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KANWAR IMMUNOPATHOLOGY REVIEW QUESTIONS 1. Which of the following is/are the component(s)of the immunoregulatory system involved in the antigen recognition and postrecognition events: a. b. c. d. e. T-cell antigen receptor (TCR) CD3+ (cluster determinants) antigens CD4+ cells monocytes/macrophage all of the above ANSWER = E 2. What percentage of T cells of peripheral circulation carry CD4 and CD8 molecules on their surfaces: a. b. c. d. e. 50% 50% 30% 60% 50% and and and and and 30% 40% 60% 30% 30% ANSWER = D 3. Which of the following haplotypes have the highest frequency in patients with ankylosing spondylitis: a. b. c. d. e. HLA HLA HLA HLA HLA A8 DR3 B15 B27 DR2 ANSWER = D 4. Which of the following disorder(s)represent Type-II hypersensitivity: a. b. c. d. e. erythroblastosis fetalis Goodpasture's syndrome drug-induced hemolytic anemia blood transfusion reactions all of the above ANSWER = E 5. What is the most reliable criterion for the diagnosis of an autoimmune disorder: a. b. c. d. e. ANSWER = D decreased level of complement in the serum presence of immunoglobulins in the urine increased level of immunoglobulins in the serum presence of autoantibody in the serum presence of lymphocytes in various organs 6. In erythroblastosis fetalis the antibodies are directed against which of the following cells: a. b. c. d. e. mother’s RBCs father’s WBCs fetal platelets fetal RBCs fetal WBCs ANSWER = D 7. Which autoantibody’s levels do not fluctuate with the disease activity: a. b. c. d. e. anti-ssDNA anti dsDNA anti-RNP anti-Sm anti-histone ANSWER = D 8. Which form of lupus glomerulonephritis is likely to have very low levels of serum complement: a. b. c. d. e. mesangial proliferative nephritis focal proliferative nephritis diffuse proliferative nephritis membranous nephritis tubulointerstitial nephritis ANSWER = C 9. Which one of the following is NOT true of the drug-induced lupus erythematosus: a. b. c. d. e. anti-dsDNA antibodies anti-ssDNA antibodies anti-histone antibodies patients are usually slow acetylators association with HLA-DR4 ANSWER = A 10. Which of the following is associated with increased incidence of lymphoma: a. b. c. d. e. systemic lupus erythematosus progressive systemic sclerosis polymyositis/dermatositis Sjogren's syndrome mixed connective tissue disorders ANSWER = D 11. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of amyloidosis: a. b. c. d. e. ANSWER = D nephrotic range proteinuria cardiac rhythm disturbances hepatosplenomegaly proliferation of the cells around the amyloid deposit macroglossia 12. Type-I hypersensitivity reaction involves which of the following antibody: a. b. c. d. e. IgG IgA IgM IgD IgE antibody antibody antibody antibody antibody ANSWER = E 13. Type-II hypersensitivity reaction involves which of the following: a. b. c. d. e. complement fixing antibodies opsonizing antibodies complement-mediated cytolysis antibody-mediated cellular toxicity all of the above ANSWER = E 14. Which of the following is/are relevant in the pathogenesis of Grave's disease: a. b. c. d. e. autoantibody recognized as a thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor increase in the levels of triiodothyroinine autoantibody which perhaps evolved through idiotypic-anti-idiotypic network all of the above none of the above ANSWER = D 15. Which of the following is/are the relevant feature(s) of Myasthenia gravis: a. b. c. d. e. relatively low incidence of thymoma increased muscle contraction autoantibody directed against acetylcholine receptor all of the above none of the above ANSWER = C 16. Which of the following is/are the relevant feature(s) of pernicious anemia: a. b. c. d. e. an autoantibody directed against the erythroid precursors of bone marrow an autoantibody interfering in the absorption of gastric intrinsic factor increased secretion of hydrochloric acid by the gastric mucosa all of the above none of the above ANSWER = B 17. Which autoantibody(ies) is/are diagnostic for systemic lupus erythematosus: a. b. c. d. e. ANSWER = D anti-dsDNA anti-Sm anti-histone a and b a, b and c 18. Which of the following is characteristic of mixed connective tissue disorders: a. b. c. d. e. immunofluorescence of extracellular matrices nucleolar immunofluorescence homogeneous nuclear immunofluorescence peripheral nuclear immunofluorescence speckled nuclear immunofluorescence ANSWER = E 19. Which of the following proteins