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№ з/п Зміст розділу К-ть питань в контрольну Усього питань 1 Фізологія збудливих тканин 10 238 2 Фізологія ЦНС 15 235 3 Фізіологія ендокринної системи 10 123 4 Дослідження соматосенсорної системи 5 87 5 Фізіологія вищої нервової діяльності людини 10 114 6 Blood physiology 7 89 7 Cardiovascular Physiology 12 225 8 Respiratory physiology 7 61 9 Physiology of energy balance and thermoregulation 7 36 10 Digestive physiology 10 145 1. 1 What type of transport through the membrane is active: Osmosis Facilitated diffusion Filtration The movement of ions against the concentration gradient Transport of CO2 2. 1 The peculiarity of the observation method is: The experiment is carried out only on animals The experimenter intervenes in the studied process Certain indicators are investigation The experimenter does not interfere with the studied process The experiment is carried out on animals after special training 3. 1 The universal property of living matter is: Lability Excitability Chronaxie Irritability Conductance 4. 1 What type of transport is carried out with sodiumpotassium pump? Osmosis Facilitated diffusion Pinocytosis Primary active transport Secondary active transport 5. 1 By strength of action stimuli are divided into: Physical, chemical and biological Adequate, inadequate Optimal specific Subthreshold, threshold, suprathreshold Subthreshold efficient, maximum 6. 1 Irritability - the ability of tissue to response on stimulation: Generate membrane potential Change the level of excitability Generate an action potential To change to the intensity of metabolism Change its lability 7. 1 Excitability - the ability of tissue to respond to the stimulus: To generate membrane potential To change the intensity of metabolism To change energy metabolism Generate an action potential To pass from a state of rest to a state of inhibition 8. 1 A drug that inhibits the synthesis of ATP in the cell was used in the experiment. What type of transmembrane transport will be affected? Filtration Simple diffusion Osmosis Active transport Facilitated diffusion 9. 1 What is the direction of ion transport during activation of sodium- potassium pump? Transport of sodium and potassium from the cells Transport of sodium and calcium into the cell and potassium from the cells Transport of sodium and potassium into the cell from the cell Transport of sodium from the cell and potassium into the cell Transport of sodium and potassium into the cell 10. 1 The formation of ATP cell was used blocked in the exciting experimental cells. Resting membrane potential decreased to zero. Violation of which processes leaded to these changes? Osmosis Secondary- active transport Facilitated diffusion Primary active transport Filtering 11. 1 Which type of an irritant is electric current for excitable tissues is an irritant? Inadequate Chemical Threshold Adequate Subthreshold 12. 1 Tissue capable of response to stimuli move in an active state, thus generating AP are called: Contractile Galling Leading Excitable There is no right answer 13. 1 The ability of tissue to respond to any kind of metabolism change is called: Lability Contractility Conductance Irritability Excitability 14. 1 To investigate the functions in physiology using: The method of observation Method acute experiment The method of chronic experiment All if the above Method of modeling 15. 1 What methods are used to investigate the functions is physiology? Organism Functional system Tissue Physiological systems All answers are incorrect 16. 1 Mutually combining of various organs and physiological systems to achieve results beneficial for the body is called: System of organs Authority Tissue Functional system Organism 17. 1 Which of the following compounds perform the function of enzymes in the body: Nucleic acids Carbohydrates Fats Proteins Minerals 18. 1 Living tissue's ability to respond to any kind of influence by changing its metabolism is called: Irritation Excitability Conductance Irritability Excitation 19. 1 Any action on the biological system, resulted in nonspecifically changing of its original state is called: Conduction Irritability Excitability Irritation Excitation 20. 1 The opening of the laws of circulatory system considered to be a beginning of experimental physiology an, realized by: Folbortom Galen Galvani Harvey Helmholtz 21. 1 The first head of the Department of Physiology, founded in 1895 at the Lviv Medical University, was: A. Vorobyov B. Tihovsky M. Vezhuhovskyy A. Beck I. Skorokhod 22. 1 Stimuli, that effect perceived receptors, and were specifically adapted to them in the phylogeny, are called: Inadequate Threshold Subthreshold Adequate Suprathreshold 23. 1 Which of the following is wrong: Coldnes thermoreceptors Light: photoreceptors Sound: organ of Corti (inner ear) Pressure: chemoreceptors Foog components: taste buds 24. 1 Physical stimuli include all except: Temperature Sound Light Medications Electric current 25. 1 Chemical irritants include all except: Medications Food components Hormones Viruses Poisons 26. 1 Physical stimuli include: Poisons Hormones Medications Ultrasound Viruses 27. 1 Chemical irritants include: Plants Viruses Electric current Medications Pressure 28. 1 Biological irritants include: Infrared rays Medications Hormones Viruses Sound 29. 1 In which cell structures run the processes of oxidative phosphorylation: Core Lysosomes Peroxisomes Mitochondria Ribosomes 30. 1 The internal environment of myocytes which contains organelles is called: Ultrafiltrate Plasma Lymph Sarcoplasm Secret 31. 1 The internal environment of hepatocytes, which contains organelles is called: Interstitial environment Plasma Ultrafiltrate Cytoplasm Lymph 32. 1 Cell structure that provides the intercellular communication is called: Peroxisomes Cytoplasm Mitochondria Membrane Core 33. 1 Which of the following substances form the plasma membrane? Cholesterol Phospholipids Receptor proteins All of the above Glycoproteins 34. 1 Which of these substances can easily penetrate the membrane? Sodium ions Glucose Amino acids Carbon dioxide Hydrogen ions 35. 1 Speed of the simple diffusion through the cell membrane is inversely proportional to: Diffusion coefficient of solute Membrane square Concentration gradient of solute The thickness of the cell membrane The amount of receptor proteins in the cell membrane 36. 1 Which of the following processes occur during osmosis: Volume of fluid on both sides of the membrane does not change Water molecules pass through the membrane by active transport Water molecules pass through the membrane by facilitated diffusion Water molecules diffuse through the membrane from areas low osmotic pressure to high Osmotic pressure on both sides of the membrane does not change 37. 1 What type of transport is associated with the direct use of ATP energy? Simple diffusion Secondary- active transport Facilitated diffusion Primary active transport The movement of ions concentration gradient 38. 1 The structure of the cell membrane includes all of the following except: Glycoproteins Lipids Transport proteins Antigenic proteins Receptor proteins 39. 1 Which of the above-mentioned mechanisms doesn’t be the cellular transport: Secondary- active transport Diffusion Primary active transport Autolysis Osmosis 40. 1 AN injection of cyanide blocks the formation of ATP in the cell. Which of the following processes will be Transport of CO2 Osmosis Movement of potassium Movement of sodium against a Transport of O2 affected? concentration gradient concentration gradient 41. 1 After dissociation of oxidative phosphorylation with dinitrophenol, which of the following processes will be affected? Transport of CO2 Osmosis Movement of potassium concentration gradient Movement of sodium against a concentration gradient Transport of O2 42. 1 Which of the following describes the active transport? Only primary active transport Transport of substances is always against the electrochemical gradient Direct using of metabolic energy Energy for secondary active transport is provided by the electrochemical potential gradient of another solute None of the above 43. 1 Which of the following does not describe the mechanism of secondary active transport? Can occur on a cotransport or antyport Uses energy from the secondary transmembrane concentration gradient of sodium Provides absorption of glucose and amino acids in the digestive tract Directly uses ATP None of the above 44. 1 Osmosis is the movement of: Water through the membrane from high to low concentration of solute Solute through a membrane area of high to area of low hydrostatic pressure Solute through the membrane from low to high concentration Water through the membrane from low to high concentration of solute Solute through a membrane from high to low concentration 45. 1 An irritant that can cause excitation should be characterized by the following properties: To be adequate, Threshold p the threshold strength and strength with operate a threshold appropriate speed increase strength to a certain value Threshold strength and operate within a useful time Threshold strength to act with a certain threshold speed to increase strength threshold Subthreshold strength 46. 1 Specify the phases and their sequence in the generation of AP: Depolarization, trace potential Depolarization, latent, Depolarization, overshoot, Depolarization, refractoriness, Overshoot, depolarization, repolarization repolarization repolarization repolarization repolarization 47. 1 What is the value of resting membrane potential of skeletal muscle? -70 mV -120 mV -45 mV -90 mV -30 mV 48. 1 A sodium-potassium pump was blocked in the exciting cell. Which process will disappear after that? Excitability Anionic gradients The action potential Resting potential Refractoriness 49. 1 Because of blockade of cell membrane ion channels resting potential decreased from -90 to -70 mV. What channels are blocked? Calcium Magnesium Sodium Potassium Chloride 50. 1 The term " cell membrane is polarized " means: The inner and outer surface of the membrane have no electrical charge The inner surface of the membrane has a '+' charge, and external " -" The inner and outer surface of the cell membrane have the same electric charge The inner surface of the membrane has a " - " charge, and the outer '+' The inner and outer surface of the membrane have different electric charge 51. 1 Ion channels were blocked in the exciting cell. It did not change the level of the resting potential, but the cell has lost the ability to generate action potential. What channels were blocked? Calcium Sodium and potassium Chloride Sodium Potassium 52. 1 An increase of Na+ ions plasma concentration was found patient In the intensive care unit? What process of is broken in excitable tissues? Yield of Cl- from the cell Output of Na+ from the cell Output of K+ from the cell Input Na+ into the cell Input of K+ into the cell 53. 1 What is a local answer? Depolarization that occurs on suprathreshold irritation and is the kind of local excitation Depolarization that occurs at threshold stimulation and is a kind of the local excitation Depolarization that occurs on subthreshold irritation and is the kind of excitement that spreads Depolarization that occurs on subthreshold is a kind of irritation and is the local excitation Depolarization that occurs on suprathreshold irritation and is the kind of excitement that spreads 54. 1 Chronaxie - is: The ability of tissues to respond to stimulation The minimum duration of the stimulus in one rheobase Minimum strength of the stimulus threshold The minimum duration of the stimulus in two rheobase The ability of tissue to move into an active state 55. 1 Ion channels were blocked in the exciting cell after the cell eventually completely lost the resting potential. What channels were blocked? Chloride Sodium Potassium and sodium Potassium Calcium 56. 1 An decrease concentration of K+ ions plasma concentration was found patient In the intensive care unit? What process of is broken in excitable tissues? Input of Cl- into the cell Input of Na+ into the cell Output Na + from the cell Output of K+ from the cell Input of K+ into the cell 57. 1 The excitable cell membrane permeability was increased to potassium ions in the experiment. What changes of electrical status of the membrane will occur? Changes in the action potential No changes Depolarization Hyperpolarization Local response 58. 1 Resting potential occurs is due to: The presence in the cell protoplasm The presence of ions inside the cell The presence of ions around the cell Different concentrations of ions inside and outside the cell The presence of protein structures in the cell 59. 1 Rheobase - is: The minimum strength of chemical irritation that causes excitation The minimum strength of the stimulus that causes excitation Minimum period of stimulus that causes excitation Minimum power electrical stimulus that causes excitation The minimum strength of biological stimuli, causing excitation 60. 1 The action of toxin completely blocked the synthesis of ATP In the experiment. How this will affect the value of the membrane potential? First will increas, then decreases Will increase Will not change Will reduce to zero First will decrease, then increase 61. 1 Specify which index of excitability reflects a direct relationship between excitability and its value: Useful time The threshold strength Rheobase Lability Chronaxie 62. 1 As a result of the influence electric current on excitatory cell membrane depolarization occurred. The movement of ions across the membrane plays a major role in the development of depolarization? K+ Ca2+ CI- Na + HCO3- 63. 1 An excited cell was put into Na+ free saline solution in the experiment. How this will affect the development of excitation? The duration of the action potential will increase The amplitude of the action potential will decrease The amplitude of the action potential will increase The action potential will not occur The duration of the action potential will decrease 64. 1 Reversion - is: The increasing of the resting potential The increasing of the membrane charge Reducing of the membrane charge Changing of the of the membrane charge to the opposite Generating of action potential 65. 1 During the study of isolated excitable cells it was revealed that the threshold strength of the cell stimulation have been significantly reduced. Which of the above cell be the cause of this? Inactivation of calcium channel membrane Blockade of energy production in the cell Inactivation of sodium channel membrane Activation of membrane sodium channels Activation of potassium channels of the membrane 66. 1 It is necessary to evaluate the level of excitability of the tissue in the experiment. What index should be defined for this purpose? The amplitude of the action potential Resting potential The duration of the action potential Threshold depolarization Lability 67. 1 Energy production processes were completely blocked in the exciting cell. Haw the membrane potential will be changed in the that? Will be significantly reduced Will slightly increase Will be slightly reduced Will disappear Will significantly increase 68. 1 The tissue was affected an electric pulse, whis amplitude 70 % of threshold. What changes in membrane potential will occur? No changes Hyperpolarization The action potential Partial depolarization IPSP 69. 1 It is necessary to obtain an increasing of in resting membrane potential in isolated cell in the experiment. Which ion channels it necessary to activate? Calcium Sodium Potassium and sodium Potassium Sodium and calcium 70. 1 The stimulus strength threshold stimulus straight that causes: The average effect Local response The maximum effect Minimal effect Afterpotential 71. 1 All living cells have different electrical charge on the outer and inner surfaces of the membrane - the resting membrane potential (RMP). What ion plays a major role in the generation of RMP? Fe2 + Cl- Na+ K+ Ca2+ 72. 1 After stimulation of excitable cells with DC it develops action potential due to changes in membrane permeability for ions. What ion plays a major role in its development? Cl- Ions of organic compounds Ca2+ Na+ K+ 73. 1 In case of excitable tissue stimulating with DC or under the influence of neurotransmitter they formed an action potential (AP), is formed which has a phase character. What are the phases in sequence occur during the development of АP? Depolarization, traces potentials repolarization Overshoot, depolarization, repolarization Depolarization, repolarization latent Depolarization, repolarization, trace potential Depolarization, refractoriness, repolarization 74. 1 After activation of ion channels of the outer membrane excitable cells its resting potential significantly increased. What channels were activated? Sodium and calcium Sodium Calcium Potassium Chloride 75. 1 How does the cell membrane permeability change for ions Na+ and K+ depolarization during phase? Increases for Na+ and K+ Decreases for Na+ and K+ increases to Does not change for Na+ and K+ Increases for Na+ and decrease for K+ Decreases for Na + and K+ 76. 1 How is the cell membrane permeability change for ions Na+ and K+ ions during repolarization phase? Increased for Na+ and is reduced for K+ Decreased for Na+ and K+ Increased for Na+ and K+ Decreased for Na+ and K+ increased to Is not change for Na + and K+ 77. 1 How does the membrane potential change during excitable cell membrane hyperpolarization? Remained unchanged Changed to opposite Decreased to opposite Increases All answers are incorrect 78. 1 Polarization of cell membrane depolarization caused. How has the charge of the membrane? Remained unchanged Increased Changed Decreased All answers are incorrect 79. 1 In the experiment, increased permeability of excitable cell membrane to potassium ions. What changes electrical status of the membrane during this encounter? Metabolic potential Resting potential The action potential Hyperpolarization Local response 80. 1 What phases of the action potential corresponds to the absolute refractory period? Repolarization and hyperpolarization trace Local excitation and repolarization Trace depolarization and repolarization Depolarization and repolarization Local excitation and depolarization 81. 1 Subthreshold stimulation of the nerve fiber with electric shock caused a local response (LR). Which characteristics of this type of excitation is correct? LR depends “on all or nothing law” LR spreads along fiber for long distances LR amplitude does not depend on the strength of stimulation Appears during activation of potential depended Na+ channels Fiber excitability is not increased during LR 82. 1 During the reversal phase of АP in nerve fiber takes Increased Sodium activation Login chloride ions across the Sodium The answers are place: excitability membrane inactivation not correct 83. 1 Depolarization - is: Increasing of the value of the critical membrane depolarization The increase in the charge of the cell membrane Increasing of cell resting potential Reduction of polarization of the cell membrane Changing the change of the membrane to opposite 84. 1 Repolarization - is: Changing the output of cell change the opposite Reducing the charge output of the cell membrane Increasing the charge output of the cell membrane Restoring the original charge level of the cell membrane Reducing the critical level of depolarization of the membrane 85. 1 Hyperpolarization - is: The decreasing of membrane potential Reduction of polarization of the cell membrane Changing the change of the cell membrane to opposite Increasing of polarization of the cell membrane No correct answer 86. 1 Add a method based on registration of bioelectric potentials: Tomography Echoencephalogra phy Echocardiography No correct answer Rheography 87. 1 The experiment was performed membrane depolarization of nerve fibres. Specify the critical depolarization, in which there is the generation of nerve impulses usually: -75 mV -50 mnV -60 mV -50 mV -90 mV 88. 1 Some fish contain toxins that block the sodium channel activation gate that can cause man to one of the processes on the membranes of excitable structures after eating such fish: Phases of the absolute refractory Increased excitability Reducing of IPS Absence of generation of PD Phase relative refractory 89. 1 How is the excitability of the cells changed during the generation of the action potential (AP)? Absolute refractoriness, relative refractoriness, subnormal excitability, supernormal, irritability Subnormal excitability, absolute, refractoriness, relative refractoriness, supernormal, excitability Relative refractoriness, absolute refractoriness, supernormal excitability, subnormal, irritability Absolute refractoriness, relative refractoriness, supernormal excitability, subnormal, irritability Absolute refractoriness, supernormal, excitability, subnormal excitability, relative refractoriness 90. 1 The blockade of ATP formation in cells will affect directly one of the processes excitable cell membranes, resulting in terminating of: Potassium output from the cell Sodium input into the cell Sodium inactivation Effects of Na+ / K+ pump Calcium input into the cell 91. 1 How will the excitability of the tissue change if the MP has increased, and the critical level of depolarization has not changed? Will not change Will increase Will reduce to zero Will decrease Will increase for 20% 92. 1 How to change the excitability of the tissue with respect to baseline during the phase of track depolarization potential АP? Will not change Will decrease Will reduce for10% Will increase Will reduce to zero 93. 1 After influence of ultra-high frequency electric current on the muscles the tissue is heated and action potentials are generated because pulses of electric current have: Incoming direction to the membrane Subthreshold strength increase Subthreshold time All answers are correct 94. 1 The lability of which exactly structure is the largest if it is known that duration of generated AP is: 1 ms 3 ms 5 ms 0.5 ms 2 ms 95. 1 A significant decrease of extracellular potassium concentration will lead to one of the processes: Reduction of membrane conductance for K+ Increasing of Na+ active transport out of the cell Increasing of RP The increasing of membrane conductance for K+ Reducing the negative diffusion of equilibrium potential of K+ 96. 1 What changes of MP and speed of excitation conduction will occur when K+ channels of nerve fibers are activated? Depolarization will increase Hyperpolarization will increase Depolarization will reduce Hyperpolarization will reduce Hyperpolarization will not change 97. 1 Saline solution invited with potassium ions was injected into axoplasma of isolated nerve fibres in the expirement. As a result, fiber resting membrane potential increased from -80 mV to -95 mV because of: Sodium inactivation Accommodation Depolarization Hyperpolarization Repolarization 98. 1 The law, according to which, in response to the increasing strength of the stimulus response gradually increases until the maximum is called: Accommodation "All or nothing" Strength - duration Power (power relations) Polar 99. 1 Under the influence of chemical factor in the cell membrane the number of potassium channels increased The amplitude and duration of the Duration of АP decreases and the The duration and amplitude of the The duration and amplitude of the The amplitude of the action potential they can be activated on the generation of АP. How does it influence appears on the parameters of the АP? action potential increase amplitude increases action potential does not change action potential decrease decreases and duration increases 100. 1 Proteins of cell membranes perform the following functions: As enzymes As ion channels As pumps All of these As receptors 101. 1 During the neuronal and muscle action potentials ion transport of is increases in thousand times because of: Potassium channels Calcium channels Ligand -dependent channels Sodium channels Chloride channels 102. 1 The appearance of the action potential in nerve fibres blocking drugs that act on: Potassium channels Calcium channels Chloride channels Sodium channels Ligand -dependent channels 103. 1 In determining changes in membrane permeability during the development of the action potential it was revealed that in the depolarization phase dominates K+ output from the cell Na+ output from the cell K+ input into the cell Na+ input into the cell Cl- output into the cell 104. 1 What is the main mechanism of generation of resting membrane potential? Diffusion of sodium from the cell Diffusion of potassium into the cell Diffusion of sodium into the cell Diffusion of potassium from the cells Diffusion of chlorine in the cell 105. 1 What the ionic mechanisms is responsible for the development of depolarization phase of the action potential? Potassium output from the cells The output of sodium from the cell Potassium input into the cell Sodium input into the cell Calcium input into the cell 106. 1 The limiting of ionic permeability of whish channels in the experiment will cause which result in reducing the resting membrane potential? Chloride Sodium Magnesium Potassium Calcium 107. 1 In the solution with isolated nerve cells the concentration of K+ ions was increased. As a result, resting membrane potential of these cells decreased from 85 mV to 15 mV as a result of processes related to: Accommodation Hyperpolarization Reverspolarization Depolarization Repolarization 108. 1 To reduce the excitability of cardiac muscle soft drugs potassium is used. What is the mechanism of their action on cardiomyocytes? Block calcium channels Reduce the amplitude of the action potential Cause depolarization of the membrane Hyperpolarise membranes Activate calcium channels 109. 1 In the experiment, indirect stimulation of Decreased number Developed There postsynaptic Decreased number Impaired neuromuscular drug did not cause muscle contractions, and after direct stimulation the musclecontracted. Specify the probable cause of this phenomenon: of cholinesterase in absolute the synaptic cleft refractoriness of the nerve membrane depolarization appeared of neurotransmitter in the synapse physiological integrity of the nerve 110. 1 What is the magnitude of the membrane resting potential of nerve fibers? -90 mV -120 mV -45 mV -70 mV -30 mV 111. 1 In the study of facial nerve excitability in a patient '42years old a significant reduction was revealed. What changes in excitability parameters made it possible to determine the change in the functional state of the nerve? Increased lability Acceleration of accommodation Useful time increasity The increasing in chronaxie Reducing rheobase 112. 1 Which of the following structures have highest lability? Endocrine gland Smooth muscle Skeletal muscle Nerve Cardiac muscle 113. 1 Prevention of inactivation of sodium channels will reduce: Rate of depolarization of the action potential The duration of the action potential The magnitude of the action potential overshoot Rate of action potential repolarization Duration of the relative refractory period 114. 1 How to change the threshold potential and the excitability of nerve fibers if MP has decreased for 5 mV and critical depolarisation level has not changed? Will increase for 5 mV, excitability will increase Will increase for 5 mV, excitability will decrease Will decrease for 5 mV, excitability will decrease Will decrease for 5 mV, excitability will increase Will decreass for 5 mV, excitability will not change 115. 1 Membrane permeability for Na + in the depolarization phase of the action potential: Dramatically reduced and there is a strong source of cell sodium current Dramatically increases and there is a strong source of cell sodium current Does not change significantly Dramatically increases and there is a strong input into the cell of sodium current No correct answer 116. 1. How will the threshold potential and the excitability of nerve fiber change if MP will increase for 5 mV and critical level of depolarisation has not changed? Will decrease for 5 mV, excitability will decrease Will decrease for 5 mV, excitability will increase Will increase for 5 mV, excitability will increase Will increase for 5 mV, excitability will decrease Will increase for 5 mV, excitability will not change 117. 1 Which of the following does not apply to АP? Phate of repolarization and trace hyperpolarization caused by K Is distributed over long distances The ascending phase of АP is caused by the opening of Na+ voltage- dependent The amplitude of the action potential depends on the strength of the stimulus АP is subject to the law of "all or nothing" channel activity channels 118. 1 Which of the following is true? Relative refractory period - the time during which subthreshold stimulus leads to the generation of AP Absolute refractory period coincides with the phase inversion of the action potential (AP) Refractory period prevents the generation of these next АP Absolute refractory period the time during which subthreshold stimulus leads to the generation of АP Relative refractory period partially coincides with the phase trace hyperpolarization of AP 119. 1 The peculiarity of the excitation in the chemical synapse is: Reverse conduction Bilateral conduct High sensitivity to chemicals Unilateral conduct Gradual conduction 120. 1 The excitation along the nerve fibers in humans sbreads: With decreasing amplitude Antydroinally In both directions Non-decrementally With increasing amplitude 121. 1 What ion channel are blocked with local anesthetics that are used in dental practice? Slow calcium Potassium Rapid calcium Sodium Chloride 122. 1 Degeneration of the motor nerve causes muscle: Contracture Rack hyperpolarization Hypertonicity Wasting Rack depolarization 123. 1 What force must be applied to the irritation of the nerve fiber to cause excitation in phase of relative refractoriness? Subthreshold long Subthreshold Threshold Suprathreshold Threshold long 124. 1 The patient excitability of nerve should be determined. What index should be defined for this purpose? The duration of the action potential Resting potential Lability Threshold stimulus strength The amplitude of the action potential 125. 1 The frog neuromuscular preparation was effected with poison. After that preserved the ability of muscles to contraction in response to direct stimulation, but lost in response to nerve stimulation. What does the poison Sodium channels The processes of energy production Conjugation of excitation and contraction in the muscle Neuromuscular synapse Potassium channels blok? 126. 1 Nerve fiber was placed in an oxygen-free environment. How will it influence the generation of action potential (AP) of nerve fibres? АP will increase AP will not be generated АP will decrease AP will be generated Will activate ion transport, leading to spontaneous emergence of potential 127. 1 The animal entered Curare like substance that acts on neuromuscular synapses. How to prove that the substance has exact effect? Sign resting potential of nerve fibers Sign action potential of nerve fiber Sign action potential of the postsynaptic membrane Irritate the nerve that innervates the muscle that will not result in contraction Determine the amount of acetylcholine in the neuromuscular synapse 128. 1 The basic condition for the regeneration of nerve fibres is saving of: Synaptic contacts Myelin sheath Nodes of Ranve Communication with the body of the neuron All answers are correct 129. 1 What bioelectric phenomena cause the spread of excitation along the nerve fibres? Decrease in membrane permeability Hyperpolarization of the membrane Local depolarization of the membrane Local electric currents between the excited and not excited area All answers are correct 130. 1 On violation of what law of excitation along the nerve method of anaesthesia is based: Of bilateral conduction Anatomical integrity Isolated conduction Physiological integrity None of these 131. 1 Threshold electrical stimulus stimulation of nerve fibre triggered an action potential in it. What characteristic of this excitation process is correct? Is not subject to the law of "all or nothing" AP does not spread along fiber over long distances The amplitude of the action potential depends on the strength of stimulation Fibres excitability during rapid phases of AP disappears Occurs during chemosensitive activation of Na+ channels 132. 1 Interaction of with ligand with membrane receptors causes increased permeability of the membrane, but without formation of secondary mediators? cAMP Ca2+ Dyatsylhlitserol Acetylcholine Inositoletriphospha te (iP3) 133. 1 cAMP causes many cells transition from a state of rest to a state of activity. In what order there is a cascade of Activation of protein kinase activity, increased Increased permeability of the membrane, the Phosphorylation of protein kinase activation, Activation of protein kinases, protein Increased permeability of the membrane, protein reactions that leads to this effect? membrane permeability, phosphorylation of proteins activation of protein kinases, protein phosphorylation increased membrane permeability phosphorylation, increased membrane permeability phosphorylation, activation of protein kinase 134. 1 What mediator provides neuromuscular transmission? Adrenalin Norepinephrine Serotonin Acetylcholine GABA 135. 1 What is the basic process to ensure the concentration of neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft? Quantity of neurotransmitter in the presynaptic nerve terminal Rate of enzymatic hydrolysis of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft Speed removal of mediator by surrounding neurons The rate of diffusion of neurotransmitter from presynaptic nerve terminal into the synaptic cleft Speed axonic transport 136. 1 What link of synaptic transmission is blocked by Curare Influence of (muscle relaxants)? acetylcholinesteras e on acetylcholine Passage of Ca ions through the channels of presynaptic membrane The work of Na+ / K+ - pump Cholinergic receptors postsynaptic membrane Realisiny of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft 137. 1 It is known that nerve fibers are characterized with such physiological properties as excitability and conductivity, carried out according to certain laws. Violation of which law arises in the case of local anesthetics using? Polar law " All or Nothing " Bidirectional conduction Physiological integrity Isolated in pulses condaction 138. 1 Woman, 52 years before the tooth extraction had an injection of local anesthetic. Violation of any process in the nerve fibers have analgesic mechanism of action of this drug? Operation of microtubules Anatomical integrity Isolated conduction of excitation Physiological integrity Aksonic transport 139. 1 To reduce pain sensitivity during dental procedures doctor applied electric anestesia with the positive pole of a direct current. What is the mechanism of this method? Violates the physiological integrity of nerve Increases sensitivity of nociceptors Causes depolarization of the membrane Blocks membrane depolarization Violates the anatomical integrity of nerve 140. 1 What is the nature of excitation transfer in the synapse, if there is no mediator? Osmotic Physical Chemical Electrical Biological 141. 1 What is the nature of excitation transfer in the synapse if it is carried out by acetylcholine? Electrical Physiological Biological Chemical Physical 142. 1 What is the nature of excitation transfer in the synapse, if it is carried by norepinephrine? Physiological Physical Biological Chemical Osmotic 143. 1 During the development of AP of nerve fiber a second stimulation way applied with electric carrent of suprathreshold strength size in the early phase of repolarization. After the second irritation AP: Had higher amplitude Had a normal amplitude Had a smaller amplitude Did not occurred Did not had a reversal potential 144. 1 During the development of AP of nerve fiber sodium channel inactivation causes: Trace hyperpolarisation potential Reversal potential Local capacity Absolute refractory IPS 145. 1 Under normal physiological conditions acetylcholine, which is involved in neuromuscular transmission: Generates a miniature PKP that can sumi and lead to the emergence of AP in muscle fibers, depending on the frequency of pulses motoneurons Is stored in the final plate muscle fibers Hydrolyzed to acetate and choline, which are then absorbed by the muscle fiber end-plate Opens the channels in the final plate that overlook the ions Na+, and K+ ions After binding to the H- XP is absorbed by the muscle fiber endplate 146. 1 Drugs that block these channels may prevent the transmission of excitation from presynaptic to postsynaptic membrane synapse? Potassium ATPdependent Sodium Potassium potential dependent Calcium Chloride 147. 1 The release of neurotransmitter by exocytosis at neuromuscular synapse effectively is blocked by prevention of exaction: Output K+ across the membrane of the nerve terminal The spread of AP in myocyte membrane Input of Na+ through the membrane to the nerve terminal Depolarization of the nerve terminal Input of Ca2+ through the membrane finite particle 148. 1 The speed of agitation axons grow if reduce: The excitability of the axon Refractory period The diameter of the axon Resistance of the membrane Capacity membrane 149. 1 Anesthetic cease conducting of nerve impulses, because Chloride channels and increase the Potassium channels and Calcium channels and reduce input Sodium channels and reduce the Potassium channels and they bind to the activate gate: input of Cl- increase the output of K+ Ca2+ input of Na+ reduce the output of K+ Introduction of atp Blockade of acetylcholinesteras e Introduction sodium 150. 1 The patient found muscle weakness due to violation of neuromuscular transmission. To improve neuromuscular transmission should be applied: Introduction potassium Introduction of calcium 151. 1 The patient is a decrease in the rate of excitation along the nerve fibers. The reason for this may be the most likely: Increasing the ionic asymmetry The increase in the Reducing the amplitude of action frequency of AP potential Demyelination of nerve fibers Reducing the threshold depolarization 152. 1 During excitation of myelinated nerve fibers in the proximal section of the nerve action potential = 120 mV, the next section is damaged and AP is reduced to 60 mV. What is a magnitude AP will be in undamaged distal section of fiber, if the threshold of depolarization is 20 mV: 100 mV 20 mV 60 mV 120 mV Doesn’t occur 153. 1 The action of the neurotransmitter in the synapse results in: Formation of cholinesterase Presynaptic membrane hyperpolarization Depolarization of the presynaptic membrane Depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane Activation of Ca2+channels 154. 1 The speed of action potential along nerve fibers increases: With stimulation of Na+ / K+ pump In nonmyelination fibers As the diameter of the fiber In myelinated fibers During suppression Na+ / K+ pump 155. 1 Of transport of ions through this channel leads to the release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic membrane: Perchloric channel Sodium channel Potassium channels Calcium channel Ligand -dependent channel 156. 1 Which of the following statements below is true due to the spreading of axon AP? Demyelination of nerve fibers increases the speed of conduction of excitation Saltatory conductivity is related to slow the spread of AP AP is distributed in violation of the physiological integrity of the axon The speed of agitation in large myelinated nerve fibers is higher than in small nonmyelinated To spread the AP ATP is used 157. 1 A sciatic nerve, which innervates ankle skeletal muscle, was irritated with electric current in the experiment. Glycine Norepinephrine Adrenalin Acetylcholine Serotonin What neurotransmitter transmits excitation from nerve to muscle? 158. 1 Which substance inhibits neuromuscular transmission in muscles of the trunk and limbs? Somatostatin Norepinephrine Adrenalin Curare Aspartate 159. 1 American Indians smeared arrowheads with tree sap, which contains a substance that causes muscle relaxation. This kind of substation is used for this purpose in medicine. Name them? Gaba Esterase Histamine Curare Ganglioplegic 160. 1 In surgery to relax skeletal muscles during complex operations Curariform is used. Enter structure to which these substances act. Synaptic structure of the spinal cord Basal ganglia Red nucleus of the midbrain Neuromuscular synapses Autonomic ganglia 161. 1 Which mediator is present in of neuromuscular synapse human skeletal muscle: Adrenalin Norepinephrine GABA Acetylcholine Glycine 162. 1 Name the potential of the neuromuscular synapse the postsynaptic membrane: Excitatory postsynaptic Inhibitory postsynaptic Elektrotonic End-plate There is no right answer 163. 1 In the experiment under the influence of the chemical the speed of the action potential in excitable cells of the tissue substance decreased. What process can be considered as the most likely? Reduction of potassium inactivation Reduction of potassium conductance Reducing of sodium inactivation Increased sodium inactivation Closure of calcium channels in cells 164. 1 A man entered Curariform substance resulting in relaxation of all skeletal muscles. What is causing this? Violation of the synthesis of cholinesterase Violation of the synthesis of acetylcholine Blockade of Ca2+ channels of presynaptic membrane Blockade of cholinergic receptors of postsynaptic membrane Violation of acetylcholine release 165. 1 The blockade of excitation along the nerve fibers in the local lidocaine anestesia is caused by: Blockade of potassium channels Blockade of K +Na+- ATPase Calcium channel blockade Blockade of fast sodium channels Violation of redox processes in the fiber 166. 1 In experiments on frog sciatic nerve was affected with novocaine. Violation of properties of the nerve may Aksonic transport Isolated conduction of Anatomical integrity Physiological integrity All answers are incorrect occur? excitation 167. 1 The experiment determined the concentrations of various ions in the cytoplasm of nerve cells was. The highest was concentration of ions: Of Ca2 + Of Na + Of Cl- Of K + Of HCO3- 168. 1 Nerve stimulated at a frequency 10 times / s in the first experiment and 1000 / s in the second. Duration of AP 1 ms. How many AP will occur in each of the tests? In the first - 10 AP / s in the second 100 AP / s In the first - 10 AP / s in the second 10 AP / s In the first - 10 AP / s in the second 500 AP / s In the first - 10 AP / s in the second 1000 AP / s In the first - 10 AP / s in the second 200 AP / s 169. 1 Saltatory principle of excitation in the nerve fibers is caused by: Diameter of fibers and the presence or absence of myelin sheath The presence of myelin sheath Short period of refractoriness The presence on myelin membrane Ranve Synthesis of neurotransmitter in the nerve terminalis 170. 1 Nerve stimulated with at a frequency 10 times / s in the first experiment and 1000 / s in the second. Duration of AP - 2 ms. How many AP will occur in each of the tests? In the first - 10 AP / s in the second 100 AP / s In the first - 10 AP / s in the second 10 AP / s In the first - 10 AP / s in the second 1000 AP / s In the first - 10 AP / s in the second 500 AP / s In the first - 10 AP / s in the second 20 AP / s 171. 1 The inactivation of neurotransmitter of the neuromuscular synapse of skeletal muscle carrient mainly due to: Complete binding of acetylcholine to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane Reuptake of aksonic terminals Leaching from the synaptic cleft Hydrolysis of cholinesterase Hydrolysis of monoamine oxidase 172. 1 Which of the following statements about synaptic transmission across the neuromuscular synapse is correct? Are caused by the release of Na+ through the membrane of muscle fibers Increasing at a high level of cholinesterase Caused by the entrance of K+ across the membrane of muscle fibers Caused by the release of acetylcholine from the αmotoneurons Activated with tubo kurarine 173. 