Download PATHOLOGY WRITTEN AND PRACTICAL EXAM 1

PATHOLOGY WRITTEN EXAM III
1. Dizygotic twin pregnancy may occur with which configuration of the placental dividing
membrane?
A. Monoamnionic - dichorionic
B. Monoamnionic - monochorionic
C. Diamnionic - monochorionic
D. Diamnionic - dichorionic
2. A 5 month old child presents to the ER with a history or rhinorrhea, conjunctivitis and low
grade fever. During examination you note that the child has a paroxysmal cough. Your diagnosis
is confirmed by:
A. A bronchial biopsy with multinucleated giant cells
B. Positive blood cultures
C. A positive direct fluorescent antibody test for Bordetella performed on a
nasopharyngeal swab
D. A positive throat culture for bacteria
3. Which of the following rickettsioses does require an arthropod vector for transmission to
humans?
A. Q fever
B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
C. Human granulocytic ehrlichiosis
D. Human monocytic ehrlichiosis
E. Typhus
4. A patient complains of gastrointestinal discomfort occurring over the previous several months.
He has tried various over-the-counter medications, but none have produced long lasting
improvement in his symptoms. He undergoes endoscopy with gastric biopsy. The biopsy
demonstrates numerous slender curved bacteria in the muscu overlying his gastric epithelium. Of
the following disorders, the one which is LEAST associated with these bacteria is:
A. Duodenal ulcer
B. Adenocarcinoma of the stomach
C. Diffuse antral gastritis
D. Gastric lymphoma
E. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor
Match the following pathologic features with their corresponding infectious disease.
Each answer may ONLY be used ONCE for this matching type question.
5. Multinucleated syncytial formation
6. Koilcytosis
7. Warthin-Finkeldey cells
8. Pseudomembrane formation
A. Human papilloma virus
B. Rubeola
C. Varicella
D. Diphtheria
E. Rubella
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9. In which of the following conditions does the aorta receive blood from the right ventricle?
A. Infracristal ventricular septal defect
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Coarctation of the aorta with a ligamentum arteriosum
D. Pulmonic valve stenosis
E. Foramen secundum atrial septal defect
10. Which of the following is TRUE concerning invasive squamous carcinoma of the penis
A. The only treatment currently recommended is chemotherapy.
B. Only exophytic tumors have been described.
C. Circumcision at a young age provides no protection against squamous carcinoma as an
adult.
D. There appears to be an association with HPV types 16 or 18 infection.
E. Prognosis is better if regional lymph nodes are involved, compared to negative nodal
involvement.
11. A 13-year-old girl comes to your clinic with a 6-week history of a painless 5 mm lower lip
mass. When you perform a biopsy, it drains a small amount of mucus-like fluid. Which of the
following has the most frequent association with this lesion?
A. Bulemia
B. Lip trauma
C. Smoking
D. Infection
E. Pregnancy
12. Endoscopic examination of a patient's stomach reveals diffuse thickening of the gastric wall,
and a biopsy from the thickened stomach is interpreted as "signet ring carcinoma”. Which of the
following statements is CORRECT?
A. This tumor is probably metastatic from the lung.
B. This tumor has a very good prognosis.
C. Tumor cells contain neurosecretory granules.
D. Tumor cells contain intracytoplasmic mucin.
E. Reactive gastropathy is a risk factor for this tumor.
13. What condition may result in hypocontraction of the distal esophagus, often with markedly
decreased or absent distal peristalsis?
A. Zencker's diverticulum
B. Achalasia
C. Scleroderma
D. Paraesophageal hiatal hernia
E. Diffuse esophageal spasm
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14. Oligohydramnios, a diminution in volume of amniotic fluid, has a high association with what
fetal anomaly?
A. Germinal matrix hemorrhage
B. Urinary tract obstruction
C. Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation
D. Tetralogy of Fallot
15. A 20 year old male presents with chief complaints of recent burning/tingling pain of his
penis. He admits to having new sexual partners in the past months. On physical exam you note a
group of small vesicles with erythematous bases on his glans. Some of the vesicles have ruptured
and ulcerated or have crusts. There is moderate inguinal lymphadenopathy. What are you
suspicious of and which ONE of the following should you do to confirm your clinical
suspicions?
A. Use a scalpel to open an intact vesicle and scrape it's base and perform a Tzanck smear
to look under the microscope for multinucleated syncytial giant cells and viral inclusions
to confirm the diagnosis of herpes simplex.