DO NOT undergo proteolytic cleavage prior to deposition: a. b. c. d. e. immunoglobulin light kappa chain serum amyloid associated protein immunoglobulin light lambda chain transthyretin all of the above ANSWER = D 20. What is/are the essential component(s) of a typical amyloid deposit: a. b. c. d. e. AL or AA fibril protein amyloid-P component glycosaminoglycans all of the above none of the above ANSWER = D 21. Type-III hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by which of the following: a. b. c. d. e. IgE antibody-mediated blood vessel damage IgA antibody-mediated damage to pharynx immune-complex-mediated damage to the kidney allergy to drugs, e.g., penicillin tuberculosis of lungs ANSWER = C 22. Which of the following association(s)is/are correct: a. b. c. d. e. class I HLA antigens : mixed lymphocyte reaction gamma interferon : activation of mononuclear macrophage class II HLA antigens : complement deficiencies ankylosing spondylitis : HLA-D27 all of the above ANSWER = B 23. Which of the following match(es) is/are correct: a. b. c. d. e. ANSWER = D allergic rhinitis: dephosphorylation of mast cell perigranular membrane Goodpasture syndrome: circulating immune-complex-mediated disease systemic lupus erythematosus: type II hypersensitivity disease erythroblastosis fetalis: antibody-mediated disease all of the above 24. Which antibody(ies) is/are prevalent in systemic lupus erythematosus patients: a. b. c. d. e. anti-RNP (Sm, Smith) anti-dsDNA anti-DNA topoisomerase I a and b a, b and c ANSWER = D 25. Which of the following clinico-pathological correlation (s) is/are NOT correct: a. b. c. d. e. progressive systemic sclerosis : "honeycomb" appearance of the lungs Grave's disease : retrobulbar (orbital) mucoid degeneration Sjögren's syndrome : high incidence of B-cell lymphoma Thyrotoxicosis : antibody directed against thyroxine all of the above ANSWER = D 26. Asthma exemplifies which of the following type of hypersensitivity reaction: a. b. c. d. e. type-I type-II type-III type-IV all of the above ANSWER = A 27. Which one of the following clinico-pathological correlations is NOT correct: a. b. c. d. e. drug-induced lupus erythematosus : N-acetyltransferase deficiency systemic lupus erythematosus : Libman-Sacks endocarditis polyarteritis nodosa : anti-HBsAg & HBsAg:HBsAB in the tissues progressive systemic sclerosis : ischemic ulcers mixed connective tissue disorders : presence of anti-Sm antibodies ANSWER = E 28. Which one of the following is NOT a diagnostic parameter for an autoimmune disorder: a. b. c. d. e. presence of autoantibodies in the serum increased number of plasma cells and lymphocytes in target organs increased concentration of immunoglobulins in the serum increased excretion of light chains of immunoglobulins in the urine responsiveness to steroid treatment ANSWER = D 29. Systemic lupus erythematosus involves which of the following organs: a. b. c. d. e. ANSWER = E skin kidney joints blood vessels all of the above 30. Systemic lupus erythematosus is characterized by which of the following: a. b. c. d. e. allergic reactions to drugs allergy to pollens anti-dsDNA antibodies in blood IgE antibody-mediated mucosal damage delayed hypersensitivity reaction ANSWER = C 31. The protein which does not undergo proteolytic cleavage prior to the formation an amyloid deposit: a. b. c. d. e. amyloid light chain (AL) amyloid associated (AA) protein prealbumin thyrocalcitonin proinsulin ANSWER = C 32. In which one of the following does one observe HBsAG:HBsAb immune complexes: a. b. c. d. e. systemic lupus erythematosus polyarteritis nodosa mixed connective tissue diseases idiopathic dermatomyositis progressive systemic sclerosis ANSWER = B 33. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of mixed connective tissue diseases: a. b. c. d. e. speckled nuclear immunofluorescence absence of anti-Sm (Smith) antibody absence of anti-dsDNA antibody presence of high titers of anti-RNP antibody presence of anti-centromere antibody ANSWER = E 34. Which one of the following is encoded between HLA- A -B & -D loci of MHC complex: a. b. c. d. e. class I antigens class II antigens 2-microglobulin complement components (C2 and C4) a and b polypeptide chains ANSWER = D 35. The patient's serum autoantibody exhibits speckled nuclear fluorescence, and it is nonreactive towards dsDNA & Smith(Sm) antigens. The most likely diagnosis is: a. b. c. d. e. ANSWER = D systemic lupus erythematosus