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Sample Questions
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. The branch of psychology concerned with the scientific study of the mind is called
a. cognitive psychology.
c. behaviorism.
b. introspection.
d. memory consolidation.
____
2. Donders’ main reason for doing his choice reaction time experiment was to study
a. perception.
c. decision making.
b. attention.
d. memory.
____
3. By comparing reaction times across different tasks, Donders was able to conclude how long the mind needs to
perform a certain cognitive task. Donders interpreted the difference in reaction time between the simple and
choice conditions of his experiment as indicating how long it took to
a. perceive the stimulus.
b. process the stimulus.
c. attend to the stimulus.
d. make a decision about the stimulus.
____
4. In Donders' experiment on decision making, when participants were asked to press one button if the light on the
left was illuminated and another button if the light on the right was illuminated, they were engaged in a
a. reaction time task.
c. choice reaction time task.
b. simple reaction time task.
d. presentation task.
____
5. Reaction time refers to the time between the ________ of a stimulus and a person’s response to it.
a. perception
c. disappearance
b. mental awareness
d. presentation
____
6. A common feature of both a reaction time experiment and an operant conditioning experiment is
a. the presentation of positive reinforcers.
b. the measurement of behavior.
c. the inference of mental processes.
d. all of these are common features
____
7. Donders’ measurement of reaction time is particularly important because it demonstrated the "time course" on
which the mind operates. Donders found that it took ______ to decide which of two buttons to push in response
to a stimulus.
a. 1/100 second
c. a second
b. 1/10 second
d. two seconds
____
8. The first experiments in cognitive psychology were based on the idea that mental responses can be
a. measured directly.
b. inferred from the participant’s behavior.
c. measured by comparing the presentation of the stimulus and the participant’s response.
d. measured by comparing responses among different participants.
____
9. According to Ebbinghaus' savings curve, savings is a function of
a. word familiarity.
c. retention interval.
b. sensory modality.
d. reaction time.
____ 10. An important contribution to the field of psychology resulting from Wilhelm Wundt founding his laboratory at
the University of Leipzig in 1879 was
a. the rise of behaviorism’s popularity.
b. recognizing 1879 as "the birthday of cognitive science."
c. producing Ph.D.s who later established psychology departments at many U.S. universities.
d. the first demonstration of the forgetting curve.
____ 11. The "Little Albert" experiment involving the rat and the loud noise is an example of which of the following
types of experiments?
a. Reaction time
c. Classical conditioning
b. Unconscious inference
d. Operant conditioning
____ 12. The investigation of how behavior is strengthened by presentation of positive reinforcers (e.g., food) or
withdrawal of negative reinforcers (e.g., shock) is best known as
a. classical conditioning.
c. choice reaction time.
b. the method of savings.
d. operant conditioning.
____ 13. Who proposed that children’s language development was caused by imitation and reinforcement?
a. Noam Chomsky
c. Keller Breland
b. John Watson
d. B.F. Skinner
____ 14. Which of the following does NOT characterize the information processing (IP) approach to the study of
cognition?
a. IP depicts the mind as processing information in a sequence of stages.
b. IP supports the principle of behaviorism that behavior is a stimulus-response relationship.
c. IP involves the use of computers as a metaphor to understand human cognition.
d. IP has an interest in investigating unobservable mental events.
____ 15. Donald Broadbent was the first person to develop which of the following?
a. A diagram depicting the mind as processing information in a sequence of stages
b. A computer program for solving logic problems
c. An experimental procedure for studying the way people process information
d. The first textbook of cognitive psychology
____ 16. Colin Cherry’s experiment in which participants listen to two messages simultaneously, one in each ear, found
that
a. people can focus on one message and ignore the other one.
b. people can focus on the message they were repeating.
c. people take in very little information about the ignored message.
d. all of these
____ 17. Broadbent's notion that the mind could be represented as operating in a sequence of stages, often represented by
boxes, allows cognitive psychologists to develop _____that can be tested by further experiments.
a. models
c. memories
b. approaches
d. cognitive maps
____ 18. The field that studies how to make machines behave in ways that are intelligent if a human were so behaving is
known as
a. cognitive psychology.
c. artificial intelligence.
b. behaviorism.
d. flow diagramming.
