancer in males
35. The cervical (PAP) smear:
A. Is not an effective test for detection of human papilloma virus infection
B. Is an effective screening test for cervical cancer and its precursor lesions
C. Should be taken during menstruation
D. Requires an air-dried specimen for interpretation
E. Should be preceded by douching
36. The most common cause of vulvar ulcers is:
A. Gonorrhea
B. Trichomonas
C. Candida
D. Herpes simplex
E. Syphilis
37. Systemic arterial blood has diminished oxygen saturation in which of these cardiovascular
malformations?
A. Supracristal ventricular septal defect
B. Coarctation of the aorta with a ligamentum arteriosum
C. Patent ductus arteriosus with a left to right shunt.
D. Valve competent foramen ovale
E. Truncus arteriosus
38. Alveolar rhabomyosarcoma is MOST COMMONLY associated with:
A. spindle cells in myxoid stroma with a grapelike gross appearance.
B. Denys-Drash syndrome.
C. t(2:13).
D. Diabetes mellitus.
E. gene deletion on chromosome 11.
39. A congenital abnormality indicates presence at birth. Which of the following qualify for that
designation?
A. Trachea esophageal fistula
B. Hyaline membrane disease
C. Necrotizing enteropathy
D. Kemicterus
-7-
40. A good prognostic factor for neuroblastoma is:
A. Normal Chromosome I
B. Undifferentiated histology
C. High mitotic-karyorrhectic index
D. Tetraploidy
E. Amplified n-myc
41. An 18 year old female presents to the emergency room complaining of periumbilical pain
and fever. Over the course of time in the emergency room, the pain moves to the right lower
quadrant, increases in intensity, and is associated with guarding on abdominal exam. Her WBC
count is elevated. She is taken for emergency surgery and a swollen appendix with a serosal
layer of pus is observed grossly. Three days after surgery, the patient again spikes fevers to 101102 degrees F. You examine the patient's abdominal incision which appears to be healing
appropriately. No pneumonia is detected by chest X-ray, and no rashes or shortness of breath are
experienced by the patient. The surgical pathology report confirms an acute appendicitis with
perforation. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY DIAGNOSIS accounting for
postoperative fever?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Parasitic infestation
C. Peptic ulcer disease
D. Peritonitis
E. Mucocele
42. A 60-year-old woman has crusting of the skin of the nipple and areola of her right breast. A
biopsy shows Paget's disease. Which of the following best describes the patient's condition?
A. There is an underlying infection.
B. There is an underlying invasive cancer.
C. This is a benign neoplastic condition.
D. There is an increased risk of developing breast cancer.
E. This represents carcinoma-in-situ of ductal epithelium.
43. A 44-year-old man with insulin-dependent diabetes had fever and sinusitis for about a week
before hospital admission. He was found to have an infection of the nasal sinuses with associated
tissue necrosis and invasion of arterial walls. Despite antibiotic therapy, the infection spread into
periorbital and brain tissue. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
A. Cryptococcus
B. Mucor
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Pneumocystis carinh
E. Coccidioides
-8-
44. Pheochromocytoma is approximately:
A. 10% benign
B. 10% sporadic
C. 10% palpable
D. 10% unilateral
E. 10% malignant
45. What are the anatomic features of Hirschsprung disease?
A. Constriction of the proximal colon
B. Absent myenteric ganglion cells in the distal colon
C. Absent myenteric ganglion cells in the proximal colon.
D. Dilatation of the distal colon
46. The etiologic agent of cholera causes diarrhea by which of the following mechanisms?
A. Destructive invasion of colorectal mucosa
B. Elaboration of a toxin that acts on small bowel mucosa
C. Inhibition of normal colorectal flora
D. Elaboration of a toxin that acts on colorectal mucosa
E. Destructive invasion of small bowel mucosa
47. A 25-year-old woman develops a painful right breast two weeks after the birth of her first
child. On physical examination, the nipple is dry and fissured, the breast is red and there is a 3cm
x 2 cm area which is particularly tender. This area is incised, and some l fuid from the site is sent
for culture. Which of the following organisms is MOST LIKELY to grow from the cultured
specimen?