B. Check for bubos to confirm the diagnosis of syphilis.
C. Obtain vesicle fluid and send it for Treponema pallidum cultures to rule out granuloma
inguinale.
D. Aspirate the fluid from one vesicle with a syringe and send for the anti-chlamydial
antibody assay to confirm the diagnosis of syphilis.
E. Scrape one of the crusted lesions and do a Tzanck smear to look for Donovan bodies.
16. An 80-year-old man with a long smoking history presents with a wart-like lesion on his
tongue. You perform a biopsy. What diagnosis do you anticipate on the pathology report?
A. MALT lymphoma
B. Pyogenic granuloma
C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D. Verrucous carcinoma
E. Leukoplakia
17. Ulcerative colitis is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Ulcers of the colon mucosa
B. Acute inflammation of the colonic mucosa
C. Increased risk of colon carcinoma
D. Frequent fistula formation arising in the small bowel
E. Rectal bleeding
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18. A 30-year-old man has sudden onset of headaches and is found to have intermittent
hypertension. A CT scan of the abdomen demonstrates a 3 cm adrenal mass. Which one of the
following tests would MOST LIKELY further contribute to making a diagnosis in this patient?
A. Bone scan
B. Chest x-ray
C. Plasma renin
D. Urinary metanephrine and VMA
E. Serum calcium
19. Gestational choriocarcinoma MOST LIKELY follows:
A. Placental site trophoblastic tumor
B. Normal pregnancy
C. Partial hydatidiform mole
D. Abortion
E. Complete hydatidiform mole
20. A 25 year old male presents with complaints of pain on urination. You forget to ask him how
long he has had this problem. Before you examine him you collect a urine specimen. During the
digital prostate exam he remarks that the procedure is slightly uncomfortable but not painful.
You procede with prostate massage and then milk the prostatic secretions from the urethra into a
specimen cup. Finally, you ask the patient to provide a post-massage urine specimen. All 3
specimens are sent to the lab for routine bacterial culture and white blood cell (WBC) count. The
results are as follows:
Pre-massage urine = 1 WBC per high power field; bacterial culture no growth.
Prostatic secretions = 100 WBC per high power field; bacterial culture no growth.
Post-massage urine = 40 WBC per high power field; bacterial culture no growth.
The MOST LIKELY diagnosis is:
A. Chronic non-bacterial prostatitis.
B. Urinary tract infection.
C. Chronic bacterial prostatitis.
D. Sepsis of uncertain origin.
E. Acute bacterial prostatitis.
21. A 22-year-old woman develops low-grade fever and cough during a month-long backpacking
and camping trip in Arizona and New Mexico. She has not had night sweats or hemoptysis.
Chest x-ray shows hilar lymphadenopathy. PPD is negative. Which of the following is the
MOST LIKELY causative organism?
A. Pneumocystis carinii
B. Mucor
C. Cryptococcus
D. Coccidioides
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
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22.The most common malignant tumor of the female genital tract is:
A. Melanoma of the vulva.
B. Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix.
C. Squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva.
D. Leiomyosarcoma.
E. Adenocarcinoma of the endometrium.
23. Which of the following diseases can be transmitted by inhaling infected droplets coughed out
by an afflicted individual?
A. Plague
B. Pinta
C. Lyme disease
D. Ehrlichiosis
E. Typhus
24. All of the following are correct with respect to germ cell tumors of the testis EXCEPT:
A. Seminomas are relatively radiosensitive, while non-seminomatous germ cell tumors
are usually more resistant to radiation therapy.
B. Choriocarcinomas of the testis usually metastasize early in the course of the disease.
C. Yolk sac tumor is a seminomatous gems cell tumor and the most common testicular
tumor of men over 65.
D. Teratomas can show histologic features of all three germ cell lines (endoderm,
mesoderm, and ectoderm).
E. Seminoma is the most common type of germ cell tumor.
25. Which of the following statements about hyaline membrane disease (respiratory distress
syndrome) is FALSE?
A. Infants present with respiratory distress.
B. The membranes are composed of sheets of type IV collagen.
C. It can be aggravated by excessive positive pressure ventilation.
D. Pulmonary surfactant helps prevent the disease.
E. Oxygen toxicity can exacerbate the disease.
26. Which of the following groups is the most common cause of sepsis originating in the urinary
tract?