1 In the nerve fiber size of overshoot of action potential normally is a function of: Axon diameters Resting membrane potential Extracellular Na+ concentration Intracellular concentrations of K+ Values incentives 174. 1 Which of the following characteristics of axon depends mostly on its diameter? Duration of refractory period The activity of Na+ / K+ pump Overshut of action potential The speed of the action potential The value of the resting potential 175. 1 Which of the following is closely associated with PEP (end-plate potential) of the neuromuscular synapse? The action potential "all or nothing" Hyperpolarization Depolarization Potential dependent target 176. 1 Muscle contracts in isotonic mode. The loading on muscle was increased. How it appears on the amplitude of muscle contractions? Muscle The amplitude of contractions increases The amplitude reduction does not change The amplitude of the contractions diminishes Switch to isometric muscle contraction type 177. 1 Dynamometry – is a measurement of: Lability Reaction rate Strength of excitation Muscle strength Accommodation 178. 1 The working capacity of human was decreased physical after physical work. Changes in which structures cause fatigue? Efferent nerves Muscles Afferent nerves Neuromuscular synapses Nerve centers 179. 1 Enter the basic property of skeletal muscle that allows it to perform highly differentiated movements? The pressure of protofibryls The presence of large motor units The presence of sarcoplasmic reticulum The presence of small motor units All answers are incorrect 180. 1 During excitation myocyte sarcoplasmic reticulum calcium ions, are moving to: Postsynaptic membrane Neuromuscular synapse Presynaptic membrane Sarcomere Synaptic cleft 181. 1 The function of calcium in skeletal muscle fibers: Promote structural conformations of actin subunits Interaction with myosin Interaction with actin Promotion conformations, leading to mutual displacement of actin and myosin Promote structural conformations of myosin 182. 1 The stimulation with a frequency of 35 Hz is applied on isolated frog calf in the experiment. What type of contraction occurs? Complete tetanus Isotonic Isometric Incomplete tetanus Mixed 183. 1 During the patient observation it became necessary to determine the strength of the chewing muscles. What research method should be used? Myoarthrography Masticatiography (graphic method of registration of function of the masticatory apparatus) Electromyography Gnathodynamomet ry Electric pulp test 184. 1 In the experiment stimulation of skeletal muscle was conducted with series of electrical pulses. What type of muscle contraction would occur if each successive pulse falls between shortening of a single muscle contraction? A series of single contractions Incomplete tetanus Asynchronous tetanus Complete tetanus Muscle contracture 185. 1 In the experiment, isolated frog muscle is irritated with electric rhythmic pulses. Each subsequent pulse falls between a relaxation of the previous cuts. What type of muscle contraction will occur? Complete tetanus Asynchronous Isolated Incomplete tetanus Tonic 186. 1 The main depot of Ca2 + is: Nucleus Ribosomes Mitochondria Sarcoplasmic reticulum Plate set 187. 1 To what type of contraction a smooth muscle is adapted for? Isolated Isotonic Isometric Tonic Auxotonic 188. 1 What type of muscle contraction occurs during bending arms at the elbow? Auxotonic Phase Isometric Isotonic All answers are incorrect 189. 1 Power developed by muscle is insufficient to lift the burden. What type of muscle contraction occurs in this case? Eccentric Titanic Isotonic Isometric All answers are incorrect 190. 1 It is known that myocyte shortening occurs due to the interaction of contractile proteins sarcomere involving energy of ATP. Which pair of proteins provides the process? Actin and tropomyosin Troponin and myosin Myosin and myoglobin Actin and myosin Myoglobin and Tropinin 191. 1 Athlete beginner 18 years old appealed to the doctor with a complaint on the development of muscle cramping legs during long competition. What is the basis for this phenomenon? Reduced excitability of myocytes Violation of the K+- pump Increasing concentrations of Ca2 + Reducing the concentration of ATP Violation of the Na+ - pump 192. 1 Athletes, runners are divided into sprinters and stayers, some reach great results in short-distance races, and others - in long-distance. What physiological mechanisms underlie this phenomenon? The difference in the ratio of ionic composition of sarcoplasm fibers The difference in the total number of fibers of the muscles The difference in the volumes of the muscles The difference in the ratio of fast and slow muscle fibers of the muscles The difference in the length of the fibers of the muscles sarcomers of the muscles 193. 1 During an experiment content of Ca2+ sharply dropped in the blood. How can it affect the functional state of the skeletal muscle? Prolonged relaxation time Contractility can increase Improved neuromuscular excitation transfer With reduced strength contraction, reduced work capacity Functional background does not change 194. 1 Athlete’s long-term training to prepare him to marathon race were found ineffective. Which morphofunctional characteristics of muscle tissue it can be related with? Heterohronim A great number of slow muscle fibers Izohronism Small number of slow muscle fibers Lack of fast fibers 195. 1 Isolated frog calf was applied stimulation with a frequency of 1 Hz in experiments. What type of contraction occurs? Titans Incomplete tetanus Complete tetanus Isolated No contraction 196. 1 The excitability of which muscles is the highest if chronaxie is determined like: 0.20 ms 0.16 ms 0.32 ms 0.08 ms 0.11 ms 197. 1 What does occur firstly during the latent period of muscle fibers: Blockade of ATP phase Activation of Ca2+pump The formation of cross- bridges Generation of AP Reducing the concentration of Ca2+ 198. 1 Tropomyosin in skeletal muscle: Opens Ca2+ channels of sarcoplasmic reticulum Is an important regulatory protein involved in the coupling of excitation and contraction Pumps Ca2+ ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum Blocks access of miosine cross bridges to actin All of the above is incorrect 199. 1 Duration of single contraction is 0.2 s, and time of contraction - 0.1 sec. What type of contraction occurs during muscle stimulation with a frequency of 50 hertz? Isometric Single contractions Incomplete tetanus Complete tetanus Isotonic 200. 1 Increasing the amplitude of titanic muscle contraction is the result of direct increasing of: Cost of ATP in muscle fibers The amplitudes of AP in muscle fibers Excitability of muscle fibers The concentration of calcium in muscle fibers The concentrations of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft 201. 1 During surgery the animal was introduced a drug that blocks the action of acetylcholine (tubocurarine). What muscular reaction should be expected in this case? No reaction Hypertonicity of skeletal muscle Hypertonicity of smooth muscle Muscle relaxation Periodic reduction 202. 1 What property do ionic channels of skeletal muscle end-plate have? Atropine blocked Activated by depolarization Highly selective for sodium Activated by acetylcholine Determines the relative refractoriness 203. 1 What does increase during the active phase of contraction in muscle fibers mainly? The amplitude of the action potential The concentration of sodium ions The concentration of potassium ions The concentration of calcium ions Excitability 204. 1 Duration of single contraction is 0,1 sec. What minimum frequency irritation should be applied with to appear uncomplete tetanus? > 20 Hz <10 Hz 10 Hz > 10 Hz > 25 Hz 205. 1 Repeated stimulation of skeletal muscle fiber causes titanium contraction increasing the intracellular concentration of one of the following substances: ATP Na+ K+ Ca2 + Troponin 206. 1 Reducing the length of the muscle during its contraction is due to: Released Ca2+ from AB Reduction of actin filaments Reduction of myosin filaments Sliding actin filaments along myosin filaments Reduction of tropomyosin 207. 1 Single contraction period is 0.05 s, and the period of contraction - 0.02 sec. What is the minimum frequency the irritation should be to appear complete tetanus? 50 <20 25 > 50 <50 208. 1 Calcium triggers contraction of skeletal muscle by binding to: Myosin Ca2+-ATPase Actinium Troponin Tropomyosin 209. 1 Normal skeletal muscle relaxation depends on: Enhanced destruction of neurotransmitter acetylcholine - the synapse Reducing the concentration of ATP in the sarcomere Stimulation of muscle fiber membranes with less frequency Active transport of calcium ions in the sarcoplasmic reticulum Increased intracellular pH 210. 1 Reduction of ATP in the muscle fibers will lead to a lack of: The formation of actin- miosin The release of ions Ca2+ from tanks Generation of the action potential Removing the cross- bridges Conjugation of excitation and bridges during contraction contraction 211. 1 Muscle strength will increase: When the number of troponin will increased With decreasing its original length By increasing the activity of Ca2+ATPase When the number of cross- bridges will increase When the number of tropomyosin will increase 212. 1 Increasing the concentration of which ion will lead to a significant increase in strength of muscle contraction? Na+ K+ Mg2+ Ca2+ Cl- 213. 1 The absent of which ions dips conduction of excitation neuro muscular synapse? Chloride ions Of sodium Potassium ions Calcium Magnesium ions 214. 1 Motoneuron and muscle fibers innervated by it are called: Senser field of muscle The motor muscle Muscle nerve center Motor unit There is no right answer 215. 1 In the experiment tired muscles was affected with adrenaline, resulting in increased amplitude of muscle contraction. What underlies in this muscles answer? Rack membrane depolarization Reducing the concentration of calcium ions in the sarcoplasm of muscle fibers Inactivation of calcium channels Increasing the number of working cross bridges Reducing the critical level of depolarization 216. 1 The concentration of calcium ions in the cytoplasm of muscle fibers increased after affect of the chemical substance affect in the experimental. How this will affect the amplitude of the single contraction? Reduction will not occur Will decrease Will not change Will increase No correct answer 217. 1 A steady miofybryl contraction of muscle cells not been observed in the experiment due to the accumulation of ions in the cytoplasm: Magnesium Potassium Sodium Calcium Hydrogen 218. 1 Isolated muscle placed in Krebs solution was affected with subthreshold stimulus. What kind of reaction we should expect to the impact of the stimulus? Hyperpolarization of the membrane Inactivation of ion channels The action potential Local response Titanium contractions 219. 1 Calcium in mioplasme is nessesary for: Creation of tropomyosin Opening of bridges Formation of myosin heads Locking of bridges Distribution of AP 220. 1 Reducing the muscle length occurs during its contraction due to: Released Ca2+ Reduction of actin filaments Reduction of myosin filaments Actin filaments slide along the Contraction of sarcolemma myosin filaments 221. 1 The system of transverse T- tubules skeletal muscle: Pamps Ca2+ from the extracellular fluid in the tank terminal SR Deposits Ca2+, which is released during the coupling of excitation and contraction Blocks release of Ca2 + Conducts AP into the cell All of the above are wrong 222. 1 What is a role of Ca2+ in muscle contraction: Promotes the formation of tropomyosin Leads to the disintegration of ATP Brakes Na+-K + / ATPase activity Promotes interaction of myosin with actin through activation of troponin – tropomiosine Compactes membrane 223. 1 Which of the following statements is true regarding the role of ATP in skeletal muscles? ATP is required for activation rianodyne receptor ATP is required for the release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum during excitation and contraction coupling ATP is required for excitation in the T- tubules ATP is needed to remove the crossbridges during muscle contraction ATP is required for the binding of Ca2+ to troponin 224. 1 Under what conditions the frog leg ankle muscle will not contract? At threshold stimulation with frequency of 100 Hz In isolated stimulation threshold strength In rare irritation with suprathreshold strength In rare subthreshold stimulation strength At threshold stimulation with frequency of 1 Hz 225. 1 Why during increase of strength of the stimulus increases the amplitude of single muscle contractions skeletal muscle? Because of there is a summation of individual contractions in the muscle Because of enhanced contraction of each muscle fiber Because of next irritation occurs in phase of increased excitability of the previous excitation Beacause it is involved in reducing the large numer of muscle fibers Because of a result of summation of all the above processes 226. 1 In the experiment under the influence of chemical substances in muscles Ca2+ - pump was imparied. What Reducing the The increase of AP Reduction of the The increase of the Activation of sodium- potassium effects will occur at the same time? velocity of AP resting potential relaxation pump 227. 1 The action potential plays the following role in the mechanism of muscle contraction: Causes shortening of actin filaments Causes depolarization of contractile proteins Leads to activation of ATP Leads to increase of permeability to Ca2+ ions Causes shortening of myosin filaments 228. 1 Uncomplete tetanus obtained in the experiment. How to change the conditions of the experiment to obtain a complete tetanus? Do not need to change Should reduce the frequency of stimulation The frequency of stimulation can stag amperage should bee, increase Should increase the frequency of stimulation Necessary to reduce irritation and frequency, and amperage 229. 1 An athlete obtained a muscle contracture after workout. This muscle loses elasticity and gradually hardens as it does not have the ability to relax. Add a probable cause of contracture? Restructuring of tropomiosine Reduction of Ca2+ in the blood Increased lactic acid in the blood Reducing the concentration of ATP Increased K+ in blood 230. 1 Why during an increase of stimulation strength the amplitude of muscle contraction increases? The number of contacts between actin and myosin in each muscle fiber increase The number of neurotransmitter at neuromuscular synapses increase Increases the concentration of calcium in each muscle fiber The number of muscle contracted fibers increase Progressively decrease the length of sarcomers in muscle fibers 231. 1 In the experiment on white rat muscle excitability was studied. Researcher had to reduce the excitability of muscle. Which drug should be used for this purpose? Acetylcholine Tetraethylammoni um Tubocurarine Tetrodotoxine ATP 232. 1 If the interaction between actin and myosin in skeletal muscle in pathological processes is changed so that connections can be established, but not disconnected, then the muscle: During stimulation will contracted and relax as usual Will contracted with high speed ATP hydrolysis will occur at higher levels with stimulation Will be tight and inelastic Will lose bending 233. 1 Why does muscle contraction happen? Because of the lack of calcium Because of a decrease of the number of proteins Because of a decrease of body temperature Because of a decrease of ATP concentration in the muscle below the critical value Because of an excess of calcium 234. 1 The appearance of tetanus muscle contraction depends on: Speed of propagation of excitation in muscle Duration of single stimulation Strength of single stimulation Frequencies of stimulation Speed of growth of stimulation strength 235. 1 Choose the correct sequence of muscle contractions regime change during increasing of stimulation. frequency Complete tetanus incomplete tetanus - single contraction Complete tetanus single contraction incomplete tetanus Single contraction - complete tetanus - incomplete tetanus Single contraction – incomplete tetanus - complete tetanus Incomplete tetanus - complete tetanus - single contraction 236. 1 Why does amplitude of skeletal muscle contraction not sumit to the law of "all or nothing" with increasing of strength of direct stimulation of muscle? Postsynaptic potentials are summed Action potentials in each nerve fiber are summed Nerve action potentials are summed Single motor units of muscle contraction are summed Single muscle contraction are summed 237. 1 In the solution, with placed nerve- muscle preparation ancle muscle of the frog, Neostigmine added to inhibit cholinesterase activity. Why motor nerve stimulation would not lead to muscle contraction? Potassium conductance of end-plate has decreased Sodium conductance of end-plate has decreased Calcium conductance of presynaptic membrane has increased A stable end-plate depolarization has appeared Release of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft has decreased 238. 1 In cross- skeletal muscles: Contraction caused by the interaction between actin and tropomyosin Relaxation caused by passive absorption of calcium by sarcoplasmic reticulum Contraction due to calcium binding to tropomyosin Contraction caused by the binding of calcium to troponin Contraction caused by the release of calcium from the T- tubules 239. 2 After a long training an athlete has developed a sharp decrease in fatigue performance. Which link of reflex arc fatigue came first? In efferent conductor In afferent conductor In receptors In the nerve centers In muscles 240. 2 In patients with multiple sclerosis the integrity of the myelin sheath of axons was revoted. What function of neurons was violated in the first place? Receptor Integrative Memorial Conductive Trophic 241. 2 In patient semiunipolar spinal neurons nodes perished as a result of viral infection. What link of reflex arc was Neurons in the lateral horn cores Plug neurons Motor neurons Sensory neurons Associative neurons damaged? 242. 2 Which of the following is not a reflex? Muscle relaxation in response to its rapid contraction Narrowing of the pupil in bright light Cough in response to irritation of upper respiratory tract Muscle contraction in response to stimulation of efferent nerve fibers Muscle contraction in response to stretching 243. 2 What link of reflex arc carries the perception of information on the effects of stimulus analysis and coding? Afferent fibers Nerve center Body - effector Receptor Efferent fibers 244. 2 What link of circuit biological regulation provides an opportunity of “deviation regulation”? This link does not exist External connection channel Direct connection channel Channel feedback All answers are correct 245. 2 A spinal frog bending a time of protective reflex was examined, leg frog was plunged in a glass with a weak solution of sulfuric acid. Once the skin has been removed from knee and lower reflex disappeared. Withdrawal of which link of reflex arc leads to loss of the reflex? Plug- neuron Afferent neurons Efferent neurons Receptive field Feedback 246. 2 Which of the answers are the main properties of the nerve centers? One-tailed conduction of excitation. Of excitation on an "all or nothing". Low lability. Ability of temporal and spatial summation of excitation. The ability to transform pulse rate One-direction conduction of excitation. Delayed excitation. The high lability. Ability of temporal and spatial summation of excitation. The ability to transform pulse rate Bidirectional conduction of excitation. Of excitation delayed. Low lability. Ability of temporal and spatial summation of excitation. The ability to transform pulse rate One-direction There is no correct conduction of answer excitation. Delayed excitation. Low lability. Ability of temporal and spatial summation of excitation. The ability to transform pulse rate 247. 2 What is a function of the nerve center? Perceives the stimulus energy and converts it into Provides information about the work of Receives and stores information Provides analysis and synthesis of Forms receptive field nerve impulses effector information 248. 2 How are the substances that imitate the action of the neurotransmitter called? Antagonists G-proteins Cyclic compounds Agonists Second messengers 249. 2 Enter the neurotransmitters of the brain engaged in synaptic transmission at inhibitory synapses: Norepinephrine ATP Glutamate Glycine There is no right answer 250. 2 Why one and the same substance can act as both excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitter? A change in the physicochemical properties of a protein receptor EPSP occurs during neurotransmitter secretion, IPSP without secretion Due to changes in the chemical properties of matter Due to the presence of different types of postsynaptic membrane receptors By changing the Ca2+ conductance 251. 2 What neurons are present in double neuron reflex arc? Central and peripheral Motor and insert Contact and afferent Afferent and efferent There is no right answer 252. 2 Can one and the same substance serve as inhibitory and excitatory neurotransmitter? It can, for example GABA Can not It can, for example glycine It can, for example AcH and noradrenaline It may, for example histamine 253. 2 How many central synapses the simplest reflex arc contains? 3 4 2 1 More than 3 254. 2 Select a substance that blocks the inhibitory synapses: Acetylcholine Glycine Norepinephrine Strychnine GABA 255. 2 The main inhibitory effect of glycine is linked with: Reduction of Na +conductance Reduction of calcium current Increase of Cl conductance Increase of K+ conductance Increase of Na +conductance 256. 2 Athletes with tendon sprain use chloroethyl which is applied to the injured surface and leads to the cessation of pain. At which part of the reflex arc effect of the drug primarily intended? The nerve centers of the spinal cord Effector Efferent nerve fiber Receptor Plug neurons 257. 2 How to dedivide neurons for physiological function: Excitatory and inhibitory Multipolar, bipolar, unipolar, psevdounipolar Cholinergic, noradrenergic, dopaminergic, serotonergic, Sensory (afferent), associative (false), motor (efferent) Myelinated and unmiyelinated GABA - ergic, hlutaminergic, hlitsynergic 258. 2 Which of the lists describes correctly the properties of synapses? Bidirectional conduction of excitation, low lability, fatigue Excitation of onetailed, high lability, fatigue Bidirectional conduction of excitation, the high lability, slow fatigue One-direction conduction of excitation, low lability, fatigue Excitation of onetailed, high lability, slow fatigue 259. 2 What causes the ortodromic direction of the excitation in nerve fiber in the body? The presence of neurofilamenty The presence of interception Ranvie The presence of myelin sheath The presence of synapses The presence of microglia 260. 2 What of the following is not a reflex? Contraction of the muscles of the foot, when stroke neurological hammer on the dnile tendon Withdrawal hands when you touch the hot Muscle relaxation in response to a decrease Joining oxygen to hemoglobin and oxyhemoglobin formation Dilated pupils with decreasing light 261. 2 Define the concept of "reflex": The way in which the spread of excitation in the irritable Center, where the excitation is switched on sensitive way on the motor The reaction of the organism to stimulation Adaptive reaction to the irritant action involving the nerve center By spreading the excitement of receptor nerve center 262. 2 What is a reflex? The reaction of the body to the action of external stimuli or internal environment Adaptation of excitable tissues to speed the growth stimulus strength Property excitable tissues to respond to the stimulus effect of excitation Natural reaction of the body to the action of external stimuli or internal environment, which is implemented with the participation of the central nervous system All answers are correct 263. 2 By means of what mechanism of the biological regulation the regulation of motor responses is provided? Enzymatic regulation Humoral regulation Miogenic regulation Neural regulation Gene regulation 264. 2 What is not characteristic for the reflex activity? Modification of pulses coming from different parts of the CNS Transferring within the reflex arc occurs with at least one synapse Often occurs unconsciously May provide somatic or visceral reaction, but not simultaneously It can simultaneously provide some muscle contraction and relaxation of other 265. 2 In the study of the reflex arc excluded receptor chain. What are the functions of the units will be affected? Information processing, communication Encoding of information, communication The perception of the stimulus, communication The perception of stimulus analysis, coding Perception of information, analysis of information, communication 266. 2 The central synapse proteins have been activated receptor postsynaptic membrane, increasing permeability for potassium ion channels, the emergence of CST. What neurotransmitter causes this effect? Acetylcholine Norepinephrine Vasopressin Glycine cAMP 267. 2 The central reflex time is - Duration of repetition in efferent neurons Duration of stimulation of receptors Duration of repetition in afferent neurons Duration of excitation through the nerve center At the beginning of stimulation until the reflex response 268. 2 Which of the following is not characteristic for neuromuscular synapses of skeletal muscles? The mediator is acetylcholine To excite only one muscle fiber action potential End plate containing Ncholinergic receptors, which are ionotropic End plate containing Ncholinergic receptors, which are metabotropic Transmit only excitation 269. 2 Time of a reflex - is: Duration of repetition in afferent neurons Duration vnutrishnotsentraln oho of excitation of afferent neurons in the efferent Duration of stimulation of receptors The interval from start of stimulation of receptors to the appearance of the reflex response Duration of repetition in efferent neurons 270. 2 In the postsynaptic inhibition of postsynaptic membrane permeability is responsible Calcium Sodium Magnesium Potassium Iron 271. 2 A person suffering from tetanus in cause by minor irritations does have cramps. What process is suppressed in the central nervous system caused by tetanus toxin? Excitement, exciting selection of neurotransmitter GABA from presynaptic ending Presynaptic inhibition, acetylcholine release from presynaptic ending Reverse inhibition, blockade of Mcholinergic receptors postsynaptic membrane Postsynaptic inhibition, the allocation of glycine from presynaptic ending Excitation selection glycine from presynaptic ending 272. 2 Postsynaptic inhibition develops as a result of: Reducing the frequency of the excitation pulses Block exciting neurotransmitter Increase the frequency of the excitation pulses Block inhibitory neurotransmitter Increasing the interval between excitation pulses 273. 2 In the experiment study on the reflexes, was founded that the reaction -response occurred when were applied stimulus to the neuron number of consecutive subthreshold. What property of the nerve centers manifested in this situation? Delay Fatigue Transformation rate Summation excitation Synaptic delay 274. 2 The frog was introduction strychnine, after it the nominal shoved generalized convulsions in a respond on irritation. Blockade of CNS structures is the cause of such a response? Adrenoceptor Excitatory synapses Renshaw cells Brake synapses Cholinergic 275. 2 After the introduction of the solution of the chemical in response to stimulation of the frog showed generalized seizures. What matter was introduced? Serotonin Adrenalin Acetylcholine Strychnine Dopamine 276. 2 In the experiment was found that after the excitation of motoneurons of the flexor muscles, was inhibited motoneurons extensor muscles. What type of inhibition was in the basis for this phenomenon? Pesymalne Contrary Braking after the excitation Reciprocal Lateral 277. 2 In clinical practice, a patient with increased excitability used sedative pills with sodium bromide. What is the mechanism of it action? Reverse braking, increase postsynaptic membrane Lateral inhibition, increase postsynaptic membrane Presynaptic inhibition, increased permeability of the Postsynaptic inhibition, increased permeability of the Postsynaptic inhibition, increase postsynaptic membrane permeability channels for Na+ permeability channels for Na+ postsynaptic membrane channels for K + postsynaptic membrane channels for K+ permeability channels for Na+ 278. 2 What should be the frequency of presynaptic nerve impulses to the body of the neuron it was consistent summation of EPSP and EPSP duration was 15 ms? 33 pulses per second 30 pulses per second 55 pulses per second 67 pulses per second 44 pulses per second 279. 2 In the intensive care unit admitted patients with seizures of central origin, in which strychnine poisoning was diagnosed. What is the mechanism behind this phenomenon? Incentive allocation inhibitory neurotransmitter Block allocation exciting mediator Stimulation of the neuromodulator Blocking of the inhibitory neurotransmitter Promote exciting selection of a mediator 280. 2 How does nicotine influense on the course of the nerve processes? Compounding processes of excitation in the cerebral cortex Increases braking and reduces excitatory process of the brain Blocks transmission of information in the reticular formation Reduces braking and enhances excitatory processes in the cerebral cortex Reduces the processes of excitation in the cerebral cortex 281. 2 Which of the following properties of the nerve centers enhance the sensitivity of the analyzer? Delay, transformation Divergence, occlusion Facilitation, inhibition Convergence, summation Irradiation, the concentration 282. 2 In the central synapse has been activated receptor of postsynaptic membrane and increasing permeability for potassium ion channels. Which neurotransmitter cause this effect? Vasopressin Norepinephrine Acetylcholine Glycine Camp 283. 2 The patient complains that loud sounds and bright lights enhance the toothache. Which of the following properties of the nerve centers provide this phenomenon? The phenomenon of relief Summation of excitation The transformation rate of excitation The principle of dominance in the nerve center Irradiation of excitation 284. 2 What are the different types of postsynaptic inhibition depending on the structure of inhibitory neural chain? The converse, exterior, depolarization Reciprocal, lateral, external Reverse, lateral and hiperpolar Reciprocal, reverse and lateral Lateral, internal and otherwise 285. 2 In the central synapse has been activated receptor of postsynaptic membrane, and increasing permeability to sodium ion channels, the emergence IPSP. What Camp Glycine GABA Norepinephrine Vasopressin neurotransmitter causes this effect? 286. 2 In the clinic for the treatment of certain CNS diseases involving intense stimulation of certain areas of the brain, such as epilepsy, use mediators of CNS. What function they provide in the CNS and to which group of chemicals they belong? Exciting, amines, dopamine, serotonin Brake, neuropeptides, vasopressin Exciting, amines, acetylcholine, norepinephrine Brake, amino acids, GABA, glycine Brake, acetylcholine, norepinephrine 287. 2 The central nervous system contains a black substance that determines the secretion of mediators: Acetylcholine Serotonin Adrenaline Dopamine GABA 288. 2 In order to better hearing very quiet sounds, the man closed his eyes, not diverted to the effect of other stimuli and focused on the perception of sounds. What is the principle of information processing in the auditory sensory system which helps with the perception of sound best? Multichannel signal Formation of fire occlusion Formation of the fire relief Formation of a dominant focus Formation of spinal finite path 289. 2 The total possible final way by Sherrington phenomena: Braking Divergence Occlusion Convergence Reverb 290. 2 In experiment the animal is after intramuscular injection of strychnine solution having convulsive contraction of skeletal muscle in response to the weakest stimulation weakest. Violation of which process in the CNS result is? Reverse inhibition Excitability of spinal interneurons Presynaptic inhibition Postsynaptic inhibition of spinal motoneurons Depolarization inhibition 291. 2 Motoneurons are simultaneously fit 15 excitatory nerve impulses. Will motor neurons generate efferent nerve impulses when the amplitude of single EPSP on the membrane is 1mV? So as to facilitate the process of No, the process of inhibition Total EPSP reaches a critical level E Thus, since the total exceeds the threshold depolarization EPSP No, because the total EPSP exceeds the threshold depolarization 292. 2 Motoneurons are simultaneously fit 8 excitatory nerve impulses. Will motor neurons generate efferent nerve impulses when the amplitude of single EPSP on t`he membrane is 2 mV? No, the process of inhibition No, EPSP total reaches a critical level of depolarization No, there is a Thus, since the process to facilitate total exceeds the threshold depolarization EPSP No, because the total EPSP exceeds the threshold depolarization 293. 2 In the central synapse have been activated proteins receptor of postsynaptic membrane, increasing permeability for potassium ion channels, the emergence of IPSP. Which neurotransmitter causes this effect? cAMP Norepinephrine Acetylcholine Glycine Vasopressin 294. 2 In the experiment in frog cut the brain at the level of the thalamus, determined the time of spinal reflex. After that, in the cat the lens NaCl, which resulting in a dramatically increased spinal reflex. What process in the CNS illustrate this research? Functional plasticity Excitation Tone nerve centers Braking Posttetanichna potentiation 295. 2 Fast depolarization of a membrane caused an increase in membrane permeability for ions: Zinc Calcium Magnesium Sodium Chlorine 296. 2 The emergence of EPSP increase postsynaptic membrane permeability for ions: Phosphorus Magnesium Sodium Potassium Zinc 297. 2 What process underlies the development of postsynaptic inhibition? The decrease in membrane potential Depolarization The disappearance of the membrane potential Hyperpolarization Activation of Na+N+ pump 298. 2 With the formation of the inhibitory postsynaptic potential in chemical GABA- ergic synapse occurs: Postsynaptic membrane repolarization Postsynaptic membrane depolarization Presynaptic membrane hyperpolarization Postsynaptic membrane hyperpolarization Hyperpolarization of the synaptic cleft 299. 2 Mechanism of EPSP in chemical GABA- ergic synapse are: Postsynaptic membrane repolarization Postsynaptic membrane depolarization Presynaptic membrane depolarization Postsynaptic membrane hyperpolarization Presynaptic membrane hyperpolarization 300. 2 The emergence EPSP caused an increase postsynaptic membrane permeability for ions: Potassium Calcium Magnesium Sodium Chlorine 301. 2 In the chronic experiment to the animals were injected substance that blocks postsynaptic inhibition. What material was used? Acetylcholine Penicillin Aspartate Strychnine Glutamate 302. 2 The central synapse which activation postsynaptic membrane receptor proteins, increased permeability of ion channels for sodium, there was EPSP. What is the Cyclic AMP Glycine GABA Dopamine Aspartate mediator of a group of amines caused this effect? 303. 2 Excitatory neurotransmitters in the central nervous system may be all of the chemical substance, except: Substance p Serotonin Norepinephrine Glucinium Dopamine 304. 2 In experiments to the animal induced were conducted injection of drugs that blocks postsynaptic inhibition (strychnine). What is the muscular reaction occurs at the same time? Small spasms of skeletal muscles without CNS excitation CNS Inhibition of skeletal muscle cramps Inhibition of CNS muscle relaxation The excitation of the central nervous system of seizure of all skeletal muscles No reaction 305. 2 Which phenomenon occurs in neurons, if due to spatial or temporal summation ZPSP reaches a critical level of depolarization? Hyperpolarization Polarization CST The action potential Resting potential 306. 2 Inhibitory effect of glycine is due to: Reduction of potassium conductance Increase sodium conductance Reduction of calcium conductance Increase perchloric conductivity Reduction of perchloric conductivity 307. 2 What is the opposite of inhibition in the CNS? Braking is via axo - axonal synapse Excessive depolarization of nerve endings Inhibition caused by the action of the inhibitory neurotransmitter Inhibition of Inhibition of alphaRenshaw cells with motoneurons of antagonistic muscles 308. 2 Under the transformation rate of the in nerve center we understand: The spread of excitation in the central nervous system Direction of propagation of excitation The circulation of neural impulses in closed circuits Increase or decrease the number of pulses at the output compared to the input Unilateralism of excitation 309. 2 What is the phenomenon of a dominant? Formation in the CNS neural circuit occlusion Formation in the CNS center reduced excitability The formation of a new center in the CNS Formation in the CNS center increased excitability No correct answer 310. 2 What happens when under inhibition of presynaptic of excitatory nerve endings? Violation of the synthesis of the The increase in the diffusion of neurotransmitters Rack hyperpolarization Rack depolarization of nerve endings and Reducing the sensitivity of the postsynaptic neurotransmitter across the synaptic cleft of the nerve ending reduce the release of neurotransmitter membrane to the neurotransmitter 311. 2 After examination of the patient in the clinic of nervous diseases was found bleeding in the brain stem and no constriction of the pupil when exposed to light. With the defeat which of the nuclei of the brain stem is that connected? Midbrain reticular nuclei The lateral reticular nucleus of the medulla oblongata Red nuclei of the midbrain Cores Yakubovich - Edinhera Westphal midbrain Black substances 312. 2 Patient after injury was impaired with swallowing. Defer of part of CNS is likely the cause of this? The hypothalamus Spinal cord at the level THII -IV Spinal cord at the level of CV -VI Medulla Midbrain 313. 2 In response to muscle stretch is seen reflectory contraction of it. Irritation of which receptors begin this reflex reaction? Arthrous Tactile Golgi tendon receptors Muscle spindles Pain 314. 2 During examination a patient has a violation elbow reflexes. Where localized fire damage to the spinal cord? CVI - TI CI - CV SVII - CVIII CV - CVIII CVI - CV 315. 2 In the experiment, the animal cut the posterior roots of the spinal cord. What changes occur in the area of innervation cut backs? Increased muscle tone Loss of motor function Reduced muscle tone Loss of sensitivity Loss of sensation and motor function 316. 2 After the earthquake the patient was transported to the hospital with spinal cord injury, left part of body (below the injuries), was no physical activity and proprioreceptive sensitivity, and the right - no pain sensitivity. Which state is observed in the patient? Nystagmus Bell- magendie syndrome Spinal shock Syndrome brownsekara Transfusion shock 317. 2 After the destruction of CNS structures pet lost oriyentuvalni reflexes. What is it destroyed? Black stuff Red nucleus Lateral vestibular nucleus Corpora quadrigemina The medial reticular nucleus 318. 2 If the damage medulla dysfunction which centers primarily leads to death? Protective reflexes, digestive Motor reflexes, gastrointestinal Muscle tone and protective reflexes Respiratory, cardiovascular May, muscle tone 319. 2 When examining a patient was detected violation of abdominal reflexes. Where is localized fire damage to SI-SII CV-CVIII LIII-LIV TVII-TXII LI-LIII the spinal cord? 320. 2 Experimental studies on rats after spinal cord cat allowed to explore the mechanisms of spinal shock. What is one of the main reasons for this phenomenon by modern ideas? Disorders of the cardiovascular system Increased activity of autonomous reactions Increased excitability of neurons in the spinal cord Removing the descending reticular formation activating effects Removal of descending inhibitory influences of the reticular formation 321. 2 In the experiment, the animal cut five front segments of the spinal cord. What changes have been made in the area of innervation? Loss of temperature sensitivity Loss of proprioceptive sensitivity Loss of tactile sensitivity Loss of motor function Hypersensitivity 322. 2 In frogs was destroyed CNS structure, after it animal leaned towards to sice of destruction, due to a significant decrease in the tone of extensor muscles. What structure destroyed? Corpora quadrigemina Red nucleus Black stuff Lateral vestibular nucleus Pale ball 323. 2 During the pathologists study of spinal cord man 70, identified degradation and reducing the number of nuclei anterior horn cells in the cervical and thoracic spine. What functions are affected in men alive? Sensitivity of the lower extremities Motor function of the lower extremities The sensitivity and motor function of the upper extremities Motor function of the upper extremities Sensitivity of upper limb 324. 2 After cutting the spinal cord of cat there was rigidity - a sharp increase in the tone of extensor muscles. At what level did cutting the cord? Between intermediate and final brain Between the medulla and spinal cord Between the intermediate and midbrain Between the middle and posterior brain Between the medulla oblongata and the bridge done? 325. 2 As a young man 30 years old, was found high blood pressure (systolic - 155 mmHg, diastolic - 90 mmHg). A the few hours later blood pressure normal. With the participation of which reflex centers could this happen? Cerebellar tonic centers Thoraco- lumbar spinal centers Sacral spinal centers Bulbar vascular contraction Center Intracardial nervous system 326. 2 Because lesion by pathological process of the pathways in the spinal cord of the was broken his pain sensitivity and muscle sensitivity. Which way affected? Rear spinocerebellum Lateral spinokortycal The medial spinokortycal Spinotalamic Front spinocerebellum 327. 2 The patient 36 years, after road trauma have paralysis of muscles of extremities, case by loss of pain and temperature sensitivity on the left, a partial reduction in The front pillars spinal cord Motor cortex of the left The left half of the spinal cord The right half of the spinal cord Rear pillars spinal cord tactile sensitivity on both sides. Which lesions of the which part of brain are most characteristic these changes? 328. 2 The patient 70 years old, diagnosed with bleeding in the brain stem. The examination revealed increased tone flexor muscles on the background of the tone of extensor muscles. Irritation which of brain structures can be explained changes in muscle tone? Black substances Vestibular nuclei Corpora quadrigemina Red nuclei Reticular formation 329. 2 In patients after cranial trauma breathing became deep and liquid. What the structure of the brain is damaged? Cerebral cortex Medulla oblongata The hypothalamus Hindbrain Cerebellum 330. 2 In experiments on animals wecsencepnolon nuclei destroyed of red nuclei. Which of the following reflex lost under these circumstances? Miotatic tonic Static vestibular mark Static mark cervical Rectifier and statokinetychni Miotatic fazychni 331. 2 When an athlete throws a barbell he fill up his back to maximize the tone of extensor muscles of upper limbs. Where are the centers of reflexes that while there? In the basal ganglia In the spinal cord In the motor cortex In nuclei of Deyters In the red nucleus 332. 