Download PCM questions without answers

Practice Questions:
Session 1: Getting Started
1. Tangential lighting enhances observation of:
A. Color
B. Mobility
C. Texture
D. Contour
2. Which part of the examiner’s hand is best for palpating vibration?
A. Ulnar surface
B. Finger pads
C. Finger tips
D. Dorsal surface
3. Percussion of body tissue makes sounds that are:
A. Soft over fluid
B. Loud over air
C. Dull over lungs
D. Flat over gastric air bubble
4. Percussion is best sequenced from:
A. Upper to lower body parts
B. Resonant to dull areas
C. Round to flat surfaces
D. Soft to hard surfaces
5. Overestimation of blood pressure will occur if the cuff covers:
A. More than two thirds of upper arm
B. Less than one half of upper arm
C. More than 4 inches of upper arm
D. Less than 5 inches of upper arm
6. A blood pressure cuff bladder should be long enough to:
A. Encircle the arm completely
B. Overlap around the arm
C. Cover ¾ of arm circumference
D. Cover 2 inches on either side of artery
7. This system of plus and minus on the ophthalmoscope compensates for:
A. Amblyopia
B. Astigmatism
C. Strabismus
D. Myopia
8. The ophthalmoscope aperture for assessing minute vessel changes is called a:
A. Small aperture
B. Red-free filter
C. Slit Grid
9. The pneumatic attachment for the otoscope is used to evaluate the:
A. Tympanic membrane movement
B. Ear canal
C. Hearing
D. Tympanic membrane landmarks
10. Tuning forks with a frequency of 500 to 100 Hz are most commonly used to measure:
A. Hearing from bone conduction
B. Hearing range of normal speech
C. Noise above the threshold level
D. Buzzing or tingling sensations
11. To perform a deep tendon reflex measurement, you should:
A. Hold the hammer loosely between thumb and index finger
B. Use the needle implement to determine sensory perception
C. Tap the silver end of the hammer on the tendon
D. Place the hammer on the tendon for 3 to 5 seconds
12. Transillumination functions on the principle that:
A. Black light causes certain substances to fluoresce
B. Air, fluid, and tissue transmit light differently
C. Tangential light casts shadows that illuminate contours
D. Converging and diverging light bring structures into focus.
Practice Questions:
1. The thyroid cartilage should:
A. Move when the patient swallows
B. Be slightly left of midline
C. Tug with each heartbeat
D. Have a clear vascular sound
2. An inconsequential finding on the head of an adult is a palpable:
A. Embryonic remnant
B. Sagital suture ridge
C. Skull indentation
D. Posterior fontanel
3. The skull of a 10-month-old baby should have which of the following:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Closure of the posterior fontanel
Closure of the anterior fontanel
Overlap of the cranial bones
Ossification of the sutures
4. Contraction or relaxation of the ciliary body:
A. Changes lens thickness
B. Regulates peripheral vision
C. Allows voluntary blinking
D. Sends light impulse to the brain
5. Scleral brown spots are characteristic of:
A. Premature infants
B. Jaundiced infants
C. Pregnant women
D. Older adults
6. extraocular muscle balance is tested by:
A. Comparing papillary responses to light
B. Having the patient follow your finger through planes
C. Inspecting slightly closed lids for fasiculations
D. Shining a light tangentially on the cornea
7. To see retinal details in a myopic patient, you will need to:
A. Move your ophthalmoscope further forward
B. Move your ophthalmoscope further backwards
C. Turn your ophthalmoscope to a more positive lens
D. Turn your ophthalmoscope to a more negative lens
8. An infant’s Eustachian tube when compared with an adult’s is:
A. Short, wide, and horizontal
B. Long, narrow, and curved forward
C. Short narrow and straight
D. Short, wide, and curved downward