A. Escherichia coli and other Gram-negative rods
B. Mycoplasma hominis and other cell-wall-deficient bacteria
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and other Gram-negative cocci
D. Bacillus cereus and other Gram-positive rods
E. Enterococcus faecalis and other Gram-positive cocci
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27. Which of the following anatomic structures would be expected in a normal infant born at 40
weeks gestation?
A. Valve competent foramen ovale
B. Germinal centers in the lymph nodes
C. Germinal centers in the thymic medulla
D. Nephrogenic zone in the kidney
28. The following is (are) cause(s) of Potter’s syndrome.
A. Non-uremic medullary cystic disease
B. Bilateral renal agenesis
C. Posterior urethral valve
D. Two of the above
29. What are the pathologic effects of a cardiac ventricular septal defect with an unobstructed
pulmonary valve?
A. Splanchnic hypoperfusion
B. Systemic arterial oxygen unsaturation and cyanosis
C Diminished pulse pressures in the lower extremities
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Diminished pulmonary blood flow
30. What salivary gland lesion is known for its propensity to recur as multiple nodules if
incompletely excised?
A. Lipoma
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Warthin's tumor
D. Sialadenosis
E. Myoepithelial sialadenitis
31. Which one of the following is FALSE for Crohn's disease:
A. "Garden-hose" thickening of the intestinal wall may develop
B. Inflammation is limited to the mucosa
C. Complications include fistulas and sinus tracts
D. Can involve the ileum
E. Skip lesions are common
32. Which of these malformations accompanies systemic hypertension and left ventricular
hypertrophy?
A. Intramuscular ventricular septal defect
B. Truncus arteriosus
C. Coarctation of the aorta
D. Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage to the right atrium
E. Aortic valve atresia
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33. Which of the following is TRUE concerning the prostate:
A. A prostatic adenocarcinoma with a Gleason grade of 2 has a better prognosis than one
with a score of 10.
B. Weight loss and blood in the urine are common symptoms of benign prostatic
hyperplasia (BPH).
C. PSA (prostatic specific antigen) levels should be measured only after the diagnosis of
prostatic adenocarcinoma has been made.
D. Stage C (or T3 in the TNM staging system) prostatic adenocarcinomas include those
that have metastasized to bone or lung.
E. Both BPH and human papillomavirus (HPV) infection are important risk factors for
prostatic adenocarcinoma.
34. Multiple 1 to 3 cm, ring-enhancing lesions are seen by MRI in the cerebral gray matter
bilaterally in a 20-year-old male who has a history of HIV infection. A stereotaxic bipsy is
MOST LIKELY to reveal:
A. Budding cells with pseudohyphyae
B. Spongiform encephalopathy
C. Toxoplasma pseudocysts
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
E. Large atypical lymphocytes
35. Which ONE of the following is CORRECT with reference to zones of the prostate and
disease:
A. The central zone makes up 75% of the prostate, and nearly 100% of benign prostatic
hypertrophy arises in the central zone.
B. The peripheral zone makes up only 5% of the prostate, and 5% of prostatic
adenocarcinomas arise in the peripheral zone.
C. The transitional zone makes up 5% of the prostate, but 95% of prostatic
adenocarcinomas arise in the transitional zone.
D. Prostatic adenocarcinomas arise with equal frequency in all zones of the prostate.
E, The peripheral zone makes up 70% of the prostate, and 80% of prostatic
adenocarcinomas arise in the peripheral zone.
36. During an annual physical exam, a 35-year-old woman is found to have a nodular thyroid
gland. Which of the following may cause such a finding?
A. Goiter
B. Follicular adenoma
C. Papillary carcinoma
D. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
E. All of the above
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37. Systemic arterial blood has diminished oxygen saturation in which of these cardiovascular
malformations?