A. Histoplasmosis
B. Treponema
C. Staphylococcus
D. E. coli
E. Streptoccocus
48. A 52 year old alcoholic male is admitted to Memorial Hermann Hospital complaining of
vomiting for several hours, then sudden vomiting of fresh blood. Endoscopy was performed, at
which time was noted several areas of longitudinal injury in the lower esophageal mucosa and
gastroesophageal junction. No gastric or esophageal varices or ulcers were identified. The
MOST LIKELY diagnosis is:
A. Arteriovenous malformation
B. Zenker's diverticulum
C. Mallory-Weiss tears
D. Peptic ulcer disease
E. Boerhaave's syndrome
-9-
49. A 44 year old woman who had a previously resected pituitary adenoma has no radiologic
evidence of recurrence. She now complains of polyuria, excessive thirst and polydipsia. What is
the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
A. Sheehan's syndrome
B. Empty sells syndrome
C. Syndrome of inappropriate ADH release (SIADH)
D. Recurrent pituitary adenoma
E. Diabetes insipidus
50. The most common cause of hyperparathyroidism is thought to be:
A. Parathyroid adenoma
B. Pituitary adenoma
C. Parathyroid carcinoma
D. Parathyroid hyperplasia
E. Ectopic hormone production
51. In which of the following conditions does the aorta receive blood from the right ventricle?
A. Tetralogy of Fallot
B. Infracristal ventricular septal defect
C. Pulmonic valve stenosis
D. Coarctation of the aorta with a ligamentum arteriosum
E. Foramen secundum atrial septal defect
52. Concerning alpha-1 antitrypsin disease which of the following is INCORRECT:
A. Phenotype controlled by Pi genes with > 30 alleles.
B. The hallmark is PAS - positive diastase resistant globules in hepatocytes.
C. It can cause liver disease and lung disease
D. Always eventually results in cirrhosis.
E. Cannot be treated by enzyme therapy.
53. Gestational choriocarcinoma most likely follows:
A. Abortion
B. Placental site trophoblastic tumor
C. Normal pregnancy
D. Complete hydatidiform mole
E. Partial hydatidiform mole
54. Intraventricular hemorrhage in premature infants relates to what anatomic site or pathologic
process:
A. Kemicterus
B. Laceration of the tentorium.
C. Terminal veins in the germinal matrix
D. Subdural hemorrhage
- 10 -
55. Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis might present clinically as all but:
A. Lytic bone lesion
B. Skin rash
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Diabetes insipidus
E. Disseminated disease in an infant
56. Which of the following rickettsioses does not require an arthropod vector for transmission?
A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
B. Q fever
C. Louse-borne typhus
D. Rickettsialpox
E. None of the above
Matching: For each numbered item (Column 1) choose the single best answer (Column 2).
Each answer may be used once, more than once or not at all.
57. Granulosa cell tumor
58. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
59. Yolk sac tumor
60. Ovarian fibroma
61. Partial hydatidiform mole
A. Triploidy
B. Alpha fetoprotein
C. Call-Exner body
D. Hirsutism
E. Meigs' syndrome
62. Which surgical procedure essentially guarantees against squamous carcinoma of the penis?
A. Glansectomy
B. Circumcision
C. Orchiectomy
D. Epididymectomy
E. Prostatectomy
63. In which of the following conditions do mitral valve leaflets lose their continuity with the
aortic valve cusps?
A. Tetralogy of Fallot
B. Infracristal ventricular septal defect
C. Transposition of the great arteries
D. Normal heart
E. Tubular hypoplasia of the aortic arch
64. Microinvasive squamous carcinoma of cervix:
A. Lacks vascular invasion.
B. Treated by radical hysterectomy.
C. Invades up to 5 mm below the basement membrane.
D. Has lymph node metastases.
E. All the above.
- 11 -
65. A circumstance that makes an infant particularly vulnerable to respiratory distress syndrome
with hyaline membrane disease?