9. It is wise to avoid using a tongue depressor in a newborn’s mouth, because it elicits
reflexive:
A. Clamping of jaws
B. Protrusion of tongue
C. Clonic spasms
D. Aspiration of secretions
10. To inspect the lateral borders of the tongue, you should:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pull gauze-wrapped tongue to each side
Move tongue side to side with gloved fingers
Ask patient to extend tongue side to side
Insert tongue blade obliquely against tongue
11. Placing the base of a vibrating tuning fork on the midline vertex of the patient’s head
is a test for:
A. Air conduction of sound
B. Patient vs. examiner hearing time
C. Lateralization of sound
D. Bone versus air conduction of sound
12. The otoscopic examination should be conducted with the patient’s head tilted toward
the:
A. Opposite shoulder
B. Examiner
C. Chest
D. Ceiling
13. The color of normal tympanic membranes is
A. Pearly gray
B. Amber
C. Chalky white
D. Yellow-green
14. The large lymph ducts merge into the venous system at the:
A. Vena cava
B. Portal vein
C. Pulmonic veins
D. Subclavian veins
15. The cells that line the lymph node sinuses perform the specific function of:
A. Phagocytosis
B. Fat absorption
C. Hemopoeisis
D. Fetal immunization
16. As adults age, their lymph nodes become more:
A. Mucoid
B. Fibrotic
C. Porous
D. Profuse
17. In addition to the usual lymphatic system history, older adults should be asked if they
have ever had:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Radiation exposure
Fatigue and weakness
Tonsillectomy
Delayed healing
18. An important purpose for inspecting the lymphatic system is to detect:
A. Red streaks on skin
B. Clubbing of fingers
C. Temperature differences
D. Matting of nodes
19. Palpation of the scalene triangle for supraclavicular nodes should be done with:
A. Finger hooked over clavicle beside sternocleidomastoid muscle
B. Tissue rolled gently against chest will
C. Pads of three fingers in superficial circular motion
D. Fingers in depression above medial humeral condyle
20. To palpate inguinal nodes, you should have the patient:
A. Stand and cough
B. Lie supine, knees slightly flexed
C. Lie supine, legs extended
D. Bend over table and cough
21. Transillumination is done during an examination of the lymphatic system to:
A. Observe nodal contours
B. Detect lymphatic pulsation
C. Distinguish nodes from cysts
D. Observe erythematous lesions
22. Normal epitrochlear lymph nodes in adults are:
A. Less than 3 cm in diameter
B. Clustered in a capsule
C. Firm and discrete
D. Not palpable
23. Normal lymph nodes of children under age 2 may be:
A. Oval shaped
B. Slightly tender
C. 2 cm in diameter
D. Relatively immovable
Practice Questions:
1. The contraction of the ventricles causes:
A. Closure of pulmonic and aortic valves
B. Opening of mitral and tricuspid valves
C. Closure of atrioventricular valves
D. Opening of auricular septa
2. The bell of the stethoscope is more useful than the diaphragm for hearing:
A. Ventricular gallops
B. Systolic clicks
C. S2 Splits
D. Ejection sounds
3. Observing the precordium with the patient supine allows you to detect clues to heart:
A. Rate and rhythm
B. Size
C. Conductivity
D. Consistency
(note there was a typo in the original question: pericardium instead of precordium)
4. Which pulse requires heavier pressure than most others during palpation?
A. Dorsalis pedis
B. Carotid
C. Femoral
D. Brachial
5. To hear diastolic heart sounds, you should ask the patient to:
A. Lie on left side
B. Sit up and lean forward
C. Lie on back
D. Lie on right side
6. Splitting of S2 is associated with:
A. Inspiratory phase of respiration
B. Early evidence of hypertension
C. A disruption in rhythm
D. Left ventricle enlargement
7. Which of the following is a common symptom of cardiovascular disorders in the
older adult?