discoid lupus erythematosis Sjögren's syndrome mixed connective tissue disorders scleroderma 36. Hypergammaglobulinemia with electrophoretic monoclonal peak is diagnostic of: a. b. c. d. e. cirrhosis of liver chronic infection multiple myeloma Sjögren's syndrome systemic lupus erythematosus ANSWER = C 37. Which one of the following associations is NOT correct: a. b. c. d. e. Hashimoto thyroiditis: Hürthle cells polyarteritis nodosa: necrotizing panarteritis Wegener's granulomatosis: necrotizing nasopharyngeal granulomas Goodpasture's syndrome: crescentic glomerulonephritis scleroderma: necrotizing pulmonary granulomas ANSWER = E 38. Which of the following associations is/are NOT correct: a. b. c. d. e. transcobalamin deficiency: selective leukopenia DiGeorge syndrome: hypoplasia of thymus severe combined immunodeficiency: defective interactions of pre-T cells with thymic epithelium Bruton's X-linked agammaglobulinemia: defective maturation of pre-B cells myasthenia gravis: thymoma ANSWER = A 39. Which form of lupus nephritis is most likely to present as nephrotic syndrome: a. b. c. d. e. focal lupus nephritis diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis mesangial lupus nephritis membranous lupus nephritis none of the above ANSWER = D 40. Which of the following is/are feature(s) of drug-induced lupus erythematosus: a. b. c. d. e. patients are "slow acetylators" patients develop anti-single stranded DNA (ssDNA) antibodies patients on anticonvulsant therapy can develop lupus-like syndrome patients develop antinuclear antibodies all of the above ANSWER = E 41. Low complement levels are seen in which form of lupus glomerulonephritis: a. b. c. d. e. ANSWER = D membranous form mesangial-proliferative focal proliferative diffuse proliferative all of the above 42. Which of the following is/are NOT a feature of drug-induced lupus erythematosus: a. b. c. d. e. patients develop antihistone antibodies patients are "slow acetylators" patients exclusively develop anti double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibodies patients develop anti single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) antibodies patient’s symptoms disappear with the discontinuation of the offending drug therapy ANSWER = C 43. Which of the following association(s) is/are correct: a. b. c. d. e. speckled nuclear immunofluorescence: mixed connective tissue diseases nucleolar immunofluorescence: scleroderma peripheral nuclear immunofluorescence: diagnostic of SLE a and b a, b and c ANSWER = E 44. Which of the following is/are NOT usual characteristic(s) of lupus erythematosus: a. b. c. d. e. Liquefactive degeneration of the basal layers of epidermis hypocomplementemia interstitial pulmonary fibrosis nonbacterial verrucous (Libman-Sacks) endocarditis nonerosive synovitis ANSWER = C 45. Which of the following is/are the secondary mediator(s) of inflammation: a. b. c. d. e. histamine heparin eosinophilic chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis (ECF-A) leukotriene none of the above ANSWER = D 46. Which of the following associations is NOT correct: a. b. c. d. e. Hashimoto's thyroiditis: consistently increased serum levels of thyroxin myasthenia gravis: easy fatigability of muscles Grave's disease: anti-thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins pernicious anemia: degeneration of spinal dorsal and lateral tracts Goodpasture syndrome: anti-basement membrane antibody ANSWER = A 47. Which of the following associations is NOT correct: a. b. c. d. e. ANSWER = D anti-ssDNA: drug-induced lupus erythematosus excessive production of collagen: progressive systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) fibrinoid necrosis: polyarteritis nodosa anti IgG/anti-Kappa chain: amyloidosis anti-tRNA synthetase: polymyositis 48. Which of the following associations is NOT correct: a. b. c. d. e. lupus erythematosus: anti-dsDNA antibody scleroderma: anti-Scl 70 antibody myasthenia gravis: anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody Wegener's granulomatosis: antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody Hashimoto's thyroiditis: anti-thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor antibody ANSWER = E 49. Pulmonary tuberculosis is characterized by which of the following: a. b. c. d. e. damage to lungs by repeated asthamtic attacks antibody mediated damage to the lungs damage to lungs caused by primary mediators of inflammation delayed cell-mediated