____ 19. The "cognitive revolution"
a. occurred rapidly, within a period of a few years, in response to the attacks on Skinner and
the development of computers.
b. extended over a long period of time, beginning in the early part of the century, in reaction to
Wundt’s introspection experiments.
c. was a gradual process that occurred over a few decades.
d. was not really necessary because the study of the mind has been a constant part of
experimental psychology since the founding of the first psychology laboratory.
____ 20. Using behavior to infer mental processes is the basic principle of
a. behaviorism.
c. cognitive psychology.
b. Donderism.
d. operant conditioning.
____ 21. Early studies of brain tissue that used staining techniques and microscopes from the 19th century described the
"nerve net." These early understandings were in error in the sense that the nerve net was believed to be
a. continuous.
b. composed of discrete individual units.
c. composed of cell bodies, axons, and dendrites.
d. composed of neurotransmitters rather than neurons.
____ 22. Which of the following neural components is NOT found at the receiving end of neurons?
a. Cell body
c. Receptor
b. Dendrite
d. Axon
____ 23. A synapse is
a. a tube filled with fluid that conducts electrical signals.
b. the structure that contains mechanisms to keep a neuron alive.
c. the structure that receives electrical signals from other neurons.
d. the space between neurons.
____ 24. When recording from a single neuron, stimulus intensity is represented in a single neuron by the
a. size of the action potentials.
b. size of the synapse.
c. firing rate of the neurotransmitters.
d. firing rate of the action potentials.
____ 25. Recording from single neurons in the brain has shown that neurons responding to specific types of stimuli are
often clustered in specific areas. These results support the idea of
a. cortical association.
b. dissociation.
c. localization of function.
d. the information processing approach.
____ 26. The occipital lobe is
a. the first place in the cerebral cortex where visual information is received.
b. important for language, memory, hearing, and vision.
c. important for higher functions such as language, thought, and memory, as well as motor
functioning.
d. where signals are received from the sensory system for touch.
____ 27. The _____ lobe of the cortex serves higher functions such as language, thought, and memory.
a. subcortical
c. occipital
b. frontal
d. parietal
____ 28. A 10-month-old baby is interested in discovering different textures, comparing the touch sensations between a
soft blanket and a hard wooden block. Tactile signals such as these are received by the _____ lobe.
a. parietal
c. frontal
b. occipital
d. temporal
____ 29. Positron emission tomography (PET) utilizes which of the following tools?
a. Disc electrode
c. Radioactive tracer
b. Microelectrode
d. Hemoglobin
____ 30. There are many methods for studying the physiology of the brain. ________ is the technique involving
subtraction whereby brain activity is compared between baseline and stimulation measurements.
a. Convergence
c. Positron emission tomography
b. Single unit recording
d. Mental chronometry
____ 31. Brain imaging has made it possible to
a. determine which areas of the brain are involved in different cognitive processes.
b. view individual neurons in the brain.
c. show how environmental energy is transformed into neural energy.
d. view propagation of action potentials.
____ 32. Ramon is looking at pictures of scantily clad women in a magazine. He is focusing on their body parts,
particularly their chest and legs. Which part of Ramon's brain is activated by this viewing?
a. Fusiform face area (FFA)
b. Parahippocampal place area (PPA)
c. Extrastriate body area (EBA)
d. Functional magnetic area (FMA)
____ 33. Compared to brain-imaging techniques, ERP occurs on a
a. much slower time scale.
b. similar time scale.
c. much faster time scale.
d. more precise scale for understanding which brain structures are active.
____ 34. In ERP methodology, the number that follows the N or the P (N400 or P300, for example) stands for
a. the positivity or negativity of the response.
b. how likely the response is, with higher numbers indicating a more likely response.
c. how strong the response is in millimeters on the reading.
d. the time at which the response peaks in milliseconds.
____ 35. You are walking down the street and see a really nice car drive by. You notice many features of it: its color,
movement, shape, location, and so forth. All of these features are processed
a. in one localized area of the brain.
b. by the grandmother cells in the brain.
c. in different parts of the brain.
d. through fMRI potentials.
____ 36. Neurons that respond to features that make up objects are called
a. retinal cells.
c. dendrites.
b. feature detectors.
d. receptors.