A. Truncus arteriosus
B. Supracristal ventricular septal defect
C. Coarctation of the aorta with a ligamentum arteriosum
D. Patent ductus arteriosus with a left to right shunt.
E. Valve competent foramen ovale
38. Which of the following regarding cervical (PAP) smears is/are true:
A. The slide containing the specimen should be allowed to air-dry
B. Endometrial cells are normally found in smears from post-menopausal females
C. The best time to perform the smear is during menstruation
D. Is an effective screening test for cervical cancer and its precursor lesions
E. All of the above
39. Which of the following is associated with meconium aspiration?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Tracheo-esophageal fistula
C. Extreme prematurity
D. Decreased respiratory movement
E. Perinatal hypoxia
40. The possible occurrence of pituitary adenoma should be expected in patients with:
A. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
B. Pheochromaocytoma
C. Pancreatic islet cell adenoma
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
41. Which of the following statements about bronchopulmonary dysplasia is FALSE?
A. It can progress to diffuse interstitial fibrosis.
B. It can lead to pulmonary hypertension.
C. Surfactant treatment has caused a major change in the natural history of the disease.
D. Irreversible interstitial fibrosis occurs within four days of onset.
E. It can evolve from hyaline membrane disease.
42. What are the sequelae of germinal matrix hemorrhage in a premature neonate?
A Subdural hematoma
B Hyaline membrane disease
c Kemicterus
D. Intraventricular hemorrhage
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43. All of the following are true about papillary carcinoma of the thyroid gland EXCEPT:
A. Calcified psammoma bodies may be found.
B. It is associated with radiation to the neck.
C. The nuclei of malignant cells have a pale "ground glass" appearance.
D. It metastasizes early and has a poor 5-year survival rate.
E. It is the most common type of thyroid cancer.
44. Females who were exposed to diethylstilbestrol in utero have a higher incidence of:
A. Endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the endometrium
B. Squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix
C. Clear cell adenocarcinoma of the vagina
D. Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
E. Squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva
45. A 50-year-old alcoholic suddenly develops massive upper gastrointestinal bleeding due to
Boerhaave's syndrome. What is the underlying etiology?
A. Forceful vomiting
B. Squamous carcinoma of the esophagus
C. Barrett's esophagus
D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
E. Esophagealvarices
46. One of your colleagues from the first-year class reports identifying only 3 parathyroid glands
in his gross anatomy cadaver. All of the following would be legitimate explanations EXCEPT:
A. History of surgical parathyroidectomy.
B. Parathyroid glands derived from the 4th branchial pouch may be intrathymic.
C. Parathyroid glands may resemble other tissues, such as lymph node or fat.
D. Some people may develop fewer than 4 parathyroid glands
E. Parathyroid glands are very small and may be overlooked.
47. Which factors have a role in the pathogenesis of congenital atresia of the ileum?
A. Absent ganglion cells in the Auerbach plexus
B. Defective canalization of the embryonal gut lumen.
C. Intrauterine damage to the gut wall.
D. Chromosomal abnormality
48. The most common cause of vulvar ulcers is:
A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Herpes simplex
D. Trichomonas
E. Candida
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49. A patient develops persistent duodenal ulcers and diarrhea. Her serum gastrin level is found
to be markedly elevated. Radiologic studies reveal a mass in her duodenum, and additional
adjacent enlarged lymph nodes. Of the following, the MOST LIKELY process to be present is:
A. Common variable immunodeficiency
B. Adenocarcinoma of the duodenum
C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
D. Whipple's disease
E. Autoimmune disease
50. Potential causes of Cushing's syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. microadenoma of pituitary
B. adrenal cortical adenoma
C. papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
D. bronchogenic carcinoma
E. long-term adrenal corticosteroid therapy
51. A time during gestation when the embryo or fetus has maximum susceptibility to
malformation or disruption by exogenous stimuli.
A. The entire gestational period
B. Second trimester
C. First trimester
D. Third trimester
52. What is a "brown tumor"?
A. A mass of parenchymal calcification within the kidney
B. A hyperplastic parathyroid gland
C. Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
D. A proliferation of neoplastic macrophages filled with hemosiderin pigment
E. A localized solid and cystic area within bone
53. The most common cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding is:
A. Endometrial polyp
B. Luteal phase defect
C. Chronic endometritis
D. Inadequate luteal phase
E. Anovulatory cycle
54. What are the anatomic features of Hirschsprung disease?
A. Dilatation of the distal colon
B. Absent myenteric ganglion cells in the distal colon
C. Absent myenteric ganglion cells in the proximal colon.
D. Constriction of the proximal colon
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55. A 45-year-old woman develops multiple, small nodules along the inner aspect of her right
arm. Some of the nodules are ulcerated and drain purulent material. She denies fever, night
sweats or other systemic symptoms. She is an avid gardener and has won several awards for her
roses. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY causative organism?