2 In the experiment carried with the cat was shove irritation of one of the motor structures of the brain, resulting in an increase in muscle tone of the extensor stimulation. What is the structure of the brain in cats irritating? Nucleus ruber Nucleus reticularis medialis Nucleus caudatus Nucleus vestibularis lateralis Nucleus intermedius lateralis 333. 2 In experiment with the cat observed elevated tone of extensor muscles of extremities and back. At what level section done? Below vestibular nuclei The spinal cord Between the spinal cord and medulla oblongata Below the red nuclei Above the red nuclei 334. 2 In response to strong rapid muscle contraction observed his reflex relaxation. With stimulation of receptors begin this reflex reaction? Tactile Muscle spindles Arthrous Golgi tendon receptors Pain 335. 2 In frogs was destroyed vestibular apparatus right side. Haw will change the tone of the muscles? Reduction flexor tone on the left side Increased extensor tone on the right side Reduction flexor tone on the right side Reducing the extensor tone on the right side Reducing the extensor tone of the left 336. 2 Conduct research on cerebron regititg animals. What structures need to destroy in the animal to stiffness disappeared? The medial reticular nucleus Black stuff Red nucleus Vestibular lateral nucleus Lateral reticular nucleus 337. 2 Due to the destruction of certain brain structures pet lost orientation reflexes to strong light stimuli. What structures have been destroyed? Red nucleus Black stuff Rear hills Corpora quadrigemina Front hills Corpora quadrigemina Vestibular nuclei 338. 2 Due to the destruction of certain brain structures pet lost his lost orientation reflexes to strong auditory stimuli. What structures have been destroyed? Black stuff Front hills Corpora quadrigemina Red nucleus Rear hills Corpora quadrigemina Vestibular nuclei 339. 2 During the neurological examination the patient observed loss of knee reflex. Where are probably localized lesion? TIX - TX LIII - SI SI - SIII LIII - LIV LIV - SIII 340. 2 In animal experiments used a drug that activates the effects of γ- motoneurons to muscle spindles. How and why to change the power spinal reflexes? Will decrease, relaxation ekstrafuzalfibers Will decrease, relaxation intrafuzal fibers Will increase, reducing ekstrafuzal fibers Will increase, reducing intrafuzal fibers Do not change; relaxation intrafuzal fibers 341. 2 During the neurological examination the patient observed loss of Achilles reflex. Where are probably localized lesion? LIII - SI LIII - LIV TIX - TX SI - SIII LIV - SIII 342. 2 What reflex IP Pavlov called "what it is?" Visceral Classic Adaptation Orientation Instrumental 343. 2 After the sudden stoping rotation in the Barany chair the patient has nystagmus. Where is the center of this reflex? In the motor cortex In the spinal cord In the cerebellum In the midbrain In the basal ganglia 344. 2 How in experiment we can verify the law BellMagendie? Damage to the right half of the spinal cord - loss of motor activity on the right side Cat dorsal roots no motor responses, and ventral - loss of sensation Destruction of the lateral horns of the spinal cord - loss of sensation Cat dorsal roots of the spinal cord loss of sensation, and ventral - lack of motor responses Damage to the left half of the spinal cord - loss of motor activity on the left side 345. 2 After falling down from the stairs in a young woman observed partial loss of voluntary movements on the right side and loss of pain and temperature sensation on The gap sensory and motor pathways to the Rupture of the left half of the spinal cord in the lumbar Rupture of the left half of the spinal Rupture of the right half of the spinal cord in Break dorsal half of the spinal cord the left side of the lover thoracic part. It is likely that a woman is hes is destruction: right at the bridge part cord upper thoracic part. 346. 2 After the earthquake, to the hospital people with symptoms of spinal shock. X-ray image observed damage the spinal cord at the lower thoracic segments. A year after the injury voluntary movements in the lower limbs partially recovered. It shows: Compensation abilities spinal cord Influence of the cerebral cortex to the motoneurons Humoral regulation of voluntary movements Lack of complete rupture of the spinal cord Regeneration of damaged pathways 347. 2 The phenomenon of spinal shock is most likely is not associated with: Violation functional connection spinal cord and brain Anesthesia Injuries Violation afferent reflex arc level Gap supraspinal impact of spinal cord motoneurons 348. 2 The patient due after spinal cord injury, has dissosiotia with pain and impaired temperature sensitivity, which is correct with: Rubro - spinal tract Beam Gaulle and Burdach Dorsal spinal cerebellar tract Spino- thalamic tract Pyramidal tract 349. 2 In the experiments, with the animal brain stem transection caused detserebrall rigidity. Which of the reflexes saved in this animal? "Lift"-reflex Statokinetic Rectifier Antigravitation Labyrynth 350. 2 Murchak is on the tablet, which slowly lifted up. How will the muscle tone of the extremities and following nerve pathways provides it? Weaken the tone of flexor muscles; rubrospinal Will increase the tone of extensor muscles; vestybulospinal Weaken the tone of extensor muscles; retykulospinal Will increase the tone of flexor muscles; rubrospinal Weaken the tone of flexor muscles; cortikospinal 351. 2 Indicate the movement of the brain stem, which increase the activity of flexor muscles: Neurons vestibular and red nuclei Neurons of the vestibular nuclei and reticular formation bridge Neurons red nucleus and reticular formation of the bridge Neurons red nucleus and reticular formation of the medulla oblongata Neurons of the vestibular nuclei and the reticular formation of medulla oblongata 352. 2 What is the impact on the core Deyters has red nucleus? How does this influence is reflected in the tone of extensor muscles? Thrills core Deytersa. Extensor tone does not change Inhibits core Deyters. Increased extensor tone Thrills core Deyters. Extensor tonus decreases Inhibits core Deyters. Extensor tonus decreases Inhibits core Deyters. Tone fleksoriv reduced 353. 2 Neurons of the reticular formation varoliy bridge functionally duplicate: Nucleus Darkshevycha Red nucleus The nucleus of the cerebellum tent Vestibular nuclei Nucleus Yakubovich 354. 2 Which of these ways provides involuntary movements supporting equilibrium: Pyramidal Vestibulo- spinal Cortico- spinal Rubro - spinal Reticulo- spinal 355. 2 Examples statokinetychnyh reflexes are: Sucking Ahill Miotatic Nystagmus eye Proprioreceptive 356. 2 Which of the nuclei belonging to the vestibular- bulbar complex? Kernel Darkshevycha Red nucleus The nuclei of the substantia nigra Nuclei bechterew, Schwalbe, deyters Nukleus Yakubovich 357. 2 When aplly neurological hammer on the tendon quadriceps femoris arises knee-jerk reflex, which extends at: Upper thoracic spinal cord segments Cervical spinal cord segments Lower thoracic spinal cord segments Lumbar segments of the spinal cord Sacral segments of the spinal cord 358. 2 The man who walk from a dark room into a bright light, there is constriction of the pupils. The structures of the central nervous system, providing pupillary reaction are at: Medulla Diencephalon Cerebellar Midbrain Bridge 359. 2 Sechenov about 150 years ago, discovered the phenomenon of central inhibition in experiments on frogs. Which department CNS is involved in this type of inhibition? Vestibular nucleus of the medulla oblongata Red nucleus of the midbrain Substantia nigra of the midbrain The nuclei of the midbrain reticular formation Subcortical nuclei 360. 2 During the sea rolling in passenger developed seasickness. Increased excitability of structures, primarily causing this phenomenon? Vomiting center Vessel- motor center Vagus nerve Vestibular Sympathetic nervous system 361. 2 In a study called knee tendon reflex. At what level of CNS closes this reflex? Lumbosacral spinal cord Cervical cord Thoracic spinal cord Lumbar spinal cord Coccygeal spinal cord 362. 2 In the experiment on the cat was cut brain Corpora quadrigemina, resulting in increased tone in cat extensor muscles. What is the structure of the brain in this case was separated from the lesions located below the brain? The nuclei of the oculomotor nerve Substantia nigra Reticular formation Red nucleus Subcortical nuclei vision and hearing 363. 2 Purring preventive medical examination in one of the Diencephalon Hindbrain Midbrain Cord Cerebellum surveyed physician found a significant weakening of the knee tendon reflex. Which department CNS probably shocked? 364. 2 Detserebral rigidity occurs when: At the level of the thoracic spinal cord Perestesia CNS above the red nucleus Perestesia CNS between the medulla oblongata and the bridge Perestesia CNS below the red nucleus Damage to the cerebral cortex 365. 2 When you hit a neurological hammer on the tendon below the kneecap observed extension of the limb. How is called this reflex? Static Extensor Bending Tendon Statokinetic 366. 2 What level of the central nervous system to realize the reflexes that support his position? Diencephalon Hindbrain Cord Midbrain Final brain 367. 2 Guinea pig is on the tablet, which is slowly lowered down. How will the muscle tone of the extremities and following nerve pathways will change? Weaken the tone of flexor muscles; rubrospinal Weaken the tone of extensor muscles ; retykulospinal Will increase the tone of flexor muscles; vestybulospinal Will increase the tone of extensor muscles; vestybulospinal Weaken the tone of flexor muscles ; kortykospinal 368. 2 What parameter of muscle contraction is adequate stimulus for muscle spindles? Increased strength reduction Nicking The increase in muscle crosssectional Increasing the length of muscle Reducing the length of the muscle 369. 2 In which nerve fibers of the spinal cord impulses delivered to the muscle spindles? Fibres Group C Alpha afferent Gamma afferent Gamma efferent Fiber group 370. 2 The patient is easily tired. In a standing position with eyes closed he has loses balance. Decreased skeletal muscle tone. Which of the following brain structures likely affected by this man? The hypothalamus Basal ganglia Thalamus Cerebellum Pretsentralna sulcus of the cerebral cortex 371. 2 The woman, 64 years old, has disorders with subtle finger movements, develop muscle rigidity, tremor. The neurologist diagnosed Parkinson's disease. Which lesion of brain structures has led to the disease? Red nuclei Reticular formation Thalamus Substantia nigra Cerebellar 372. 2 After a brain hemorrhage in a patient experienced significant deterioration in taste sensitivity. What is the structure of the brain is most likely damaged? The hypothalamus 373. 2 An examination of the patient revealed: impaired motor coordination, amplitude and power movements lost accordance with the parameters of the task, sweeping movements, disproportionate; walk march "cock", "drunk", with finger is difficult to hit the target. What section of the brain is damaged and how the term should be called a disorder features? 374. 2 375. Tonsils Hippocampus Postcentral curl The black stuff Medulla oblongata, Thalamus, astaziya dysarthria The hypothalamus, asthenia Cerebellum, ataxia The spinal cord, atony The patient developed a violation of physical activity: tremor, ataxia and asynerhiya movements, dysarthria. Where localized violations? In the brainstem In the basal ganglia In the limbic system In the cerebellum In the medulla oblongata 2 In the upright position patient, closed his eyes, loses his balance. What is the structure of the brain it is probably affected? Limbic system Thalamus Basal ganglia Cerebellum Precentral curl cerebral cortex 376. 2 An examination of the patient revealed: muscle weakness, impaired trophic, nutrition and metabolism. What section of the brain is damaged and how the term should be called? The hypothalamus, asthenia Thalamus, adiadohokinez The spinal cord, atony Cerebellum, asthenia Medulla oblongata, astazia 377. 2 In the experiment, in the animal were removed substantia nigra of the midbrain, leading to disruption of motor function. This is due to the control functions: The optic orientation Flexor Extensor Subsidiary motions Auditory orientation 378. 2 The man has bleeding in the back of the central whorl. Which kind of sensitivity hi will lose? Skin Aural Optical Skin and proprioceptive Olfactory 379. 2 As a man, 60 years old, after bleeding in the brain it is observed prolonged sleep. Damage to structures which led to this situation? Cerebral cortex Hippocampus Corpora quadrigemina Reticular formation Substantia nigra 380. 2 After a brain injury patient does not recognize objects in their feeling. What section of the brain is damaged? Temporal lobe Cerebellum Occipital lobe Postcentral gyrus Precentral gyrus 381. 2 A patient diagnosed with Parkinson's syndrome. Violation of which neurotransmitter systems of the brain is the reason? Cholinergic Histaminergic Serotonergic Dopaminergic Opioid 382. 2 After the introduction of microelectrodes in the structure of the diencephalon animal completely lost vision. Which of subcortical structures, probably in this case was damaged? Associative thalamic nuclei Suprahiazmatyc nucleus of the hypothalamus Medial body Lateral body Supraoptycal nucleus of the hypothalamus 383. 2 During brain surgery observed that stimulation of certain areas of the cerebral cortex resulted in the patient's tactile and temperature sensations. What is the area of the cortex irritated? The upper lateral gyrus Cingulate Pretsentral gyrus Postcentral gyrus Parahipokamp gyrus 384. 2 A person injured as a result of injuries arose top of the primary motor cortex on the right. What changes in the lower extremities will occur? Muscle contraction right foot Paralysis of the right foot Muscle contraction left foot Paralysis of left leg Muscle relaxation right foot 385. 2 As a result of a brain haemorrhage a patient affected basal activity of nuclei. What features will it lose? Regulation of auxiliary movements, synthesis of hormones Regulation of posture, synthesis of hormones Regulation of tone, posture Regulation of posture, programming motions, subsidiary motions Programming movements, synthesis of hormones 386. 2 The gap motor pathway in the internal capsule on one side causes the body: Poor coordination of the same name by Loss of motor functions of the same name by Loss of sense of touch and pressure on the opposite side The loss of motor function on the opposite side Loss of coordination on the opposite side 387. 2 Man after brain injury has lost vision. Damage to areas of the cerebral cortex can cause this condition? Parietal Frontal Temporal Occipital Temporal and parietal 388. 2 Sensory aphasia is caused by the pathological process in these brain structures: In the body of corpus In the center of Brock In the reticular formation In the center of Wernicke In varoliyevomu bridge 389. 2 An examination of elderly patients revealed motor aphasia. Where is localized cell damage of the brain? Postcentral gyrus Groove gel Angular gyrus Brock’s centre Precentral gyrus 390. 2 Which of the symptoms characterized by damage to the cerebellum weakness (weakness), rapid onset of fatigue and muscle involving a violation of trophic and metabolic tissues? Atony Ataxia Astaziya Asthenia Adiadohokinez 391. 2 A patient with the background of range of motion observed tremor and increased muscle tone. CNS lesion patterns which accompanied these symptoms? Caudate nucleus Cerebellum Substantia nigra Pale balls Red nucleus 392. 2 Patient perception of breach clause (sensory aphasia). What structure of the brain affected? Lower frontal gyrus Upper frontal gyrus Lower temporal gyrus Superior temporal gyrus Posterior central gyrus 393. 2 Which department of CNS in humans is affected if there is an imbalance, fatigue, muscular dystonia? Prosencephalon Hindbrain Cord Cerebellum Midbrain 394. 2 After a concussion patient with closed eyes loses his balance. What the structure of the brain is likely affected? Thalamus Basal ganglia Limbic system Cerebellum Cord 395. 2 What are the symptoms most characteristic of damage to the cerebellum? Dystonia Ataxia Aspasia All these Asthenia 396. 2 Syndrome, which is characterized by restriction of voluntary movements and trembling limbs at rest Parkinson's syndrome – is associated with: Increased activity of dopaminergic neurons Deficiencies of GABA in the nervous system Excessive and prolonged activity of neurons Neuronal degeneration dofminerhichnyh Dysfunction of the cerebellum 397. 2 Efferent fibers of the cerebellum, Purkinje cell axons are not associated with: The visual area of the cortex and thalamus Nuclei of the reticular formation Red nuclei Spinal cord motoneurons Vestibular nuclei 398. 2 What neuropeptide release nerve cells Renshaw plug? Dopamine Acetylcholine GABA Glycine Serotonin 399. 2 Violation of pale orbs and the substantia nigra may cause: Chorea, athetosis Hyperkinesia and hypotonia of muscles Hyperkinesis Hypokinesis and muscle stiffness Akinesia 400. 2 Examples of inhibitory neurons: Unipolar neurons Basal ganglia neurons and pyramidal cells Autonomic ganglia neurons and Renshaw cells Pear Purkinje neurons and Renshaw cells Efferent neurons 401. 2 Why one and the same substance can act as both excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitter? By changing the structure of the receptor protein on the postsynaptic membrane Due to changes in the chemical properties of matter When neurotransmitter secretion occurs EPSP with secretion - CST Because of synapses on postsynaptic membranes of different types of receptors A change in the concentration of the neurotransmitter 402. 2 For the dominant focus of excitation of neurons characterized by all except: Ability to inhibition of certain reflexes The high lability The ability to transform the excitation rate The low lability Ability to summation of excitation 403. 2 Dysfunction striatum causes: Hypokinesis and muscle hypertonicity Hyperkinesis Hypokinesis and muscular hypotonia Hyperkinesia and hypotonia of muscles Hyperkinesis and hypertension muscles 404. 2 Neurons showing a black substance modulating effect on background neuronal activity striatum through the provision of: Norepinephrine Acetylcholine DOPA Dopamine Glucinium 405. 2 Ancient cerebellum (vestybulocerebellum) is involved in Programming purposeful movements Correction flick Correction performed voluntary movements Adjusting the balance of the body Adjusting the amplitude, orientation and direction of motion 406. 2 New cerebellum (neotserebulum), in contrast to other parts of the cerebellum, provides: Make reflexes straightening Maintain balance of the body Regulation of muscle tone of flexor and extensor Programming purposeful movements Implementation of static reflexes 407. 2 Striatum neurons carry inhibitory effect on neurons black substance by providing the following mediator: Norepinephrine Acetylcholine Glycine GABA Dopamine 408. 2 With the destruction of pale balls may have the following symptoms except: Drowsiness Weakness "Emotional stupidity" Chorea, athetosis Shortness implementation of conditioned reflexes and the formation of new 409. 2 Hyperkinesis (chorea, athetosis) is most likely Thalamus Pale balls Cerebellar Caudate nucleus The hypothalamus associated with damage: 410. 2 Weakness, "emotional stupidity", sleepiness may be associated with the destruction of these structures: Caudate nucleus Cerebellum Vestibular nuclei Pale ball Substantia nigra 411. 2 The bark of the medial cerebellum and the related kernel tent affect the activity of the central nervous system following structure: Red nuclei Thalamus Cerebral cortex of the brain Cores of Deyters The spinal cord 412. 2 By which and through which neurotransmitter receptors substantia nigra neurons affect the striatum? Dopamine D1 receptors Glutamate, NMDA receptors GABA, GABA receptors Dopamine D2 receptors Glycine, glycine receptors 413. 2 What is the impact on the cerebellar nuclei and participation which neurotransmitter Purkinje cells have? Brake, dopamine Exciting, acetylcholine Exciting, dopamine Brake, GABA Brake, glycine 414. 2 The primary sensory areas of the cerebral cortex of the forebrain: Provides integration and analysis of afferent information coming from the sensory thalamic nuclei from different sensory systems Contains polisensorni neurons for which the inherent longterm preservation of information through the circulation of pulses To carry out the programming of motor activity Monosensorni contain neurons that provide the primary data analysis Contains monosensorni, polymodal neurons 415. 2 The bark of hemispheres of the cerebellum and the related gear nucleus affect the activity of the central nervous system following structure: Cores Deytersa The spinal cord The hypothalamus Cerebral cortex of the brain through the thalamus Red nuclei 416. 2 Associative areas of the cerebral cortex of the forebrain: Ensure implementation of complex motor programs Contains monosensorni, monomodalni neurons that provide the primary data analysis Provides integration and analysis of afferent information coming from the sensory thalamic nuclei from different sensory Contains polisensorni neurons for which the inherent longterm preservation of information and programming of motor activity Contains monosensorni, polymodal neurons systems 417. 2 In ancient India, a suspect in the crime offered to swallow a handful of dry rice. Criminals could not swallow the rice through reduced salivation. What process causes this effect? Activation of parasympathetic nucleus tonguepharyngeal nerve Activation of parasympathetic nucleus of the facial nerve Reduced blood flow to the salivary glands Activation of sympathetic adrenal system Inhibition of sympathoadrenal system 418. 2 Which of the following organs of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the nervous system are most pronounced opposite effect? Kidneys, bladder sphincter, salivary gland Heart, salivary glands, muscles Salivary glands, blood vessels, heart Heart sphincter of the bladder, intestine (motility), bronchi Muscle, cancer of the gastrointestinal tract, salivary glands 419. 2 As a victim, caught in a traffic accident, revealed an increase in heart rate, a significant increase in blood pressure, dilated pupils, dry mucous membranes of the mouth. Please indicate which systems involving regulation of these changes were: Hypothalamic pituitary -adrenal Vago - insular Parasympathetic Sympathoadrenal Metasympatetic 420. 2 Which of the following answer lists the reactions that occur in the body during excitation of the sympathetic nervous system? Dilated pupils. Slower heart rate. Lowering blood pressure. Hyperglycemia. Decrease motility of the small intestine The narrowing of the pupil. Reduced heart rate. Lowering blood pressure. Hypoglycemia. Increased motility of the small intestine Dilated pupils. Increase in heart rate. Increased blood pressure. Hypoglycemia. Increased motility of the small intestine Dilated pupils. Acceleration of heart rate. Increased blood pressure. Hyperglycemia. Decrease motility of the small intestine Dilated pupils. Slower heart rate. Increased blood pressure. Hypoglycemia. Increased motility of the small intestine 421. 2 The woman, 24 years old, while waiting for tooth extraction increased tone of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. What process is observed in the patient? Bronchoconstrictio n Increased secretion of digestive juices Increased peristalsis The increase in heart rate Pupillary 422. 2 For a better view of the bottom of the eyeball doctor opplied conjunctiva of the eye in patients atropine solution. This led to the expansion of the pupil. Blockade of membrane cytoreceptors caused this Α- adrenoceptor H2- receptor N- cholinergic receptors M- cholinergic receptors Β- adrenoceptor effect? 423. 2 A person who takes blocker membrane tsytoretseptoriv synapses of the autonomic nervous system, complains of dry mouth. Which of the receptors it needed? H2- receptor Β- adrenergic receptors N- cholinergic receptors M- cholinergic receptors Α- adrenergic receptors 424. 2 Acting on the beta receptors of neuromuscular transmission in smooth muscles. What are the changes caused by norepinephrine? Stimulates motility of the alimentary canal Shrinks the pupil of the eye It stimulates the secretion of gastric Stimulates the heart, relaxes bronchial muscles Constricts blood vessels 425. 2 The man, 33 years old, diagnosed with breakthrough stomach and inflammation of the peritoneum, which led to tension in the muscles of abdominal wall, firmly stomach. What reflex provides this symptom? Kutanno - visceral Viscerokutanny Viscero- visceral Viscerosomatic Somatovisceral 426. 2 During the exam student has a dry mouth. Enhanced implementation of what reflex is the mechanism that leads to the development of this condition? Conditional parasympathetic Definitely peripheral Definitely parasympathetic Conditional cute Definitely cute 427. 2 Activation of what athlete receptor will provide skeletal muscles enough oxygen? Alpha- adrenergic receptors Parasympathetic cholinergic nerves Alpha and beta adrenergic receptors Beta- adrenergic receptors Metasympatetyc nerves 428. 2 The result of which the process is stable mydriasis in high light? Excessive activity of the parasympathetic nervous system Paralysis of the ciliary muscle Normal state regulatory mechanisms Excessive activity of the sympathetic nervous system Muscle paralysis, which extends the pupil 429. 2 The structure of cranial nerves are parasympathetic fibers? IX, X, XI, XII III, VIII, X, XI I, VII, XI, XII III, VII, IX, X II, IV, X, XI 430. 2 In which of the following sections of the diencephalon will be observed arousal effects what is characteristic for the parasympathetic nervous system during stimulation? Lateral region of the thalamus Medial parts of the thalamus Posterior part of the hypothalamus Anterior hypothalamus Ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus 431. 2 Where are the lower centers of the sympathetic nervous system? In the anterior horns of the thoracic and In the midbrain, the medulla oblongata and in In the medulla oblongata and lumbosacral spinal In the lateral horns of thoracic and In the lateral horns of the cervical and lumbar spinal cord the sacral spinal cord cord lumbar spinal cord thoracic 432. 2 In acute experiments on the dog was necessary to exclude pharmacological effects of all divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Specify what you can apply to the following: Obzidan Atropine Phentolamine Benzohexonium Aminazin 433. 2 The consumption of mushrooms, among whom was Amanita phalloides, containing poison muscarine, which stimulates the M- cholinergic receptors, the man was poisoned. Under which (most likely) symptoms this man can be set in the early hours of poisoning after eating mushrooms: Hypertension Dilated pupils Bronchodilation The sharp contraction of the pupils Tachycardia 434. 2 Which of parts of the hypothalamus occurs slow heartbeat during stimulation? Posterior group of nuclei Lots of watering Middle of cores The anterior group of nuclei Periventricular nucleus 435. 2 Volunteers conducted a study on the impact of chlorpromazine as sedation. After taking all they were asked to lie down for a while to avoid the sharp drop in blood pressure while staying upright. What is the most likely mechanism of action of chlorpromazine that occurs immediately after its introduction? Blocks Mcholinergic receptors Stimulates βadrenergic receptors Stimulates αadrenergic receptors Blocks αadrenergic receptors Blocks βadrenergic receptors 436. 2 Where are the centers of the parasympathetic nervous system? In the medulla oblongata and the lateral horns of the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord In the midbrain, medulla oblongata, the lumbar spinal cord In the lateral horns of thoracic and lumbar spinal cord In the midbrain, medulla oblongata, lumbosacral spinal cord In the anterior horns of the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord 437. 2 Specify the output destination of sympathetic nerves of the central nervous system: And lumbar segment and upper cervical spinal cord segments The upper part of the cervical spinal cord segments, first and second lumbar segments Thoracic spinal cord, sacral part of the spinal cord Thoracic spinal cord, and - the third lumbar segments Second lumbar segment, the lower part of the cervical spinal cord segments 438. 2 In which parts of the brain are the body of Varoliyevomu Medulla oblongata, Midbrain, Medulla oblongata, Cerebellum, preganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers? bridge, medulla oblongata, cerebellum midbrain, cerebellum diencephalon, hippocampus midbrain, varoliyevomu bridge midbrain, forebrain 439. 2 Where are localized sympathetic preganglionic neurons in the body? Lateral corner of IXII thoracic segments, the front corner of I-III lumbar segments of the spinal cord Rear corner of the spinal cord, side and corner -XII thoracic segments The front corner of the spinal cord, lateral corner of I and II of the lumbar spinal cord segments In the lateral horns I -XII thoracic segments I-III lumbar segments of the spinal cord Lateral corner of IIII lumbar segments of the spinal cord, back and corner -XII thoracic segments 440. 2 What is the effect of stimulation of the sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers to the heart? Cute - stimulate parasympathetic stimulate Cute - stimulate parasympathetic do not work Cute is not valid, parasympathetic stimulate Cute - stimulate parasympathetic brake Cute - brake, parasympathetic stimulate 441. 2 A patient with caries, aged 30, during the manipulation of the tooth pulp violation occurred, resulting in dilation of the pupils. What caused the pupillary reflex reaction? Parasympathetic conditional Cute conditional Parasympathetic absolute Cute absolute Metasympatychny y 442. 2 The woman, 24 years old, while waiting for tooth extraction increased tone of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. What process is observed in the patient? Bronchoconstrictio n Increased secretion of digestive juices Increased peristalsis The increase in heart rate Pupillary 443. 2 Ophthalmologist for diagnostic purposes (pupil dilation for fundus examination) used a 1% metazon solution. What caused mydriasis after applying medication? Activation of β1adrenoceptor Activation of α2adrenoceptor Activation of Mcholinergic receptors Activation of α1adrenoceptor Blockade of α1adrenoceptor 444. 2 In acute experiments on a dog with bilateral vasectomy recorded a sharp rise in blood pressure, increased heart rate, reduced secretory and motor functions of the stomach. Indicate the possible mechanism of changes in the visceral systems: Activation vago insular system Activating somatic nervous system Activation Activation of the metasympatychnoy sympathetic i nervous system nervous system Stimulation of viscero -visceral reflexes 445. 2 Experimentally in animals by using mikroelektrodnu technique, observed changes in the visceral systems bradycardia, increased secretory and motor functions of Medulla oblongata and the front horn of the spinal cord Midbrain and lateral horns of the thoracic and Lateral horns of thoracic and lumbar spinal cord Medulla and midbrain Brain stem and lateral horns of the sacral spinal cord the stomach, significant blood flow to the pelvic vessels, etc., as a result of activation of the lower centers of the parasympathetic nervous system. Specify the location of these centers within the central nervous system: lumbar spinal cord 446. 2 Patients with asthma appointed inhalation of 0.5% solution izadryn (agonists). Bronchospasm was removed, but the patient began to complain of heart pain and palpitations. This is due to stimulation: Synthesis of acetylcholine M- cholinergic receptors Β2- adrenoceptor Β1- adrenoceptor Α1- adrenoceptor 447. 2 Introduction atropine, a blocker of M- cholinergic receptors leads to: Activation of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system Activation of parasympathetic autonomic nervous system Inhibition of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system Inhibition of parasympathetic autonomic nervous system Inhibition of sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system 448. 2 Solution of norepinephrine was introduced intravenously to a patient. By which receptors will be called vasoconstriction effect? M- cholinergic receptors Β- adrenoceptor N- cholinergic receptors Α- adrenoceptor H1- histamine receptors 449. 2 During the adolescent smoking occurred hypersalivation. What receptors are activated at the same time? Β1- adrenergic M- cholinergic receptors Α- adrenergic receptors N- cholinergic receptors Β2- adrenergic receptors 450. 2 Add neurotransmitters that are released by the parasympathetic synapse of arc reflex. Dopamine Adrenalin Glycine Acetylcholine GABA 451. 2 Ganglionic synapses of the arc reflex in the sympathetic receptors are located: Α- adrenergic receptors Β- adrenergic receptors M- cholinergic receptors N- cholinergic receptors Dopamine 452. 2 What is the neurotransmitter of postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers stimulating the sweat glands? Serotonin Norepinephrine Adrenalin Acetylcholine Histamine 453. 2 In humans, decreased heart rate, constricted bronchi constricted pupil. CE is a consequence of the activation of this system in the body regulating function? Sympathetic nervous Sympathoadrenal Hypothalamic adrenal Parasympathetic nervous Renin -angiotensin 454. 2 In humans, decreased heart rate, constricted bronchi, increased secretory and motor function of the gastrointestinal tract. Activation of which regulation happened? Sympathetic nervous Sympathoadrenal Hypothalamic adrenal Parasympathetic nervous Renin -angiotensin 455. 2 In '29 the subject complained about an acute pain due to injury of the hand. What neurotransmitters are involved in the transmission of impulses from the damaged area? GABA, endorphin, proenkefalin Somatostatin, glucagon, insulin Somatropin, folitropin, adrenaline Serotonin, histamine, bradykinin Ions H+, catalase, peroxidase 456. 2 During the unrest in human saliva is reduced and there is a drying sensation in the mouth. What neurotransmitter is released at the same time on the nerve endings that imitates salivary glands? Histamine Acetylcholine Serotonin Norepinephrine GABA 457. 2 Feature of the autonomous (vegetative) nervous system is the presence of two neurons in the efferent link of the reflex arc. Transfer of excitation in the ganglia is caused by using the following mediators: GABA Adrenalin Serotonin Acetylcholine Norepinephrine 458. 2 During the exam the student noticed increased sweating. A mediator with has influence on sympathetic nervous system. Dopamine Norepinephrine Serotonin Acetylcholine Histamine 459. 2 In the initial state due to pressing on the eyeballs patients heart rate (HR) reduced from 72 to 60 beats per minute. After receiving the blocker of membrane cytoreceptors did not change heart rate. What receptors are blocked? Α- adrenergic receptors Α- and βadrenergic receptors N- cholinergic receptors M- cholinergic receptors Β- adrenergic receptors 460. 2 Which of the answers listed below of are reactions observed in the body when parasympathetic autonomic nervous system is excited? The narrowing of the pupil. Slower heart rate. Narrowing of the coronary arteries. Decrease motility of the small intestine Dilated pupils. The increase in heart rate. Increased blood pressure. Hyperglycemia. Slower motility of the small intestine Dilated pupils. The increase in heart rate. Increased blood pressure. Narrowing of the coronary arteries. Slower motility of the small intestine The narrowing of the pupil. Slower heart rate. Lowering blood pressure. Increased motility of the small intestine. Relaxation of the sphincter of the Dilated pupils. The increase in heart rate. Increased motility of the small intestine. Relaxation of the sphincter of the bladder bladder 461. 2 In patient after hemorrhage in the brain stem reflex constriction of the pupil is absent while teaching by light. Lesions which structure is causing this? Red nuclei Lateral reticular nucleus Medial reticular nuclei Parasympathetic nuclei of the oculomotor nerve Substantia nigra 462. 2 Constricted pupils can occur in humans. What makes this process? The increased activity of sympathetic adrenal system The action of adrenaline Increased sympathetic tone centers Increased parasympathetic tone centers Effects of norepinephrine 463. 2 What is the substance that stimulates and blocks the action of parasympathetic nerve? Blocks epinephrine, atropine stimulates Blocks acetylcholine, adrenaline stimulates Blocks atropine stimulates GABA Blocks atropine stimulates acetylcholine Blocks GABA stimulates acetylcholine 464. 2 42 years old woman had there was an attack of asthma, accompanied by bronchospasm. Raising the tone of which nerve nuclei contributes bronchospasm? Trigeminal Nice Tonguepharyngeal Vagus Facial 465. 2 In patients occured spasm of smooth muscles of the bronchi. The use of activators of membrane receptors physiologically grounded to remove the attack? N- cholinergic receptors Α- adrenoceptor M- cholinergic receptors Β- adrenoceptor Α- and βadrenoceptor 466. 2 After examination of the patient in the clinic of nervous diseases was found bleeding in the brain stem and no constriction of the pupil when exposed to light. Disorder which of the nuclei of the brain stem is that? Midbrain reticular nuclei The lateral reticular nucleus of the medulla oblongata Red nuclei of the midbrain Cores Yakubovich - Edinhera Westphal midbrain Black substances 467. 2 The patient had on attack tachycardia. What cardiomyocyte membrane cytoreceptors appropriate block to stop the attack? M- cholinergic receptors Α- adrenergic receptors M- and ncholinergic receptors Β- adrenergic receptors N- cholinergic receptors 468. 2 In the dog during experiment irritate constant electric current peripheral cut end of the right vagus nerve. Indicate which of the following changes will be observed in the activity of visceral organs: Increased bronchial lumen Increase the frequency of respiratory movements The increase in heart rate The decrease in heart rate Inhibition of intestinal motility 469. 2 In the right rabbit´s eye inserted two drops of atropine and after half an hour we could watch the expansion of the pupil of the eye. This was due to the influence of atropine on: Β- adrenergic nerve- organ synapses M- cholinergic ganglionic synapses H- ganglionic cholinergic synapses M- cholinergic nerve synapses organ Α- adrenergic neuro -organ synapses 470. 2 In experiments on dog was mode of the intestine and monitored its motility, which was restored after some time. Due to which reflections it was possible? Somatic Sympathetic Parasympathetic Metasympatychny h Viscero -visceral 471. 2 In chronic experiments on the dog, using the technique mikroelektrodnu observed instantaneous reaction of the system as a result of activation of the lower centers of the sympathetic nervous system. Specify the location of these centers within the central nervous system: The front corners of thoracic and lumbar spinal cord Medulla oblongata and lumbosacral spinal cord Average brain and lumbosacral spinal cord Lateral horns of thoracic and lumbar spinal cord Brain stem and sacral spinal cord 472. 2 When blockade of sympathetic innervations we can see everything except: Reduced heart rate Narrowing of the lumen of the bronchi Lowering blood pressure Dilated pupils Expansion of blood vessels of the skin 473. 2 Sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system: It has always depressing (inhibitory) effect None of the above statements does not apply to the sympathetic division of ANS Located usually under the control of consciousness Usually shows the opposite effect than parasympathetic It has always stimulating effect 474. 3 Define the humoral regulation. Regulation, provided hormones Regulation, provided metabolites Regulation, provided blood cells Regulation that provides biologically active substances Regulation, provided the nervous system 475. 3 It is known that natriuretic peptide acts through receptors linked to guanylate cyclase. As a result of this interaction: The formation of inositol -3phosphate The formation of cAMP Formation of calmodulin The formation of cGMP Phosphorylation of tyrosine 476. 3 Indicate which of these hormones interact with cytoplasmic receptors. Glucagon Adrenalin Vasopressin Cortisol Thyroxine 477. 3 Specify intermediaries through which vasopressin Phospholipase C Diatsylhlitserol Inositol -3 - 3.5 cAMP 3.5 cGMP realizes its effect on target cells. phosphate 478. 3 What is the relative hipoproduction hormone? Stimulation cancer target Loss of function of cancer Loss regulatory hormone Receptor defect leading to loss of its function Mutations in the receptor, leading to its activation 479. 3 What hormones are chemical structure to steroids? Hormones of hypothalamus Thyroid Hormones Catecholamines Hormones of sexual glands Hormones of the gastrointestinal tract 480. 3 What role in the mechanisms of action of hormones plays a secondary messenger inositol -3 -phosphate? Opens calcium channels in the cell membrane Activates adenylyl cyclase Activates protein kinase It stimulates the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum Activates guanylate cyclase 481. 3 Which types of hormones on tissue involves their ability to influence the processes of morphogenesis, growth, differentiation structures? Reaktohenna Kinetic Correcting Morphogenetic Permissive 482. 3 To analgesia can be used substance that mimics the effects of morphine, but is synthesized in the CNS. Name it: Vasopressin Somatoliberyn Oxytocin Endorfin Calcitonin 483. 3 What is meant by self-regulation? Regulation carried out by means of metabolites The form of regulation, the mechanisms of which are aimed at ensuring the adaptation of the organism to the conditions of existence All the mechanisms of regulation of body functions The form of regulation, the mechanisms of which run deviation parameters adjustable function All numbered wrong 484. 3 Indicate which of these hormones interact with receptors cytomembrane. Aldosterone Thyroxine Cortisol Adrenalin Testosterone 485. 3 Effects of intracellular receptors is implemented mainly Activation of inositol -3- Activation of Activation of calcium- The change in Activation NO through: phosphate adenylate cyclase kadmodulin gene expression 486. 3 Which of the following hormones increases in target cells cAMP concentration of 3.5? Estradiol Aldosterone Testosterone Glucagon Cortisol 487. 3 Second messenger in the mechanism of action of adrenaline are: Tsumf Tstsmf Cgmp Camp Tstmf 488. 3 What is a secondary hormone hyperproduction? Loss regulatory hormone Mutation of the receptor, leading to its activation Hyperfunction cancer Excessive stimulation of cancer target Receptor defect leading to loss of its function 489. 3 Calcium ions - one of the evolutionarily ancient second messengers in cells. They are activators of glycogenolysis when interacting with: Myosin light chain kinase Calcitonin Calciferol Calmodulin Phosphorylase c 490. 3 What is the principle underlying the regulation of endocrine glands? The principle of dual control The principle of subordination The principle of self- The principle of feedback The principle reception 491. 3 What neyrosekretions? Activate the selection adrenaline sympathetic nervous system Bold tropic pituitary hormones Bold posterior pituitary hormones The formation of hormone-like substances neurons of the hypothalamus Changing of the glands under the influence of the nervous system 492. 3 Which compound is a precursor in the synthesis of prostaglandins in the human body? Oleic acid Palmitic acid Linolenic acid Arachidonic acid Linoleic acid 493. 