____ 37. The pattern of feature detectors firing in response to a stimulus creates the _____ for representing what the
stimulus is (e.g., a tree, a person, a ball, and so forth).
a. neural code
c. event-related potential
b. module
d. receptor
____ 38. If kittens are raised in an environment that contains only verticals, you would predict that most of the neurons in
their visual cortex would respond best to the visual presentation of a
a. brick wall.
c. solid wall.
b. chain link fence.
d. picket fence.
____ 39. Most cognitive psychologists _____ the notion of a grandmother cell.
a. accept
c. reject
b. are uncertain about
d. are actively investigating
____ 40. Shinkareva et al. (2008) conducted research that revealed
a. the existence of feature detectors.
b. the distinction between form and meaning in language.
c. a computer could fairly accurately predict what category of object one was viewing.
d. strong support for specificity coding.
____ 41. The sequence of steps that includes the image on the retina, changing the image into electrical signals, and
neural processing is an example of _____ processing.
a. bottom-up
b. top-down
____ 42. Generally, if we can see an object's geons, we are able to identify the object. This is known as the
a. principle of size constancy.
b. principles of componential recovery.
c. perceptual organization.
d. feedback signal.
____ 43. Which of the following is not a geon?
a. Cylinder
b. Pyramid
c. Cone
d. Circle
____ 44. Which of the following statements is most consistent with recognition-by-components theory?
a. Humans can identify an object if sufficient information is available to enable us to identify
an object’s basic features.
b. Activation of letter units provides the information needed to determine which letter is
present.
c. Top-down processing influences perception.
d. The focusing of attention eliminates illusory conjunctions.
____ 45. Charlene sees her boyfriend across campus and waves. Even though the image he projects on her retina from
that distance is quite small, Charlene does not perceive him to have shrunk at all. Instead, she perceives him as
far away because of
a. the light-from-above heuristic.
b. algorithmic thinking.
c. experience-dependent plasticity.
d. size constancy.
____ 46. Which of the following is an example of an effect of top-down processing?
a. Speech segmentation
b. Seeing a flash of lightning in a thunderstorm
c. The response of a feature detector
d. Perceiving all of the birds in a flock as belonging together
____ 47. When Carlos moved to the U.S., he did not understand any English. Phrases like "Anna Mary Can Pi And I
Scream Class Hick" didn't make any sense to him. Now that Carlos has been learning English, he recognizes
this phrase as "An American Pie and Ice Cream Classic." This example illustrates that Carlos is not capable of
____ in English.
a. speech segmentation
c. bottom-up processing
b. the likelihood principle
d. algorithms
____ 48. Evidence for the role of top-down processing in perception is shown by which of the following examples?
a. When someone can easily select a target that has a feature distinct from distracters
b. When someone cannot read an illegible word in a written sentence
c. When someone easily identifies an object even though that object is unexpected in that
context (e.g., identifying a telephone inside a refrigerator)
d. When someone accurately identifies a word in a song on a radio broadcast despite static
interfering with reception
____ 49. The theory of unconscious inference includes the
a. oblique effect.
b. likelihood principle.
c. principle of componential recovery.
d. principle of speech segmentation.
____ 50. The likelihood principle states that
a. we perceive the object that is most likely to have caused the pattern of stimuli we have
received.
b. we perceive size to remain the same size even when objects move to different distances.
c. it is easier to perceive vertical and horizontal orientations.
d. feature detectors are likely to create a clear perception of an object.
____ 51. Things that form patterns that are meaningful are likely to be grouped together according to the law of
a. simplicity.
c. pragnanz.
b. similarity.
d. familiarity.
____ 52. "Every stimulus pattern is seen in such a way that the resulting structure is as simple as possible" refers to which
Gestalt law?
a. Good figure
c. Familiarity
b. Similarity
d. Common fate
____ 53. In the "finding faces in a landscape" demonstration in your text, once you perceive a particular grouping of
rocks as a face, it is often difficult not to perceive them this way. This is due to
a. the inverse projection problem.
c. a recency effect.
b. a shift in your attentional focus.
d. your prior knowledge.
____ 54. The example of how we might perceive something that looks like an animal hiding behind a tree in the woods
was used to illustrate the operation of
a. heuristics.
b. the Gestalt law of organization.
c. an algorithm.
d. both heuristics and the Gestalt law of organization.