A. Leg varicosities
B. Weight gain
C. Poor night vision
D. Fatigue
8. To estimate heart size by percussion, you should begin tapping at the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Anterior axillary line
Left sternal boarder
Midsternal line
Midclavicular line
9. A palpable rushing vibration over the base of the heart at the second intercostal space
is called a:
A. Split
B. Thrust
C. Heave
D. Thrill
10. Choose the true statement concerning the second heart sound (S2)
A. It is best heard at the apex
B. It is louder than S1 at the apex
C. It is normally made up of P2 followed by A2
D. Inspiration increases the split of S2
E. Splitting is caused by increased filling of the left ventricle.
11- 14. Match anatomic areas to where the sounds from the cardiac valves are best heard
A. Apex
B. Right second intercostal space
C. Left second intercostal space
D. Lower left sternal border
11. ___B_ Aortic
12. ___C_ Pulmonic
13. ___A_ Mitral
14. ___D_ Tricuspid
15. Which statement regarding the examination of jugular venous pulse (JVP) is false?
A. Normally, the examination of JVP is preformed with the pt supine at 30 degrees
B. Tangential (oblique) lighting is preferable
C. Internal and external JVP equally reflex central venous pressure
D. The y descent occurs in early in diastole
Practice Questions
1. The apex of the lung is:
A. Four cm above the first rib
B. Even with the second rib
C. Higher on the right than on the left lung
D. On the convex surface of the diaphragm
2. Chest movement can best be seen with:
A. Bright tangential lighting
B. Daylight from a window
C. Fluorescent ceiling light
D. Flashlight in a dark room
3. To inspect the chest, you should observe:
A. While patient holds breath
B. While patient breathes naturally
C. With your palm on patient’s chest
D. After patient begins to cough
4. Tactile fremitus is best felt:
A. Parasternally at second intercostal space
B. Posterolaterally beneath scapula
C. Along costal margin and xiphoid process
D. In suprasternal notch along clavicle
5. Percussion of the back should be done with the patient’s arms folded in front, to:
A. Prevent attacks of coughing
B. Make the scapulae protrude
C. Distinguish thudlike from drumlike sounds
D. Expose maximum lung area
6. The diaphragm of the stethoscope is better than the bell for auscultation of the lungs
because it:
A. Filter extraneous sounds
B. Amplifies all types of sound
C. Transmits high-pitched sounds
D. Pinpoints focal sound areas
7. An expected finding from chest palpation would be:
A. Greater right chest expansion
B. Crackling over sternal notch
C. Inflexibility of the xyphoid
D. Costal angle of 100 degrees
Practice Questions:
1. The esophagus travels a route from:
A. Behind trachea, through mediastinal cavity
B. Right of trachea, through diaphragm
C. Anterior to trachea through cardiac orifice
D. Left of trachea, through peritoneum
2. Percussion at the right midclavicular line, below the umbilicus and continuing upward
is the correct technique for locating the:
A. Lower liver border
B. Upper right kidney border
C. Medical border of spleen
D. Descending aorta
3. The upper edge of the liver should be detected by percussion at which intercostal
space?
A. Fourth
B. Sixth
C. Eighth
D. Tenth
4. Deep abdominal palpation should be conducted with the:
A. Diaphragm of stethoscope
B. Fingertips
C. Thumbs, apart from palms
D. Palmer surface of fingers
5. The predominant sound from percussion of the normal abdomen is:
A. Gurgling
B. Friction
C. Dullness
D. Tympany
6. Costovertebral angle tenderness is a sign of a problem with the:
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Gall bladder
D. Colon
Practice Questions:
1. Which of the following is the most often used technique for assessment of the
neurologic system?
A. Inspection
B. Palpation
C. Percussion
E. Auscultation
2. The finger to nose test allows assessment of:
A. Sensory function
B. Fine motor function
C. Stereognosis
F. Point location
3. Proprioception is being tested when an examiner asks the patient to:
A. Close eyes and touch nose with finger
B. Hop on first on foot and then the other
C. Run heel of foot up and down opposite skin
D. Distinguish between sharp and dull sensation
4. Dr. Nicholas Neuron examined a patient’s biceps reflex. He placed the patient’s arm
in their lab with the palm towards the floor and the elbow bent at 90 degrees. He
struck the biceps tendon with the pointed end of his reflex hammer. How would you
evaluate his technique?