3 Which of the following hormones secrete affect the peripheral endocrine glands? Neurotransmitter Paracrine hormones Neuromodulator Tropic hormones Effector hormones 494. 3 Which of the following hormones are derivatives of polyunsaturated fatty acids? Polypeptides Thyroid hormones Steroids Eicosanoids All of the above 495. 3 The group of eicosanoids are: Thromboxane Prostaglandins Leukotrienes All of the above Prostacyclin 496. 3 Which of the following hormones out into the bloodstream neurosecretory cells? Prostacyclin Neurotransmitter Paracrine hormones Neurohormones All of the 497. 3 Regulation of cell function, which directly synthesizes regulatory substance, termed: Endocrine regulation Paracrine regulation Neyrokrynna regulation Autocrine regulation None of the above 498. 3 Local effects of hormones on the adjacent, closely spaced tissue, termed: Endocrine regulation Neyrokrynna regulation Autocrine regulation Paracrine regulation None of the above 499. 3 Which of the following hormone initiates biological effects by activating cytomembrane receptors? Thyroid hormones Progesterone Estrogens Adrenalin Cortisol 500. 3 Which of the following hormones interacts with the cytoplasmic receptor, with subsequent effects on gene cells and processes of protein synthesis? Insulin Adrenalin Tyroliberyn Cortisol Luteinizing hormone 501. 3 Hormone Testosterone circulates in plasma as: Bound to albumin plasma Free dihydrotestosteron e Free testosterone Linked with steroyidzv'yazuyuc hymy plasma globulins All answers are correct 502. 3 Prostaglandins - tissue hormones that regulate the function of tissues located near by: Endocrine regulation Neyrokrynnoyi regulation Autocrine regulation Paracrine regulation None of the above 503. 3 Which of the following serves as a primary messenger? Enzyme cAMP Receptor Hormone All answers are correct 504. 3 Hormonal effect is the ability to run the activities of effector hormone entitled: Metabolic Correcting Morphogenetic Kinetic Reaktohennoho 505. 3 Loss regulatory hormone that normally stimulates the production of hormones peripheral endocrine glands entitled: Primary hipoproduktsiyi Relative overproduction Primary overproduction Secondary hipoproduktsiyi Relative hipoproduktsiyi 506. 3 Which of the following hormones implementing biological effects by activating cAMP synthesis? Insulin Thyroxine Estrogens Parathyroid hormone Nitrogen monoxide 507. 3 Which of the following hormones implementing biological effects by activating the synthesis tsHMF? Insulin Thyroxine Estrogens Atriopeptyd Parathyroid hormone 508. 3 What second messenger system involves the implementation of a biological effect of pancreatic Diatsylhlitserol Calcium ions Cgmp Camp Inositol -3 phosphate hormone - glucagon? 509. 3 Intracellular receptors for steroid hormones are called: Transmembrane domain Intracellular domains Ligand independent factors Ligand - dependent All answers are transcription correct factors 510. 3 Found that 7 adenohypophysis secretes tropic hormones. Which of these hormones ensures normal growth and physical development of the body? Lipotropin Lutropin Laktotropin Somatropin Corticotropin 511. 3 Female, 45 years old, for the last 6 months had strengthening on hair growth on the face, the white line of the abdomen and legs. Facial features became coarser. Irregular menstrual cycle. Which hormonal changes attribute develop of these disorders? Increased secretion of oxytocin Increasing estrogen Higher concentrations of growth hormone Increasing secretion of androgens Reduced secretion of glucocorticoids 512. 3 Which of the following hormones produced in the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Melatonin Somatostatin Human chorionic gonadotropin ACTH Oxytocin 513. 3 Which of the following hormones accumulate in the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Melatonin Somatostatin Human chorionic gonadotropin Oxytocin ACTH 514. 3 Parents of boy 14 years old led an appointment with an endocrinologist. The doctor said the child stunting, disproportionate body composition, mental retardation. About dysfunction which endocrine gland should think first of all, in this case? Epiphysis Testes Adrenal Thyroid Thymus 515. 3 Determine which disorders are possible with the failure of the thyroid gland, if the failure occurs from early childhood? Hipopituyitaryzm Dwarfism Giantism Cretinism Hyperpigmentation of skin 516. 3 As a young man in '16 height 110 cm, sharply reduced intellectual capacity. The reason for this is the lack of secretion during childhood: Androgens Somatropin Insulin Thyroxine Estrogen 517. 3 Until family physician office boy turned '17 proportionate physique growth 115 cm with hypoplasia of the genitals. With the lack of secretion of the Adenokortykotrop noho Prolactin Testosterone Growth hormone Aldosterone hormone which is associated a state? 518. 3 A person in a state of physical and mental rest has a heart rate of over 80 beats per minute. What could be the cause this condition? Increase allocation natriuretic hormone Increased excretion of aldosterone Reducing the discharge of adrenaline Increased excretion of thyroxine Effect of prostaglandin 519. 3 When a frogs pituitary gland is destroyed its skin will change colour after some time. Why? Will increase production of thyrotropin TSH production will decrease Will increase production of vasopressin Products will decrease melanotropin Will increase production of oxytocin 520. 3 From the hormone listed below select those for pituitary regulation of peripheral endocrine glands: Triiodothyronine, thyrotropin, somatotropin Prolactin, somatotropin, glucagon Gonadotropins, thyrotropin, oxytocin Corticotropin, gonadotropin (folitropin and lueteotropin), thyrotropin Insulin, corticotropin, aldosterone 521. 3 Which hormone promotes growth of the uterus during pregnancy and causes hypertrophy of the mucous membrane of the uterus in the first half of the menstrual cycle? Estrogen Testosterone Folliculin Progesterone Oxytocin 522. 3 Which of these hormones are produced in the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Gonadotropin, corticotropin Somatotropin, thyrotropin Somatotropin, corticotropin Vasopressin, oxytocin Epinephrine, norepinephrine 523. 3 What body functions does the thyroid hormone – thyroxine- affect? In the exchange of calcium and phosphorus levels of tissue excitability In the deposition of glycogen in the liver and muscles, blood sugar, fat metabolism At the level of sugar in the blood, vascular tone, intestinal motility In the heat, protein metabolism, growth and differentiation of tissues In exchange of water, the formation reaction of drinking 524. 3 A female, 25 years of age, came to the doctor one month after delivery complaining of reducing amounts of milk formation. Which hormone deficiency led to this situation? Insulin Somatostatin Corticotropin Prolactin Glucagon 525. 3 A 10 -year-old child is 178 cm tall and weighs 64 kg. This is the result of violation of what endocrine gland? The adrenal Gonads Thyroid gland Pituitary Parathyroid 526. 3 An adult is 100 cm tall with proportional body structure and normal mental development. Insufficient production of what hormones during childhood caused this? Thyrotropin Gonadotropin Corticotropin Somatotropin Prolactin 527. 3 A child from birth had a reduced function of the thyroid gland. What could be the consequence? Hypopituitarism Dwarfism Giantism Cretinism Hyperpigmentation of skin 528. 3 The child has violation of the term of teeth development, there is an anomaly of enamel, enlarged lips and tongue. Decreased secretion of what hormone causes this change? Somatotropin Pth Calcitonin Thyroxine Insulin 529. 3 By endocrinologist addressed patient complaining of lost of weight to 10 kg within 2 months, palpitations, and exophthalmia. These complaints most typical for hyperfunction of what endocrine gland? The adrenal Gonad Pancreatic Thyroid Parathyroid glands 530. 3 The patient observed growth in specific parts of the body (jaw, nose, ears, tongue, feet, hands) while maintaining the proportions of the body. This may be due to: Hyperthyroidism Obese Diabetes Acromegaly Gigantism 531. 3 The patient observed growth in specific parts of the body (jaw, nose, ears, tongue, feet, hands) on the background of maintaining the proportions of the body. Increased secretion of what hormone can be the reason? Somatostatin Triiodothyronine Tetraiodothyronine Somatotropin Cortisol 532. 3 Male, 12 years old, has a height of 180 cm. Which hormone secretion disorder is this caused by? Gonadotropin Thyroxine Thyrotropin Somatotropin Insulin 533. 3 The woman 40 years old with weak labour, caused by decreased contractile ability of the myometrium. What is the hormonal drug to use? Aldosterone Hydrocortisone Dexamethasone Oxytocin Prednisone 534. 3 The child has retarded mental development, stunting, tooth formation, delayed emergence points of ossification, decreased metabolism. Lack of function of The adrenal Neurohypophysis Gonads Thyroid Pancreatic which endocrine glands can lead to this condition? 535. 3 The patient has increased basal metabolic rate, increased body temperature, and tachycardia at rest. Increased function of which endocrine gland may be causing this? Adrenal cortex Pancreatic Neurohypophysis Thyroid Gonads 536. 3 What substances stimulate the release of hormones of adenohypophysis? Endorphins Statins Liberyny + statin Liberyns Enkephalins 537. 3 What contributes to the formation of milk in a breastfeeding woman? ACTH Norepinephrine Somatropin Prolactin Adrenalin 538. 3 What substances inhibit the release of hormones of the adenohypophysis? Endorphins Liberyn Enkephalins Statins Liberyns and statins 539. 3 The general examination of the patient revealed thickening of the neck, exophthalmos, increased body temperature, and a pulse rate of 110 beats per min. The content of which hormone should be determined in the blood? Insulin Germ Catecholamines Thyroxine Cortisol 540. 3 On examination, the patient revealed excessive growth of bones and soft tissues of the face, increased size of the tongue, enlarged interdental spaces in the dental arch. What changes in hormone secretion is most likely? Increased insulin secretion Reduced secretion of thyroxine Reduced secretion of growth hormone Increased secretion of growth hormone Increased secretion of vasopressin 541. 3 What disease is caused by insufficient production of hormones of the adrenal cortex? Dwarfism Graves' disease Diabetes Bronze disease Acromegaly 542. 3 The elderly often experience bone demineralization (reduced content of calcium in bone tissue). Hyposecretion of which hormone causes this condition? Aldosterone Thyroxine Insulin Thyrocalcitonin PTH 543. 3 The patient’s continued use of drugs has led to hyperkalemia. Changing hormone secretion is caused by Reduced secretion of vasopressin Reduced aldosterone secretion Increased secretion of vasopressin Increased secretion of aldosterone Reduced secretion of renin 544. 3 In tomographic survey found damage to the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus. Deficiency of which hormones can result? Thyrotropin, follicle Oxytocin, statins Releasing factor Antidiuretic hormone, oxytocin Corticotropin, prolactin 545. 3 The patient has a dramatically reduced content of calcium in the blood. Increased secretion of which hormone will lead to this condition? Vasopressin Calcitonin Aldosterone Pth Somatotropin 546. 3 In the kidneys examined increased reabsorption of calcium and reduced - phosphate ions. Effect of what hormone caused this change? Aldosterone Calcitonin Hormonal forms of vitamin D3 Pth Vasopressin 547. 3 Endocrinologist monitors a 40 year old patient , whose lack of adrenal function shows a decrease of the hormone aldosterone in the blood. The function of the cells of which layer of the cortex is damaged? Sudanofobic area Beam area Mesh zones Glomerular zone X- band 548. 3 The newborn developed spasm of the glottis. Patient’s history revealed its tendency to develop seizures. This occurs because of dysfunction of which endocrine gland? Thyroid The pancreas Thymus Parathyroid The adrenal 549. 3 As a result of injury, a man lost 500 ml of blood, which led to a decrease in daily urine output. Effects of which hormone on the kidneys provides this adaptive response? Aldosterone Cortisol Natriuretic factor Vasopressin Renin 550. 3 A child, 2 years old, has seizures due to decrease in the concentration of calcium ions in the plasma. Reduced function of which gland causes this? Pineal Adrenocortical Pituitary Parathyroid glands Thymus 551. 3 Secretion of which hormone is inhibited after the use of oral contraceptives that contain sex hormones Thyrotropin Somatropin Vasopressin Gonadotropin Oxytocin 552. 3 Careless student had a sudden meeting with the dean. The concentration of which hormone is most likely to increase in the student? Cortisol Tyreoliberyn Corticotropin Adrenaline Somatotropin 553. 3 During the test, the patient’s endocrinology clinic detected increase in blood glucose levels up to 11 mg / dL. Lack of which is hormone is related to these changes? Testosterone Glucagon Estradiol Insulin PTH 554. 3 The patient revealed hyperkalemia and hyponatremia. Decreased secretion of which hormone can cause this change? PTH Cortisol Vasopressin Aldosterone Natriuretic 555. 3 In the elderly we can often observe bone demineralization (reduced content of calcium ions). Hyposecretion of which hormone can cause this condition? Aldosterone Thyroxine Insulin Calcytonin PTH 556. 3 The woman has restricted blood flow in the kidneys. High blood pressure. Which hormone hypersecretion led to increased pressure? Norepinephrine Vasopressin Adrenaline Renin Erythropoietin 557. 3 What processes can be observed in the body with insulin? Glycogenolysis, hypoglycemia, conversion of glucose into glycogen Glycogenolysis, hyperglycemia, conversion of glycogen to glucose Glikogenesis, hyperglycemia, conversion of glycogen to glucose Glikogenesis, hypoglycemia, conversion of glucose into glycogen Glikogenesis, hypoglycemia, conversion of glycogen to glucose 558. 3 What processes can be observed in the body when adrenaline is administered? Glycogenolysis, hypoglycemia, conversion of glucose into glycogen Glikogenesis, hyperglycemia, conversion of glucose into glycogen Glikogensis, hyperglycemia, conversion of glycogen to glucose Glycogenolysis, hyperglycemia, conversion of glycogen to glucose Glikogenesis, hypoglycemia, conversion of glycogen to glucose 559. 3 Which of these hormones affects the metabolism of sodium in the body by increasing its reabsorption in tubules? Androgens Glucocorticoids Parathyroid hormone Mineralocorticoids Estrogens 560. 3 What are the hormones produced by the adrenal medulla? Norepinephrine, glucocorticoids Glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids Adrenaline androgenic hormones Epinephrine, norepinephrine Epinephrine, corticosteroids 561. 3 Which of these hormones has anti-inflammatory effect on the tissues? Glucagon Adrenalin Mineralocorticoids Glucocorticoids Insulin 562. 3 What hormones are involved in the formation of the general adaptation syndrome when exposed to stressors? Cortisone, androgens, parathyroid hormone, oxytocin Thyroxine, norepinephrine, glucagon, corticotropin Somatotropin, corticotropin, epinephrine, progesterone Corticotropin, glucocorticoids, epinephrine, norepinephrine Corticosterone, progesterone, epinephrine, norepinephrine 563. 3 What hormone promotes the formation of glycogen in the liver and glucose utilization? Thyroxine Insulin Adrenalin Glucagon Parathyroid hormone 564. 3 What hormone promotes growth of the uterus during pregnancy and causes hypertrophy of the mucous membrane of the uterus in the first half of the menstrual cycle? Estrogen Testosterone Folliculin Progesterone Oxytocin 565. 3 What are the hormones, synthesized in the pancreas, influence carbohydrate metabolism? In what type of cells? Insulin - the cells kallikrein - in - cells Insulin - the cells, glucagon - in - cell Insulin - the cells kallikrein - in - cell Insulin - the cells, glucagon the - cells Glucagon - in cells kallikrein - in - cells 566. 3 Patient breach intrarenal circulatory system and BCC. Which factor secretion by the kidneys is changed? Molecular kininogen Erythropoietin Prostaglandins Renin Leukotrienes 567. 3 The function of which gland is not regulated by pituitary tropic hormones? Sex glands Thyroid gland Adrenal gland Parathyroid gland Breast 568. 3 What is the main hormone that controls the intensity of reabsorption of water? Parathyroid hormone Aldosterone Natriuretic hormone Vasopressin Tyreokaltsytonin 569. 3 After the introduction of the hormone in the human kidney increased water reabsorption, increased vascular tone, and increased systemic blood pressure. What hormone was introduced? Aldosterone Adrenalin Thyroxine Vasopressin Norepinephrine 570. 3 Which of the biologically active substances by chemical structure is opioid peptides? Vasopressin Melanocyte stimulating hormone Thyroidstimulating Endorfin Growth hormone 571. 3 How to change the tropic hormone secretion with increasing levels of corresponding effector hormone? How is this principle of regulatory interactions called? Tropic hormone secretion decreases. The principle of positive feedback Tropic hormone secretion increase. The principle of negative feedback Tropic hormone secretion increase. The principle of positive feedback Tropic hormone secretion decreases. The principle of negative feedback Tropic hormone secretion does not change. The principle of negative feedback 572. 3 How to change the tropic hormone secretion with a decrease in blood of respective effector hormone? How is this principle of regulatory interactions called? Tropic hormone secretion decreases. The principle of positive feedback Tropic hormone secretion decreases. The principle of negative feedback Tropic hormone secretion increase. The principle of positive feedback Tropic hormone secretion increase. The principle of negative feedback Tropic hormone secretion does not change. The principle of negative feedback 573. 3 How does the secretion of TSH change with decreasing levels of thyroxine and triiodothyronine? How is this principle of regulatory interactions called? TSH secretion decrease. The principle of positive feedback TSH secretion decrease. The principle of negative feedback TSH secretion increase. The principle of positive feedback TSH secretion increase. The principle of negative feedback Secretion of TSH did not change. The principle of negative feedback 574. 3 How does the secretion of TSH change with increasing levels of thyroxine and triiodothyronine? How is this principle of regulatory interactions called? TSH secretion decrease. The principle of positive feedback Secretion of TSH did not change. The principle of negative feedback TSH secretion increase. The principle of positive feedback TSH secretion decrease. The principle of negative feedback TSH secretion increase. The principle of negative feedback 575. 3 List the endocrine glands, whose activity is influenced by the adenohypophysis Parathyroid gland Adrenal medulla Islets of Langerhans of the pancreas Thyroid, sex, adrenal gland (cortical substance) Neurohypophysis 576. 3 List the endocrine glands, whose activities are not under the influence of the adenohypophysis Adrenal gland (cortical substance) Sex glands Thyroid Adrenal medulla All of the above 577. 3 The hypothalamus inhibits secretion (release) of: Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) Folliclestimulating hormone Adrenocorticotropi c hormone (ACTH) Growth Hormone Oxytocin 578. 3 The hypothalamus inhibits secretion (release) of: Gonadotrophin Vasopressin Adrenocorticotropi c hormone (ACTH) Growth hormone Oxytocin 579. 3 Secretion of these hormones which are under the influence of the tropic hormones of the adenohypophysis Adrenaline Pth Insulin Cortisol Vasopressin 580. 3 Secretion of these hormones are not under the influence of tropic hormones of the adenohypophysis Thyroxine Testosterone Cortisol Insulin Triiodothyronine 581. 3 Hormones that act directly on target organs are called? Liberyns Releasing hormone Statins Effector Tropic 582. 3 Pituitary hormones that act on other glands are called? Liberyns Statins Releasing hormone Tropic Effector 583. 3 Somatostatin: It stimulates the It stimulates the secretion of growth secretion of TSH hormone Inhibits the secretion of LH Inhibits secretion of CTT Inhibits secretion of HH 584. 3 Somatoliberin: Inhibits secretion of CTT Inhibits the secretion of LH It stimulates the secretion of TSH It stimulates the Inhibits secretion secretion of growth of HH hormone 585. 3 Tyroliberin: Inhibits secretion of CTT Inhibits secretion of HH It stimulates the It stimulates the secretion of growth secretion of TSH hormone Inhibits the secretion of LH 586. 3 Corticoliberin: It stimulates the It stimulates the secretion of growth secretion of TSH hormone Inhibits secretion of CTT It stimulates the secretion of ACTH Inhibits secretion of HH 587. 3 With increasing concentration of cortisol secretion: Kortykoliberyn reduced Thyroid stimulating increased Tyroliberyn increases ACTH increases ACTH decreased 588. 3 With increasing concentrations of cortisol secretion: Tyroliberyn reduced Kortykoliberyn reduced ACTH increases ACTH decreased Decreased thyroid stimulating 589. 3 Which of the following is correct about adrenaline? On chemical structure - amino acid derivatives, acting through membrane On chemical structure - steroids, acting through cytosolic receptors and its secretion is On chemical structure - peptide, acting through cytosolic receptors and its secretion is On chemical structure - amino acid derivatives, acting through membrane On chemical structure - steroids, acting through cytosolic receptors and its secretion is receptors and its secretion is regulated by ACTH regulated by ACTH regulated by TSH receptors and its secretion is not regulated by tropic hormones not regulated by tropic hormones 590. 3 Which of the following is correct about cortisol? On chemical structure - amino acid derivatives, acting through membrane receptors and its secretion is regulated by ACTH On chemical structure - peptide, acting through cytosolic receptors and its secretion is regulated by TSH On chemical structure - amino acid derivatives, acting through membrane receptors and its secretion is not regulated by tropic hormones On chemical structure - steroids, acting through cytosolic receptors and its secretion is regulated by ACTH On chemical structure - steroids, acting through cytosolic receptors and its secretion is not regulated by tropic hormones 591. 3 Which of the following is correct in relation to insulin On chemical structure - peptide, acting through membrane receptors and its secretion is regulated by TSH On chemical structure - steroids, acting through cytosolic receptors and its secretion is regulated by ACTH On chemical structure - amino acid derivatives, acting through membrane receptors and its secretion is not regulated by tropic hormones On chemical structure - peptide, acting through membrane receptors and its secretion is not regulated by tropic hormones On chemical structure - steroids, acting through cytosolic receptors and its secretion is not regulated by tropic hormones 592. 3 Which of the following is correct concerning the parathyroid hormone? On chemical structure - amino acid derivatives, acting through nuclear receptors, and its secretion is regulated by TSH On chemical structure - steroids, acting through cytosolic receptors and its secretion is regulated by ACTH On chemical structure - amino acid derivatives, acting through membrane receptors and its secretion is not regulated by tropic hormones On chemical structure - peptide, acting through membrane receptors and its secretion is not regulated by tropic hormones On chemical structure - peptide, acting through cytosolic receptors and its secretion is not regulated by tropic hormones 593. 3 Which of the following hormones is produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Vasopressin Kortykoliberyn Somatostatin Prolactin Oxytocin 594. 3 Which of the following hormones is produced in the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Prolactin ACTH Folliclestimulating hormone Vasopressin HGH 595. 3 Which of the following hormones is produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Somatostatin Oxytocin Vasopressin Hgh Somatoliberyn 596. 3 Which of the following hormones is produced in the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Prolactin ACTH TSH Oxytocin HGH 597. 4 A man carries an engagement ring and does not feel it on the hand. Please indicate which processes occurred in the membrane of afferent nerve fibers during stimulation of skin mechanoreceptors: Increasing the threshold depolarization Increase in excitability Without a change in excitability Without a change in threshold depolarization Reducing the threshold depolarization 598. 4 Damage of postcentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex in humans causes loss of all types of skin sensitivity of certain areas of the body, such as: On the opposite side From the damage Upper torso Scalp Lower torso 599. 4 Found that when a lady is dressed, she gradually lost the feeling of clothing on her body as a result of adapting tactile receptors as a result of changes in membrane permeability afferent nerve fibers to ions, namely: Reduction for sodium ions Reduction for calcium Reduction for potassium ions The increase for calcium Increase for sodium ions 600. 4 A person who suffers from chronic pain, appealed for help to the neurosurgery clinic where her method of stereotactic surgery defeat the nasty feeling. Indicate which of the following are brain structures that were excluded: Ventropostlateralic nucleus of thalamus Ventromedial nucleus of the thalamus Supraoptic nucleus of thalamus Thalamus The nerve fibers that connect the frontal lobes of the thalamus 601. 4 In the study of visual acuity inspection, a patient was diagnosed with hyperopia. For vision correction doctor prescribed him glasses with lenses: Gathering Scattering Astigmatic Cylindric Blackout 602. 4 An examination of visual acuity of a 25 -year-old man found the breach that exposed correction by a biconcave lens. Indicate the possible cause of the Myopia Astigmatism Hyperopia Presbyopia Accommodation disorder. 603. 4 Clinical examination of a person established blindness in his left eye. Indicate which of the following can cause damage to the visual sensory system: The left optic nerve to the intersection Lateral geniculate body of thalamus Crossroads of the optic nerves The visual cortex Upper body humps corpora quadrigemina 604. 4 In the experiment, due to the destruction of one of the structures of the midbrain, animal lost orientation reflex to strong sound signal. Please indicate which structures were destroyed: Lower body tubercles of corpora quadrigemina Upper body tubercles of corpora quadrigemina The black stuff Vestibular Deiters nucleus Red nucleus 605. 4 A surveyed 60 year of age revealed reduced perception of high frequency sounds. Please indicate violations of the auditory sensory system structures has led to this situation: Corti-organ closer to the oval window Corti - organ closer to helikotrem The muscles of the middle ear Eardrum Eustachian tube 606. 4 An examination of workers 50 years of age, a blacksmith, found that it is better to perceive sounds in both ears bone conduction than air conduction. Please indicate the location most likely damaged: Conductive system (system of middle ear bones) The primary auditory cortex Eardrum Lower body tubercles of corpora quadrigemina The medial geniculate body of thalamus 607. 4 A man was brought to the hospital after suffering a severe explosion. The examination revealed that the eardrum is not destroyed, due to fire protective reflex that prevents rupture of the eardrum by a strong sound wave. This reflex is realized by: Reducing m. Tensor tympani Reducing m. Auricularis arterior Relaxation m. Tensor tympani Relaxation m. Auricularis arterior Relaxation m. Stapedins 608. 4 In a worker, aged 33 years, after 10 years riveter, his perception range of sound frequencies shifted from normal to 16-9000 Hz. Indicate the possible reason for the change of perception of sound frequencies: Damage to the proximal part of the basal membrane Damage to the distal part of the basement membrane Damage to the middle of the basement membrane Damage of tempanic membrane The development of sclerotic processes in the middle ear (otosclerosis) 609. 4 During exercise a person is less sensitive to pain. Activation of which process causes this condition? Sympathoadrenal system The functions of the thyroid gland Nociceptive system Antinociceptive system Adrenal function 610. 4 What are the receptors that signal the shortage of water in the body? Osmoreceptors diencephalon Carotid chemoreceptor Carotid sinus baroreceptors Mechanoreceptors of the stomach Taste buds cells 611. 4 Which of these receptors is distant exteroreceptors Photoreceptors Notsitseptory Proprioceptors Taste Thermoreceptors 612. 4 The man burns the tip of his tongu. Perception of which taste stimuli will suffer the most? Sweet Sour Salty Sour and salty Bitter 613. 4 Which receptor information is sent to the cortex without thalamic? Olfactory Tactile Flavoring Optical Aural 614. 4 The specific stimuli for nociceptive chemoreceptors are: All these substances Acetylcholine Serotonin Jonah potassium Histamine 615. 4 The man kept flavor, but lost the overall sensitivity of the structures of the oral cavity. On which nerve damage does it mean? N. Trigeminus N. Vagus N. Glossopharyngeus N. Hypoglossus N. Glossopharyngeus and n. Vagus 616. 4 Which statement most accurately describes the activity of olfactory receptors? Are important for assessing taste in the mouth Slowly adapting There epithelial cells that form synapses with lower-lying nerves Associated with secondary neurons in the thalamus coming Do not show any of these signs 617. 4 Which statement is most accurate regarding the characteristics taste buds? There secondarysensitive chemoreceptors Generates pulses that propagate afferent branches of the trigeminal nerve There are primary sensory neurons Localized under the epithelium of the oral cavity Is primarysensitive chemoreceptors 618. 4 The patient has a tumor in the region of the upper nasal passage. Violation of which functions would you expect? Smell Taste Salivation Breathing Swallow 619. 4 Properties of olfactory analyzer describe thresholds of detection and recognition thresholds odors. Expression of sense of smell depends on: All answers are correct The concentrations of odorous substances Duration of stimulation of the receptors Stereochemical properties of matter Functional state of receptors 620. 4 With the defeat of any sensory system connected breach of sense of balance, autonomic dysfunction: changes in heart rate, skin vasoconstriction, sweating, nausea? Vestibular Proprioceptive Visceral Aural Optical 621. 4 In the study of man smeared the tip of the tongue 1% lidocaine. Loss of which taste sensation will the patient lose? Sweet Bitter Sour Salt Bitter and salty 622. 4 Analgesic effect when stimulated dorsomedial nucleus of the hypothalamus is realized through: Opiates Adrenalin Serotonin Dopamine Acetylcholine 623. 4 Receptors linked to cold: With thin myelinated fibers In no myelinated fibers With thick myelinated fibers Since visceral receptors With proprioceptors 624. 4 Encapsulated mechanoreceptors conduct impulses at a rate of: 30-70 m / s 10-40 m / s 80-110 m / s 120-160 m / s 160-200 m / s 625. 4 During brain surgery it was observed that stimulation of certain areas of the cerebral cortex resulted in the patient's tactile and temperature sensations. What area was irritated? Postcentral gyrus The upper lateral gyrus Precentral gyrus Cingulate Parahippocamp gyrus 626. 4 Pressure receptors are: Pacinian corpuscle Meissner's corpuscle Ruffini corpuscles Krause's corpuscle Free nerve endings 627. 4 The man was bleeding in the posterior central gyrus. In violation of any sensitivity on the other side it would? Skin and proprioceptive Auditory and visual Optical Aural Olfactory and gustatory 628. 4 The light image is projected on the retina due to: Optical system of the eye Depolarization of cones Activation sticks The transformation of guanosine monophosphate Dilated pupils of the eye 629. 4 In humans, constriction of pupils is caused by: The rising tone parasympathetic centers The rising tone sympathetic centers Increased activity of sympathetic adrenal system The action of adrenaline The action of norepinephrine 630. 4 All of these provisions is true of rhodopsin, except: Is identical with the visual pigment in cones Are associated with night vision Consists of opsin and retinal Increasing its concentration in the sticks during dark adaptation There are red in solution but becomes colorless after illumination 631. 4 Total color blindness: Is the result of the inability to More common for women than for The resulting loss of visual Is the result of the inability to Related to the general blindness distinguish all colors men adaptation distinguish between one or more of the three primary colors: red, green and blue 632. 4 While the vision of accommodation close objects: Ciliary muscles contract Ciliary muscles relax Increasing the flow of light in each eye The curvature of the lens does not change The field of view is increased 633. 4 All these structures are related to parts of the visual sensory system except: Lens Sticks Cones The optic nerve Lateral geniculate body 634. 4 The human ear distinguishes sound within: 16-20000 Hz 1000-4000 Hz 10000-18000 Hz 16-40000 Hz 4-20000 Hz 635. 4 Patients after skull injury lost vision. What is the area of the cerebral cortex that is damaged? Occipital Front Parietal and temporal Temporal Parietal 636. 4 Field of View smallest for: Green Red-colored Blue Yellow Purple 637. 4 Astigmatism affects people: With irregular curvature of the cornea With elongated eyeball With shortened eyeball With irregular curvature of the lens Amended elasticity lens 638. 4 Nystagmus: No effect on visual acuity None of the people with normal nervous system It may be the result of disease cochlea It may be the result of damage to the thalamus Result cortical disorders 639. 4 Semicircular canals respond to: Angular acceleration Linear acceleration The change of body position in space The sudden displacement of the head All the above changes 640. 4 A man who looked out the window and began to read the book. By changing the state of a body increases with the refractive force of optical media? Lens Corneal Vitreous Pupils Moist chamber of the eye 641. 4 What process takes place when looking at close objects? Relaxation of ciliary muscle Reduction of ciliary muscle Relaxation Ch'ing relations Increased curvature of the lens Increasing the refractive power of the eye 642. 4 Which of visual function is disrupted due to damage of rods? Peripheral vision Light adaptation Color vision Binocular vision Central vision 643. 4 In experiment with an animal recording the electrical activity of neurons in the spiral node. This allows you to analyze the sensory input from receptors that? Kortiyev body Vestibular semicirculative channels Vestibular Vestibular organ and kortiyev 644. 4 In the experiment with an animal destroyed proximal (near the oval window) of the cochlea of the inner ear. It leads to violation of the perception of which sounds? The high frequency Mids Low Frequency High and low frequency Violations will be 645. 4 The patient was examined for perception of sounds by using a tuning fork. With its location near the external ear the patient did not hear the sound tuning fork in the right ear. When placing the fork legs on the mastoid patient felt sound. Which part of the auditory system is deleted? Middle ear Auditory nerve Lower humps Inner ear Medial geniculate body 646. 4 Against the background of the stimulus in animals increased neuronal activity spiral node. Which of the following was an irritant? Sound Light Rotation Contact with skin Crick 647. 4 According to audiometry there is a breach of the patient’s perception of high frequency sounds. Damage to which part of the body may cause this? Middle of the curls Cochlear nuclei Spiral ganglion Corpora quatregemina Laterally articulated bodies 648. 4 Organ of Corti is located: Basement membrane Captia vaxularis Tempanic membrane Covering membrane Membranes reisner 649. 4 Which of these structures is not relevant to the part of auditory sensory system? Reticular formation Cochlear nucleus Medial kolinchate body The upper oil Auditory cortex 650. 4 Presbyopia is caused by: Age-related changes in the elasticity of the lens Loss of lens transparency Loss of rods in the retina associated with age-related changes Age-related changes in shape of the eyeball None of the aforementioned 651. 4 An examination of the patient revealed the absence of external visual fields of both eyes (bitemporal Optic chiasm Optical tract Sulcus calcarinus N. Opticus Corpus geniculatum hemianopsia). What part of the optic path is likely damaged? laterale 652. 4 A pituitary tumor compresses the inside of the chiasm causing: The disappearance of the temporal halves of the visual fields of both eyes The disappearance of the inner halves of the visual fields of both eyes The disappearance of the left halves of the visual fields of both eyes The disappearance of the right half of the visual field of both eyes No effect on visual field 653. 4 Physical spatial dimension is perceived by the unique ability of the auditory sensory system as time analyzer. So people best estimates placing the sound source in case of localization: Sideways Ahead Behind Underneath From above 654. 4 What determines the visual adaptation: Retinal Vitreous Lens Ciliary body Corneal 655. 4 In animal experiments destroyed the distal part curls (about helikotrema) inner ear. Violation perception of sound frequency there? Sounds of low frequency High frequency sound Sounds average frequency Sound of medium and high frequency Violations will be 656. 4 In old age, there is loss of elasticity of the lens. What is the main symptom that is detected? Removal of the nearest point of clear vision Astigmatism Deterioration of retinal blood flow Disorders of color vision Violation of vision in the dark 657. 4 To investigate the fundus pupil the pupil should be dilated. What substance is used in the clinic for this purpose? Atropine Acetylcholine Anaprylin Dopamine Pilocarpine 658. 4 Patient has impaired vision in twilight saved the day. What is the reason of specified anomalies of view? Vitamin A deficiency Deficiency of vitamin B1 Vitamin C deficiency Deficiency of vitamin B2 Deficiency of vitamin D 659. 4 Clicking on the eyeballs for 30-40 s observed changes in the activity of the heart: Will decrease heart rate Will increase the heart rate Will increase the speed of conduction of excitation in the heart conductive system Will increase the power of heart rate Will decrease the duration of atrio ventricular delay of excitation 660. 4 If a drop solution of atropine (blocker of M- cholinergic receptors)is applied to the conjunctiva of the eye it will Persistent Temporary myopia Temporary Sustained contraction of the Increased curvature of the be observed the following reaction: mydriasis hyperopia pupil lens 661. 4 A driver does not slow down at a red light, because it looked green. What disorder of color vision is this? Protanopia Deuteranopia Trytanopiya Myopia Hyperopia 662. 4 Male, 26 years old, working in the darkroom and forced to perform the work in a dark room. How does the sensitivity of the photoreceptor changeafter being revealed to daylight? Dramatically increase It becomes periodic Do not change Will decrease the sensitivity of rods Will decrease the sensitivity of cones 663. 4 The first two neurons in the visual analyzer are: Retina Laterally articulated bodies Superiors culiculus corpora quatregemina Inferior culiculus corpora quatregemina Reticular formation 664. 4 Which of the following sensory systems influence the stimulus that leads to hyperpolarization receptor cells? Optical Aural Taste Olfactory Tactile 665. 4 Activation of transducin by light activates an enzyme that Hydrolyze cgmp Increases Dark Current Activates adenylyl cyclise Releases Ca2+ from intracellular stores Depolarizes membrane 666. 4 Depolarization of cells in the cohlea is due primarily to transport K+ into the cell Na+ into the cell Cl- from the cell Ca2+ into the cell Mg2+ into the cell 667. 4 When a person returns slowly to the right: Both eyes turn to the left stereocilliain the right horizontal canal deviate from kinocillia Auditory cells in the left horizontal canal depolarise The image on the retina is not by focused Endolymph in the left and right horizontal canales semicircularis in opposite directions 668. 4 Otoliths organs (utricle and saccule) is responsible for Determination of body position in space The emergence of vestibulo- ocular reflex The emergence of rotary nystagmus Definition of angular acceleration Initiation of reflex tension 669. 4 Excitation of receptors of the organ of Corti occurs when: Deformations of hair cells Deformations of the eardrum Fluctuations in the eardrum Fluctuations in peripheral lymph None of these factors 670. 4 By secondarysensitive receptors include: Photoreceptor degeneration Intrafusal muscle spindles Pacinian corpuscles Olfactory receptors Nightreceptors 671. 4 Receptors, which are virtually adapt to the stimulus are: Vestibular Temperature Taste Olfactory Tactile 672. 4 Receptors, which are virtually adapt to the stimulus are: Nightreceptors Temperature Taste Olfactory Tactile 673. 4 To the receptor of the auditory analyzer include: Cochlea hair cells Eardrum Semicircular canals Vestibule The set of lesions of the inner ear 674. 4 The set of receptors, stimulation of which causes excitation of single ganglion cells of the retina, called: Receptive field Blind spot Macular The central fossa None of these terms 675. 4 The minimum threshold of tactile spatial sensitivity is characterized by: Thumb The front surface of the shoulder Plantar part of the foot Back Dorsum of the hand 676. 4 Neurotransmitter that is often secreted in secondarysensitive receptors: Acetylcholine Histamine Norepinephrine Serotonin Dopamine 677. 4 Record the total electrical activity of the photoreceptors of the retina is called: Electroretinograph y Electrooculograph y Electromyography Electroencephalogr Electrocardiograph aphy y 678. 4 Which of the following methods of electrical activity provides information on eye movements: Electrooculograph y Elektroretinograph y Electromyography Kimography Elektrokohleograp hy 679. 4 The primary function of the middle ear bones are: Gain a sound stimulus The conductivity of a highfrequency sounds Increased ability to determine the direction of sound Increased ability to distinguish between frequency sound waves Protect ears from damage 680. 4 Adaptation receptors during prolonged stimulus is Reduction in excitability of receptors Reducing the threshold stimulation Increased excitability of receptors Reducing the threshold potential Increased sodium conductance 681. 4 Accommodation of the eye - is its adaptation to: A clear vision of distant objects differently Perception of colors Perceptions of long-acting stimulus Darkness Light 682. 4 The mechanism of accommodation of the eye is to change: Curvature of the lens Quantities sticks Quantities cones The number of active receptors Pupil diameter 683. 4 What is not typical for pupils of a person with normal Expansion in The narrowing with increasing Normally the same in the left and right The narrowing with increasing Extension in vision? convergence eye illumination eyes curvature of the lens response to pain 684. 