____ 55. A difference between a heuristic and an algorithm is
a. heuristics usually take longer to carry out than algorithms.
b. algorithms are usually less systematic than heuristics.
c. heuristics do not result in a correct solution every time as algorithms do.
d. algorithms provide "best-guess" solutions to problems more so than heuristics.
____ 56. People perceive vertical and horizontal orientations more easily than other orientations according to the
a. principle of size constancy.
c. law of pragnanz.
b. oblique effect.
d. law of good continuation.
____ 57. The "indentations in the sand / bumps in the sand" example from your text illustrates
a. semantic regularities.
c. size constancy.
b. the oblique effect.
d. the light-from-above heuristic.
____ 58. The demonstration in your text that asks you to visualize scenes such as an office, a department store clothing
section, a lion, and a microscope often results in more details in the scene of the office or department store than
the scene with the lion or microscope. The latter two tend to have fewer details because most individuals from
modern society have less knowledge of _____ in those scenes.
a. physical regularities
c. pragnanz
b. semantic regularities
d. double dissociation
____ 59. The results of Gauthier’s "Greeble" experiment illustrate
a. that neurons specialized to respond to faces are present in our brains when we are born.
b. that training a monkey to recognize the difference between common objects can influence
how the monkey’s neurons fire to these objects.
c. an effect of experience-dependent plasticity.
d. that our nervous systems remain fairly stable in different environments.
____ 60. The experimental technique that involves removing part of the brain is known as
a. brain ablation.
c. fMRI.
b. dissociation.
d. EEG.
____ 61. The pathway leading from the striate cortex to the temporal lobe is known as the
a. what pathway.
c. landmark pathway.
b. where pathway.
d. action pathway.
____ 62. Damage to the temporal lobe makes the _____ more difficult.
a. object discrimination problem
b. landmark discrimination problem
c. double dissociation problem
d. single dissociation problem
____ 63. The study of the behavior of humans with brain damage is called
a. neuropsychology.
c. positron emission tomography.
b. functional localization.
d. the subtraction technique.
____ 64. The perception pathway corresponds to the _____ pathway, while the action pathway corresponds to the _____
pathway.
a. where; what
c. size; distance
b. what where
d. distance; size
____ 65. Some neurons respond when we watch someone else do something. These are known as
a. mirror neurons.
c. feature detectors.
b. afferent neurons.
d. receptors.
____ 66. Neurons that respond to sounds associated with actions are called
a. mirror neurons.
c. audio mirror neurons.
b. audiovisual mirror neurons.
d. visual mirror neurons.
____ 67. Dichotic listening occurs when
a. the same message is presented to the left and right ears.
b. different messages are presented to the left and right ears.
c. a message is presented to one ear, and a masking noise is presented to the other ear.
d. participants are asked to listen to a message and look at a visual stimulus, both at the same
time.
____ 68. When a person is shadowing a message, he or she is
a. silently following it mentally.
b. ignoring it while paying attention to another message.
c. saying the message out loud.
d. thinking about something closely related to the message.
____ 69. Colin Cherry’s experiment in which participants listened to two different messages, one presented to each ear,
found that people
a. could focus on a message only if they are repeating it.
b. could focus on a message only if they rehearsed it.
c. could focus on one message and ignore the other one at the same time.
d. could not focus on a message presented to only one ear.
____ 70. Broadbent’s "filter model" proposes that the filter identifies the attended message based on
a. meaning.
c. physical characteristics.
b. modality.
d. higher order characteristics.
____ 71. Which of the following would likely be an input message into the detector in Broadbent’s model?
a. All messages selected by the filter
b. All messages within earshot
c. A message with a German accent
d. All sensory messages
____ 72. In Broadbent’s filter model, the stages of information processing occur in which order?
a. Detector, filter, sensory store, memory
b. Sensory store, filter, detector, memory
c. Filter, detector, sensory store, memory
d. Detector, sensory store, filter, memory
____ 73. Suppose twin teenagers are vying for their mother’s attention. The mother is trying to pay attention to one of her
daughters, though both girls are talking (one about her boyfriend, one about a school project). According to the
operating characteristics of Treisman’s attenuator, it is most likely the attenuator is analyzing the incoming
messages in terms of
a. physical characteristics.
c. meaning.
b. language.
d. direction.