damage to the lungs all of the above ANSWER = D 50. Drug-induced lupus erythematosus is characterized by which of the following: a. b. c. d. e. patients develop anti-ssDNA antibodies patients have deficiency of liver N-acetyltransferase patients develop anti-histone antibodies patients become asymptomatic after drug withdrawl all of the above ANSWER = E 51. Crithidia lucilae protozoan test is used in the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus since it utilizes the presence of dsDNA in the following: a. b. c. d. e. in in in in in its its its its its cytoplasm diffusely plasma membrane undulating membrane kinetoplast flagella ANSWER = D 52. A positive indirect Coomb’s indicates the following: a. b. c. d. e. presence of antibody presence of antibody presence of antibody presence of antibody all of the above on on on in the plasmalemma of RBCs the plasmalemma of leukocytes erythryoid precursor cells the serum ANSWER = D 53. Immunodeficiency of T-cells is associated with: a. b. c. d. e. ANSWER = E susceptibility to susceptibility to susceptibility to susceptibility to all of the above viral infections fungal infections mycobacterial infections protozoal infections 54. Which one of following is NOT a feature of acquired immune deficiency syndrome: a. b. c. d. e. association of Kaposi’s sarcoma pneumocystic carini infection CD4+ T-cell to CD8+ T-cell ratio more than two central nervous disorders lymphadenopathy ANSWER = C 55. CD4+T-cells have receptors for which of the following antigens of human immunodeficiency virus: a. b. c. d. e. p41 p24 p18 gp120 gp21 ANSWER = D 57. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct: a. b. c. d. e. CD4+T cell has a receptor for p24 protein of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) a reversal of CD4+ to CD8+ T cells is observed in HIV infection plasma cells or mature B cells are always seen in organs affected by amyloidosis associated with immunocytic dyscrasias proteolytic cleavage of the precursor protein is an absolute requirement for the formation of amyloid deposit in the target tissues all of the above ANSWER = B 58. 52-year-old white male was admitted to the hospital for organ transplant. After engraftment, he received rigorous immunosuppressive therapy. He then developed low-grade fever, and chest X-ray revealed diffuse alveolar infiltrates. Which protozoal organism is likely to be present in the lung biopsy specimen: a. b. c. d. e. Candida albicans Aspergillus fumigatus Pneumocystis carini Histoplasma capsulatum Giardia lamblia ANSWER = C 59. Which cell type undergoes morphologic differentiation prior to the production of immunoglobulin like IgE? a. b. c. d. e. ANSWER = C Mast cell Basophil B-cell T-cell Plasma cell 60. Cells that are capable of receptor or non-receptor mediated phagocytosis of particulate matter include: a. b. c. d. e. Lymphocytes, mast cells T-cells Basophils, stem cells Endothelial cells, plasma cells Neutrophils, macrophages, eosinophils ANSWER = E 61. Which cell type contains metachromatic granules and is distributed in the tissues? a. b. c. d. e. Eosinophil Basophil Macrophage Mast cell Neutrophil ANSWER = D 62. Which one of the following descriptions best characterizes class II MHC complex? a. b. c. d. e. it it it it it is made up of a single transmembrane polypeptide chain includes human leukocyte antigen (HLA) loci A, B and C includes HLA loci DR, DP and DQ has 2-microglobulin as part the heterodimeric glycoprotein restricts the expansion/activation of CD8+ T cells ANSWER = C 63. Which one of the following statements best describes systemic lupus erythematosus? a. b. c. d. e. The clinical presentation is limited to one or two organs only Immune complex deposition is rather sparse Autoantibodies are restricted to antibodies against dsDNA SLE is associated with deficiencies of complement component C2 and C4 Damage in various organs is predominantly mediated by natural killer cells ANSWER = D 64. Which one of the following immunopathologic mechanisms is predominantly involved in autoimmune hemolytic anemia? a. b. c. d. e. Immune complex mediated hemolysis of RBCs IgE-mediated hypersensitivity Cell-mediated cytotoxicity Delayed-type hypersensitivity Antibody-mediated cytotoxicity ANSWER = E 65. Which antibody is relatively more specific for Sjogren syndrome? a. b. c. d. e. ANSWER = C Antinuclear antibody (ANA) Anti-Smith antigen Anti-SSb Anti-tRNA synthetase Anti-Scl-70 66. Which one of