5 Work Operator chemical production requires monitoring process on the remote control. The operator of an hour handles more than 300 signals and messages. This work is monotonous, hypodynamic with neuro emotional stress. Which forms of organization of work is this work? Work with remote control Work that requires muscle activity Semi-automatic operation Group work Mechanical work 685. 5 Weaver should, if necessary, quickly eliminate thread breakage and run machine. What form of thinking used in this operation? Operational Probable Abstract logical Visual- active No right answer 686. 5 Work machine operator set requires memory for a short time a large number of consecutive individual items of work. What type of memory describes the work of the operator? Operational Logical Motor Long Secondary 687. 5 The worker keeps grinding tools weighing 10 kg in total over 5 hours per shift. This work is accompanied by prolonged muscle contraction, which ultimately causes fatigue. What job executes worker? Static Negative dynamic The positive dynamic Mild Stressful 688. 5 The pulse rate in computer typing until the end of the working day increased by 10%, systolic blood pressure by 50%. What type of cardiac operators developed in response to the production load? Concentration in norm Hypertensive Hypotonic Dystonic Speed 689. 5 In a man, blood volume increased by 50 % relative dormancy 40 minutes after a meal. What is the reason for this spike? The specific dynamic action of food Reduced heart rate Accumulation of lactic acid Hypertension Emotional stress 690. 5 In foundry workers engaged in physical labor from time to time in the late changes develop muscle cramps, in shoulder girdle, upper and lower extremities. The cause of the pain is: Loss of electrolytes and fluids through sweat Fluid loss in the urine Nervous and emotional tension Consumption of large quantities of liquid Significant physical activity 691. 5 Eliminating fatigue of skeletal muscles (the phenomenon Orbeli - Hinetsynskoho) promotes activation of: Sympatheticadrenal system Renin angiotensinaldosterone system Hypothalamicpituitary system Pituitary- thyroid system Hypothalamicpituitary- adrenal system 692. 5 What determines the property of the muscle to perform long-term job? High content of slow fibers Small content of slow fibers High content of fast fibers Small content of fast fibers Regular workouts 693. 5 Fast fibers are used predominantly in anaerobic glycolytic energy production path. The concentration of the substrate which in this case is greater in this muscle? Lactate Oxygen Carbon dioxide Acetoacetic acid ATP 694. 5 With age, a man of fast muscle fibers: Decreases Increases Do not change Depends on lifestyle Rapid fiber atrophy 695. 5 It is known that the work of muscles leads to increased production of which hormones: Corticotropin and somatotropin Estrogen and calcitriol Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin Parathyroid hormone and oxytocin Atriopeptides and estrogen 696. 5 In untrained people, great physical effort typically leads to: Inhibition of estrogen Stimulation of estrogen Inhibition of the synthesis of thyroid stimulating hormone Inhibition of gastric secretion Lowering blood pressure 697. 5 If a person increases their locomotor activity, in this case, developing specific adaptation based on are: Activation of muscle protein synthesis Increased aldosterone Reducing the amount of sugar in the blood Increases in glomerular filtration Reduction of PTH 698. 5 In the emergency phase of adaptation to hypokinesia is associated with emotional stress: Increased activity of the sympathetic -adrenal system Inhibition of thyroid Increased gastric secretion Stimulation of the hypothalamicpituitary system The fall in blood pressure 699. 5 Long-term muscle contractions become painful because the muscles ischemic and piled substance that irritates the pain end. What is this stuff? R- factor Carbonic Endorphins Pyruvic acid Acetoacetic acid 700. 5 During exercise a significant amount of energy to reform ATP and creatine phosphate synthesis is Glucose Fat Carbohydrates Proteins Oxygen-containing compounds provided as a result of oxidation: 701. 5 The main characteristic of HNA are: Ability to create conditioned reflexes Congenital form of behaviour The specific form of behaviour The ability to respond to the action of adequate stimuli Ability to memorize 702. 5 Conditioned reflexes are different from unconditional in that it: Individually acquired response Congenital HNA response to stimulation The reaction, carried out with HNA Individual response to stimulation Species specific reaction with the participation of the central nervous system 703. 5 Instincts in humans is the result of: Cortex and subcortical structures The hypothalamus Cortex Pons of Varolii Corpus callosum 704. 5 During a long drought, the river dried up. Animals kept approaching the river for some time, and then stopped coming. What type of inhibition of conditioned reflexes caused the change in behavior of animals? Parting Conditional brakes Transcendent Differentiation Recordable 705. 5 What structures of the brain are responsible for memory consolidation process? Hippocampus, medial part of the temporal lobes Thalamus, basal nuclei Corpus callosum cortex Occipital lobe, hypothalamus Bark, hypothalamus 706. 5 What endogenous or exogenous substances makes a person to feel emotional comfort? Endorphins Gammaaminobutyric acid Caffeine Ephedrine Alcohol 707. 5 The experimenter wants to develop in dogs salivation conditioned reflex. Which of the following should be used as a conditioned stimulus? Moderate sound volume Electric current Too loud sound Rusk Meat 708. 5 A specific feature of humans are: The ability of the cortex to the analysis and synthesis The ability to form a temporary connection The presence of unconditioned reflexes The presence of cerebral cortex The presence of sensory systems 709. 5 What reflex IP Pavlov called "What is?" Orientable Instrumental Visceral Classic Adaptation 710. 5 The most informative method for studying human GNI are: The method of conditioned reflexes The method of electroencephalogr aphy Method implanted electrodes Method None of these is ehoencephalograph methods ic 711. 5 Interaction between unconditional and conditional inhibition is: Reciprocity Differentiation Inhibition Lateness Dying 712. 5 Experimenters should urgently develop a conditioned reflex in dogs. On the basis of which the unconditioned reflex should make conditional? Protective Peptic orientable Sexually Miotactic 713. 5 Very loud sound during conditioned reflex activity led to its inhibition. what kind of inhibition? Transcendent Recordable Differentiation Parting Internal 714. 5 Which brain structures are found in a person? All the above Reticular formation Hippocampus Temporal cortex share Bark 715. 5 Attention - this: Purposeful mental activity The ability to respond to stimuli The manifestation of the second signal system Congenital forms of mental activity The manifestation of subcortical structures 716. 5 People who establish musical instruments need perfect pitch. Perfume - an absolute sense of smell. What is the physiological pattern of the brain can develop and maintain these qualities? Differentiation - a Fading braking type of conditioned inhibition Recordable inhibition External braking All types of internal inhibition 717. 5 When a man sitting in a chair with his eyes closed, the phone rang. How will his EEG look? Alpha rhythm change to a beta rhythm Beta rhythm change to theta rhythm Will increase the alpha rhythm Will increase theta rhythm Theta rhythm change to a beta rhythm 718. 5 After what time are a newborns reflexes formed: 1-5 weeks of life 3-4 weeks of life 5-3 months of life 5-6 months of life Baby born with conditioned reflexes 719. 5 What structures of the brain is responsible for the formation of emotions: All listed patterns The hypothalamus Reticular formation Bark, thalamus Thalamus, hippocampus 720. 5 During the exam the student has a dry mouth. Enhanced implementation of reflex is the mechanism that leads to the development of this condition: Conditional cute Conditional parasympathetic Definitely somatomovable Definitely parasympathetic Definitely cute 721. 5 A study of elderly patients revealed motor aphasia. What area of the brain is damaged? In the center of Brock In precentral gyrus In gyrus Heshlya In the angular gyrus In the postcentral gyrus 722. 5 Student before an exam complains of acute dental pain. which weakened during the exam. What caused the inhibition of reduction of pain? Outdoor Transcendent Parting Differentiation Recordable 723. 5 Found that conditioned reflexes, unlike definitely is acquired throughout life and have adaptive value. What is the role of adaptive opposed to unconditional? In sygnaling A greater importance A greater duration In most power At higher speeds 724. 5 Functional system behavial act is based on: Dominant motivation Information that is acquired in the past Biological motivation Assesement of situation Afferent synthesis 725. 5 Children present with complaints of disorder slowwave sleep stages. What should identify the patient's doctor assume? Dreaming Frightening dreams Muscle atony Lability of heart rate High-frequency waves in the EEG. 726. 5 During emotional stress in humans occurs: Increased excitability of nerve cells in the brain Reduced metabolism Reduction of skeletal muscle Reduction of smooth muscle Increased secretion of salivary glands 727. 5 In a study of elderly patients identified sensory aphasia. What is the area of the cerebral cortex that is damaged? Wernicke center Postcentral gyrus Angular gyrus Brock centre Precentral gyrus 728. 5 Motivation - is: Call to action Purposeful action Reflex response Instinctive reaction Conditioned reflex reaction 729. 5 The dog developed a stable conditioned salivation reflex: after call feeder protruded with pieces of bread. Once in place of bread put pieces of meat. What will be the reaction of the dog be? The dog will not eat right, first there external inhibition, which appears as orientable Will still conditional reflex (secretion of saliva) The dog will just eat because the meat tastes better The dog starts to eat immediately, but will wait for bread Dog scared reflection of the type "what?" 730. 5 A man is going to solve complex problems, worries, increases efficiency. What is the degree of emotional stress (SN), and that while there are emotions? CH and negative emotions CH II positive emotions CH III negative emotions CH IV negative emotions CH IV positive emotions 731. 5 In patients after trauma breach short-term memory. What is the mechanism of memory while impaired? Reverb excitation Structural changes in neurons Structural and functional changes in synapses Ionic shifts in membrane receptors Blockade of afferent neurons 732. 5 As a speech disorder called: Aphasia Abasia Ataxia ; Affect Stupor 733. 5 A a result of a brain haemorrhage, patient lost the ability to read. Where localized lesion? Angular gyrus of the parietal lobe The lower section of the third frontal gyrus Posterior part of the first temporal gyrus Precentral gyrus Posterior part of middle frontal gyrus 734. 5 What will result from damage to the bottom of the third frontal gyrus left hemisphere? Violation playing oral language Memory impairment Violation of mathematical accounts Violation of understanding spoken language Violation of understanding written language 735. 5 In what order centers are activated during the perception of speech written word? Visual sensory center, the angular gyrus, Wernicke's center Center Wernicke, auditory sensory center Auditory sensory center, the center of Wernicke Visual sensory center, the center of Wernicke All answers are correct 736. 5 Patient complains of ill remembering new information. what violation of neurotransmitter systems can you think of? GABA- ergic Cholinergic Adrenergic Serotonergic Glutamatergic 737. 5 What is the specific feature of HNA man? In the presence of the first and second signaling systems There innate behaviors The possibility of establishing temporary connections In the ability to form dynamic stereotype In the possibility to adapt 738. 5 Disorders of higher nervous activity possible when: change positive conditioned reflex to negative Excitement radiating through the cortex In the cortex there is a dominant focus Produce a subtle differentiation Conduct long-term research 739. 5 During the test, the patient found strong unbalanced type of higher nervous activity Pavlov. Which temperament by Hippocrates, this type of charge? Choleric Melanholich Sanguine Stolid Hysterical 740. 5 An examination of the patient's left hemisphere dominance of established cerebral cortex. What are the features of higher nervous activity is not peculiar to this man? The advantage of abstract thinking on substantive Emotional mood rather negative disinhibition Gab The ability to predict 741. 5 Specify the characteristics of a relaxing type of nervous system: Strong, balanced, inert Weak, unbalanced, inert Light, balanced, agile Strong, balanced, agile Weak, unbalanced, mobile 742. 5 The place of long-term storage of information are: Temporal part of the cortex, hippocampus Reticular formation Cerebellum Frontal lobe Occipital fate 743. 5 With the kind of mental activity people can speculate and make their checks: All the above In Memory Thinking Analysis Synthesis 744. 5 The underlying congestive form of emotional stress in humans: Constant conflicts Violation of cortical regulation of internal organs Disorders of the nervous system Breaking dynamic stereotype Violation of adaptive properties of the organism 745. 5 Specify the parameters that characterize a person's attention: Distribution, volume, duration Subjectivity, stability, reflected in consciousness Limited, stability, duration Modality, duration, volume Subjectivity, modality, duration 746. 5 Set if the most fully answers the basic human mental operations: Comparison, abstraction, analysis, synthesis, induction, deduction Abstraction, analysis, synthesis, structure, induction, deduction Analysis, synthesis, abstraction, convergence, structure, divergence Convergence, divergence, comparison, structuring, analysis, synthesis Analysis, synthesis, structure, divergence, induction, deduction 747. 5 Driving factor in the intellectual development of the children are: All of these factors The nature of food Communication with peers State of the Environment Conditions 748. 5 The patient was damaged hippocampal area of the Loss of memory for current events Violation counting The loss of deep sensitivity in the Violation of understanding Loss of manipulative limbic system. What are the consequences? while keeping it on past events extremities spoken language movements 749. 5 Static work done during postural, is mainly due to activation: Slow motor units Quick motor units Chance of tetanus Glikogenesis Anaerobic processes 750. 5 Systematic physical training leading to the development of muscle fibers: Hypertrophy Myoclonus Muscle spasm Hypotonus Dystrophy 751. 5 In the study of fatigue found that one of the factors that contribute to its occurrence, is primarily: Metabolic acidosis Hyperhydration Respiratory alkalosis Hyperglycemia Glucogenesis 752. 5 When measuring hand dynamometer muscle strength in the wrist flexor student found its decline compared with normal values. This may be due to reduction: Oscillation frequency AP in muscle fibers The concentrations of adrenaline Voltage CO2 The concentrations of lactate The concentration of potassium ions 753. 5 When you exercise on a bicycle ergometer showed an increase in blood lactate compared with pyruvic, indicating the presence of: Oxygen debt Hyperthermia Hyperglycemia Adaptation Fitness 754. 5 As a young man during exercise in arterial blood P05 = 100 mmHg, pH = 7.4, Rs05 = 38 mmHg, the maximum duration of breath-holding during forced inspiration 50 s, the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen - 98 %. The above indicates that during physical work: Adaptation Hypoxia Hypercapnia Acidosis Hyperoxia 755. 5 During exercise oxyhemoglobin dissociation increases due to: Acidosis Hyperventilation Adenosine Hyperoxia Reserve breathing 756. 5 With constant physical training of youth adaptation to exercise indicate: Increasing the number of red blood cells Increased arterial po5 Reduction of arterial blood Increased concentrations of lactate Increased saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen 757. 5 During a relay the second athlete ran before the first handed him the baton. What type of conditional inhibition is disrupted in the second athlete? Late binding Differentiation Conditional brakes Trace Extinguishing 758. 5 In animal experiments is produced a conditioned reflex Cortex Diencephalon Midbrain Medulla oblongata Cord urination: include flashing lights and intravenously injected animals a significant amount of saline. After multiple repetitions only with the inclusion of light caused an increase in urine output. What level circuit conditional reflex connections: 759. 5 The dog in appearance and smell of the meat starts salivating. What is this conditioned response? Classic natural food Classic artificial food Classic natural inhibitory Imitating the natural food Classic natural protective 760. 5 During production of conditional salivation reflex to sound notes "E" in the first dog saliva secretions and all other notes, but after multiple repetition notes "E " and unconditional backing - only the sound. What process in the CNS caused salivation at the beginning of a conditioned reflex, and all sounds like the name of this stage is a conditioned reflex? Irradiation of excitation in the cerebral cortex, the stage of generalization Convergence of excitation in the cerebral cortex, the stage of generalization Convergence in the cerebral cortex, the stage of generalization Irradiation in the cerebral cortex, the stage of specialization Divergence in the cerebral cortex, the stage of specialization 761. 5 In an animal, there appeared to be dominant motivation - hunger and certain eating behaviour. From which brain structures emerged dominant motivation? Lateral nuclei of the hypothalamus Basal ganglia Reticular formation Medial nucleus of the hypothalamus Limbic nuclei of thalamus 762. 5 An examination of the person established a strong, balanced, inert type of higher nervous activity Pavlov. What temperament by Hippocrates in the subject? Phlegmatic person Sanguine Choleric Melancholic person Other 763. 5 Secretion of which hormone increases in humans during sleep? Somatropin Adrenaline Somatostatin Cortisol Aldosterone 764. 5 An examination of the person established a strong, balanced, agile type of higher nervous activity Pavlov. What temperament by Hippocrates in the subject? Sanguine Phlegmatic person Choleric Melancholic person Other 765. 5 During physical exercise the stimulation of protein synthesis in muscle is due to the effects of: Testosterone Estrogen Adrenaline Aldosterone Thyroxine 766. 5 Biological basis of motivation is: Domestic needs Starting afferentiation The memory of past events Positive or negative emotion Acceptor consequences of actions 767. 5 Excitation of central nervous system structure which is a prerequisite to occurrence of motivation? The hypothalamus Thalamus Bark Reticular formation Midbrain 768. 5 Neurophysiological mechanism of interaction between conditional and unconditional excitations is: The convergence of excitation on neurons Cartoon excitations in CNS synapses The positive foci induction between excitation Permeability interaction excitations Generation excitations 769. 5 When closing the eyes to the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex on EEG exhibits: Alpha rhythm Beta rhythm Gamma rhythm Delta Rhythm Theta rhythm 770. 5 The reaction of the EEG desynchronization characterized by a predominance: Beta rhythm Alpha rhythm Gamma rhythm Delta- rhythm Theta rhythm 771. 5 What is the rhythm of the EEG reflects the active state of the brain? Beta rhythm Alpha rhythm Gamma rhythm Delta Rhythm Theta rhythm 772. 5 What is EEG rhythm corresponds to the stage of deep sleep? Delta rhythm Theta rhythm Beta rhythm Alpha rhythm Gamma rhythm 773. 5 What changes in the EEG observed at the beginning of a conditioned reflex in the first application of a conditioned stimulus? The emergence reactions desynchronization Changing the beta rhythm in the alpha rhythm The appearance of theta rhythm The appearance of delta rhythm The appearance of spindles 774. 5 What type of inhibition of the conditioned reflex occurs in experiments on dogs under the following conditions: Light + food → reflex formed; Light - without food → reflex disappears. Fading braking Recordable inhibition Inhibition of differentiation Conditional brakes Transcendent inhibition 775. 5 What type of inhibition of the conditioned reflex occurs in experiments on dogs under the following conditions: Light + food after 5 seconds. → reflex is formed ; Light - the food in 40 seconds. → reflex disappears. Recordable inhibition Fading braking Inhibition of differentiation Conditional brakes Transcendent inhibition 776. 5 What type of inhibition of the conditioned reflex occurs in experiments on dogs under the following conditions: The sound is 100 Hz + food → reflex formed; Sound 500Hz - without food → reflex disappeared. Inhibition of differentiation Recordable inhibition Conditional brakes Fading braking Transcendent inhibition 777. 5 What type of inhibition of the conditioned reflex occurs Conditional brakes Recordable Inhibition of Fading braking Transcendent in experiments on dogs under the following conditions: Light + food → reflex formed; Light + sound - without food → reflex disappeared. inhibition differentiation inhibition 778. 5 What type of inhibition of the conditioned reflex occurs in experiments on dogs under the following conditions: Light + food → reflex formed; Strong flash Light + food → reflex disappeared. Transcendent inhibition Recordable inhibition Inhibition of differentiation Conditional brakes Fading braking 779. 5 The student was awakened by an alarm call, and said that he saw a dream. In what stage of sleep he woke up and what is it characterized by? Paradoxical phase of sleep, the EEG recorded beta rhythm 4 - the stage of slow-wave sleep, the EEG recorded delta - Rhythm 1st stage of slowwave sleep, the EEG recorded " sleepy spindles " 5nd and 3rd stages of sleep, the EEG recorded theta and delta -rhythm In one of these 780. 5 The statement includes the following excitation structure of the brain: All the above Cerebral cortex The hypothalamus The structures of the limbic system Reticular formation 781. 5 Phase afferent synthesis in the CNS is completed: Decision-making Formation program of The beginning of Formation acceptor of the result Achieving results 782. 5 Functional behavioral response system is based on: Dominant motivation Afferent synthesis Assessment of the situation Biological motivation Information that is acquired in the past 783. 5 Which of the following is true regarding the characteristics of the alpha rhythm of the EEG? Disappears when the patient opens his eyes Occurs when a patient hears the call Changing waves of greater amplitude and lower frequency during REM- sleep It characterizes the response desenchronization Associated with deep sleep 784. 5 Select which of the following statements is correct regarding REM- sleep? Accompanied by a loss of skeletal muscle tone This is the first stage of sleep when a person starts to fall asleep On the EEG delta rhythm recorded Characterized by a slow but steady heart rate Lasts longer than periods of slowwave sleep 785. 5 Mechanism of short-term memory is represented by: Reverberation of excitation in the closed neural Posttethanic potentiation MRNA transcription and Activation of protein synthesis Structural changes in neurons circuits resynthesis 786. 5 Which of the statements is incorrect about effect of prolonged physical endurance workouts? Increased oxygen consumption in the heart during exercise Increased capillary density in skeletal muscle Reduction in systolic and diastolic blood pressure during exercise Improving the efficiency of oxygen utilization in skeletal muscle Improving the efficiency of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems 787. 5 Physical endurance training leads to the development of muscle fibers: Hypertrophy Hyperplasia Hyperkalemia Hyperglycemia Hypernatremia 788. 5 Which of the statements is incorrect about effect of prolonged physical training on skeletal muscle endurance? Increasing the number of muscle fibers in muscles Increasing the number and size of mitochondria The formation of a smaller amount of lactic acid at a given load level Increase in myoglobin content in the cell Increased capillary density in skeletal muscle 789. 5 Among the hormones that positively influence the development of the working muscle hypertrophy, the primary role include: Testosterone Cortisol Estrogen PTH Aldosterone 790. 5 Which of the below listed changes in indicators of blood circulation and breathing is adequate response to a gradual increase in physical activity? Diastolic pressure is reduced or unchanged, HR, RR, systolic and pulse pressure increase HR, RR (respiratory rate), systolic, diastolic and pulse pressure increase RR, systolic and diastolic blood pressure decrease, heart rate increases Systolic pressure decreases, heart rate, RR, diastolic pressure increases None of these changes do not meet the normal response to a gradual increase in physical activity 791. 5 What causes muscle fatigue during prolonged exercise? All of the above Dehydration Imbalance of electrolytes Metabolic acidosis Failure to maintain adequate levels of ATP 792. 5 Which of the following parameters, when performing sub-maximal exercise, change after the use of beta blockers compared with sample conducted prior to taking the drug? Reduced heart rate The decrease in oxygen consumption Reduction of respiratory volume Increased systolic blood pressure The increase in double product 793. 5 Select an adequate hemodynamic response to test Martin? Increased systolic blood pressure, while diastolic Reduction in systolic and diastolic blood The increase in diastolic pressure Increased systolic and diastolic blood None of the above unchanged or slightly reduced pressure at constant systolic pressure 794. 5 The patient disease process struck the left hemisphere frontal lobe, where Broca´s speech center is located. What speech disorder will occur in this man? Can not speak He does not understand the meaning of words Can not read Do not understand the meaning of words and can not read Can not read or speak 795. 5 The patient disease process struck the left hemisphere temporal lobe, where Wernicke's language center is located. What speech disorder will occur in this man? He does not understand the meaning of words Can not read Can not speak Do not understand the meaning of words and can not write Can not read or speak 796. 5 In the study of human memory, it was easier to remember geometric shapes rather than phrases. Which hemisphere is in this man is more dominant and which system actually has a higher level of functioning? Rights and signaling system Rights II signaling system Left, and alarm system Both hemispheres, both systems Left, the second signaling system 797. 5 In the study of human memory to remember the phrase was easier than geometric shapes. Which hemisphere is the dominant one and which system actually has a higher level of functioning? Left, the second signaling system Rights II signaling system Left, and alarm system Both hemispheres, both systems Rights and signaling system 798. 6 The concept that the internal environment of each cell is maintained with constancy is referred to as: Regulation Homeostasis Coordination In vivo In vitro 799. 6 The daily production of hydrogen ion from CO2 is primarily buffered by which of the following? Extracellular bicarbonate Red blood cell hemoglobin Red blood cell bicarbonate Plasma proteins Plasma phosphate 800. 6 Blood viscosity: Is dependent of the white blood cell count Is dependent of the red blood cell count Falls as haematocrit rises Is independent of vessel diameter Is independent of fibrinogen concentration 801. 6 Which of the following is the major source of the total daily acid load produced by the body? Anaerobic metabolism Aerobic metabolism Phospholipid catabolism Protein catabolism Triglyceride catabolism. 802. 6 Maternal physiology changes dramatically in last trimmest of pregnancy. Which one of the following Increased conversion of glucose to Increased total blood volume Reduced circulating Hypercapnia Increased hematocrit changes would be expected: glycogen bicarbonate levels 803. 6 The anion gap will increase with an increase in the plasma concentration of which of the following Potassium Sodium Chloride Bicarbonate None of all 804. 6 Albumin: Is present both in RBCs and plasma Is main factor for oncotic pressure Is the smallest molecule of all of proteins Is normally present in the urine Is equally distributed in the intravascular and extravascular 805. 6 Plasma globulins: Have bigger molecule as compared to albumin Their gammaglobulins play role as antibodies Contribute towards viscosity of blood Help in transport of iron Help in hemostasis. 806. 6 The following clinical laboratory data is obtained from a patient with diabetes mellitus: lasma [Na+] = 140 meq/L Plasma [K+] = 7.0 meq/L Plasma [Cl–] = 105 meq/L Plasma [HCO3–] = 6 meq/L Arterial [H+] = 80 meq/L Plasma [glucose] = 600 mg/dL Which of the following correctly reflects this patient's anion gap? 12 meq/L 29 meq/L 22 meq/L 36 meq/L 42 meq/L 807. 6 In metabolic acidosis caused by diabetic ketoacidosis, which of the following of blood pH would be?: pH = 7,0 pH = 7,25 pH = 7,35 pH = 7,45 pH = 7,55 808. 6 A red blood cell will hemolytic the most when it is placed in a solution containing which of the following? 0,9% sodium chloride 0,55% sodium chloride 1,0% sodium chloride 5% glucosa 40% glucosa 809. 6 Carbon dioxide in blood: Is less soluble than oxygen Is transported mainly as bicarbonate ions Is carried by WBC Is helps in osmotic pressure Is transported mainly by platlets 810. 6 Compared with intracellular fluid, extracellular fluid has, A greater osmolarity A lower potassium ion concentration A higher protein concentration A lower chloride ion concentration A higher potassium ion concentration 811. 6 The oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right with all following except: Pyrexia Polycythaemia Respiratory acidosis Sickle cell anaemia Increased concentration of 2,3-DPG in the erythrocytes 812. 6 Which factor is major for the viscosity of blood: At 20°C is less than at 37°C Increases if plasma protein concentration rises In veins is greater than in arteries Appears to be more when measured in vivo than, in vitro Decreases if plasma protein concentration rises 813. 6 Plasma albumin: Molecule is the smallest of all other proteins Contributes mainly to the colloid oncotic pressure Behaves as an anion at the pH of blood Is involved in transport of carbondioxide Is involved in transport of oxygen. 814. 6 Blood: Is about 8 to 10 liters Comprises about 7% of body weight Volume cannot be measured by dilution method Normally has more than 55% formed elements Volume can be found by difference after measuring other body water components 815. 6 Hemolysis of red cells is produced by: Putting the cells in a solution having salt concentration same as plasma Putting the cells in solution with HCl Suspending the cells in physiological solution Suspending the cells in isotonic saline Putting the cells in a solution having osmotic pressure more than that of plasma 816. 6 The hematocrit Of a normal person averages about 55% Is the per cent of cells in the blood Is the per cent of plasma in the blood Is determined by amount of WBC Independs on the altitude at which the person resides 817. 6 The viscosity of the blood depends almost entirely on the concentration of White blood cells Red blood cells Thrombocytes Hemoglobin; Plasma immunoglobulins 818. 6 Which of the following substances in the blood plasma has the most powerful buffer property: Hemoglobin Bicarbonates Phosphates Plasma proteins Glucose 819. 6 Total blood in a 3 kg newborn: Comprises about 3 L Comprises about 0,3 L Comprises about 5 L Volume tends to rise when fluid is lost Comprises about 0,21 L 820. 6 The specific gravity of: Blood is higher on an average in women than in men Plasma is related more to its proteins Plasma is related more to its electrolytes Plasma decreases as extracellular fluid volume decreases Plasma is same as urine 821. 6 Acidosis usually leads to: A high pCO2, due to hyperventilation Peripheral vasodilation Potassium excess A rise in plasma sodium concentration Peripheral vasoconstriction 822. 6 The oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right by: Decreased pCO2 Increased pCO2 Increased pH Increased N2 tension Decreased N2 tension. 823. 6 Major determinants of plasma osmolarity include all the following except Sodium Hemoglobin Chloride Albumin Calcium 824. 6 Excessive sweeping may cause: Decrease hematocrit Increase hematocrit Respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic acidosis 825. 6 Excessive diarrhea may cause: Decrease hematocrit Increase hematocrit Respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic acidosis 826. 6 Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein which: Is broken down in the kidney Stimulates RBC production Has a lifespan of 120 days Levels inversely proportional to haematocrit Stimulates RBC and WBC production 827. 6 Which of the following would normally be less in the fetus than in the mother? PaCO2 PaO2 Pulmonary vascular resistance Affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen Arterial hydrogen ion concentration 828. 6 Which of the following will present during staying in high altitude? Erythropenia Erytrocytosis Leukocytosis Thrombocytosis Leukopenia 829. 6 A 65-year-old female with renal failure presents for hemodialysis. She is found to be anemic and is given a dose of erythropoietin along with her usual vitamin and mineral supplements. Erythropoietin stimulates which of the following intermediates in hematopoiesis? Basophilic erythroblasts Colony forming units-erythroid Multipotential stem cells Proerythroblasts Reticulocytes 830. 6 RBCs: 4-5 x 109 Are responsible for Carry hormons Are nucleated cells Contain major part of the blood viscosity myeloperoxidase 831. 6 During adult life RBC formation occurs in: Bones of skull and pelvis Sternum Ribs Vertebra Liver 832. 6 The principle site of production of erythropoietin is thought to be: Red bone marrow Kidney Liver Spleen Intestine 833. 6 Anaemia patients tend to have: Compensatory decrease in cardiac output Hb level is 100 g/L Decreased velocity of blood Higher hematocrit Normal hematocrit 834. 6 Cyanosis is caused by: Carbon monoxide poisoning Hypoxia A decreased concentration of oxyhaemoglobin An increased concentration of reduced haemoglobin A decreased concentration of haemoglobin. 835. 6 The adverse effect of breathing air contaminated with CO is caused by: CO blocking the action of erythropoietin CO combining with haemoglobin into stable compound The irritant action of CO on diffusion of gases The direct action of CO upon the enzymes of the cell Formation of MetHb 836. 6 Arterial PO2 is reduced in: Anaemia Pulmonary hypoventilation CO poisoning KCN poisoning During exercise 837. 6 Vitamin B12 deficiency will lead to: Anaemia in which RBC are smaller and paler than normal Abnormal absorbtion of Fe Loss of myelin in nerve sheath Increased hematocrit Increased erythorocyte segimentation rate 838. 6 On an average 100 ml of blood contains: 5 g Hb 15 g Hb 20 g Hb 10 g Hb 10 g Hb 839. 6 Vitamin B2 deficiency can result from: Extensive small intestinal resection Failure of gastric mucosa to secrete intrinsic factor Failure of duodenic mucosa to secrete enterokinase Failure of gastric mucosa to secrete histamin Failure of gastric mucosa to secrete gastrin 840. 6 Erythrocytes: From a healthy Contain Are larger than Are the less Have no antigens individual are hemolysed when put in isotonic saline hemoglobin molecules leukocytes numerous cells in the blood present on the surface 841. 6 Which of the following factors is likely to cause a significant increase in production of red blood cells: An increase in physical activity Change of residence to the high mountains Blood transfusion Bacterial infection Hemolytic disease 842. 6 The major function of red blood cells is: To destroy the invading bacteria by the process of phagocytosis To transport hemoglobin, which caries oxygen from the lungs to the tissues and carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs To form immunoglobulins To promote coagulation of the blood To prevent coagulation of the blood 843. 6 Hemoglobin carries carbon dioxide in the form of: Oxyhemoglobin Carbhemoglobin Carboxyhemoglobi n Methemoglobin Myoglobin 844. 6 Thalassaemia is characterized as: Disorders of hemostasis Hemoglobinopathy Type of hemolysis Type of blood cells None of the above 845. 6 The followings are the principal modulators of oxygen affinity of haemoglobin except: H+ concentration Mg2+concentration Temperature CO2 2,3-DPG 846. 6 Blood transfusion of Rh+ is dangerous: In a person who receives it for the first time In a Rh– mother who has already given birth to Rh+ child In a young female with Rh– getting first time such transfusion In a person who is a Rh+ himself In a Rh+ mother who has already given birth to Rhchild 847. 6 Which one of the following statements is incorrect: The antigen responsible for Rh grouping is called as D factor Antigens are not always protein in nature Some antigen antibody reactions require presence of plasma factor (complement) The antigens responsible for A (II) and B (III) blood groups are unconjugated proteins Body will readily form antibodies against foreign substances having molecular weight less than 10000 848. 6 A person with blood group B: Can not be a father of a child with 0 (I) blood group Can not be a father of a child with an AB (IV) group if the mother belongs to 0 group An not be a father of a child with A (II) blood group Has the most common blood type Can be a father of a child with an A (II) group if the mother belongs to 0 (I) group 849. 6 Which one of the following would be potentially dangerous situation: Transfusion of one unit of 0 negative blood to B positive recepient An Rh negative mother who is bearing her second Rh positive child An Rh negative mother who is bearing her first Rh positive child An Rh positive mother who Is bearing her first Rh negative child An Rh positive mother who is bearing her second Rh negative child. 850. 6 An individual with blood group A1 (II) will: Not develop plasma agglutinins of type B (III) blood in the absence of exposure to a B agglutinogen Never agglutinate the erythrocytes from group A1 (II) donor Usually agglutinate the erythrocytes from 0 (I) group donor Usually agglutinate the erythrocytes from AB (IV) donor Usually agglutinate the erythrocytes from type A1 (II) donor. 851. 6 Problems of massive transfusion most commonly include: Metabolic alkalosis Hyperkalaemia Metabolic acidosis Coagulopathy due to hypocalcaemia Hypercoagulation 852. 6 Antibodies against both type A and type В antigens are found in the plasma of a person who is? Any of these types Type 0 Lypeab Type B Type A 853. 6 Production of which of the following blood cells is stimulated by a hormone secreted by the kidneys? Thrombocytes Erythrocytes Neutrophils Monocyles Lymphocytes 854. 6 Which of the following can cause problems in a transfusion reaction? Clogging of small vessels by agglutinated clumps of RBCs Donor antibodes attacking recipient RBCs Lyssis of donated RBCs Blokage of kidney tubules Blokage of kidney nefron 855. 6 If an Rh- mother becomes pregnant, when can hemolytic disease of the newborn not possibly occur in the child? First pregnant If the child is Rh- + If the father is Rh- Second pregnant Father I (0) Mother I (0) 856. 6 The antibodies: Are formed by T- Are Ig Are formed by Are involved in process of Are involved in lymphocytes immunoglobulins RBC diapedesis hemostasis 857. 6 Interleukins are: Enzymes Low molecular weight proteins produced by WBC Autacoids Immunoglobulins Low molecular weight proteins produced by platelets 858. 6 Which immunoglobulin (MW 69,000) would exist as a monomer in tears, saliva & mucus (secretions)? IgG IgA IgM IgE IgD 859. 6 Ig G has all following except: has a molecular weight of 150000 is important in mucosal immunity is the principal immunoglobulin in secondary immune response is the most common circulating immunoglobulins in the serum is the only immunoglobulin capable of crossing the placenta 860. 6 Regaring to interferons: they are produced by B lymphocytes They are produced by cells infected with virus they are produced by T lymphocytes they are produced by NK lymphocytes They are produced by RBC 861. 6 A child falls and bumps her head on the floor. Tissue factor is exposed beneath the endothelium of traumatized blood vessels. Which of the following procoagulant proteins binds to tissue factor and initiates the clotting cascade? Factor V Factor VII Factor X Fibrinogen Prothrombin 862. 6 During the passage of an intravenous catheter, numerous endothelial cells are dislodged from the lining of the popliteal vein. What substance allows platelet adhesion to the exposed collagen fibers? Factor VIII Von Willebrand factor Factor IX Fibronectin Tissue factor 863. 6 In the clotting process, as the hemostatic plug develops, fibrin polymerizes into monomeric threads which are held together by noncovalent bonds. Which clotting protein increases the strength of the clot by crosslinking the newly formed fibrin threads? High molecular weight kininogen (HMWK) Factor XIII Plasminogen Thrombin von Willebrand Factor (vWF) 864. 6 Which of the following enzymes is ultimately Heparin Thrombin Plasminogen Kininogen Prothrombin responsible for the formation of fibrin monomers 865. 6 Warfarin (coumarin) is an anticoagulant that is often given to patients following a heart attack. However, if too much warfarin is administered, the patient can have episodes of bleeding. The bleeding produced by warfarin can be overcome by administering which of the following Aspirin Vitamin K Heparin t-PA (tissue plasminogen activator) Fibrinogen 866. 6 The most important function that neutrophils and monocytes carry out is: Coagulation Phagocytosis Transport of oxygen Antibody formation Tachyphylaxis 867. 6 Monocytes of the blood: Originate from reticylocytes May migrate to the tissues to form reticuloendothelial cells Content granules with histamin Can manufacture serotonin Content granules with heparin 868. 6 Intravascular clotting is accelerated by: Circulating heparin Ca2+ Circulating antithrombin Circulating fibrinolysins A layer of negatively charged proteins lining the vessels 869. 6 The quantity of thrombin formed under physiological conditions depends upon the presence of: Serotonin Thromboplastin Epinephrine Plasma Plasminogen 870. 6 The best index of platelet function is: Clot retraction time Bleeding time Clotting time Thromboplastin generation Prothrombin time. 871. 6 Lymphocyte count: Increases in children suffering from allergy Increases in people suffering from specific infection Rises when immunosuppressiv e drugs are administered Is very sensitive to high attitude Rises with aging 872. 6 Which one of the following local factors is released from platelets to check bleeding: Bradykinin Serotonin Histamine Kalikrein Thrombosthenin 873. 6 Different chemical substances cause leukocytes to move either close to them or away from them, this Diapedesis Chemotaxis Chemotropism Hydrotropism Inflammatory response phenomenon is known as: 874. 6 The first step in stoppage of bleeding from a small cut in skin is: Platelet plug formation Local vascular spasm Fibrin thread formation Clot retraction All of the above 875. 