____ 74. According to Treisman’s "attenuation model," which of the following would you expect to have the highest
threshold for most people?
a. The word "house"
c. The word "fire"
b. Their spouse’s first name
d. The word "platypus"
____ 75. Flanker compatibility experiments have been conducted using a variety of stimulus conditions. By definition,
this procedure must include at least one target and one distractor. In any condition where we find that a
distractor influenced reaction time, we can conclude that the distractor
a. was overtly responded to by the participant.
b. was processed.
c. was ignored.
d. appeared in a high-load condition.
____ 76. Experiments that support the idea of early selection involve
a. simple tasks.
c. low-load tasks.
b. high-load tasks.
d. extended practice.
____ 77. According to your text, the ability to divide attention depends on all of the following EXCEPT
a. practice.
c. the difficulty of the tasks.
b. the type of tasks.
d. task cueing.
____ 78. Imagine that U.S. lawmakers are considering changing the driving laws and that you have been consulted as an
attention expert. Given the principles of consistent vs. varied mapping, which of the following possible changes
to driving laws would most interfere with a skilled driver’s automatic performance when driving a car?
a. Passing laws where headlights must be used during the day when the weather is bad
b. Requiring all drivers learn to drive safely on wet roadways using anti-lock brakes
c. Requiring successful curbside parking performance to obtain a license
d. Creating conditions where sometimes a green light meant "stop"
____ 79. In Schneider and Shiffrin’s experiment, in which participants were asked to indicate whether a target stimulus
was present in a series of rapidly presented "frames," divided attention was easier
a. in the consistent-mapping condition.
b. in the variable-mapping condition.
c. in the high-load condition.
d. for the location-based task.
____ 80. The Stroop effect demonstrates
a. how automatic processing can interfere with intended processing.
b. a failure of divided attention.
c. the ease of performing a low-load task.
d. support for object-based attention.
____ 81. The Stroop effect occurs when participants
a. are told to divide their attention between colors and shapes.
b. try to name colors and ignore words.
c. try to select some incoming information based on meaning.
d. are told to shadow two messages simultaneously.
____ 82. Controlled processing involves
a. close attention.
b. ease in performing parallel tasks.
c. overlearning of tasks.
d. few cognitive resources.
____ 83. Which of the following statements concerning the "100-car naturalistic driving study" is true?
a. Video recorders created records of both what the drivers were doing and the views out the
front and rear windows.
b. Pushing buttons on a cell phone was the least distracting activity drivers performed while
driving.
c. Records showed that the majority of drivers were attentive to driving during the three
seconds before a near crash but inattentive during the three seconds before an actual crash.
d. All of the above
____ 84. Research on the use of cell phones while driving indicates that
a. the negative effect can be decreased by using "hands-free" units.
b. the problem with cell phones is that attention is distracted from the task of driving by the
need to hold the phone and drive with one hand.
c. the main effect of cell phone use on driving safety can be attributed to the fact that attention
is used up by the cognitive task of talking on the phone.
d. both a and b are correct
____ 85. In Simons and Chabris's "change blindness" experiment, participants watch a film of people playing basketball.
Many participants failed to report that that a woman carrying an umbrella walked through because the
a. woman with the umbrella was in motion, just like the players.
b. the umbrella was the same color as the floor.
c. participants were counting the number of ball passes.
d. participants were not asked if they saw anything unusual.
____ 86. Automatic attraction of attention by a sudden visual or auditory stimulus is called
a. covert attention.
c. endogenous attention.
b. exogenous attention.
d. an illusory conjunction.
____ 87. The use of an eye tracker can help reveal the shifting of one's _____ attention.
a. overt
c. divided
b. covert
d. dichotic
____ 88. A bottom-up process is involved in fixating on an area of a scene that
a. has high stimulus salience.
c. is familiar.
b. fits with the observer's interests.
d. carries meaning for the observer.