A. Deficient surfactant
B. Aspiration of amniotic sac content
C. Transplacental rubella
D. Inspissated meconium
66. Risk factors for Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Oral cavity include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Tobacco
B. Alcohol
C. Betel nuts
D. Older age (above 50 years)
E. Herpes simplex
67. An umbilical cord configuration associated with an increased incidence of fetal
malformations?
A. Single umbilical vein
B. Single velamentous insertion
C. Single umbilical artery
D. Single true knot
68. Which factors have a role in the pathogenesis of congenital atresia of the ileum?
A. Chromosomal abnormality
B. Absent ganglion cells in the Auerbach plexus
C. Defective canalization of the embryonal gut lumen.
D. Intrauterine damage to the gut wall.
69. A 22-year-old woman develops low-grade fever and cough during a month-long backpacking
and camping trip in Arizona and New Mexico. She has not had night sweats or hemoptysis.
Chest x-ray shows hilar lymphadenopathy. PPD is negative. Which of the following is the
MOST LIKELY causative organism?
A. Mucor
B. Cryptococcus
C. Pneumocystis carinii
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. Coccidioides
70. Gas gangrene is caused by which of the following organisms?
A. Bacillus pneumatoides
B. Capnocytophagus necrogenes
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Vibrio aerofaciens
E. None of the above
- 12 -
71. A 30 year old women complains of diarrhea with bleeding, generalized fatigue and
abdominal discomfort. Colonoscopy confines mucosal fissuring and ulceration, some bowel wall
thickening and strictures, and "cobblestoning." Skip areas are present that are uninvolved and
appear normal. The terminal ileum is also involved by this process. What is the MOST
LIKELY diagnosis?
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Colonic adenocarcinoma
C. Amoebic colitis
D. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome
E. Crohn's disease
72. Cystic Fibrosis results from a genetic mutation of:
A. A gene coding for a cell membrane tyrosine kinase receptor
B. A gene coding for a cell membrane protein with ion channels
C. A gene on chromosome 17
D. A gene on chromosome 9
73. Condyloma acuminatum of the penis is associated with which viral etiology?
A. human papilloma virus, types 16 and 18
B. Herpes simplex virus, type 1
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Human papilloma virus, types 6 and 11
E. Calymmatobacterium donovani
74. Which statement regarding fine needle aspiration is true?
A. It can be used to diagnose tumors.
B. It is usually associated with significant risk to the patient.
C. It can only be performed under radiologic guidance.
D. It cannot be used to diagnose infections.
E. It requires overnight hospital stay.
75. A 72 year old woman complains of constipation increasing over the last few years which has
significantly worsened. She has also experienced weight loss of 30 pounds over the last year, and
feels chronically tired. She has taken increasing number and frequency of laxatives over this
time. She seeks disimpaction. Physical exam and sigmoidoscopy during disimpaction confirms a
firm, napkin-ring lesion in the sigmoid colon. This region is partially ulcerated. What is the
MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
A. Colonic adenocarcinoma
B. Villous adenoma
C. Carcinoid tumor
D. Ulcerative colitis
E. Crohn's disease
- 13 -
76. Dizygotic twin pregnancy may occur with which configuration of the placental dividing
membrane?
A. Diamnionic -monochorionic
B. Monoamnionic -dichorionic
C. Monoamnionic -monochorionic
D. Diamnionic -dichorionic
77. A 63 year old Caucasian male presents with vague upper abdominal discomfort. An
endoscopy is performed, and the esophagus appears normal. The stomach exhibits no ulcers, and
the duodenum appears normal. Some mild erythema of the antrum is present, and biopsies are
taken from the antrum, body, and fundus. The surgical pathologist issues the diagnosis of
"chronic active gastritis" for the antral biopsy, but the biopsies of the fundus and body are
normal. Helicobacter pylori organisms are identified with special stains. The findings are MOST
CONSISTENT with which form of gastritis?