6 For normal blood clot formation: Vit. C is essential Liver must have adequate supply of Vit. K Heparin should be inactivated Factor VI should be present in blood - 876. 6 Platelets have following except that they: Are formed in the bone marrow Do not have contractile power Are non-nucleated Show adhesiveness while coming in contact with collagen Liberate platelet factor which helps in clotting 877. 6 Neutrophil granulocytes: Contain histamine All of the above Are the most Are involved in numerous process of leucocytes in blood phagocytosis Show increase in number during pyogenic inflammation 878. 6 Neutrophil cells show all the following characteristics except that they: Are motile Cannot leave the circulation Contain lysosomes Are attracted chemically to sites of inflammation Phagocytose foreign particles 879. 6 Antihaemophilic globulin and other plasma cofactors are essential for: Activation of prothrombin Formation of prothrombin activator Convertion of prothrombin to thrombin Stabilisation of fibrin Aggregation of platelets 880. 6 Avitaminosis K causes decreased production or decreased plasma concentration of the followings except: Prothrombin Fibrinogen Factor VII Factor IX Stuart-Prower factor 881. 6 Which one of the following combination of substances present in plasma cause the production of clot: Prothrombin, factor V, factor VIII, platelet factor Factor V, VII, platelet factor III, Ca2+, flbrinogen Prothrombin, tissue factor, Ca2+, factor V Thrombin and fibrinogen Prothrombin, factor V, Fibrinogen, Ca2+ 882. 6 Humoral antibody formation response is shown by: Large lymphocytes B lymphocytes T lymphocytes Monocytes NK lymphocytes 883. 6 Which of the following decrease platelet aggregation and cause vasodilatation? PGE2 PGI2 PGF2alpha TBXA2 PGD2 884. 6 Antithrombin III inactivates which coagulation factor? XIIa XIIa, Xa, IIa, IXa 885. 6 Immunoglobulin specificity is determined by: Which enable antigen specificity 886. 6 HLA antigens are found on: 887. 7 888. Xa IIa IXa Variable heavy and Constant heavy light chain and variable light chain Constant light and variable heavy chains Constant both chains Platelets All nucleated cells B cells T cells Red Blood cells Patient takes drugs blocking calcium channels. Indicate processes in myocardium they influence on: Conductiveness Exitationcontraction coupling Rhythm assimilation Automatism Excitability 7 Myocardial contractility: Is depends upon an interaction between actin and myosin filaments Is enhanced by local application of epinephrine. Is decreased by local application of epinephrine Is enhanced by local application of potassium medium Is increases when bathing medium is calcium free 889. 7 The absolute refractory period in the heart: Is longer than the refractory period in the skeletal muscles Is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart cannot be excited by any stimulus how so ever strong it may be Lasts approximately as long as the cardiac contraction Corresponds in time with the duration of the action potential Is shorter than the relative refractory period in the skeletal muscles 890. 7 In the heart: Contraction begins normally in the left atrium Contraction begins normally in the right atrium Excitation process can spread directly from atria to ventricles Ventricle shortens from apex to base in order to reduce its diameter Excitation process can spread during block of conductive system of heart 891. 7 Process of repolarisation is best demonstrated by: Q wave T wave Р wave R wave S wave. 892. 7 The membrane potential of normal pacemaker cells of the heart (mV) is 25-35 45-65 35-45 65-85 90-120 893. 7 Conduction speed in Purkinje system (m/s) is 0.05 4 1.0 2 0,01 894. 7 The plateau (phase 2) is due to the Closure of Na Prolonged opening Closur of K Opening of Opening of channels of voltage-gated Ca channels channels. voltage-gated Na channels. voltage-gated K channels 895. 7 The initial rapid repolarization (phase 0) is related to the Closure of K and Cl channels Opening of voltage-gated Na channels Prolonged opening of voltage-gated Ca channels Closure of Na channels and Clanions influx Prolonged opening of voltage-gated Ca slow channels 896. 7 The initial rapid repolarization (phase 1) is related to the Opening of voltage-gated Na channels Closure of Na channels and Clanions influx Closure of K and Cl channels Prolonged opening of voltage-gated Ca channels. Opening of voltage-gated K channels 897. 7 The final repolarization (phase 3) is due to the Closure of K and Cl channels Closure of Ca channels and K efflux Opening of voltage-gated Na channels Closure of Na channels Prolonged opening of voltage-gated Ca slow channels 898. 7 The most rapidly propagating tissue in heart is: Ventricular tissue Purkinje fibres Atrial muscle AV node Bundle of HIS 899. 7 Inactivation of phospholamban in cardiac muscle decreases which of the following The velocity of contraction in smooth muscle The duration of contraction The amount of calcium released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum The depolarization required to initiate a contraction The strength of contraction 900. 7 Phase-4 depolarization of SA nodal cells is caused by which of the following A decrease in the flow of chloride out of the cell An increase in the flow of sodium into the cell A decrease in the activity of the NaK pump A decrease in the flow of potassium out of the cell An increase in the activity of the Na/Ca exchanger 901. 7 An ectopic extrasystole caused by a ventricular focus is characterized by which of the following A skipped atrial contraction A skipped ventricular contraction A larger than normal force of contraction Interruption of the regular SA node discharge Retrograde conduction of the action potential to the atria 902. 7 Absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle last during Depolarization phase All of the above Initial rapid repolarization phase Plateau Overshoot 903. 7 Duration (ms) of the absolute refractory period of the cardiac muscle is nearly 100 250-270 50 350 400 904. 7 Which of the fallowing is a characteristic of cardiac muscle? More than one nucleus per cell Cell fibers arranged in a branching network or syncytium Cell arranged in very long, cylindrical fibers Cells located in walls of arteries and veines Controlled voluntarily 905. 7 Which of the fallowing will be greater during the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential than at rest? Chloride conductance Calcium conductance Sodium conductance Total membrane Potasium conductance 906. 7 Cyclic adenosine monophosphate activates protein kinase A. This leads to phosphorylation electric sensitive: Cl - channel Ca2+- channels Na2 + - channel K + - channels Mg2 + - channels 907. 7 Resting potential of pacemaker cells (mV ): 25-35 55-60 35-45 65-85 85-95 908. 7 Which muscular contraction type is cardiac muscle distinguishing characteristic: Smooth (complete) tetanus Single contraction Incomplete tetanus Tonic contraction Isometric contraction 909. 7 Which tunic of an artery contains endothelium? Tunica media Tunica interna/intima Tunica externa Tunica adventitia No right answer 910. 7 The heart’s electrical conduction network found within the ventricular myocardium is termed the: Left and right bundle branches Purkinje fibers Bundle of His/atrioventricula r bundle Atrioventricular node Sinoatrial node 911. 7 Transfer of excitation in the myocardium occurs through : Neuron Nexus Dendrite Axon Synapse 912. 7 lining of the inner walls of the heart’s chambers is termed the: Myocardium Endocardium Epicardium Serous pericardium Visceral pericardium 913. 7 The SA node: But not the AV node receives parasympathetic nerve supply Is connected by three bundles with AV node Cells have a faster rate of diastolic depolarization at 39° than at 37°C At the beginning of ventricular contraction At the end of ventricular contraction 914. 7 The P wave of ECG occurs: At the beginning of atrial contraction By SA node excitation After the atrial contraction At the beginning of ventricular contraction At the end of ventricular contraction 915. 7 In the average normal ECG, T wave is negative in: Lead III AVR Lead I Lead II V1 916. 7 In transmission of the impulses causing the heart to beat, the impulses pass from the bundle of HIS to the: Visceral pericardium Purkinje fibres of the ventricles AV node of the ventricular septum Nodes of Ranvier AV node 917. 7 If an individual has a heart rate of 150, what is the amount of time it takes to complete one heart beat? 0.8 seconds 0.4 seconds 8 seconds 150 seconds 60 seconds 918. 7 The sino-atrial (SA) node is A cardiac lymph node Found in the wall of the right atrium near the opening of the superior vena cava Located in the ventricular septum between the right and left ventricles Located in the wall of the carotid artery Present only in the fetus 919. 7 The correct sequence of parts that function to carry electrical impulses over modified nerve-muscle tissue of the heart is: AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibres, HIS bundle SA node, AV node, HIS bundle, Purkinje fibres AV node, HIS bundle, Purkinje fibres, SA node SA node, Purkinje fibres, AV node, HIS bundle SA node, Purkinje fibres, HIS bundle 920. 7 Which of the following rhythms is initiated by the AVnode 10-20 /min 40-50 /min. 60-80 /min 80-100 /min 20-30 /min 921. 7 The region of the heart having the lowest inherent rhythmicity is: SA node Purkinje AV node Atrial muscle Ventricular muscle 922. 7 The most rapidly propagating tissue in heart is: Ventricular tissue Purkinje fibers Atrial muscle AV node Bundle of HIS 923. 7 Blood flows directly into the ventricles from the atria during Late atrial systole and early ventricular systole. Early atrial systole and late ventricular diastole. Early atrial diastole and late ventricular systole. All of the above None of the above 924. 7 On an "ECG" the spread of an impulse over the atria just prior to atrial contraction is represented by: The QRS complex The "P" wave The Q portion of the QRS complex The T wave Combination of the RS component of the QRS complex 925. 7 The P-Q interval on an ECG: Is usually about 0.25 sec Is related to A-V conduction time Is of no physiological significance Varies with placement of electrodes None of the above 926. 7 The interval P-Q lasts (sec) 0.6-0.12 0.12-0.21 0.18-0.24 0.24-0.27 0.27-0.32 927. 7 The QRS wave of an ECG is produced by Depolarization of the atria. Depolarization of the ventricles. Repolarization of the atria. Repolarization of the ventricles. Refractory period 928. 7 On a normal ECG, atrial repolarization occurs during the: P wave QRS complex T wave P-Q interval S-T segment 929. 7 On a normal ECG, ventricular depolarization occurs during the: P wave QRS complex T wave P-Q interval S-T segment 930. 7 The first heart sound, ‘lub’, is a valuable aid in diagnosing: Semilunar valve dysfunctions Atrioventricular valve dysfunctions Ileocecal valve dysfunctions Pulmonary trunk wall dysfunctions Ascending aortic wall dysfunctions 931. 7 When aortic pressure is greater than the ventricular pressure: The bicuspid/mitral atrioventricular valve closes The aortic semilunar valve closes The tricuspid atrioventricular valve opens The pulmonary semilunar valve opens The pulmonary semilunar valve closes 932. 7 The lowest venous blood pressure is found within: Large-sized veins The venae cavae Medium-sized veins Venules Little sized veins 933. 7 What is most responsible for propelling blood in the arterial system during cardiac diastole Skeletal muscle contraction and breathing Elastic recoil of conducting (elastic) arteries Hydrostatic blood pressure arising from ventricular contraction Venous return of blood All answers are correct 934. 7 These structures are the major determinants of vascular resistance (where resistance to blood flow is greatest): Arteries Arterioles Capillaries Venules Veins 935. 7 Indicate QRS complex normal duration: 0,06-0,15 sec 0,08-0,1 sec 0,02-0,05 sec 0,04-0,12 sec All answers are uncorrect 936. 7 Indicate possible reason of such ECG disorder at which one can see unequal interval R-R (with their duration 0,6-1,0 sec): Myocardial infarctum All answers are uncorrect Left ventricle hypertrophy Arhythmia Heart attack (myocardial ishemia) 937. 7 In course of ECG-investigation of patient suffering from thyroid hyperfunction it was made the conclusion about tachycardia. On the basis of which ECG elements analysis it has been done? Interval P-Q Interval R-R Segment P-Q Interval P-T Complex QRS 938. 7 There are next changings on patient’s ECG: segment ST transposition and dens T prolongation (up to 0,25 sec). Indicate heart function with the disorders of which such changings are delt with? Atria repolarization Ventricles repolarization. Atria depolarization Ventricles depolarization Excitement transmission through a/v node 939. 7 ECG-investigation of 45-yeared man demonstrated P dens absence in all leads. Block of which conductance system part can be predicted? Atrio-ventricular node Sino-atrial node Purkin’e fibres Gis’ fascicle right bundle Gis’ fascicle left bundle 940. 7 Prove that vagus irritation causes conductive heart function inhibition: QRST complex prolongation on EKG more than 0,45 sec interval P-Q prolongation on ECG more than 0, 20 sec anacrote prolongation on sphygmogram catacrote prolongation on sphygmogram it’s necessary to determine heart throw level and to mark its diminishing 941. 7 Which myocardium physiological peculiarities can be assessed on ECG? Excitability, automatism, contractiveness Excitability, conductivenes, automatism Excitability, contractiveness, refractiveness Contractiveness, automatism, conductiveness Contractiveness, refractiveness, automatism 942. 7 The heart’s natural pacemaker is termed the: AV node SA node Bundle of His/atrioventricula r bundle Left and right bundle branches Purkinje fibers 943. 7 If the heart’s natural pacemaker fails to fire, then: No blood would enter the ventricles The node on the floor of the right atrium would act as a secondary pacemaker No blood would enter the atria The node on the floor of the left ventricle would act as a secondary pacemaker The person would die within minutes 944. 7 Excitation of the ventricles begins 0.12 - 0.18 s after excitation fibrillation. This is caused by: slow AP generation in the SA node AP delay in the AV node AP delay in bundle branch block AP delay in fibers Purkinje All of the above 945. 7 AV node generates an excitation frequency 10 – 20 per 1 min 40 – 50 per 1 min 60 – 80 per 1 min 80 – 100 per 1 min 20 – 30 per 1 min 946. 7 Oscillation frequency excitation is maintained SA node in the range: 15-20 60-85 20-40 40-50 120-130 947. 7 The electrocardiogram (ECG) is LEAST effective in detecting abnormalities in Coronary blood flow Cardiac contractitliti Cardiac rhythm Atrioventricular condaction The position of the heart in the chest 948. 7 Impulses are conducted from the sinoatrial (SA) node of the heart to the atrioventricular (AV) node at an approximate rate of : 1.0 ms 0.1 second (s) 0.1 milisecond (ms) 1.0 s 10.0 s 949. 7 The repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle is represented by which portion of the ECG shown S T R Q P below? 950. 7 The PR interval in an ECG is measured by finding the interval between the Beginning of the P wave and the beginning of the R wave Beginning of the P wave and the beginning of the QRS complex of the P wave and the end of the QRS complex end of the P wave and the beginning of the QRS complex end of the P wave and the end of the QRS complex 951. 7 Which of the fallowing statements about second–degree heart block is correct? The PR interval is shortened Not all atrial impulses reach the ventricles The rate of ventricular contraction is increased Sinoatrialatrioventricular (SA-AV) nadal conduction is slover AV nodal condaction is completely interapted 952. 7 If the QRS complex is positive in lead II and negative in lead III, The mean electrical axis (MEA) is betwen +30 and +60 -30 and +30 +60 and + 90 +90 and +120 + 120 and +150 953. 7 Which of the following conditions will cause an increase in the size of the QRS complex recorded from lead II? Mitral prolapse Ventricular hypertrophy Second-degree heart block Bradycardia A shift in the mean electrical axis from + 60 degrees to 0 degrees 954. 7 The thickest layer of the heart wall is: Endocardium Myocardium Epicardium Fibrous pericardium No right answer 955. 7 Atrial repolarization coincides in time whith the: P wave QRS wave T wave P-Q interval P-T interval 956. 7 Which of the following depolarizes next after the AV node? Ventricular myocardium Atrial myocardium Bundle branches Purkinje fibres No right answer 957. 7 Papillary muscles of the heart: Contract to hold the atrioventricular valves open during systole Contract to hold the atrioventricular valves shut during systole Contract to pull the atrioventricular valves open during diastole Contract to pull the atrioventricular valves shut just prior to systole Contract to pull the atrioventricular valves shut after to systole 958. 7 The second heart sound, ‘dub’, is a valuable aid in diagnosing: Atrioventricular valve dysfunctions Semilunar valve dysfunctions Ileocecal valve dysfunctions Pulmonary trunk wall dysfunctions Ascending aortic wall dysfunctions 959. 7 The normal heart sounds (lub and dup) are produced by which of the following events? Sympathetic stimulation of the sinoatrial node Closure of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves Ventricular systole Friction of blood flowing against the chamber walls Ventricular diastole 960. 7 The left ventricle’s myocardium is thicker than the right ventricle’s myocardium in order to: Ncrease the size of the thoracic cavity during diastole Contract with a greater pressure Force blood through a smaller semilunar valve Accommodate a greater volume of blood None of the above 961. 7 To auscultate the aortic semilunar valve, one’s stethoscope should be placed in the: Second intercostal space to the left of the sternum Second intercostal space to the right of the sternum Fifth intercostal space inferior to the left nipple In the right fifth intercostal space None of the above 962. 7 A heart rate of 90 bpm (beats per minute) means the duration of one cardiac cycle is about _____ seconds. 1.0 0.67 1.5 1.67 There is not enough data given to determine an answer 963. 7 A person whose heart rate is 70 bpm (beats per minute) and whose cardiac output is 4.9 L/min. (liters per minute): Has a stroke volume of 7.0 liters per beat Has a stroke volume of 0.07 liters per beat Has a stroke volume of 7.0 ml. Per beat Has a stroke volume of 0.7 ml. Per beat Has abnormal values 964. 7 As the heart approaches the end of atrial diastole: The ventricular myocardium contracts thereby opening the atrioventricular The majority of atrial blood has entered the ventricles via gravity and elastic The atrial myocardium contracts thereby opening the semilunar valves All of the heart’s None of the above valves must remain opened in order for normal blood flow valves recoil 965. 7 The second heart sound, "dupp", is normally heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle? Just after the start of ventricular systole Just after the end of ventricular systole Just after the end of atrial systole Just after the start of atrial diastole Just after the start of atrial systole 966. 7 Stenosis of the bicuspid/mitral atrioventricular valve may initially cause an increase of pressure in the: Left ventricle Pulmonary circuit Coronary circuit Superior and inferior venae cavae Right ventricle 967. 7 Increased end-systolic volume results in: Higher enddiastolic volume More blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction Higher cardiac output More blood ejected Higher cardiac from the ventricle input per beat 968. 7 An excessively shortened PR-interval can have this effect on cardiac output (CO): Decrease CO because it reduces ventricular contraction time Decrease CO Increase CO because it reduces because it ventricular fill time increases force of ventricular contraction Increase CO because it increases enddiastolic volume Decrease CO because it increases enddiastolic volume 969. 7 Increase in afterload in the aorta can have what affect on cardiac output (CO): Decrease CO because of increased hydrostatic pressure and increased stroke volume Decrease CO because of increased backpressure opposing ventricular ejection of blood Increase CO because of increased elastic recoil of the aorta Increase CO because of increased blood pressure and blood volume Decrease CO because of increased blood pressure and blood volume 970. 7 Chordae tendineae: Attach to the undersurface of the semilunar valves Arise from papillary muscles in the ventricles Get pulled taught immediately prior to ventricular systole Remain slack to allow the normal retrograde flow of coronary blood Reduce from papillary muscles in the ventricles 971. 7 During cardiac cycle immediutely after closure of AV valves there is: Isometric contraction Isotonic contraction Isometric relaxation Isotonic relaxation None of the above. 972. 7 Immediately after closure of semilunar valves, there is: Isometric Isotonic relaxation Isometric Isotonic None of the above contraction phase relaxation phase contraction 973. 7 The phase of atrial systole coincides with ventricular: Isotonic relaxation Isometric relaxation Isotonic contraction Isometric contraction None of the above 974. 7 The closure of AV valves is initiated by: Atrial contraction None of the above Ventricular contraction Ventricular relaxation Backward flow of blood during ventricular contraction 975. 7 Rate of ventricular filling: Is maximum during first third of diastole Variable depending upon the timing of atrial contraction Is maximum Is maximum during middle third during last third of of diastole diastole Is constant throughout diastole 976. 7 Second heart sound differs from the first in that: It has a higher frequency It has a lower frequency Its duration is greater than that of the first It is occasionally split Its duration is similar to the first 977. 7 The cardiac output can be determined by: Product between stroke volume and pulse pressure Product between stroke volume and pulse rate Product between end-diastolic volume and pulse rate Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure Difference between strke volume and pulse rate 978. 7 Within physiological limits, increased venous return to the heart: Decreases heart rate Increases cardiac output Decreases systemic blood pressure Decreases intrathoracic pressure Decreases pulse pressure 979. 7 Cardiac index is cardiac output: Per unit of body weight Per unit of surface area Per unit of body volume Per unit of time .Per unit of body volume 980. 7 Increased mean arterial blood pressure on sympathetic stimulation cannot be possibly attributed to: Increased venous return to heart causing increased cardiac output Decreased vagal tone Increased peripheral resistance Increased venomotor tone More forceful cardiac contraction 981. 7 Cardiac output in adult under basal condition would be close to: 2.5 litres 5.0 litres 7.5 litres 9.5 litres 4.0 litres. 982. 7 The first heart sound is mainly due to: Closure of semilunar valves Closure of AV valves The rapid inflow of blood from auricle to ventricle Inflow of blood from ventricle to aorta Turbulent flow of blood in aorta. 983. 7 The pulse pressure would be greatest in: Aorta Dorsalis paedis artery Femoral artery Femoral vein Capillaries of the foot. 984. 7 The heart rate increases in the following states except during: Sympathetic stimulation Hypothyroldism Muscular activity Emotional excitement Stress reacton. 985. 7 Process of repolarisation is best demonstrated by: Q wave T wave Р wave R wave S wave. 986. 7 The P wave of ECG occurs: At the beginning of atrial contraction By SA node excitation After the atrial contraction At the beginning of ventricular contraction At the end of ventricular contraction 987. 7 In the average normal ECG, T wave is negative in: Lead III AVR Lead I Lead II V1 988. 7 The pulse pressure would be greatest in: Aorta Dorsalis paedis artery Femoral artery Femoral vein Capillaries of the foot. 989. 7 Cardiac output in man (bw=70kg) under stress condition (Ps=100 beat/per min) would be close to: 12.5 litres 7.0 litres 5 litres 9 litres 4.0 litres 990. 7 The atrioventricular valve that is on the same side of the heart as the origin of the pulmonary artery is named the Bicuspid valve Tricuspid valve Mitral valve Semilunar valve None of above 991. 7 Blood flows directly into the ventricles from the atria during Late atrial systole and early ventricular systole. Early atrial systole and late ventricular diastole Early atrial diastole and late ventricular systole All of the above None of the above 992. 7 The "lubb-dup" sounds have practical clinical value because they provide information concerning the Strength of arterial contractions Efficiency of heart valves Power of papillary muscles Closure of foramen All of the above ovale 993. 7 After closure of semilunar valves during the cardiac cycle, there is a perid of: Isometric contraction phase Isometric relaxation phase Isotonic contraction Isotonic relaxation None of the above 994. 7 Duration of ventricular systole 0.5 sec 0.33 sec 0.4 sec 0.65 sec 0.8 sec 995. 7 The first heart sound is produced at The end of systole The beginning of systole The beginning of diastole The end of diastole Both systole and diastle 996. 7 In a test subject, oxygen consumption was measured at 700 mL/min. Pulmonary artery oxygen content was 140 mL per liter of blood and brachial artery oxygen content was 210 mL per liter of blood. Cardiac output was which of the following? 30.0 L/min 10.0 L/min 4.2 L/min 7.0 L/min 12.6 L/min 997. 7 Which one of the following is the best index of afterload Mean arterial blood pressure Left ventricular mean systolic pressure Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure Total peripheral resistance 998. 7 Which of the following would result from a regurgitant aortic valve in a nonfailing heart? A decrease in systolic blood pressure A decrease in diastolic pressure A systolic murmur A decrease in heart rate A decrease in cardiac energy consumption 999. 7 Stroke volume is increased by which of the following? An increase in heart rate A decrease in venous compliance A decrease in coronary blood flow A decrease in contractility An increase in afterload 1000. 7 An increased preload would most likely be caused by an increase in which of the following? Capillary permeability Venous tone Myocardial contractility Heart rate Arteriolar tone 1001. 7 A patient in heart failure improves markedly after using a drug that increases the inotropic state of her heart. Which one of the following changes is primarily responsible for the improvement in her condition An increase in cardiac excitability A decrease in end diastolic volume A reduction in heart rate An increase in end-diastolic pressure An increase in wall thickness 1002. 7 Which one of the following is most likely to be observed in a patient with untreated atrial fibrillation An increased arterial blood pressure An increased left atrial pressure An increased venous A wave A decreased heart rate An increased stroke volume 1003. 7 In a resting, healthy man, which of the following is the approximate ejection fraction 0.9 0.6 0.2 0.3 0.1 1004. 7 During normal diastole, which of the following is most important in preventing over-distension of the Adjacent lungs Fibrous pericardium Aortic valve Diaphragm Mitral valve ventricles? 1005. 7 During cardiac examination of a newborn infant, a murmur is detected, and the diagnosis of patent ductus arteriosus is made. Which of the following best describes the direction of blood flow through the patent ductus arteriosus in this infant? From aorta to left pulmonary vein From aorta to left pulmonary artery From aorta to right pulmonary artery From left pulmonary artery to aorta From right pulmonary artery to aorta 1006. 7 A 60-year-old male with heart disease is brought to the emergency room. Cardiovascular evaluation reveals a resting O2 consumption of 200 mL/min, a peripheral arterial O2 content of 0.20 mL O2/ml of blood, and a mixed venous O2 content of 0.15 mL O2/mL of blood. What is his cardiac output? 2.5 L/min 4.0 L/min 10.0 L/min 25.0 L/min 100.0 L/min 1007. 7 One can see significant hypersympathicotony in course of emotional stress. Indicate the most possible heart activity changings: 4 topic Heart activity remains unchangeable Heart contraction frequency and force increasing Heart contraction frequency and force decreasing Heart stoppage due to tetanic heart muscle contraction Arhythmias 1008. 7 Starling's law of the heat: 4 topic Could explain why the output of left and right ventricles is equal in the long term States that strength of myocardial contraction is a function of initial length of the muscle fibers Could explain fall in cardiac output when a person changes his posture from lying down to standing Could explain fall in cardiac output when a changes of intraaortic pressure Could explain relationship cardiac output with arterial resistance 1009. 7 The greatest benefit derived from administering a positive inotropic drag to a patients in heart failure results from A reduction in heart rate A reduction in heart size An increase in contractile forse An increase in wall thickness An increase in cardiac excitability 1010. 7 Patients who have received cardiac transplants are able to increase cardiac output during exercise for which of the following reasons? Heart rate is increase by sympathetic stimulation Increased venous return results in an increase in stroke volume Ventricular end – diastolic pressure is decrease Length of systole is shortened following transplantation Non of the above 1011. 7 Coronary blood flow is increased by all the following except A decrease in arterial Po2 Beta-adrnergic blockade An increase in arterial Pco2 Decrease in systemic blood pressure Vagal stimulations 1012. 7 Increasing vagal stimulation of the heart will cause an increase in Heart rate PR interval Ventricular contractility Ejection fraction QS interval 1013. 7 Excessively high heart rate (>180) can reduce cardiac output because: It tires out the heart muscles and so they pump slower It reduces the time for ventricular filling which reduces stroke volume Blood is moving too fast through the lungs to pick up enough oxygen The pr-interval increases which leads to longer ventricular diastole and shorter ventricular systole The qs-interval increases which leads to longer ventricular diastole and shorter ventricular systole 1014. 7 Sympathetic stimulation to the heart’s natural pacemaker normally results in: A greater force of myocardial contraction A faster heart rate Both choices (a) and (b) are correct The heart’s natural pacemaker is not influenced by sympathetic stimulation Non of the above 1015. 7 If vagal nerves to the heart were severed, the result should be that: The heart would stop contracting The heart rate would increase The atrioventricular node would takeover as the heart’s pacemaker Parasympathetic stimulation to the heart would increase Non of the above 1016. 7 In a physically Irained person, Heart rate can reach higher levels than in an untrained person Stroke volume is greater than in an unlrained person Vagal tone is lower than in an unlrained person Vascular resistance is higher than in an untrained person Left ventricular end-diastolic volume is less than in an untrained person 1017. 7 In a person with a prominent respiratory sinus arrhythmia, Efferent cardiac sympathetic activity decreases during inspiration Efferent vagal activity decreases during inspiration The slope of the slow diastolic depolarization of the sinoatrial cells decreases during inspiration The arrhythmia will become more pronounced in response to hemorrhage Propranolol will abolish the arrhythmia 1018. 7 When cardiac sympathetic activity suddenly ceases, the effects of that activity subside gradually because Neuropeptides coreleased with norepinephrine The processes that remove neurally released nor- The calcium channels in the myocyte The neurally released norepinephrme Norepinephrine continues to be released from the delay its degradation epinephrine from the cardiac tissues are slow membranes are connected to the bela-adrenergic receplors by g proteins alters the viscoelastic characteristic of the cardiac tissues nerve endings long after the neural activity has ceased 1019. 7 When vagal activity suddenly ceases, the cardiai response to that activity disappears rapidly becausi the Acetylcholine in the nerve endings is rapid!' depleted Abundant acetyicholinesleras e rapidly degrade: the released acetylcholine Myocytes rapidly take up the released acetyl choline Nerve endings rapidly take up the release! Acetylcholine Cardiac cells become lachyphy lactic 1020. 7 Starling's law of the heat: States that strength of myocardial contraction is a function of Initial length of the muscle fibres Could explain how stroke volume be maintained when peripheral resistance increases Could explain why the output of left and right ventricles is equal in the long term Could explain fall in cardiac output when a person changes his posture from lying down to standing All of the above 1021. 7 Sympathetic stimulation to the heart would cause: Negative chronotropic effect Positive chronoinotropic effect Positive inotropic effect Negative dromotropic effect Negative bathmotropic effect 1022. 7 During the process of inspiration in children: Pulse rate decreases Pulse rate increases Pulse strength increases Pulse rate does not change Pulse is weak 1023. 7 Force of contraction of the heart: Decreases by athletic training Increases with sympathetic stimulation Is unaffected by nutrition Decreases by increased filling Is not dependent upon rate. 1024. 7 Activity in the sympathetic nerves to the heart increases in the following except: During exercise When the arterial pressure falls During excitement When the arterial pressure rises During stress. 1025. 7 Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes: Decrease in the rate of diastolic depolarisation in pacemaker Shifts the Starling's curve of myocardial contractility to the right. Fall in coronary blood flow Decrease in the rate of conduction in AV node Shifts the Starling's curve of myocardial contractility to the left 1026. 7 Increasing vagal stimulation of the heart will cause an increase in which of the following? Heart rate PR interval Ventricular contractility Ejection fraction Cardiac output. 1027. 7 Which of the following conditions causes pulse pressure to increase? Tachycardia Hypertension Hemorrhage Aortic stenosis Heart failure. 1028. 7 In running 100 metres, the increased oxygen requirements of tissues is immediate responses: Increased 2,3 – DPG Increased cardiac output Increased erythropoietin Rise in co2 partial pressure activating peripheral chemoreceptors Increased arterial CO2 partial pressure leads to vasodilatation. 1029. 7 According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart: The left ventricle ejects a larger volume of blood with each systole than the right ventricle Stroke volume increases with increased venous return The intrinsic rate of the heart's pacemaker is 100 beats/min Cardiac output Both ventricles increases with contract increased heart rate simultaneously 1030. 7 Carotid sinus stimulation causes: A fall in venous pressure An increase in heart rate Reflex bradycardia Reflex hyperpnoea Reflex increase in venous pressure. 1031. 7 Chemoreceptor stimulation leads to: Hypoventilation Reflex bradycardia Apnoea Rise in BP None of the above. 1032. 7 CO is carried in venous blood mostly in form of' Carbonate None of these. Carbonic acid Bicarbonate Dissolved СО2 1033. 7 The most important cardiac and vasomotor centres are located in: Cerebral cortex Medulla. Cerebellum Hypothalamus Pons 1034. 7 The heart rate increases in the following states except during: Sympathetic stimulation Hypothyroldism Muscular activity Emotional excitement Stress reacton. 1035. 7 Increasing vagal stimulation of the heart will cause an increase in which of the following? Heart rate PR interval Cardiac output Ventricular contractility Ejection fraction 1036. 7 A healthy 28-year-old woman stands up from a supine position. Which of the following cardiovascular changes is most likely to occur? Decreased myocardial contractility Increased heart rate Decreased total peripheral resistance Dilation of large veins Increased renal blood flow 1037. 7 The exchange of gases and nutrients between blood and Arteries Capillaries Arterioles Veins Venule tissues is a major function of: 1038. 7 Which of the following statements best describes arteries? All arteries contain valves to prevent the back-flow of blood All arteries carry blood away from the heart All arteries carry oxygenated blood towards the heart Only large arteries are lined with endothelium Only large veins are lined with endothelium 1039. 7 The circulatory pathway that carries blood from the digestive tract towards the liver is termed the: Cerebral circuit Hepatic portal circuit Coronary circuit Pulmonary circuit No right answer 1040. 7 Immediately following strenuous and vigorous exercise, which of the following is most likely to occur? The skin will be cold and clammy Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood Blood will be rapidly diverted to the digestive organs Blood flow to the kidneys quickly increases No right answer 1041. 7 A long-term hypertensive person, whose BP is 200/120 mm Hg, is in risk of developing all of the following changes, except: Increased risk of damage to the blood vessel’s endothelium Decreased size of the myocardium Increased risk of coronary artery disease Increased workload of the left ventricle Decreased workload of the left ventricle 1042. 7 The C wave of jugular venous pulse occurs: During ventricular systole Just prior to auricular systole Just after peak of auricular systole Just after dicrotic notch in aortic pressure At the beginning of expiration 1043. 7 Carotid sinus stimulation causes: A fall in venous pressure An increase in heart rate Reflex bradycardia Reflex hyperpnoea Reflex increase in venous pressure 1044. 7 Which of the following is/are true? The force of contraction of the left ventricle is smaler than that of the right ventricle The lowest velocity blood flow occurs in the capillaries The highest velocity blood flow occurs in the capillaries The bundle of HIS is the typical site at which electrical activity occurring in the atria can be conducted to the ventricles The lowest velocity blood flow occurs in the arterioles 1045. 7 In a typical capillary The pressure at the venous end exceeds that at the The tension in the wall increases as the hydrostatic The radius exceeds that of a typical arteriole The radius is more than three times as great as the radius The tension in the wall is proportional to the fourth power of the arterial end pressure rises of a red blood cell radius 1046. 7 The ultrafiltration of fluid from the capillaries into the interstitial spaces increases as the Oncotic pressure of the interstitial fluid decreases Tissue hydrostatic pressure decreases Hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries decreases Radius of the upstream arteriole decreases Molecular weight of the plasma proteins decreases 1047. 7 The pressure drop in the systemic circulation is greatest in the Capillaries Arterioles Venules Aorta Venae cavae 1048. 7 The less compliant arterial system in old people compared with young people Allows blood to flow through the capillaries at a more steady rate Requires the heart to expend more energy to pump a normal cardiac output Prevents the arterial systolic pressure from attaining excessively high values Increases the total blood volume. Decreases the mean arterial blood pressure 1049. 7 Arterial blood pressure could be decreased by An increase in cardiac output Decrease in cardiac output An increase in venous return An increase in peripheral resistance Increased viscosity of blood 1050. 7 Which of the following would not influence venous return: Contraction of skeletal muscles squeezing veins Exchange of materials at capillary bed Higher pressure in capillaries than in veins, forcing blood toward heart Gravity Dilation of veins 1051. 7 There is the major force pushing fluid out of the capillaries. Force of gravity Capillary blood pressure Respirations in the body Valve in a vein Colloidal osmotic pressure 1052. 7 The "pressure gradient" is the highest or steepest along the: Large arteries Arterioles Capillaries Veins Venae cavae 1053. 7 Which statement about capillaries is NOT TRUE? Capillaries are microscopic vessels whose walls are one cell thick Blood pressure is lowest in capillaries. Velocity of blood flow is slowest in capillaries Many capillaries are smaller than whole cells Capillaries are semipermeable exchangeable vesels 1054. 7 In a normal person, most of the circulating blood is located in the Systemic capillaries Systemic veins Pulmonary capillaries Pulmonary veins Systemic arteries and arterioles 1055. 7 Velocity of blood flow is greatest in the Capillaries Aorta Venules Venae cavae Arterioles 1056. 7 The principal determinants of mean arterial pressure are Arterial and venous compliance Cardiac output and peripheral resistance Cardiac output and arterial compliance Peripheral resistance and arterial compliance Cardiac output and venous compliance 1057. 7 Which of the following is/are the most critical factor in maintaining arterial pressure. Total length of the vessels examined Peripheral resistance in arterioles Cross sectional diameter of vessels examined Cardiac output Blood pressure 1058. 7 If arterial blood pressure falls markedly, which of the following would you expect to occur? Body cells swollen with excess fluid Less movement of fluid from the capillaries to the interstitial spaces Leakage of blood proteins into interstitial fluid Exchange of water between the blood and interstitial fluid unaltered Interstitial edema 1059. 7 Which of the following has the highest total crosssectional area in the body? Arteries Capillaries Arterioles Venules Veins 1060. 7 Tissue fluid" is found in the Vascular spaces Interstitial spaces Intracellular spaces Cells Tissues 1061. 7 The ultrafiltration of fluid from the capillaries into the interstitial spaces increases as the Oncotic pressure of the interstitial fluid decreases Tissue hydrostatic pressure decreases Hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries decreases Radius of the upstream arteriole decreases Molecular weight of the plasma proteins decreases 1062. 7 Which one of the following will be observed in a patient with a dilated failing left ventricle and a normal resting mean blood pressure A decreased heart rate An increased pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure A decreased left ventricular wall stress An increased left ventricular ejection fraction A decreased left ventricular energy consumption 1063. 7 After a mild hemorrhage, compensatory responses initiated by the baroreceptor reflex keeps blood pressure at or close to its normal value. Which one of the following values is less after compensation for the Heart rate Venous compliance Ventricular contractility Total peripheral resistance Coronary blood flow hemorrhage than it was before the hemorrhage 1064. 7 Central venous pressure is increased by which of the following? Decreasing blood volume Decreasing heart rate Increasing venous compliance Increasing total peripheral resistance Decreasing plasma aldosterone concentration 1065. 7 Blood flow through an organ would be increased by decreasing which of the following The diameter of the arterial vessels The hematocrit The number of open arterial vessels The arterial pressure The diameter of the venous vessels 1066. 