____ 89. When we search a scene, initial fixations are most likely to occur on ____ areas.
a. high-load
c. high-saliency
b. low-load
d. low-saliency
____ 90. Colby and coworkers' study showed that a monkey's parietal cortex responded best to the appearance of a light
when it was the focus of the monkey's
a. attention.
c. fixation.
b. eyes.
d. all of the above
____ 91. According to Treisman’s feature integration theory, the first stage of perception is called the _____ stage.
a. feature analysis
c. preattentive
b. focused attention
d. letter analysis
____ 92. In Klin and coworkers' research that investigated autistic reactions to the film Who's Afraid of Virginia Woolf?,
autistic people primarily attended to ____ in the scene.
a. objects
c. the facial reactions of people
b. actions of the characters
d. none of the above
____ 93. According to your text, students often overlook functions of memory they take for granted such as
a. keeping daily appointments on their schedules.
b. learning material for exams.
c. remembering names and phone numbers.
d. labeling familiar objects.
____ 94. The three structural components of the modal model of memory are
a. receptors, occipital lobe, temporal lobe.
b. receptors, temporal lobe, frontal lobe.
c. sensory memory, short-term memory, long-term memory.
d. sensory memory, iconic memory, rehearsal.
____ 95. A property of control processes in the modal model of memory is that they
a. do not require attention.
b. may differ from one task to another.
c. are performed without conscious awareness.
d. are difficult to modify.
____ 96. Imagine you are driving to a friend’s new house. In your mind, you say the address repeatedly until you arrive.
Once you arrive, you stop thinking about the address and start to think about buying a housewarming gift for
your friend. To remember the address, you used a(n) _______ process in STM.
a. control
c. coding
b. automatic
d. iconic
____ 97. When light from a flashlight is moved quickly back and forth on a wall in a darkened room, it can appear to
observers that there is a trail of light moving across the wall, even though physically the light is only in one
place at any given time. This experience is an effect of memory that occurs because of
a. a visual delay effect.
c. persistence of vision.
b. echoic memory.
d. top-down processing.
____ 98. Compared to the whole-report technique, the partial-report procedure involves
a. a smaller stimulus set.
b. a smaller response set.
c. a smaller stimulus set and a smaller response set.
d. a shorter rehearsal period.
____ 99. Using the partial report procedure in his "letter array" experiment, Sperling was able to infer that participants
initially saw ____ of the 12 letters in the display.
a. 12
c. 6
b. 10
d. 3
____ 100. Brief sensory memory for sound is known as
a. iconic memory.
b. primary auditory memory.
c. echoic memory.
d. pre-perceptual auditory memory.
____ 101. Sperling's delayed partial report procedure provided evidence that
a. STM and LTM are independent components of memory.
b. information in sensory memory fades within 1 or 2 seconds.
c. information in STM must be rehearsed to transfer into LTM.
d. STM has a limited capacity.
____ 102. Sensory memory is believed by many cognitive psychologists to be responsible for all of the following
EXCEPT
a. deciding which incoming sensory information will be the focus of attention.
b. filling in the blanks when the stimulation is intermittent.
c. holding incoming information briefly during initial processing.
d. collecting information to be processed.
____ 103. Peterson and Peterson studied how well participants can remember groups of three letters (like BRT, QSD) after
various delays. They found that participants remembered an average of 80 percent of the groups after 3 seconds
but only 10 percent after 18 seconds. They hypothesized that this decrease in performance was due to _____,
but later research showed that it was actually due to _____.
a. interference; decay
c. decay; interference
b. priming; interference
d. decay; lack of rehearsal
____ 104. Jill's friends tell her they think she has a really good memory. She finds this interesting so she decides to
purposefully test her memory. Jill receives a list of to-do tasks each day at work. Usually, she checks off each
item as the day progresses, but this week, she is determined to memorize the to-do lists. On Monday, Jill is
proud to find that she remembers 95 percent of the tasks without referring to the list. On Tuesday, her memory
drops to 80 percent, and by Thursday, she is dismayed to see her performance has declined to 20 percent. Jill
does not realize that she is demonstrating a natural mechanism of memory known as
a. short-term memory.
c. chunking.
b. episodic buffering.
d. proactive interference.
____ 105. If basketball legend Shaquille O'Neal wanted to remember his 16-digit credit card number, which of the
following memory techniques would you recommend?
a. He should think of the numbers as a sequence of basketball statistics.
b. He should picture each of the numbers in his head printed in a bright color.
c. He should first memorize a few other sequences of 16 digits to gain some practice.
d. He should visualize the front of his credit card showing a picture of him dribbling a
basketball.