A. He should have struck his own thumb over tendon
B. He should have had patient’s hand palm up
C. Technique was adequate to produce extension of the elbow
D. Technique was adequate if elbow was flexed 45 degrees
5. A patient who stands on one foot should be able to maintain balance for:
A. 5 seconds on either side
B. A longer time on the dominant foot
C. A longer time on the nondominant foot
D. 12 seconds on either side
6. Which of the following is an expected neurologic finding in older adults:
A. Deterioration of intellect
B. Diminished sense of smell
C. Accentuation of reflexes
D. Change in personality
7. What is Clonus?
A. An Emperor of ancient Rome
B. Involuntary facial twitches
C. Hyperactive reflexes where there is rhythmic oscillations between flexion and
extension
D. Indicates peripheral nerve damage.
Practice Questions:
1. A goniometer is used to assess:
A. Muscle contractions
B. Joint range of motion
C. Bone maturity
D. Joint proportions
2. The most often used technique for assessing joint symmetry is:
A. Inspection
B. Palpation
C. Use of joint calipers
D. Percussion
3. Strength of the temporalis muscles is assessed by asking the patient to:
A. Chew a stick of gum
B. Move chin side to side
C. Clench teeth while you palpate muscle
D. Open mouth with your fingers in mandibular joint space
4. The strength of the trapezius muscle is evaluated by having the patient:
A. Clench teeth during muscle palpation
B. Straighten leg with examiner opposition
C. Extend head against examiner’s hand
5. Arm length is measured from the acromion process through the:
A. Olecranon process to distal ulnar prominence
B. Proximal ulnar prominence to middle fingertip
C. Proximal radial prominence to distal radial prominence
D. Olecranon process to carpal-metacarpal thumb joint
6. The range of motion from neutral position for a dorsiflexed adult ankle should be:
A. 10 degrees
B. 15 degrees
C. 20 degrees
D. 25 degrees
7. “Grade three muscle strength” means that the patient:
A. Has 100% of normal resistance
B. Can move against gravity, but not resistance
C. Can contract muscle slightly
D. Can play basketball for Indiana
Practice Questions:
1. Which patient position facilitates inspection of symmetry and musculoskeletal
development of the shoulders?
A. Lithotomy
B. Sitting
C. Supine
D. Walking
2. Which of the following are examined with the patient in a reclining 45-degree
position?
A. Oropharynx and thyroid gland
B. Facial bones and cranial nerve V and VII
C. Hips and popliteal angles
D. Jugular venous pulsations and pressure
3. Testing for proprioception and cerebellar function is done with the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Snellen chart
Rosenbaum test
Romberg test
Babinski screen
4. The best was to ease the apprehension of a 3-year-old child before a physical
examination is to:
A. Explain that you will be gentle
B. Tell the child you have lollipops
C. Hand the child a picture book
D. Let the child play with your otoscope
E. Tell them there is a monster in your doctor’s bag
5. An examiner can help a patient who seems uncomfortable with close contract during
an examination by:
A. Backing away from the patient
B. Joking a little with the patient
C. Acknowledge the discomfort
D. Perform the bulbocavernosis reflex
6. The quality of a symptom, such as pain, is subjective information that should be:
A. Deferred from the history until the cause is determined
B. Described in the history with a scale of 1 to 10
C. Placed in the past medical history section
D. Omitted from the history in favor of objective data
7. In which section of the history are symptom details usually placed?
A. Chief complaint
B. Present illness
C. Past Medical history
D. Social history
8. Objective data are usually recorded:
A. In sequence of examination
B. In relation to subjective data
C. As determined by unexpected findings
D. By body systems
9. Information recorded about an infant differs from that about an adult, because of the
infant’s:
A. Developmental status
B. Motor abilities
C. Nutritional differences
D. Attention span
E. Occupational history
10. Data relevant to the social history of older adults include information on:
A. Routine hygiene practices
B. Previous health care visits
C. Smoking habits
D. Meaningful activities