7 The percentage of the total cardiac output distributed to any single organ is most dependent on which of the following The contractile state of the heart The ratio of an organ's vascular resistance to total peripheral resistance (TPR) The magnitude of mean blood pressure The magnitude of diastolic pressure The magnitude of cardiac output 1067. 7 A 65-year-old male visits his family practitioner for a yearly examination. Measurement of his blood pressure reveals a systolic pressure of 190 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure of 100 mm Hg. His heart rate is 74/min and pulse pressure is 90 mm Hg. A decrease in which of the following is the most likely explanation for the high pulse pressure? Cardiac output Arterial compliance Myocardial contractility Stroke volume Total peripheral resistance 1068. 7 A 54-year-old male is seen in clinic with complaints of palpitations and light-headedness. Physical examination is remarkable for a heart rate of greater than 200 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 75/40 mm Hg. What adjustments have probably occurred in the cardiac cycle? Diastolic time has decreased and systolic time has increased Systolic time has decreased but diastolic time has decreased more Diastolic time has decreased but systolic time has decreased more Systolic time has decreased and diastolic time has increased Systolic time has decreased but diastolic time has not changed 1069. 7 In a tissue capillary, the interstitial hydrostatic pressure is 2 mm Hg, the capillary hydrostatic pressure is 25 mm Hg and the interstitial oncotic pressure is 7 mm Hg. If the net driving force across the capillary wall is 3 mm Hg favoring filtration, what is the capillary oncotic pressure? 21 mm Hg 27 mm Hg 23 mm Hg 24 mm Hg 25 mm Hg 1070. 7 Blood is flowing through the circuit shown above. The inflow pressure is 100 mm Hg and the outflow pressure is 10 mm Hg. The resistance of each of the five branches is 5 mm Hg/mL/min. What is the flow across the circuit? 3.6 ml/min 90 ml/min 45 ml/min 135 ml/min 180 ml/min 1071. 7 Which of the following vascular structures contains the largest proportion of the total blood volume in a normal individual? Aorta and large arteries Venules and veins Arterioles Capillaries Pulmonary vasculature 1072. 7 In which type of blood vessel is the mean linear velocity of a red blood cell the lowest? Aorta and large arteries Capillaries Arterioles Small arteries Vena cavae and large veins 1073. 7 When aortic pressure is less than ventricular pressure, this causes: The bicuspid/mitral atrioventricular valve to close The aortic semilunar valve to open The pulmonary semilunar valve to close The tricuspid atrioventricular valve to open The aortic semilunar valve to close 1074. 7 Which of the following is generally true of veins compared to arteries: There tends to be less blood located in the veins than in the arteries when the body is at rest There tends to be more veins draining blood from a region than arteries supplying blood to that region Veins tend to run deeper than arteries, closer to bones Veins tend to have smaller diameter lumens than arteries Veins tend to have bigger diameter lumens than arteries 1075. 7 What is most responsible for propelling blood in the venous system? Hydrostatic blood pressure arising from ventricular contraction Skeletal muscle contraction and breathing Elastic recoil of large veins Increased capillary resistance at the venous Elastic recoil of little veins 1076. 7 Where in the body does blood flow travel the fastest? Coronary arteries Aorta Cerebral arteries Capillaries Veins 1077. 7 What is the pulse pressure of a person who has an arterial blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg 130 60 100 160 190 1078. 7 Increased mean arterial blood pressure on sympathetic stimulation cannot be possibly attributed to: Increased venous return to heart causing increased Decreased vagal tone Increased peripheral Increased venomotor tone More forceful cardiac contraction cardiac output resistance 1079. 7 Sudden standing evokes the baroreceptor reflex. Which one of the following will be greater after a person suddenly stands up than it was before the person stood? The end-diastolic volume The ejection fraction. The renal blood flow The venous return The pulse pressure 1080. 7 Capillary permeability is increased by: Adrenaline Bradykinin Calcium Vasopressin Noradrenaline 1081. 7 Which one of the following will increase if massaging the neck stretches the carotid sinus baroreceptor: Total peripheral resistance Vagal nerve activity Right atrial pressure Venous tone Ventricular contractility 1082. 7 During surgical removal of an invasive glioma from the skull base, cranial nerves IX and X are accidentally cut bilaterally. What would be the immediate change in the patient's hemodynamic condition? Bradycardia with hypertension Tachycardia with hypertension Bradycardia with hypotension Sinus arrhythmia with hypotension Tachycardia with hypotension 1083. 7 A cardiovascular physiologist performs an experiment on an animal subject to study heart rate and blood pressure changes with nerve stimulation. He selectively stimulates the afferent portions of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves. Which of the following outcomes would most likely occur after this manipulation? Bradycardia with hypertension Bradycardia with hypotension Sinus arrhythmia with hypotension Tachycardia with hypertension Tachycardia with hypotension 1084. 7 A healthy 28-year-old woman stands up from a supine position. Which of the following cardiovascular changes is most likely to occur? Decreased myocardial contractility Increased heart rate Decreased total peripheral resistance Dilation of large veins Increased renal blood flow 1085. 7 The most important cardiac and vasomotor centres are located in: Cerebral cortex Medulla. Cerebellum Hypothalamus Pons 1086. 7 Blood pressure increases and heart rate decreases in response to which of the following Hemorrhage Increased intracranial pressure Exercise Increased body temperature Exposure to high altitude 1087. 7 Sudden standing evokes the baroreceptor reflex. Which one of the following will be greater after a person suddenly stands up than it was before the person stood? The end-diastolic volume The ejection fraction The renal blood flow The venous return The pulse pressure 1088. 7 A reduction in carotid sinus pressure would cause a Heart rate Venous Myocardial Total peripheral Cardiac output decrease in which of the following compliance contractility resistance 1089. 7 Which one of the following organs has the highest arteriovenous O2 difference under normal resting conditions Brain Heart Skeletal muscle Kidney Stomach 1090. 7 Which one of the following characteristics is most similar in the systemic and pulmonary circulations? Stroke work Preload Afterload Peak systolic pressure Blood volume 1091. 7 Which one of the following values is greater in the pulmonary circulation than in the systemic circulation? The mean arterial pressure The vascular compliance The arterial resistance The blood flow The sympathetic tone 1092. 7 Which one of the following increases during aerobic exercise Diastolic blood pressure Cerebral vascular resistance Mixed venous oxygen tension Blood flow to the kidney Circulating blood volume 1093. 7 Flow of fluid through the lymphatic vessels will be decreased if there is an increase in which of the following? Capillary pressure Capillary oncotic pressure Capillary permeability Interstitial protein concentration Central venous pressure 1094. 7 Which one of the following will increase if massaging the neck stretches the carotid sinus baroreceptor Total peripheral resistance Vagal nerve activity Right atrial pressure Venous tone Ventricular contractility 1095. 7 During exercise, cardiac output is augmented by which of the following Sympathetic stimulation of resistance vessels Increased ventricular contractility Dilation of venous vessels Decreased enddiastolic volume Decreased mean systemic arterial pressure 1096. 7 A healthy, 25-year-old female medical student has an exercise stress test at a local health club. Which of the following is most likely to occur in this woman's skeletal muscles during exercise? Decreased blood flow Increased arteriolar diameter Decreased metabolite concentrations Increased oxygen concentration Increased vascular resistance 1097. 7 During surgical removal of an invasive glioma from the skull base, cranial nerves IX and X are accidentally cut bilaterally. What would be the immediate change in the patient's hemodynamic condition? Bradycardia with hypertension Tachycardia with hypertension Bradycardia with hypotension Sinus arrhythmia with hypotension Tachycardia with hypotension 1098. 7 In which segment of the systemic circulation does the greatest decrease in blood pressure occur? Aorta and large arteries Arterioles Capillaries Small arteries Vena cavae and large veins 1099. 7 During an experimental procedure, a cardiovascular researcher prepares his anesthetized animal subject forblood pressure and electrocardiogram monitoring. He then isolates and electrically stimulates glossopharyngeal afferent fibers that supply the carotid sinus. Which of the following changes would most likely occur in this subject? Hypertension with bradycardia Hypotension with bradycardia Hypertension with tachycardia Hypotension with tachycardia No changes in blood pressure or heart rate 1100. 7 During exercise there is an increase in a persons Diastolic pressure Stroke volume Pulmonary arterial pressure Pulmonary arterial risistance Total peripheral resistanse 1101. 7 Patient was injected by noradrenaline. Through which receptors it caused vasoconstriction? Betaadrenoreceptors Alpaadrenoreceptors N-cholinoreceptors Mcholinoreceptors H1-hystaminic receptors 1102. 7 Vessels constriction and dilation regulation processes are very important for organism proper functionning. Call hormone causing vasoconstriction: Aldosterone Noradrenaline Thyroxine Parathormone Glucagone 1103. 7 Cerebral blood flow is regulated by: Skin temperature An intrinsic autoregulatory mechanism ADH The hypothalamic ‘thermostat’ All answers are correct 1104. 7 Following a motor vehicle accident, a large loss of blood will initially cause: A higher BP due to an increased stroke volume A lowered BP due to a decreased cardiac output No change in BP but a slower heart rate No change in BP but an increased respiration rate All answers are correct 1105. 7 Cerebral blood flow is Reduced by high paccv Characterized by auto regulation Insensitive to PO2 Primarily under neural control Uniform throughout the brain 1106. 7 If a drug is given that acts specifically to constrict the arterioles in the systemic circulation Cardiac output will increase but mean arterial pressure will not be affected Cardiac output and central venous pressure will both decrease Cardiac output and mean arterial pressure will both decrease Cardiac output will decrease but central venous pressure will rise Mean arterial pressure and central venous pressure will both rise 1107. 7 When a person lying on a lilt table is shifted from a horizontal to an upright position, the cardiac output Arterial compliance Central venous pressure decreases Heart rate decreases The arteriovenous shunts in the splanchnic vessels Sympathetic nervous activity to decreases because decreases dilate the heart decreases 1108. 7 In metabolic regulation of blood flow Blood flow and arterial pressure are inversely related Blood flow and tissue metabolism arc directly related Blood flow and tissue metabolism are inversely related Blood flow is held constant during changes in tissue metabolism Basal vascular lone is unchanged when tissue metabolism is altered 1109. 7 In severe exercise Arterial oxygen levels fall Arleriovenous oxygen difference increases Capillary hydrostatic pressure decreases Pulse pressure decreases Stroke volume increases proportionately more than does heart rate 1110. 7 The most important factor in the regulation of coronary blood flow is the Extravascular compression of the coronary vessels Metabolic activity of the myocardium Activity of the cardiac sympathetic nerves Activity of the vagus nerves to the heari Coronary perfusion pressure 1111. 7 The less compliant arterial system in old people compared with young people Allows blood to flow through the capillaries al a more steadv rate Requires the heart to expend more energy to pump a normal cardiac output Prevents the arterial systolic pressure from attaining excessively high values Increases the total blood volume Decreases the mean arterial blood pressure 1112. 7 In the coronary circulation Parasympaihetic effects predominate over sympathetic neural effects on the vessels Venous oxygen content is one of the lowest in the body The epicardium and endocardium are equally vulnerable to reductions in coronary perfusion pressure Autoregulation does not occur Coronary blood flow to the left ventricle is greatest during ventricular systole 1113. 8 Out of the twenty three generation of passages from conducting zone of airways, gas exchange occurs in: 1 generation 7 generation 3 generation 5 generation 15 generation 1114. 8 Type II pneumocytes: Develop from type I pneumocytes Metabolise surfactant Are macrophages Are very flat and practically devoid of organelles All of the above 1115. 8 Type I pneumocytes: Give rise to Type II pneumocytes Are flat and minimal organelles Bind surfactant (receptors) on their brush border All of the above None of the above 1116. 8 The intrapleural pressure during quiet breathing at the start of inspiration: Increased from 2,5 mmHg to 6,0 mmHg Decreased from 2,5 mmHg to -6,0 mmHg Decreased from 6 mmHg to 2,5 mmHg Increased from -6 mmHg to -2,5 mmHg Increased from -6 mmHg to 2,5 mmHg. 1117. 8 The oxygen required by the respiratory muscles would be increased by all the following except: a decrease in lung compliance a decrease in airway resistance an increase in the rate of respiration a decrease in the production of pulmonary surfactant an increase in tidal volume. 1118. 8 A person starts to breathe into a 12-L spirometer containing 10% helium at the end of a passive expiration. If, after several minutes, the helium concentration in the spirometer falls to 8 %, this person's functional residual capacity (FRC) is approximately: 1L 3L 2L 4L 5L 1119. 8 The concentration of CO2 is lowest in: The anatomic dead space at end expiration The anatomic dead space at end inspiration The alveoli at end inspiration The alveoli at end expiration The blood in the pulmonary veins. 1120. 8 Functions of alveolar macrophages include all the following except: Phagocytosis of bacteria Secretion of surfactant Release of lysosomal enzymes into the alveolar space Transport of inhaled particles out of the alveoli Release of leukocyte chemotactic factors. 1121. 8 A deficiency of pulmonary surfactant would: Decrease surface tension in the alveoli Decrease lung compliance Decrease the change in intrapleural pressure required to achieve a given tidal volume Decrease the work of breathing Increase functional residual capacity (FRC) 1122. 8 The concentration of CO2 is lowest in: The anatomic dead space at end The anatomic dead space at end The alveoli at end inspiration The alveoli at end expiration The blood in the pulmonary veins. expiration inspiration 1123. 8 Which one of the following would increase in obstructive, but not in restrictive, pulmonary disorders? Vital capacity Functional residual capacity Maximum breathing capacity FEV1 Breathing frequency 1124. 8 Very small particles are removed from the respiratory system by which of the following: Bulk flow Phagocytosis Diffusion Expectoration Ciliary transport. 1125. 8 Which one of the following is higher at total lung capacity than it is at residual volume? Maximum static inspiratory pressure Anatomical dead space Lung compliance Airway resistance Alveolar pressure. 1126. 8 A spirometer can be used to directly measure which of the following: Functional residual capacity Inspiratory capacity Residual volume Total lung capacity Physiological dead space 1127. 8 A woman has a respiratory rate of 18, a tidal volume of 350 mL, and a dead space of 100 mL. What is her alveolar ventilation: 4.0 L 4.5 L 5.0 L 5.5 L 6.0 L. 1128. 8 Chronic cigarette smoking can produce all the following except: Emphysema Decreased anatomic dead space Atelectasis Carbon monoxyhemoglobi nemia “Morning coughing” 1129. 8 The anatomic differences that contribute to important functional differences between the bronchi and bronchioles are that Bronchioles have type 1 and type 2 squamous (thin, flat, pavement) epithelial cells, whereas the bronchi have columnar epithelium with cilia The bronchi are not directly attached to the connective tissue fibers of the lung tissue, whereas the bronchioles are directly embedded into the lung connective tissue structure The bronchiolar glands are situated directly beneath the lining epithelium (submucosa), whereas the glands of the bronchi are larger and external to the cartilage rings or plates The smooth muscle of the bronchi is arranged longitudinally (along the axis of the airway), whereas the smooth muscle of the bronchioles is arranged circularly or spirally around the lumen of the airway The pulmonary arteries and veins are always adjacent to the airways leading into and out of the ventilated lungs units they subserve 1130. 8 An 8-year-old normal girl (30-kg body weight) has a breathing frequency of 20/min at rest and a breath 0.6 L/min 1.6 L/min 0.25 L/min 2.4 L/min 3.2 L/min (tidal) volume of 80 ml. Her total ventilation is closest to 1131. 8 The principal function of the lungs is to ensure that: The hemoglobin in the erythrocytes leaving each lung unit is 100% saturated with oxygen Inspired air and pulmonary blood flow are distributed adequately to all lung units, so that gas exchange is accomplished with minimal energy expenditure Tissue cell oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide elimination are equal Each lung unit is perfused in proportion to its capillary blood volume and ventilated in proportion to its gas volume Diffusion into and out of blood is never rate limiting for oxygen uptake or carbon dioxide release 1132. 8 Normal inspiration is limited by: The breathing frequency, about 12/min in resting adult humans, which limits each breath to 5 seconds' duration Sensory feedback to the respiratory centers in the medulla (brain stem) from mechanoreceptors in the chest wall and lung and from various chemoreceptors sensitive to oxygen and carbon dioxide The rise of abdominal pressure as the diaphragm contraets The rise in pleura) pressure as lung volume increases The mechanical limits of the chest wall 1133. 8 A middle-aged man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (emphysema) has an arterial Pco2 = 57 mm Hg; the predicted normal value is 40 mm Hg at an alveolar ventilation of 4.3 L/min. If we assume the patient's CO2 production is normal (200 m l/min), alveolar ventilation is about 8.0 L/min 3.0 L/min 3.8 L/min 6.1 L/min 1.8 L/min 1134. 8 If the diaphragm contracts more vigorously, it is likely that the slowly adapting lung stretch receptor activity will: Be less than normal Be greater than normal Be the same as normal Cause the time for inspiration to lengthen Increase inspiratory volume 1135. 8 The exchange of gases between the lungs and lung capillaries is called: Internal respiration External respiration Ventilation Breathing Perfusion. 1136. 8 Dalton's Law describes: The principles of expansion The laws of partial pressures of gases The laws of temperature difference between partial gases The principles of temperature differences under water The principles of gas exchange 1137. 8 The partial pressure of oxygen in dry air at sea level: 363 mmHg 359 mmHg 349 mmHg 300 mmHg 50 mm Hg 1138. 8 The water vapor pressure of alveolar gas at a barometric 23.5 mmHg pressure of 380 mmHg is: 47.0 mmHg 76.0 mmHg 94.0 mmHg 305.0 mmHg 1139. 8 Which of the following will return toward normal during acclimatization to high altitude? Arterial carbon dioxide tension Arterial hydrogen ion concentration Arterial bicarbonate ion concentration Arterial hemoglobin concentration Alveolar ventilation 1140. 8 What is relted to acclimitisation to altitude: Hypoventilation Polycythemia Decreased cardiac output Oligocythemia Anemia 1141. 8 Peripheral chemoreceptors: Is similar to irritant receptors Have glomus cells Innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve In the vasomotor centre In the respiratory centre 1142. 8 Pulmonary arteriolar constriction can be caused by all the following except: Local O2 deficiency Increase in pH (local) Local accumulation of CO2 Systemic hypoxia NO 1143. 8 Pulmonary arteries are dilated by all the following except: Acetylcholine Adrenaline PGI2 Isoproterenol NO 1144. 8 Breaking point – the point at which no further voluntary inhibition of breathing is possible, is due to: Fall in PCO2 and PO2 Fall in PO2 and rise in PCO2 Rise in PCO2 and PO2 Rise in PO2 and fall in PCO2 Equal in PCO2 and PO2 1145. 8 The clinical sign of cyanosis is caused by which of the following: An increase in the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen An increase in the concentration of deoxygenated hemoglobin in the blood A decrease in the percent of red blood cells (hematocrit) An increase in the concentration of carbon monoxide in the venous blood A decrease in the concentration of iron in the red blood cells 1146. 8 Which one of the following gases diffuses across the alveoli-capillary membrane by a diffusion-limited transport process? Oxygen Carbon monoxide Nitrogen Carbon dioxide Nitrous oxide (N2O) 1147. 8 Which one of the following will decrease in a person with ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) abnormalities Anion gap Arterial carbon dioxide tension Arterial pH Alveolar-arterial (A-a) gradient for oxygen Alveolar ventilation. 1148. 8 Which one of the following is higher at the apex of the lung than at the base when a person is standing Blood flow ventilationperfusion (V/Q) ratio Ventilation PaCО2 Lung compliance. 1149. 8 Patients with chronic lung disease are often divided into those who are cyanotic and (those who are not cyanotic. The presence of cyanosis in blue bloaters but not in pink puffers results from difference in which of the following? Vital capacities V/Q ratios Airway resistances Total lung capacities Expiratory flow rates 1150. 8 The normal resting oxygen consumption of adult humans is determined by the: Fact that the P50 of adult human blood is normally 26 to 29 mm Hg, and therefore no more than 50% of total blood oxygen concentration is available for cellular oxidative metabolism Oxidative energy Ability of requirements of the pulmonary body's cells capillary blood to take up oxygen from alveolar gas in the time available (less than 3 second) for exchange Ability of tissue cells to extract oxygen from the capillary blood in the time available for exchange in the capillaries Fact that resting cardiac output is about 5 L/min, therefore blood flow to some organs is limited 1151. 8 In pulmonary edema caused by a toxic substance, plasma proteins enter the alveoli and inactivate the surface active material. This fixes alveolar surface tension at a constant value of 50 mN/cm. Which of the following statements regarding the pressure-volume curve of the lung best describes the new condition? The inflation limb of the air-filled curve will be displaced to the left (reduced translung pressure at any given lung The deflation limb of the air-filled curve will be displaced to the right (greater translung pressure at any given lung The compliance of the respiratory system will be increased The deflation limb of the liquid-filled curve will be displaced to the right (greater translung pressure at any given lung The inflation limb of the air-filled curve will be normal volume) volume) volume) 1152. 8 Given the following partial resistances of the large and small airways, Rlarge = 3.5 and Rsmal = 0.7 cm, H2O × sec/L, respectively, the total airway resistance is closest to : 3.6 2.2 0.8 0.5 0.4 1153. 8 A woman is brought to the intensive care unit at her community hospital. Chest radiographs show that her entire right lung (55% total lung mass) is consolidated (un ventilated) as a result of bacterial pneumonia. Her lips, fingernail beds, and skin are blue (cyanotic). Subsequent measurements reveal arterial oxygen tension = 50 mm Hg (O2 saturation = 85%) and mixed venous oxygen tension = 30 mm Hg (O2 saturation = 57%), even though the patient is breathing 300% O2. Cardiac output = 7 L/min. The patient's venous admixture is approximately (ignore any correction due to dissolved O2 in blood) 3.8 L/min 2.5 L/min 6.0 L/min 35% of cardiac output 55% of cardiac output 1154. 8 The local perfusion of ventilation units is regulated mainly by The production of nitric oxide by lung endolhe-lium Alveolar O2 tension The production and release of pro Stacy cl in from lung endothelium The production and release of thromboxane Alveolar CO2 tension 1155. 8 If alveolar oxygen tension equals 300 mm Hg and if the hemoglobin-oxygen equilibrium curve is shifted 30 mm Hg to the right as a result of acidosis (increased hydrogen ion concentration in blood), which of the following is the most likely to be the systemic arterial oxygen tension? Assume that the individual is otherwise normal. 90 mmHg 300 mmHg 330 mmHg 99% 95% 1156. 8 The blood hemoglobin concentration is 75 g/L in a 29year-old woman who sleeps with three children in an inadequately ventilated room heated by a small kerosene stove. Which of the following condition will Hiperventilation Dyspnoe Norapnoe Pachipnoe Apnoе be? 1157. 8 In the absence of carbonic anhydrase, the rate of carbonic acid (H2CO3) dissociation into water and CO2 in pulmonary capillary blood is too slow to reach a steady state with respect to alveolar Pco2 in the time available for blood transit (< 3 sec). Which of the following blood gas relations is most nearly correct? Alveolar ventilation will fall Arterial Pco2 will rise above alveolar Pco2 Alveolar ventilation will remain constant Arterial Pco2 will be the same as alveolar Pco2, but the blood bicarbonate concentration will be lower than the alveolar gas bicarbonate concentration Arterial Pco2 will fall below alveolar Pco2 1158. 8 In skeletal muscle during exercise, the number of capillaries being perfused may be three times the resting number. One major consequence of having more capillaries with blood flow is that The diffusion path from blood to mitochondria is increased The diffusing capacity of the muscle capillary network is increased at least threefold Skeletal muscle vascular resistance is markedly decreased, which accounts for the large increase in flow Tissue oxygen consumption is decreased Tissue oxygen consumption is increased 1159. 8 What prevents the lungs from overfilling during normal respiratory movements? Carotid chemoreceptors The Hering-Bruer reflex Aortic arch baroreceptors Depletion of surfactant All of above 1160. 8 Which biologically active substances are partially degraded by the lung? Surfactant Noradrenaline Histamine Angiotensin None of the above 1161. 8 Peripheral and central chemoreceptors may both contribute to the increased ventilation that occurs as a result of: A decrease in arterial oxygen content An increase in arterial carbon dioxide tension A decrease in arterial blood pressure A decrease in arterial oxygen tension An increase in arterial pH 1162. 8 Complete transection of the brainstem above the pons would: Result in cessation of all breathing movements Prevent any voluntary holding of breath Prevent the central chemorecep-tors from exerting any control over ventilation Prevent the peripheral chemore-ceptors from exerting any control over ventilation Abolish the heringbreuer reflex. 1163. 8 Enzymes within the lung are responsible for the activation of which of the following? Bradykinin Angiotensin II Prostaglandins Serotonin Leukotrienes 1164. 8 The activity of the central chemoreceptors is stimulated by which of the following? A decrease in the PO2 of blood flowing through the brain An increase in the PCO2 of blood flowing through the brain A decrease in the oxygen content of blood flowing through the brain A decrease in the metabolic rate of the surrounding brain tissue An increase in the pH of the CSF 1165. 8 Which one of the following is the most likely cause of a high arterial PCO2: Increased metabolic activity Depressed medullary respiratory centers Increased alveolar dead space Alveolar capillary block Increased alveolar ventilation 1166. 8 Which of the following will increase as a result of stimulating parasympathetic nerves to the bronchial smooth muscle? Lung compliance Bronchoconstrictio n Elastic work of breathing Bronchodilatation Anatomic dead space 1167. 8 An increase in altitude causes a decrease in gas exchange efficiency because: Less blood circulates through the lungs There is a decrease in oxygen pressure, therefore less of a gradient into the lungs during inspiration The surface area of the alveoli decrease There are fewer red blood cells in the blood at high altitudes At high altitudes, evil spirits inhibit vital processes of the body 1168. 8 Hyperventilation in response to a stressful situation leads to which of the following? An increase in the activity of the central chemoreceptors A decrease in the blood flow to the brain A decrease in pH of the arterial blood An increase in the resistance of the pulmonary blood vessels A decrease in the excitability of nerve and muscle cells. 1169. 8 Peripheral chemoreceptors: Is similar to irritant receptors Have glomus cells Innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve In the vasomotor centre In the respiratory centre. 1170. 8 The respiratory rate after exercise does not reach basal level until: 15 min O2 debt is repaid 30 min 90 min PCO2 return to normal 1171. 8 Breating stops if spinal cord is cut at the level: Below origin of phrenic nerve Above the level of phrenic nerve origin At the level of T2 At the level of T12 At the level of L2 1172. 8 If the arterial blood Pco2 = 80 mm Hg,[HCO3-] = 32 mEq/L, and Po2 = 100 mm Hg, it is likely that: The subject is in a coma because the rcticular activating system is switched off The medullary chemoreceptors are stimulated The medullary chemoreceptors are not stimulated or are depressed because the bicarbonate concentration in arterial blood is high The carotid body chemoreceptors are not stimulated or are depressed The carotid body chemoreceptors are maximally stimulated 1173. 8 The partial pressures of oxygen and CO2 interact in arterial blood and brain in such a manner that Hypercapnia decreases ventilation when inspired oxygen concentration is normal In hypoxemia, the slope of the CO2ventilation doseresponse curve is reduced In hypoxemia, the slope of the CO2ventiIalion doseresponse curve is not affected Hypercapnia permits ventilation to increase more when inspired oxygen is reduced than when CO2 is absent from inspired air The threshold Pco2 of the CO2ventilation doseresponse curve is decreased when inspired oxygen concentration is increased 1174. 9 How many hours after a meal is basal metabolic rate (BMR) measured? 1 hour 12 hours 2 hours 6 hours 18 hours. 1175. 9 The basal metabolic rate is determined primarily: Hydrocortisone Thyroxine Insulin Growth hormone Epinephrine 1176. 9 The basal metabolic rate (BMR) increases with all the following except: Anxiety Advancing age Body surface area Increased environmental temperature Reduced environmental temperature 1177. 9 Metabolic rate is increased least with: Exercise Increased CNS activity Specific dynamic action of food Hot climate Cold climate 1178. 9 A man with a respiratory quotient (RQ) of 70: Has been eating a high-fat diet Has been fasting for 24 hours Has been eating a high-protein diet Has eaten carbohydrates for 24 hours Is dehydrated. 1179. 9 Heat production is mostly due to: Na-k-atpase pump Skeletal muscle activity Dynamic action of food Vasodilatation Mental activity\ 1180. 9 Decreased heat production under general anaesthesia is due to: Decreased anterior pituitary function Decreased skeletal muscle tone Vasodilatation Starvation Decreased na-katpase activity 1181. 9 A low respiratory quotient in a septic patient is due to: Increased lactic acid Fat metabolism Increased ventilation Fever Hypoxaemia 1182. 9 The set-point of temperature of an adult is approximately 37,1C. This: Is fixed in individuals Decreases with anaesthesia Parallels skin temperature Decreases with exercise All of the above 1183. 9 The set-point in temperature regulation controls the body’s response to changes in temperature. The location of sensory receptors which regulates the setpoint is: Anterior hypothalamus Posterior hypothalamus Spinal cord Skin Great veins 1184. 9 In thermoregulation all statements are true except: Brown fat is an important source of heat production in neonates Peripheral vasoconstriction decreases heat production Shivering is due to impulses conducted via autonomic efferents Sweating is mediated by sympathetic cholinergic neurons Respiratory heat loss is insignificant under normal conditions 1185. 9 In the body, metabolism of 10 g of protein would produce approximately: 1 kcal 41 kcal 410 kcal 4100 kcal 41 cal 1186. 9 The energy value of 1g of carbohydrate is: 3 kcal 4 kcal 5 kcal 7 kcal 9 kcal 1187. 9 Gluconeogenic substances include which of the following, except: Alanine Glycerol Lactate Two – carbon Vit. B1 fragments from fatty acid oxidation 1188. 9 Glucagon has a number of important biochemical and physiologic effects including: Stimulation of insulin secretion All is correct. Lipolysis Glycogenolysis Stimulation of somatostatin secretion 1189. 9 The major lipoprotein source of the cholesterol used in cells is Chylomicrons LDL Intermediatedensity lipoproteins (IDL) Albumin-bound free fatty acids HDL 1190. 9 Which of the following producers the most high-energy phosphate compounds? Aerobic metabolism of l Metabolism of l mol of long chain Anaerobic metabolism of l Metabolism of l mol of glucose Metabolism of l mol of amino acid mol of glucose fatty acid mol of glucose 1191. 9 Which of the following would not produce an increase in the plasma level of free fatty acids? A drug that increases the level of intracellular camp A drug that inhibits hormonesensitive lipase A drug that activates β3 – adrenergic receptors A drug that decreases the metabolic clearance of glucagon A drug that inhibits phosphodiesterase. 1192. 9 When LDL enters cells by receptor – mediated endocytosis, which of the following does not occur? Decrease in the formation of cholesterol from mevalonic acid Increase in the intracellular concentration of cholesteryl esters Increase in the tranfer of cholesterol from the cell to HDL Decrease in the rate of synthesis of LDL receptors Decrease in the cholesterol in endosomes 1193. 9 Which of the following does not increase the output of glucose from the liver? Induction of phosphorylase Insulin Glucagon Increased intracellular protein kinase A Epinephrine. 1194. 9 What deficit is the most closely associated with spina bifida? Vit. C Folic acid Vit. B Vit. K Uric acid 1195. 9 Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin? Vitamin A Vitamin B Vitamin D Vitamin E Vitamin K 1196. 9 A lowering of blood glucose concentration promotes: Decreased lipogenesis All of the above Increased lipolysis Increased glycogenolysis None of the above 1197. 9 Glucose can be secreted into the blood by: The muscles The liver The liver and muscles The liver, muscles, and brain Pancreas 1198. 9 Somatomedins are required for the anabolic effects of: Hydrocortisone Growth hormone Insulin Thyroxine Epinephrine 1199. 9 At rest, about 12% of the total calories consumed are used for : Cell transport Protein synthesis The Na+/K+ pumps Dna replication None of the above 1200. 9 Which of the following hormones stimulates anabolism of proteins and catabolism of fat? Thyroxine Growth hormone Insulin Glucagon Epinephrine 1201. 9 Which of the following statements about leptin is false? It is secreted by adipocytes It stimulates the release of neuropeptide Y in It increases the energy expenditure of the body It promotes feelings of satiety, decreasing food None of the above the hypothalamus intake 1202. 9 Which of the following daily intakes (in grams) of carbohydrates (C), protein (P), and fat (F) would be best for a healthy 80-kg male construction worker? C: 420, P: 80, F: 125 C: 550, P: 80, F: 65 C: 420, P: 130, F: 100 C: 325, P: 80, F:65 C: 340, P:50, F:65 1203. 9 The major lipoprotein source of the cholesterol used in cells is: Chylomicrons Ldl Intermediatedensity lipoproteins (IDL) Albumin-bound free fatty acids HDL 1204. 9 Which of the following producers the most high-energy phosphate compounds? Aerobic metabolism of l mol of glucose Metabolism of l mol of longchain fatty acid Anaerobic metabolism of l mol of glucose Metabolism of l mol of glucose Metabolism of l mol of amino acid 1205. 9 Which of the following producer the most glucose when metabolized in the body? 1 mol of serotonin 1 mol of thyroxine (T4) 1 mol of alanine 1 mol of oleic acid 1 mol of acetoacetic acid. 1206. 9 All following are true for ingested lipid except: Increases in the faeces with a decrease in bile secretion Is not important in prostaglandin synthesis Is absorbed via the intestinal lymphatics Is mainly in the form of triglycerides Can be used as a source of atp production 1207. 9 The functions of lipids include all except: Acting as a storage of metabolic reserves Transporting glucose across membranes Providing protection for organs such as the kidney Preventing cell injury Acting as hormones and vitamins 1208. 9 The advantage to the human body to use triglycerides as one form of metabolic energy is because: Direct access to mitochondria in cardiac muscle Interconvertability with glucose in liver Easily transported in blood as a complex with albumin Fully reduced structure and anhydrous storage in adipose Immediate precursor of ketone bodies in skeletal muscle 1209. 9 In protein deficiency, water accumulates in the intracellular spaces, the condition is known as: Edema Kwashiorkor Anemia Marasmus Spongy disease 1210. 10 The following statements are true in relation to saliva except that it: Contains an enzyme which is essential for complete digestion Has important lubricating action Has antiseptic action Maintains mouth pH around 7 Helps in speech of starch 1211. 10 Saliva: Waterly secretion is increased by parasympathetic stimulation Is primarily under hormonal control Has larger proportion of Na+ in response to aldosterone administration Has less proportion Waterly secretion of ketone bodies in is increased by diabetic ketosis sympathetic stimulation 1212. 10 Which of the following statements is incorrect? Saliva: Is essential for the complete digestion of starch Prevents dental caries Helps in deglutition Is a well buffered Prevents solution that tends decalcification of to maintain a pH of the teeth 7.0 in the mouth 1213. 10 Parasympathetic stimulation to salivary glands causes: Enhanced transport activity of the ductal epithelium Increased synthesis and secretion of ptyalin and mucins Increased blood flow to the glands Enhanced glandular metabolism and growth Increased viscosity of saliva 1214. 10 Salivary secretion increases: More by bitter food than sweet one When sympathetic nerves supplying the glands are stimulated During motion sickness Just before vomiting All of the above 1215. 10 Appetite for food: Increases if blood glucose level falls Independs upon the type of food Decreases if lateral hypothalamic area is stimulated Is increased if fever present Decreases if blood glucose level falls 1216. 10 Oesophagus at rest is: Closed at the top and the bottom Open at top Open at bottom Open at top and bottom Contracted throughout its length 1217. 10 Oesophageal peristalsis: Can occur in the absence of a swallow Is abolished by vagotomy Is under hormonal control Moves a bolus by decreasing pressure in front of it Is not effective for liquids 1218. 10 The lower oesophageal sphincter: Has a resting tone that maintains pressure below Is a distinct ring of circular muscle Relaxes before a bolus arise Is primarily under hormonal control Consists of striated muscle atmospheric 1219. 10 Gastric acid secretion is decreased by: Vagal inhibition Luminal peptides & amino acids Noradrenaline M1 cholinergic antagonist same efficacy at reducing gastric acid secretion Distension of bowel wall 1220. 10 As the masticated food passes through oesophagus: All of the above Cardiac sphincter constricts Stomach shows receptive relaxation Pyloric sphincter relaxes Duodenum constricts 1221. 10 Tlie carbohydrates in oral cavity are hydrolysed by the following enzyme: Amylase Lactase Maltase Sucrase Alpha-dextrinase. 1222. 10 Small gut contractions: Are enhanced by parasympahetic activity Are absent in fasted man Are primary propulsive in fed man May occur only in postprandial time Are triggered by slow waves 1223. 10 The upper one third portion of small intestine can absorb most of the following except: Triglicerides. Vit B12 Bile salts Electrolites Neutral amino acids and glucose 1224. 10 The carbohydrates in small gut are hydrolysed by the following enzymes except: Ptyalin Lactase Maltase Sucrase Alpha-dextrinase 1225. 10 Swallowing reflexes begin when receptors are stimulated by food in this structure. Pharynx Oral cavity Stomach Teeth Esophagus 1226. 10 The propulsive function that occurs in the esophagus is called Peristalsis Swallowing Segmentation Defecation Ingestion 1227. 10 Which sequence below represents the correct layering of the wall of the GI tract beginning with the layer next to the lumen? Mucosa submucosa muscularis externa - serosa Muscularis externa - serosa submucosa mucosa Submucosa mucosa muscularis externa - serosa Serosa - mucosa muscularis externa - submucosa Mucosa muscularis externa - submucosa serosa 1228. 10 The short reflexes in the digestive system are stimulated by The enteric plexuses Higher brain centers The parasympathetic system The sympathetic system None of the above 1229. 10 Lingual lipase is present in Saliva Bile Taste buds Gastric secretion None of the above 1230. 10 The "mucosal barrier" involves all of the following mechanisms except Secretions from chief cells Replacement of damaged gastric mucosal cells by the division of undifferentiated stem cells in the gastric pits A thick coat of bicarbonate-rich mucus coating of the gastric wall Tight junctions between the epithelial cells of the stomach mucosa None of the above 1231. 10 How does the autonomic nervous system affect salivary secretory rate? Salivary secretory rate is increased in response to parasympathetic and sympathetic stimulation. Salivary secretory rate is decreased in response to parasympathetic and sympathetic stimulation. Salivary secretory rate is increased in response to parasympathetic stimulation and decreased in response to sympathetic stimulation. Salivary secretory rate is decreased in response to parasympathetic stimulation and increased in response to sympathetic stimulation. None of the above 1232. 10 In the study of man smeared the tip of the tongue 1% lidocaine. Loss of which taste sensation will the patient lose? Sweet Bitter Sour Salt Bitter and salty 1233. 10 Which statement most accurately describes the activity of olfactory receptors? Are important for assessing taste in the mouth Slowly adapting There epithelial cells that form synapses with lower-lying nerves Associated with secondary neurons in the thalamus coming Do not show any of these signs 1234. 10 The man burns the tip of his tongu. Perception of which taste stimuli will suffer the most? Sweet Sour Salty Sour and salty Bitter 1235. 10 Olfactory receptor cells are Bipolar neuroepithelial cells Epithelial cells which synapse with the primary afferent olfactory nerve Specialised nerve endings Oligodendrocytes Typical sensory neurones 1236. 