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Toxoplasma gondii
D. Sporothrix schenckii
E. Aspergillus
56. Which of the following human papillomavirus type is more likely to be associated with
condyloma acuminatum:
11
A. 11
B. 33
C. 16
D. 18
E. 31
57. An 81 year old male presents with symptoms of weight loss and intermittent blood in his
stool for the past 6 months. He has a history of two villous adenomas of the left colon that were
removed during colonoscopy 3 years ago. Today's colonoscopy shows a 5.0 cm exophytic mass
in the left colon. An MRI shows an exophytic mass with infiltration through the wall of the
bowel, and three lesions in the liver with diameters of 0.5 to 1.5 cm. Needle biopsies of the liver
lesions are planned in order to confirm your suspicions. Which of the following is MOST
CORRECT?
A. The diagnosis is diverticulosis of the colon, with abscesses in the liver.
B. The patient has an invasive colorectal carcinoma with probable metastases, any his
treatment will most likely include surgery and chemotherapy.
C. The patient has a Peutz-Jegher polyp and incidental (unrelated) liver lesions.
D. The single most important prognostic indicator in this case is the size of the tumor,
since that is what the TNM and modified Dukes staging classification is based upon.
E. The patient's age and lesion location are consistant with Hereditary Non-Polyposis
Colorectal Carcinoma Syndrome
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58. A 7 year old uncircumcised male presents with a chief complaint of recurrent episodes of
reddening and irritation of the penile foreskin. His father indicates these episodes started 2 years
ago, but are now more frequent. Your physical examination shows a phimotic foreskin
(narrowing of the preputial orifice) that is hyperemic (red and inflamed), with some areas of mild
scarring. The glans is mildly hyperemic, and debris and retained urine are visible in the
balanopreputial sulcus between the glans and foreskin. Even with moderate effort the patient
cannot retract the foreskin. Which ONE of the following should you do?
A. Inform the father that in spite of intense ongoing research, there is still no known
treatment for his son's condition.
B. Recommend circumcision.
C. Prescribe anti-virals taken by mouth; no follow-up visit is needed.
D. Dismiss the father's concerns, tell him his son will "grow out of it" and recommend no
treatment.
E. Assure the father that there are no long term sequelae to phimosis.
59. What is the MOST COMMON variant of tracheoesophageal fistula/esophageal atresia?
A. Proximal and distal esophagus both communicate with trachea
B. Proximal esophagus ends in blind tube; there is no distal esophagus
C. Proximal and distal esophagus do not connect to one another
D. Proximal esophagus communicates with trachea; there is no distal esophagus
E. Proximal esophagus ends in blind tube; distal esophagus communicates with trachea
60. Which statement regarding fine needle aspiration is true?
A. It can be used to diagnose tumors
B. It cannot be used to diagnose infections
C. It cannot be performed by pathologists
D. It requires overnight hospital stay
E. It is usually associated with significant risk to the patient
61. Which one of the following clinical observations or tests have the greatest specificity in
making a diagnosis of bacterial sepsis?
A. Liver function tests
B. White blood cell count
C. Body temperature
D. Blood culture
E. Renal function tests
62. A 44-year-old man with insulin-dependent diabetes had fever and sinusitis for about a week
before hospital admission. He was found to have an infection of the nasal sinuse with associated
tissue necrosis and invasion of arterial walls. Despite antibiotic therapy the infection spread into
periorbital and brain tissue. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY causative organism?
A. Coccidioides
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Pneumocystis carinii
D. Mucor
E. Cryptococcus
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63. A 5 year-old boy has been irritable for the past 2 days. He has a temperature of 39.1 C. A
lumbar puncture is performed, and the CSF shows numerous neutrophils, a slightly increased
protein level, and decreased glucose concentration. A Gram stain of the CSF is most likely to
show:
A. Gram-positive cocci
B. No organisms
C. Gram-negative bacilli
D. Gram-negative diplococci
E. Short gram-positive rods
64. Which of the following is TRUE with respect to colon polyps:
A. A tubular adenoma with high grade dysplasia is no more likely to be associated
with invasive adenocarcinoma than a polyp with low grade dysplasia.
B. Tubular adenomas have usually already metastasized by the time they are
discovered.
C. Hyperplastic polyps always contain adenocarcinoma in their stalk.
D. Colon polyps are rarely found in patients with familial adenomatous polyposis
syndrome.
E. Villous adenomas are more likely to become malignant than tubular adenomas.
65. Which of the following relate to the normal changes that take place in the cardiovascular
system after birth ?