the following does NOT cause increased vascular permeability during an inflammatory response? a. b. c. d. e. Bradykinin Histamine Platelet activating factor (PAF) Complement C5b67 Leukotriene C4 ANSWER = D 67. Polyclonal B cell activators include: a. b. c. d. e. Lipopolysaccharides Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) Protein A All of the above ANSWER = E 68. Which of the following(s) are secreted by mononuclear macrophages? a. b. c. d. e. Tumor necrosis factor Interleukin-1 Arachidonic acid metabolites Plasminogen activators All of the above ANSWER = E 69. Which one of the following does NOT represent type-II hypersensitivity reaction? a. b. c. d. e. Tuberculosis Graves disease Transfusion reaction Myasthenia gravis Hemolytic anemia ANSWER = A 70. Which of the following are applicable to type-II hypersensitivity reaction? a. b. c. d. e. Activation of complement and formation of C3b opsonin Generation of membrane attack complex (C5-9) Antibody-dependent cell-mediated toxicity Fc receptor-mediated phagocytosis of the bacteria All of the above ANSWER = E 71. Which one of following is NOT a characteristic of the Arthus reaction where the lesions resemble those seen in immune complex-mediated vasculitis? a. b. c. d. e. ANSWER = D Deposition of complement Leukocytic infiltration Fibrinoid necrosis Necrosis associated with granuloma formation Deposition of the antibody 72. Autoimmune diseases may NOT be associated with which of the following: a. b. c. d. e. Diminished T suppressor cell function Abnormal B cell function Enhanced T helper cell function Polyclonal B-cell activation Accentuated activity of mononuclear-macrophage ANSWER = E 73. More than 75% of the patients with systemic lupus erthematosus show evidence of: a. b. c. d. e. Libman-Sacks endocarditis Glomerulonephritis Central nervous involvement Raynauds disease Peripheral neuritis ANSWER = B 74. Which of the following is NOT a feature of primary form of Sjogren disease? a. b. c. d. e. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca Predilection for females Crescentic glomerulonephritis Xerostomia Presence of SSa and SSb antibodies ANSWER = C 75. Which of the following is NOT a feature of scleroderma? a. b. c. d. e. Increase of collagen in the reticular dermis Thickening of the epidermis Variable lymphoid infiltrates in the dermis Hyalinization of arterioles Atrophy of the skin appendages ANSWER = B 76. Which of the following statement is NOT true of graft-versus-host disease? a. b. c. d. f. Donor cells recognize the recipient’s HLA antigens as being foreign Recipient cells recognize the donor’s HLA antigens as being foreign Anti-recipient CD4+ and CD8+ T cells are generated Epithelia of skin, liver and intestine are affected Secondary cytomegalovirus infection may be occur ANSWER = B 77. Birefringence of amyloid deposits can be enhanced by polarizing microscopy in tissues stained with a. b. c. d. e. ANSWER = D Trichrome Masson stain Hematoxylin & Eosin stain Lugol’s iodine stain Congo red stain Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS) stain 78. Restriction-fragment-length polymorphism (RFLP) would be helpful to determine the genetic abnormalities in which one of the following amyloid fibrillary protein? a. b. c. d. e. Immunoglobulin light chains Serum amyloid associated protein 2-microglobulin Calcitonin Transthyretin ANSWER = E 79. Which one of the following autoantibodies is seen in patients with megaloblastic anemia? a. b. c. d. e. Anti-tRNA synthetase antibody Anti-gastric parietal cell antibody Anti-DNA antibody Anti-microperoxidase antibody Anti-erythrocyte antibody ANSWER = B 80. Which one of the following is true of pernicious anemia? a. b. c. d. e. Anemia is due to the deficiency Vitamin B6 Patients present with increased secretion of hydrochloric acid Anemia is due to the hemolysis of RBCs Gastric mucosa lacks parietal epithelial cells Hemoglobin synthesis is abnormal ANSWER = D 81. Which one of the following diseases may not associated with any respiratory difficulties? a. b. c. d. e. Myasthenia gravis Scleroderma Graves disease Wegener’s granulomatosis Asthma ANSWER = C 82. Which one of the following may not be the feature of Reiter’s syndrome? a. b. c. d. e. Arthritis Myocarditis Urethritis Conjunctivitis Cervicitis ANSWER = B 83. Which of following diseases may be associated with reactive systemic amyloidosis? a. b. c. d. e. ANSWER = E Pulmonary tuberculosis Ankylosing spondylitis