10 The sense of smell requires that the gas molecule has some water solubility because The receptors are embedded in an aqueous environment The nasal mucosa is composed of lipids Gas must pass through ion channels All gas are charged ions Cells are 90% water 1237. 10 The threshold for the detection of odors is ___ and adaptation to odors occurs ____. Low, quickly High, slowly High, quickly Low, slowly High, very fast 1238. 10 The axons of the olfactory neurons pass through the foramina of the _____ to synapse with mitral or tufted cells in the ____. Cribiform plate, olfactory bulb Cribiform plate, olfactory tract Nasal bone, olfactory tract Nasal bone, olfactory bulb Olfactory tract, cribiform plate 1239. 10 Which cells proliferate to replace lost olfactory cells? Basal cells Mitral cells Olfactory hairs Tufted cells Olfactory bulbs 1240. 10 Which of the following is NOT true of olfactory neurons? Olfactory neurons are uni-polar neurons Olfactory neurons have receptors that react with odorants dissolved in fluid The olfactory neurons synapse with cells in the olfactory bulb The axons of the olfactory neurons combine to form the olfactory nerves All answers are correct 1241. 10 Which region of the olfactory cortex is involved in conscious perception of smell? Lateral olfactory area Intermediate olfactory area Medial olfactory area Superior olfactory a Olfactory area 1242. 10 Which region of the olfactory cortex is connected to the limbic system? Medial olfactory area Lateral olfactory area Intermediate olfactory area Superior olfactory area Posterior olfactory area 1243. 10 Which type of papillae have no taste buds associated with them? Filiform Circumvallate Foliate Fungiform None of the above 1244. 10 Which type of papillae have the most sensitive taste buds associated with them? Foliate Filiform Circumvallate Fungiform None of the above 1245. 10 How many primary tastes have been identified? 5 4 7 10 400 1246. 10 Which of the following cranial nerves does not transmit taste sensation? Trigeminal (V) nerve Facial (VII) nerve Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve Vagus (X) nerve Olfactory (I) nerve 1247. 10 Identify the location of the taste area of the cortex. Postcentral gyrus Precentral gyrus Thalamus Temporal lobe Hipothalamus 1248. 10 Which of the following primary tastes do not cause depolarization of the gustatory through a G protein mechanism? Salty Sweet Bitter Umami Sour 1249. 10 Which taste sensation is the most sensitive? Bitter Salty Sweet Umami Sour 1250. 10 Dumping syndrome is mostly due to: Exaggerated fluctuation of blood glucose Considerable rise in plasma kinin levels Marked increased in lipid content of faeces Increased secretion of pancreatic juice All of the above 1251. 10 The followings are some of the gastrointestinal hormones except: Chymotrypsin CCK-PZ GIP Motilin Villikinin 1252. 10 Vitamin B12 deficiency may result from: Total gastrectomy or ileal resection. High dietary intake of phosphates Inadequate intake of fresh fruits and green leafy vegetables Total gastrectomy Following ileal resection 1253. 10 The followings are true for stomach except that it: Secretes enzymes like trypsin, amylase Responds to an increase in its contents from 6001600 mL with less than 5 mm Hg increase in pressure Shows process of receptive relaxation during deglutition Contains a pacemaker near its cardiac portion Empties more rapidly in response to liquid than to solid diet 1254. 10 Gastric secretions: All of the above Are enhanced by were thought of food Improve on eating the food Are stimulated by histamlne injection Contain factor which helps in Vit. B12 absorption 1255. 10 The hormone mainly acting on stomach is: Gastrin Pancreozymin Secretin Bombesin VIP 1256. 10 Which of the following hormones is involved in the initiation of the migrating motor complex: Motilin Gastrin Secretin Cholecystokinin Enterogastrone 1257. 10 Patient undergoes a gastrectomy and doctor informs her that she will need to take vitamin B12 for the rest of her life. Absence of which of the following cell types is Parietal cells Chief cells G cells Goblet cells Mucous neck cells responsible for this vitamin replacement requirement? 1258. 10 Which of the following paracrine secretions is responsible for inhibiting gastric acid secretion: Somatostatin Histamine Enterogastrone Pepsin Enterooxyntin 1259. 10 The rate of gastric emptying increases with an increase in which of the following: Intragastric volume Intraduodenal volume Fat content of duodenum Osmolality of duodenum Acidity of duodenum 1260. 10 Basal acid output is increased by which of the following? Alkalinization of the antrum Acidification of the antrum Administration of an H2 receptor antagonist Vagotomy Acidification of the duodenum. 1261. 10 Which one of the following processes applies to the proximal stomach: Accommodation Peristalsis Retropulsion Segmentation Trituration 1262. 10 A patient undergoes a total gastrectomy because of a proximally located gastric cancer. After the surgery, which of the following digestive enzymes will be produced in inadequate amounts? Pepsin Amylase Chymotrypsin Lipase Trypsin 1263. 10 Withdrawal from chronic administration of an antisecretory compound is followed by rebound gastric acid hypersecretion. Which drug could account for the observed result: A proton pump inhibitor A H1 receptor antagonist A cholinergic receptor antagonist An antacid A CCKB receptor antagonist 1264. 10 Gastric emptying is slowest after consuming: High fat meal High protein meal Alcohol Prokinetics Carbohydrates 1265. 10 Which of the following is the principal paracrine secretion involved in the inhibitory feedback regulation of gastric acid secretion: Somatostatin Gastrin Histamine Enterogastrone Acetylcholine 1266. 10 Zollinger-Ellison syndrome patients experience severe, intractable peptic ulcer disease due to gastric acid hypersecretion. The cause of the increased acid output is increased plasma levels of which of the following: Gastrin Secretin Somatostatin VIP Motilin 1267. 10 Speed of delivery of nutrients from stomach to small intestine: CHO>protein>fat CHO>fat>protein Protein>CHO>fat Fat >CHO>protein Fat>protein>CHO. 1268. 10 After ingestion of a meal: Digestion of fat and carbohydrate begins in the mouth while protein digestion begins in the stomach Carbohydrate in the mouth and protein in the stomach Protein in mouth and fats and carbohydrate in stomach Most fluid and electrolytes are absorbed in the large bowel Composition of the food has no effect on transit time through the bowel 1269. 10 The macrolide antibiotic erythromycin is associated with gastrointestinal disturbances related to increased motility. The antibiotic works by binding to receptors on nerves and smooth muscle that recognize which of the following gastrointestinal hormones: Motilin Gastrin Secretin Cholecystokinin Enteroglucagon 1270. 10 Which of the following gastrointestinal hormones is involved in initiation of migrating motor complexes? Motilin Gastrin Enterooxyntin Somatostatin Secretin 1271. 10 During deglutition, the bolus passes into the stomach from the esophagus through the Gastroesophageal sphincter Pyloric sphincter Urethral sphincter Ileocecal valve Esophageal sphincter 1272. 10 During the intestinal phase of gastric regulation, The stomach is Hormones reduce initially stimulated, chief cell activity and later inhibited The gastroenteric reflex reduces stomach activity Secretin causes more hcl release The enterogastric reflex is turned off 1273. 10 What is the main organic molecule digested in the stomach? Proteins Sugars Lipids Carbohydrates Nucleic acids 1274. 10 Which regulatory chemical stimulates gastric gland activity and motility? Gastrin Histamine Vasoactive peptide Secretin Cholecystokinin 1275. 10 Which substance or occurrence would directly decrease gastric activity? Distention of duodenum Defecation Gastrocolic reflex Site and smell of food Insulin activity 1276. 10 Which of the following products does the stomach produce? HCl and intrinsic factor Mucous and amylase Bile and trypsin Pepsinogen and secretin Only secretin 1277. 10 Which of the following cells produce HCl? Parietal cells G cells Enteroendocrine cells Chief cells Mucous cells 1278. 10 The only stomach function that is essential to life is The secretion of intrinsic factor The secretion of pepsinogen Mechanical digestion The presence of hcl All answers are correct 1279. 10 The ___________ phase of gastric secretion is considered a conditioned reflex. Cephalic Gastric Intestinal Esophageal Esophageal and intestinal 1280. 10 Which of the following would not directly stimulate the secretion of gastrin? A low ph of gastric content Partially digested proteins Alkalinity Caffeine Gastrin 1281. 10 HCl secretion is stimulated by the binding of all of the following substances except Norepinephrine Histamine Gastrin Acetylcholine Secretin 1282. 10 You have sat down to a scrumptious meal consisting of a spinach salad, a juicy piece of very lean filet mignion (16 oz.), a baked potato with generous gobs of butter and sour cream, and a fine glass of a robust wine. Which of the following represents the BEST order in which the above items are sequentially emptied from the stomach? Wine, potato, filet mignion, butter Fillet mignion, Wine, filet potato, wine, butter mignion, potato, butter Potato, filet mignion, butter, wine Potato, wine, butter, filet mignion 1283. 10 A 38 year old male walks into your office complaining of abdominal pain. An upper GI series revealed the presence of a gastric ulcer. Gastrin levels are 74 pg/ml (normal range is 50 to 150 pg/ml). Hydrochloric acid levels are 2mmoles/hr (normal range is 1 to 5 mmoles/hr). Blood analysis reveals elevated levels of macrophages and other immunocytes. From the given information, this individual is most likely suffering from ___________ which is best treated with__________. Chronic Superficial Gastritis antibiotics Crohns’s Disease somatostatin Celiac Disease opiates H. Pylori infection - omeprazole Gluten enteropathy - ipecac 1284. 10 Which one of the following statements is incorrect: Biliary secretion is 2500 ml/day Daily salivary secretion is about 1500 ml Gastric secretion per day is about 2000 ml Per day production of pancreatic juice is about 1500 ml Intestinal secretions are about 1500 ml/day 1285. 10 Man is unable to digest: Cellulose Dextrin Glycogen Lactose Galactose 1286. 10 Which of the following hormones is involved in the Motilin Gastrin Secretin Cholecystokinin Enterogastrone initiation of the migrating motor complex: 1287. 10 Removal of proximal segments of the small intestine results in a decrease in which of the following: Pancreatic enzyme secretion Basal acid output Maximal acid output Gastric emptying of liquids Gastric emptying of solids 1288. 10 During a fast, a brief phase of intense sequential contractions begins in the stomach and gradually migrates to the ileum. Release of which of the following intestinal hormones is most likely responsible for this observed effect? Motilin Cholecystokinin Gastrin Gastrin-releasing peptide Secretin 1289. 10 Which of the following is characterized bile: Bile salts contribute to the solubility of cholesterol in the bile Contains bilirubin mainly in the unconjugated form Contributes more than pancreatic secretion to the neutralisation of acid from the stomach Becomes more alkaline following concentration in the gall bladder Is produced at a rate of approximately 2000 ml/day 1290. 10 The liver has all activities except: Has its highest oxygen tension at the centre of a lobule Receives most of its oxygen supply from the portal vein Produces heparin Has a normal portal venous pressure of smaler than 20 mmhg Receives approximately 25% of the cardiac output 1291. 10 After secretion of trypsinogen into the duodenum, the enzyme is converted into its active form, trypsin, by which of the following? Enteropeptidase Procarboxypeptida se Pancreatic lipase Previously secreted trypsin An alkaline pH 1292. 10 Which of the following hormones is most important in the initiation of gallbladder contraction following a fatty meal? CCK Gastrin GIP Secretin VIP 1293. 10 Biochemical analysis of a duodenal aspirate after a meal reveals a deficiency of enterokinase. The levels of which of the following digestive enzymes would be affected? Trypsin Amylase Colipase Lactase Pepsin 1294. 10 Release of which of the following peptides leads to an increase in the secretion of pancreatic enzymes into the Cholecystokinin Gastrin Motilin Secretin Somatostatin. small intestine? 1295. 10 Patient with episodic abdominal pain notes that the pain increases after the ingestion of a fatty meal. The action of which of the following hormones is responsible for the postprandial intensification of symptoms? Cholecystokinin Gastrin Pepsin Secretin Somatostatin. 1296. 10 Biochemical analysis of a duodenal aspirate after a meal reveals a deficiency of enterokinase. The levels of which of the following digestive enzymes would be affected? Trypsin Amylase Colipase Lactase Pepsin 1297. 10 In fat digestion: Pancreatic lipase in Bile salts are the the duodenum is most efficient the most important emulsifiers Gastric lipase is the most important Digestion takes place in micelles Micelles attach to enterocyte receptor 1298. 10 Release of which one of the following increases the pH of duodenal contents? Secretin Gastrin Intrinsic factor Cholecystokinin Gastrin releasing peptide. 1299. 10 Functions of the liver include all except: Renin synthesis. Protein metabolism Defence Glycogenolysis Homeostasis support 1300. 10 Glucagon has all functions except: Stimulates glycogen synthesis. Is a positive inotrope Is produced by the alpha cells of the pancreas Stimulates production of free fatty acids in the blood Ts release is increased in starvation 1301. 10 In order to prevent self-digestion of the pancreas activation of pancreatic proteases occurs in the Duodenum Liver Gallbladder Stomach Pancreas 1302. 10 The stimulus for the release of pancreatic enzymes is The presence of chyme containing proteins and fats in the duodenum Secretin Gastrin. Gastric distention. Bile salts. 1303. 10 Which of the following secretagogues or conditions is most likely to stimulate the secretion of cholecystokinin (CCK) from the duodenal mucosa? Glucose High pH Free fatty acids Amino acids Hypotonicity 1304. 10 Which gastrointestinal function is not caused by cholecystokinin? Increased rate of gastric emptying Contraction of the bladder Increased secretion of pancreatic juice rich in digestive enzymes Potentiation of secretin-induced pancreatic secretion rich in bicarbaonate Potentiation of secretin-induced bile production 1305. 10 What type of food begins the digestion process in the small intestine? Fats Sugars Proteins Starches Vitamins 1306. 10 What are the functions of the intestinal juices? To continue breaking down starches and proteins To begin breaking down fats To begin breaking down starches and proteins To break down vitamins and minerals To break down minerals 1307. 10 Blood vessels in the large intestine absorb: Minerals and water Protein Bile Starches Proteins 1308. 10 The mucosa of the large intestine is characterized by All of the above Many lymphatic nodules and cells in the lamina propria Numerous goblet cells and intestinal glands Lack of intestinal villi Numerous goblet cells 1309. 10 Production of bile is one of several important functions of the Iver Pancreas Small intestine Gallbladder Large intestine 1310. 10 Bile is stored and concentrated in the Gallbladder Liver Biliary apparatus Duodenum Large intestine 1311. 10 The presense of chime within the small intestine will lead to all the fallowing except An increase in secretion of gastric acid A decrease in the rate of gastric emptying Contraction of the gallbladder An increase in intestinal segmentation Pancreatic secretion of bicarbonate 1312. 10 Which is enzyme deficiency the cause of incomplete digestion of fats in the digestive tract and increase the number of neutral fat in the stools? Pancreatic lipase Hepatic lipase Gastric lipase Lipase Escherichia Enterokinase 1313. 10 The duodenum was removed in the patient. To reduce the secretion of the hormone which is lead? Cholecystokinin and seretine Gastrin Histamine Gastrin and histamine Neurotenzine 1314. 10 Which one of the following statement is incorrect: More proteins in the faeces come Dietary fibre content improves An increase in the Constipation is cellulose content in associated with A person who does not defaecate once from bacteria than from diet bulk of faeces diet tends to cause an increase in the frequency of bowel movements symptoms of headache, loss of appetite and restlessness, all of which are due to absorption of toxins from the faeces a day is not considered as constipated and unhealthy. 1315. 10 The digestion and absorption of medium and short chain triglycerides involve: Intraluminal and membrane digestion Emulsiflcation Lipolysis Mucosal uptake Lymphatic delivery 1316. 10 Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur with excess fluid loss from which of the following: Stomach Ileum Colon Pancreas Liver 1317. 10 Lactose content of milk for lactose-intolerant people can be decreased using insolubilized : Lactose synthatase Beta galactosidase Hexokinase Phosphoglucomuta se Glucokinase 1318. 10 In the intestinal chyme, final sugars normally found are: Glucose and fructose Galactose and xylose Mannose Xylose and ribose Mannose and xylose 1319. 10 Which of the following statement in relation to small intestine is incorrect: The small gut is connected to the large gut at the jujenocaecal junction It is about3 meter long Usually 50% of the digestion and absorption is over by the time chyme reaches the ileum The chyme received from the stomach usually remains the small gut for over 2 hours Glucose absorption can occur against concentration gradient in the small gut 1320. 10 Micelle are necessary for normal absorption of following except: Vitamin K Medium-chain fatty acid Long chain Long chain fatty acid Dietary cholesterol monoglicerids 1321. 10 The upper one third portion of small intestine can absorb most of the following except: Triglicerides. Vit B12 Bile salts Electrolites Neutral amino acids and glucose 1322. 10 Iron absorption in intestine is: Dependent upon iron excretion Enhanced by convershion of ferrous to ferric Improved by biles Regulated in accordance with the body's need for Depressed by gastric secretions. form iron 1323. 10 Succus entericus contains: A substance which activates trypshogen Enzymes which break down starch Enzymes which convert monosachharides into simpler molecules Electrolites having similar concentration as a blood None of be above 1324. 10 In the small intestine, glucose is absorbed: In combination with sodium Passively By facilitated diffusion By co-transport with chloride Actively by insulin dependent uptake 1325. 10 Calcium uptake in the intestine: Requires a carrier protein on the mucosal side Is passive Is by facilitated diffusion Is less than 10% dietary intake Is facilitated by phosphate 1326. 10 Bacteria in the intestines: Reduced in small intestine due to gastric acid & fast motility. Reduced by the continuous movement of contents through GIT Small intestine is sterile Bacteria in small intestine and large intestine – same in number but different species Required for the breakdown of fiber 1327. 10 Which of the following is the origin of electrical slow wave activity in gastrointestinal tract smooth muscle: The interstitial cells of Cajal The smooth muscle of the circular muscle layer The smooth muscle of the longitudinal muscle layer The smooth muscle of the muscularis mucosa The myenteric plexus 1328. 10 Cholera toxin causes diarrhea by inhibiting which of the following: Neutral NaCl absorption in the small intestine Electrogenic Na absorption from the small intestine Na-glucose coupled absorption from the small intestine Na/H exchange in the small intestine Electrogenic Na absorption from the colon 1329. 10 Na+ absorption in small bowel: Occurs by active transport Occurs with H+ Is facilitated by glucose Is by active transport at the brush border membrane passive across basilateral membrane (diffusion) Occurs with Clthrough tight junctions 1330. 10 Calcium uptake in the intestine: Requires a carrier protein on the mucosal side Is passive Is by facilitated diffusion Is less than 10% than dietary intake Is facilitated by phosphate 1331. 10 Bacteria in the intestines: Reduced in small intestine due to gastric acid & fast motility. Reduced by the continuous movement of contents through GIT Small intestine is sterile Bacteria in small intestine and large intestine – same in number but different species Required for the absorption/ breakdown of proteins 1332. 10 Which of the following is the major mechanism for absorption of sodium from the small intestine: Neutral NaCl absorption Na+-H+ exchange Cotransport with potassium Electrogenic transport Solvent drag 1333. 10 Removal of proximal segments of the small intestine results in a decrease in which of the following: Pancreatic enzyme secretion. Basal acid output Maximal acid output Gastric emptying of liquids Gastric emptying of solids 1334. 10 Gas within the colon is primarily derived from which one of the following sources: Fermentation of undigested oligosaccharides by bacteria CO2 liberated by the interaction of HCO3– and H+ Diffusion from the blood Swallowed atmospheric air Air pockets within foodstuffs. 1335. 10 Removal of the terminal ileum will result in which of the following: An increase in the water content of the feces A decrease in absorption of amino acids An increase in the concentration of bile acid in the enterohepatic circulation A decrease in the fat content of the feces An increase in the absorption of iron 1336. 10 Absorption of fat-soluble vitamins requires which of the following: Pancreatic lipase Intrinsic factor Chymotrypsin Pancreatic amylase Secretin 1337. 10 Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small intestine is closely coupled with which of the following? Na/H exchange Na-glucose absorption Neutral NaCl absorption Electrogenic Na absorption Na-vitamin B12 absorption 1338. 10 The function of a lacteal is to Absorb lipids Absorb carbohydrates. Regulate muscle contraction. Absorb amino acids Produce enzymes. 1339. 10 The major outcome that occurs through mechanical digestive activities is An increase in the surface area of food by breaking it Enteric reflex activation Chemical breakdown of food Facilitation of absorption Propulsion of materials via into smaller fragments. molecules peristalsis 1340. 10 This structure is a modified portion of the small intestine mucosa that greatly increases the absorptive surface area. Villus Circular fold Microvillus Lumen Lacteal 1341. 10 Which activity below is a mixing action that exposes materials to secretions and absorptive surfaces? Segmentation Vagovagal reflexes Enteroendocrine reflex Peristalsis Deglutition 1342. 10 Which is a function of the large intestine? Absorption of water, ions, and some vitamins Absorption of most Digestion of nutrients cellulose Digestion of carbohydrates Digestion of proteins 1343. 10 Which of the following is a characteristic of the large intestine? It contains a large number of bacteria Is longer than the small intestine It is the site for acid neutralization It provides no absorptive function It has villi 1344. 10 What would be the effect of stripping the small intestines of their villi? Decreased surface area for absorption would cause weight loss to occur A duodenal ulcer Greater absorption of nutrients would occur The large intestine would take over as primary absorptive site No right answer 1345. 10 The final product of carbohydrate digestion is Monosaccharides Glycogen Disaccharides Polysaccharides Glycosaccharides 1346. 10 Which of the following cells produce HCl? Parietal cells G cells Enteroendocrine cells Chief cells Mucous cells 1347. 10 Which of the following cells produce pepsinogen? Chief cells Mucous cells G cells Enteroendocrine cells Parietal cells 1348. 10 Most absorption takes place in the ______. Jejunum Large intestine Duodenum Ileum Stomach 1349. 10 The digestive system in a cadaver is longer than in a living person because in a cadaver there is no Muscle tone Nervous system influence Food in the tube. Digestion taking place Іnfluence the humoral system 1350. 10 __________ is the major means of propulsion in the digestive system. Peristalsis Mechanical digestion Ingestion Defecation Vomiting 1351. 10 Which of the following intestinal hormones is not part of the enterogastrone? Gastrin Secretin Cholecystokinin Vasoactive intestinal peptide Vasopressin 1352. 10 A condition that affects the large bowel, but has no physiological or anatomical cause is Irritable bowel A hiatal hernia Celiac disease Pernicious anemia Bowel ulcer 1353. 10 What is the most common type of motility associated with the descending colon? Haustrations Antipropulsive movements Mass movement Perisatalsis Segmentation 1354. 11 Which of the following can be determined by calculating the clearance of para-aminohippuric acid (PAH)? Effective renal plasma flow (ERPF) ECF volume Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) Plasma volume Total body water (TBW) 1355. 11 If the plasma concentration of a freely filterable substance that is neither secreted or reabsorbed is 0.125 mg/mL, its urine concentration 25 mg/mL, and urine formation 1.0 mL/min, the glomerular filtration rate is: 200 mL/min 50 mL/min 125 mL/min 150 mL/min 362 mL/min 1356. 11 30-year-old woman is given 0.1 g inulin intravenously. One hour later the plasma inulin concentration is 1 mg/100 mL. Which of the following is the extracellular fluid volume (in liters) of this woman? 10 8 12 14 16. 1357. 11 The consumption of oxygen by the kidney: Directly reflects the level of sodium transport Decreases as blood flow increases Is regulated by erythropoietin Remains constant as blood flow increases Is greatest in the medulla 1358. 11 If the plasma concentration of a freely filterable substance that is neither secreted or reabsorbed is 0.125 mg/mL, its urine concentration 25 mg/mL, and urine formation 1.0 mL/min, the glomerular filtration rate is: 150 mL/min 50 mL/min 125 mL/min 200 mL/min 362 mL/min 1359. 11 Major determinants of plasma osmolarity include all the following except: Hemoglobin Sodium Chloride Albumin Glucose 1360. 11 An increase in the concentration of plasma potassium causes an increase in: Secretion of aldosterone Release of renin Secretion of ADH Release of natriuretic hormone Production of angiotensin II 1361. 11 A healthy 20-year-old man deprived of water for several days has an arterial pressure of 118/78 mm Hg and a plasma concentration of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) 5 times above normal. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the increase in ADH concentration? Increased plasma osmolality Decreased plasma aldosterone Decreased plasma renin activity Increased extracellular fluid volume Increased left atrial pressure 1362. 11 A healthy 38-year-old woman is found unconscious and severely dehydrated. Her plasma levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) are increased about 5-fold above normal. In which portion of her kidney tubule is most of the water being reabsorbed? Proximal tubule Cortical collecting duct Distal tubules Loops of Henle Medullary collecting duct 1363. 11 Glomerular hydrostatic pressure = 44 mm Hg, Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure = 9 mm Hg, Osmotic pressure of plasma = 28 mm Hg, Osmotic pressure of tubular fluid = 0. Given this data, what is the net filtration pressure at the glomerulus? 7 mm Hg 5 mm Hg 25 mm Hg 63 mm Hg 81 mm Hg 1364. 11 The ratio of urinary concentration to plasma concentration of inulin {(U/P) inulin} decreases. Which of the following is true if the glomerular filtration rate remains constant? Urine flow rate has increased Aldosterone levels have increased Inulin clearance has decreased Positive free water clearance has decreased Reabsorption of inulin has increase 1365. 11 A healthy adult participating in a clinical research study increases his daily sodium intake greatly, but his plasma sodium remains at a constant level. Which of the following substances is most responsible for this constancy in plasma sodium concentration when large amounts of sodium are ingested? Antidiuretic hormone Aldosterone Angiotensin II Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) Epinephrine 1366. 11 A research physiologist decides to use a marker to measure the volume of total body water in a volunteer medical student. Which of the following substances would he most likely use? Antipyn Cresyl violet Evans blue I131-albumin Inulin 1367. 11 A certain substance, which is both freely filtered and secreted, is being maximally secreted. As the plasma Decreases and approaches that of Increases and approaches that of Increases to the Will decrease to Will remain the concentration of the substance increases, the renal clearance: inulin inulin renal plasma flow zero same 1368. 11 A hypertensive patient is found to have a partial obstruction of the renal artery due to an atherosclerotic plaque.The resultant decrease in blood flow causes the increased release of an enzyme from which of the following structures? Juxtaglomerular cells Afferent arterioles Arcuate arteries Kupffer cells Proximal convoluted tubule 1369. 11 Amino acids are almost completely reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate via active transport in the: Proximal tubule Loop of Henie Distal tubule Collecting duct Renal pelvis 1370. 11 The daily production of hydrogen ion from CO2 is primarily buffered by: Red blood cell hemoglobin Extracellular bicarbonate Red blood cell bicarbonate Plasma proteins Plasma phosphate 1371. 11 Glomerular filtration rate would be increased by: Of plasma protein Constriction of the afferent arteriole A decrease in afferent arteriolar pressure Compression of the renal capsule A decrease in the concentration 1372. 11 All the following comparisons between the distal nephron and the proximal tubule are correct except The distal nephron secretes more hydrogen ion than does the proximal tubule The distal nephron is less permeable to hydrogen ion than is the proximal tubule The distal nephron is more responsive to aldosterone than is the proximal tubule The distal nephron has a more negative intraluminal potential than does the proximal tubule The distal nephron secretes more potassium than does the proximal tubule 1373. 11 Destruction of the supraoptic nuclei of the brain will produce which of the following changes in urinary: volume and concentration? (Assume that fluid intake equals fluid loss). Increased urinary volume and a very dilute urine Increased urinary volume and a concentrated urine Decreased urinary volume and a very dilute urine Decreased urinary volume and a concentrated urine None of the above 1374. 11 Which of the following statements about renin is true? It converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I It is secreted by cells of the proximal tubule Its secretion leads to loss of sodium and water from plasma Its secretion is stimulated by increased mean renal arterial pressure It converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II 1375. 11 H+ secretion in the distal nephron is enhanced by all the following except: Hyperkalemia An increase in the level of plasma aldosterone An increase in the tubular lu-minal concentration of poorly reabsorbable anions Metabolic acidosis Respiratory acidosis 1376. 11 In controlling the synthesis and secretion of aldosterone, which of the following factors is LEAST important? Adrenocorticotropi c hormone (ACTH) Renin Angiotensin II Concentration of plasma Na+ Concentration of plasma K+ 1377. 11 A patient is found to have a urine creatinine concentration of 196 mg/mL; a plasma creatinine concentration of 1.4 mg/mL; and a urine flow of 1 mL/min. The creatinine clearance is: 140 mL/min 44 mL/min 98 mL/min 125 mL/min 196 mL/min 1378. 11 In 1 h, 54 mL of urine is collected from a test subject. The concentration of para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) in the plasma is 0.02 mg/ mL, and in the urine it is 14 mg/mL. What is the effective renal plasma flow (ERPF)? 630 mL/min 31.1 mL/min 128 mL/min 278 mL/min 771 mL/min 1379. 11 Most of the glucose that is filtred through the glomerulus undergoes reabsorption in the: Proximal tubule Descending limb of the loop of Henie Ascending limb of the loop of Henie Distal tubule Collecting duct 1380. 11 When the potassium content of a patient's diet is increased fivefold, that patient is noted to have a change in concentration of plasma K from 3.5 meq/L to 5 meq/L. The most likely explanation for this change is that: The patient has adrenal insufficiency The concentration of plasma K+ is sensitive to dietary intake Secretion of antidiuretic hormone is reduced The patient has an aldosteronesecreting tumor The patient has renal insufficiency 1381. 11 Urinary volume is increased by all the following except: Sympathetic stimulation Diabetes insipidus Diabetes mellitus Increased renal arterial pressure Infusion of mannitol 1382. 11 Which of the following structural features distinguishes the epithelial cells of the proximal tubule from those of the distal tubule? The proximal tubule has a more extensive brush The distal tubule has a thicker basement The proximal tubule has a thicker basement The proximal tubule forms the juxtaglomerular The distal tubule has fewer tight border membrane membrane apparatus 1383. 11 Glomerular filtration rate (<3FR) and renal blood flow (RBF) will both be increased if: The efferent and afferent arterioles are both dilated The efferent and afferent arterioles are both constricted Only the afferent arteriole is constricted Only the efferent arteriole is constricted The afferent arteriole is constricted and the efferent arteriole is dilated 1384. 11 Significant buffers for hydrogen ions generated in the body from anaerobic metabolism include all the following except : Plasma lactate Extracellular bicarbonate Plasma proteins Inorganic phosphates Intracellular proteins. 1385. 11 Extracellular bicarbonate ions serve as an effective buffer for all the following except: Carbonic acid Sulfuric acid Phosphoric acid Lactic acid P-hydroxybutyric acid 1386. 11 The following statements are true of the F secreted into the lumen of the distal nephron except that it: Can combine with NH+ Can combine with HCO3- Can combine with HP042- Can remain as free H+ Is secreted by an H ATPase pump 1387. 11 Metabolic alkalosis can be caused by all the following EXCEPT: Hyperaldosteronis m Hyperventilation Hypokalemia Volume depletion Vomiting 1388. 11 The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is caused by the excess release of ADH. SIADH will have the LEAST effect on: Urinary flow Concentration of plasma sodium Total body water Urinary osmolarity Plasma osmolarity 1389. 11 The pH of the tubular fluid in the distal nephron can be lower than that in the proximal tubule because: The tight junctions of the distal nephron are less leaky to solute than those of the proximal tubule. A greater sodium gradient can be established across the wall of the distal nephron than across the wall of the proximal tubule More buffer is present in the tubular fluid of the distal nephron than in the proximal tubule More hydrogen ion is secreted into the distal nephron than into the proximal tubule The brush border of the distal nephron contains more carbonic anhydrase than that of the proximal tubule 1390. 11 Renal correction of hyperkalemia will result in: Acidosis Alkalosis Increased secretion of HCO Increased secretion of H Increased excretion of Na+ 1391. 11 Chronic metabolic acidosis, all the following will occur The urinary pH All the filtered HCO- will be The production of ammonia by the Secretion in the distal nephron will Glutamine uptake by the kidney will except: will be increased. reabsorbed by the kidney kidney will increase be enhanced be enhanced 1392. 11 Aldosterone causes a decrease in the renal tubular secretion of: Sodium Magnesium Hydrogen Potassium Ammonium. 1393. 11 A man drinks 2 L of water to replenish the fluids lost by sweating during a period of exercise. Compared with the situation prior to the period of sweating: His intracellular fluid volume will be greater His intracellular fluid will be hypertonic His extracellular fluid will be hypertonic His extracellular fluid volume will be greater His intracellular and extracellular fluid volumes will be unchanged. 1394. 11 Ammonia is an effective and important urinary buffer for which of the following reasons? The walls of the renal tubules are impermeable to NI4- Its production in the kidney decreases during chronic acidosis The walls of the renal tubules are impermeable to NI4- Its acid-base reaction has a low PK None of the above. 1395. 11 The amount of potassium excreted by the kidney will decrease if: Circulating aldosterone levels increase Distal tubular flow increases Dietary intake of potassium increases Na+ reabsorption by the distal nephron decreases The excretion of organic ions increases. 1396. 11 A respiratory acidosis that results in an increase in the concentration of hydrogen ion in arterial blood from 40 neq/L (pH 7.4) to 50 neq/L (pH 7.3) would Stimulate the peripheral chemoreceptors Decrease the amount of ammonium excreted in the urine Inhibit the central chemoreceptors Increase the pH of the urine Decrease the concentration of HCO3– in arterial blood. 1397. 11 In the presence of ADH, the distal nephron is least permeable to: Urea Water Ammonia Sodium Carbon dioxide 1398. 11 Which of the following substances will be more concentrated at the end of the proximal tubule than at the beginning of the proximal tubule? Creatinine Glucose Sodium Bicarbonate Phosphate 1399. 11 When a person is dehydrated, hypotonic fluid will be found in the: Proximal tubule Glomerular filtrate Loop of Henie Distal convoluted tubule Collecting duct. 1400. 11 The electrically neutral active transport of sodium from the lumen of the kidney occurs in the: Ascending limb of the loop of Henie Proximal tubule Descending limb of the loop of Cortical collecting duct Medullary collecting duct Henie 1401. 11 In metabolic acidosis caused by diabetic ketoacidosis, which of the following would be greater than normal? Anion gap Concentration of plasma HCO3– Arterial pCO Plasma pH None of the above 1402. 11 Decreasing the resistance of the afferent arteriole in the glomerulus of the kidney will decrease None of the above The renal plasma flow The filtration fraction The oncotic pressure of the peri-tubular capillary blood The glomerular filtration rate 1403. 11 If GFR increases, proximal tubular reabsorption of salt and water will increase by a process called glomerulotubular balance. Contributions to this process include An increase in peritubular oncotic pressure An increase in peritubular capillary hydrostatic pressure A decrease in peritubular sodium concentration An increase in proximal tubular flow An increase in peritubular capillary flow 1404. 11 The glomerular filtration barrier is composed of all the following except Macula densa Fenestrated capillary endothelium Basement membrane Podocytes Mesangial cells. 1405. 11 Renin release from the juxtaglomerular apparatus is inhibited by: Increased pressure within the afferent arterioles Beta-adrenergic agonists Prostaglandins Aldosterone Stimulation of the macula densa 1406. 11 Patients with renal insufficiency develop very high plasma concentrations of urea (uremia) because of an increase in: Secretion of urea by the distal tubules Synthesis of urea by the liver Reabsorption of urea by the proximal tubules The glomerular filtration rate The renal blood flow 1407. 11 The amount of H excreted as titratable acid bound to phosphate would be increased by all the following except: An increase in the dietary intake of phosphate An increase in the amount of phosphate filtered at the glomerulus An increase in the pH of the urine An increase in the level of plasma parathyroid hormone (PTH) A decrease in the renal tubular maximum (Tm) for phosphate reabsorption 1408. 11 Which one of the following is correct? Sympathetic stimulation of the kidneys: Dilates efferent arterioles Results in a lowered glomerular capillary blood Results in an increased rate of blood flow into the glomeruli Results in an increased glomerular filtration rate Two or more of the above are correct. pressure 1409. 11 Potassium secretion into the urine is controlled by: Aldosterone secretion. Renal tubular cells Renin production. All of the above. None of the above 1410. 11 The hormone ADH functions by affecting what part of the kidney? Proximal convoluted tubule Distal convoluted tubule Glomerulus Efferent arteriole None of the above 1411. 11 The capillary beds that receive blood from the efferent arterioles (іn the kidney) are called the: Glomerular capillaries. Nephron capillaries. Peritubular capillaries Pulmonary capillaries Coronary capillaries 1412. 11 Increase in GFR occurs with: None of the above Increased sympathetic stimulation Decreased renal blood flow Hypoproteinaemia Ureteric obstruction 1413. 11 Regarding renal clearance: All of the above Inulin clearance measures renal blood flow Creatine clearance correlates with GFR Filtration fraction measured as inulin clearance/ PAH clearance (GFR) divided by total plasma flow) None of the above 1414. 11 The primary event leading to the reabsorption of water in the kidney is the active reabsorption of: Sodium Water Chloride Potassium None of these 1415. 11 Which of the following is generally not filtered through the glomeruli? Fibrinogen Glucose Sodium Fatty acids Both C and D 1416. 11 Calculate the effective glomerular filtration pressure from the following data: Average glomerular hydrostatic pressure = 78; colloid osmotic pressure of glomerular blood = 28; hydrostatic pressure of Bowman's capsule =14 36 mm Hg 22 mm Hg 19 mm Hg 14 mm Hg None of these 1417. 11 Urinary volume is increased by all the following except: Sympathetic stimulation Diabetes insipidus Diabetes mellitus Increased renal arterial pressure Infusion of mannitol 1418. 11 Which one of the following substances is less concentrated at the end of the proximal tubule than at Phosphate Creatinine Hydrogen Chloride Sodium the beginning of the proximal tubule: 1419. 11 If a substance is transported from the plasma of the peritubular capillary into the fluid of the renal tubule, it is said to be: Secreted Filtered by blood pressure Excreted by osmosis Reabsorbed None of the above. 1420. 11 Active reabsorption of glucose appears to occur in the: Proximal convoluted tubule Henle's loop Distal convoluted tubule Collecting tubule None of the above. 1421. 11 Under normal circumstances, the kidneys produce about ? liters of glomerular filtrate per day 180. 1500 60 80-120 100 1422. 11 Potassium secretion into the filtrate and eventual urine: Is associated with sodium reabsorption from the distal convoluted tubules is decreased by the potassium sparing hormone Is controlled primarily by ADH Is usually low because potassium is low in the diet Doesn't occur because potassium is the chief ion inside cells 1423. 11 If the arteriole that supplies blood to the glomerulus becomes constricted: The glomerular filtration rate decreases Blood flow into the efferent arteriole increases Hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus increases The protein concentration of the filtrate increases None of the above 1424. 11 Decreasing the resistance of the afferent arteriole in the glomerulus of the kidney will decrease: The glomerular filtration rate The renal plasma flow The filtration fraction The oncotic pressure of the peritubular capillary blood None of the above 1425. 11 What percentage of the blood circulating through the body makes it through the kidneys in one day? 25% 15% 40% 75% 100%