A. Closure of the ventricular septum.
B. Hypertrophy of the right ventricular myocardium.
C. Expansion of the aortic isthmus
D. Medial hypertrophy of the small pulmonary arteries.
E. Continuity of the aortic and mitral valve leaflets
66. Which ONE of the following is INCORRECT regarding diverticulosis of the colon:
A. Uncommon before the age of 30
B. Never associated with complications such as perforation or fistulas
C. Is the result of focal weakness in the muscular wall of the colon
D. Symptoms include cramping, constipation, and sometimes diarrhea
E. Most frequent site is in the sigmoid colon
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67. A 45-year-old woman complains of muscle weakness and fatigue. She is found to have
diastolic hypertension, hypokalemia, and hypernatremia. Cortisol levels are normal. Which of
the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
A. Grave's disease
B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C. Cushing's syndrome
D. Addison's disease
E. Conn's syndrome
68. A 43-year-old male injection drug user is admitted with a 1-day history of increasing
headache and high fever. A lumbar puncture is performed. The CSF protein concentration is
elevated, but the glucose level is decreased. The most likely infectious agent account for these
findings is:
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. J-C strain of papovavirus
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Herpes simplex virus
69. A traveler returns from an extended vacation and notices worsening diarrhea and abdominal
discomfort. When questioned, she admits to drinking water directly from fresh water streams,
without purifying the water first. Of the following, which is the MOST LIKELY cause of her
symptoms?
A. Eosinophilic gastroenteritis
B. Cryptosporidium parvum
C. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
D. Giardia lamblia
E. Meckel's diverticulum
70. The following disease is frequently fatal early in life:
A. Unilateral cystic renal dysplasia
B. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
C. Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
D. Vesicoureteral reflux
E. None of the above
71. Which one is TRUE concerning benign testicular disorders:
A. Cryptorchidism is associated with decreased germ cell development and
significantly increases the risk of germ neoplasms later in life.
B. Cryptorchidism is always bilateral.
C. A patient with a hydrocele has a collection of dilated veins between the visceral
tunica and parietal tunica of the testis.
D. Testicular tuberculosis usually starts in the testis and then spreads from there tc
the rest of the body.
E. Tortion of the spermatic cord always terminates arterial blood flow to the testis,
whil leaving venous blood flow relatively intact.
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MATCHING: For each question in (Column 1) select the best answer from (Column 2).
Each answer may be used once, more than once or not at all.
Column 1
Column 2
72. The most common lysosomal storage
disease Type I sphingomyelinase deficiency).
(none neuronopathic with painless
splenomegaly, platelets, bone
involvement, more common in
Ashkenazi Jews), Type II (Acute
infantile; has hepatosplenomealy and
severe brain involvement;death by deficiency).
age two years) and Type III (Juvenile;
subacure; similar to Type II but with
later onset).
A. Neimann-Pick disease (acid
B. Metachromatic Leukodystrophy
(arylsulfatase A deficiency).
C. Maroteaux-Lamy Syndrome (MPS
VI).
D. Gaucher disease ( B - glucosidase
73. Lysomal storage disease
characterized by the finding positive
sea blue histiocytes of foam cells in
bone marrow and many other tissues.
There are three types named A, B,
And C. Type C is actually an
abnormal accumulation of LDL
cholesterol.
74. MucDpoLysacch eses
characterized by typical somatic
features (coarse facial features, joint
stiffness, dysostosis multiplex,
corneal opacities,
hepatosplenomagaly, and deafness)
but normal IQ.
MATCHING: For each numbered question (Column 1) choose the best answer in
(Column 2). Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Column 1
75. Granulosa cell tumor
76. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
77. Yolk sac tumor
78. Ovarian fibroma
79. Partial hydatidiform mole
Column 2
A. Triploidy
B. Alpha-fetoprotein
C. Call-Exner body
D. Hirsutism
E. Meig's syndrome
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ANSWERS:
1
2
3
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5
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14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
D
C
A
E
C
A
B
D
B
D
B
D
C
B
A
D
D
D
E
A
D
E
A
C
B
A
A
D
D
B
B
C
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
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61
62
63
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A
C
E
E
A
D
E
C
D
D
D
C
A
B
C
C
C
C
C
E
E
B
D
A
B
B
E
A
D
D
C
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
E
C
B
E
D
D
C
A
D
A
C
C
D
B
E
A