A. Acute gastritis
B. Erosive gastropathy
C. Diffuse corporal gastritis
D. Multifocal atrophic gastritis
E. Diffuse antral gastritis
78. A 58 year old Brazilian man with a history of dilated cardiomyopathy and lower extremity
edema presents to your office complaining of difficulty swallowing solid foods and liquids. He
stated that one evening he woke up to find undigested, regurgitated food on his pillow. He has
also had some retrostemal chest pain with swallowing, and has choked several times after
accidentally aspirating food. Esophageal motility studies confirm increased tone and incomplete
relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter and severely reduced peristalsis in the body of the
esophagus. The MOST LIKELY diagnosis is:
A. Scleroderma
B. Polymyositis
C. Barrett's esophagus
D. Esophageal spasm
E. Achalasia
79. Females who were exposed to diethylstilbestrol in utero have a higher incidence of:
A. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the endometrium
B. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva
D. Clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina
E. Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix
- 14 -
80. A 28 year old male presents with diarrhea and melena. Colonoscopy reveals a large bowel
with a mucosal surface covered with adenomatous polyps. Upper endoscopy shows stomach and
small intestinal polyps. Further physical examination of the patient shows the presence of
osteomas of the skull and numerous keratinous cysts of the skin. What is the MOST LIKELY
diagnosis?
A. Familial polyposis
B. Gardner syndrome
C. Juvenile polyposis
D. Turcot's syndrome
E. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome
81. A 65 year old man presents with complaints of episodic diarrhea, upper extremity and torso
flushing, wheezing, and lower extremity edema. Echocardiogram confirms tricuspid and
pulmonic valve insufficiency and valvular thickening. Excess 5-HIAA (5-hydroxy indole acetic
acid) is detected in the urine with a 24-hour urine sample. What is the MOST LIKELY
diagnosis?
A. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome
B. Toxic megacolon
C. Carcinoid syndrome
D. Neuroblastoma
E. Crohn's disease
82. The most common form of cystic disease in childhood is:
A. Simple cysts
B. Autosomal dominant polycystic renal disease
C. Acquired cystic renal disease
D. Uremic medullary cystic disease
E. Cystic renal dysplasia
83. In the United States, the most important reservoir of the etiologic agent of "Sylvatic plague"
is:
A. Squirrels and prairie dogs
B. Dogs and ferrets
C. Cattle and other livestock
D. Urban rats and domesticated rats
E. Humans
84. The most common malignant tumor of the female genital tract is:
A. Adenocarcinoma of the cervix.
B. Squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva.
C. Ovarian carcinoma.
D. Adenocarcinoma of the endometrium.
E. Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix.
- 15 -
85. Atypical endometrial hyperplasia is best characterized by:
A. Invasion of the endometrial stroma
B. Presence of squamous metaplasia
C. Cytologic atypia
D. Glandular architectural atypia
E. Presence of foamy cells in the stroma
MATCHING: For each numbered item (Column 1), choose the letter of the most
closely related item in column 2. Each answer can be used once, more than once
or not at all.
86. Neurological phenotype primarily wiht
somatic findings less prominent
87. X-linked recessive MPS with mild and
severe forms
88. Autosomal recessive MPS that can
be mild (normal 1Q, normal eye span,
short stature, joint contractures),
severe (MR, death age 8-10 years,
coarsened facies) or intermediate
(normal IQ, life span to teens or 20's
mildly coarse-appearing later in life
depending on mutation.
89. "Short trunked dwarfism", joint laxity,
broad mouth with widely spaced teeth
and bad enamel
- 16 -
A. α-L-iduronidase deficiency (Hurler,
Scheie and Hurler-Scheie Syndrome)
B. Iduronate sulfatase deficiency (Hurler
Syndrome)
C. Four types caused by four different
enzyme deficiencies (Sanfilippo
Syndromes A, B, C, and D)
D. Galactase-6-sulfatase deficiency
(Morquio A) and Beta-galactosidase
Deficiency (Morquio B)
ANSWERS:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
A
C
D
E
D
D
A
E
B
E
B
E
E
B
C
A
E
B
C
B
D
A
B
A
D
E
C
D
D
D
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
D
C
B
C
B
D
E
C
A
A
D
B
B
E
B
B
C
C
E
A
A
D
D
C
D
B
C
D
B
E
- 17 -
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
A
B
C
A
A
E
C
D
E
C
E
B
D
A
A
D
E
E
D
B
C
E
A
D
C
C
B
A
D