Rheumatoid arthritis Regional enteritis All of the above Matching format questions. Please be kind to search the answers in your notes and text books also. 84. A. B. C. D. E. T-Cells B-Cells Natural Killer Cells Macrophage/monocyte Killer Cells D. C. A. E. B. produce interleukin-1 express Fc receptors produce interleukin-2 immune surveillance express Fc & C3b receptors 85. A. B. C. D. Interleukin-2 Interleukin-1 Gamma interferon Tumor necrosis factor alpha B. A. D. C. activates the resting T cells rapidly activates Natural Killer cells induces acute phase reactions antiviral activity 86. A. B. C. D. Class I antigens Class II antigens Class III antigens T-cell receptor antigens B. C. D. A. activation of helper cells encode for certain complement proteins regulate antigen recognition events regulate functions of cytotoxic cells 87. A. B. C. D. Type-I hypersensitivity Type-II hypersensitivity Type-III hypersensitivity Type-IV hypersensitivity C. A. D. B. activation of Hageman factor phosphorylation of granular membrane MHC class I restricted cytotoxicity antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity 88. A. B. C. D. Type-I hypersensitivity Type-II hypersensitivity Type-III hypersensitivity Type-IV hypersensitivity C. A. D. B. antigen-antibody complexes cytophilic antibody lymphotoxins (TNF-) cytotoxic antibody 89. A. B. C. D. Type-I hypersensitivity Type-II hypersensitivity Type-III hypersensitivity Type-IV hypersensitivity C. B. D. A. Arthus reaction erythroblastosis fetalis Mantoux reaction allergic rhinitis 90. A. B. C. D. E. Hashimoto's disease Grave's disease Myasthenia Gravis Goodpasture's syndrome Pernicious anemia B. D. E. C. A. anti-TSH antibody anti-type IV collagen (NC1) antibody anti-gastric parietal cell antibody anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody anti-thyroglobulin antibody 91. A. B. C. D. E. Hashimoto's disease Grave's disease Myasthenia Gravis Goodpasture's syndrome Pernicious anemia B. D. A. E. C. hyperactivity of thyroid cells crescentic glomerulonephritis presence of Hurthle cells subacute combined myelin degeneration myofiber atrophy 92. A. B. C. D. Anti-dsDNA Anti-histone Anti-RNP Anti-HBsAg B. D. C. A. drug-induced lupus erythematosus polyarteritis nodosa mixed connective tissue disorders systemic lupus erythematosus 93. A. B. C. D. Anti-tRNA synthetase Anti-DNA topoisomerase Anti-SSb Anti-centromere D. A. B. C. CREST syndrome Polymyositis/dermatositis diffuse systemic sclerosis Sjogren's syndrome 94. A. B. C. D. E. Systemic lupus erythematosus Drug-induced lupus Mixed connective tissue disorders Progressive systemic sclerosis Sjogren's syndrome C. E. D. B. A. overlapping clinical features dryness of mucous membranes claw-like deformities slow-acetylators Libman-Sacks endocarditis 95. A. B. C. D. E. Lupus nephritis, diffuse Lupus nephritis, membranous Polyarteritis nodosa Progressive systemic sclerosis Sjogren's syndrome D. B. E. A. C. honeycomb appearance of the lung nephrotic syndrome high incidence of B-cell lymphoma low levels of complement aneurysmal dilatation of blood vessels 96. A. B. C. D. E. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia DiGeorge Syndrome Transcobalamin II deficiency HIV infection Adenosine deaminase deficiency D. E. A. B. C. defective cell-mediated immunity toxicity of T- & B-Cells defective humoral immunity defective 3rd & 4th pharyngeal pouches pancytopenia 97. A. B. C. D. E. Amyloid light chain -amyloid protein A4 Amyloid-P -2 amyloid microglobulin Transthyretin E. C. A. B. D. familial neuropathic form of amyloidosis homologous to C-reactive protein multiple myeloma Alzheimer's disease associated with long-term hemodialysis 98. A. B. C. D. E. Coomb's test Farr's immunoassay Raji cell assay Western Blot assay Flow cytometry C. A. E. B. D. measures circulating immune complexes used for autoimmune hemolytic anemia determines the ratio of CD4:CD8-T cells measures anti-dsDNA detects the presence of anti-gp120 & -gp41 99. A. B. C. D. E. Interleukin-1 -interferon TNF- Interleukin-2 Perforin D. A. E. B. C. made by activated T cells made by virtually every cell made by cytotoxic T cell has antiviral activity induces fever 100. A. B. C. D. E. Hay fever Erythroblastosis fetalis Arthus reaction Graft-versus-host disease Intractable arrhythmia C. E. D. A. B. type-III hypersensitivity reaction Amyloidosis type-IV hypersensitivity reaction type-I hypersensitivity reaction type-II hypersensitivity reaction