____ 106. If a person has a digit span of two, this indicates that he has _____ memory.
a. poor sensory
c. normal sensory
b. poor short-term
d. normal short-term
____ 107. Chase and Simon’s research compared memory of chess masters and beginners for the position of game pieces
on sample chess boards. They found that the chess master remembered positions better when the arrangement of
the pieces was consistent with a real game but not when the pieces were randomly placed. The significance of
this finding was that
a. experts show larger primacy and recency effects than beginners.
b. knowledge in an area of expertise increases a person’s digit span.
c. expertise with some material reduces susceptibility to proactive interference with that
material.
d. chunking requires knowledge of familiar patterns or concepts.
____ 108. The conclusion from the experiment in which a chess master and a chess novice were asked to remember the
positions of chess pieces on a chess board was that
a. chess masters outperform novices in all conditions.
b. chess masters have developed better memory skills than novices.
c. novices do better because they are not distracted by irrelevant knowledge about previous
chess games.
d. chess masters use chunking to help them remember actual game arrangements.
____ 109. Coding refers to the way information is
a. processed.
b. activated.
c. presented.
d. represented.
____ 110. Funahashi et al.'s work on monkeys doing a delayed response task is an example of the
a. physiological approach to coding.
b. mental approach to coding.
c. physiological and mental approach to coding.
d. study of articulatory suppression.
____ 111. If you remember something in terms of its meaning, the type of encoding you are using is
a. semantic.
c. visual.
b. acoustic.
d. iconic.
____ 112. The code for short-term memory is most commonly based on the _____ of the stimulus.
a. sound
c. meaning
b. appearance
d. modality
____ 113. Lamar has just gotten a new job and is attending a company party where he will meet his colleagues for the first
time. His boss escorts him around to small groups to introduce him. At the first group, Lamar meets four people
and is told only their first names. The same thing happens with a second group and a third group. At the fourth
group, Lamar is told their names and that one of the women in the group is the company accountant. A little
while later, Lamar realizes that he only remembers the names of the people in the first group, though he also
remembers the profession of the last woman he met (the accountant). Lamar’s experience demonstrates
a. The phonological similarity effect
b. A build-up and release of proactive interference
c. The cocktail party phenomenon
d. A partial-report procedure
____ 114. Suppose you (a student) are asked by a teacher to learn a poem you will recite in front of your class. Soon after,
both you and a classmate, J.P., are asked by another teacher to learn the lyrics to an unfamiliar song. When you
and J.P. are later asked to remember the song lyrics, you have a much more difficult time recalling them than
J.P. does. This impairment of your performance is most likely attributable to
a. proactive interference.
b. your overloading the phonological loop.
c. a release from proactive interference.
d. a recency effect.
____ 115. Observations that participants could do two tasks at once, such as focusing on a digit-span task while
comprehending a paragraph, challenged the conceptualization of
a. the phonological similarity effect.
b. short-term memory.
c. the persistence of vision.
d. the physiological approach to coding.
____ 116. Working memory differs from short-term memory in that
a. short-term memory consists of a number of components.
b. short-term memory has unlimited capacity.
c. working memory is concerned with the manipulation of information.
d. working memory has unlimited capacity.
____ 117. The emphasis of the concept of working memory is on how information is
a. permanently stored.
c. forgotten.
b. manipulated.
d. perceived.
____ 118. Given what we know about the operation of the phonological loop, which of the following word lists would be
most difficult for people to retain for 15 seconds?
a. BIP, TEK, LIN, MOD, REY
c. MAC, CAN, CAP, MAN, MAP
b. SAY, BET, PIN, COW, RUG
d. PIG, DOG, RAT, FOX, HEN
____ 119. The word-length effect shows that it is more difficult to remember
a. a long list of words than a short list of words.
b. a list of long words than a list of short words.
c. a list of words that are all the same length than a list of words that are of different lengths.
d. a list of words that are of different lengths than a list of words that are all the same length.
____ 120. A task with the instructions "Read the following words while repeating 'the, the, the' out loud, look away, and
then write down the words you remember" would most likely be studying
a. the phonological loop.
c. echoic memory.
b. the visuospatial sketch pad.
d. the central executive.
____ 121. Articulatory suppression causes a decrease in the word-length effect because
a. saying "the, the, the" fills up the phonological loop.
b. saying "la, la, la" forces participants to use visual encoding.
c. talking makes the longer words seem even longer.
d. elaborative rehearsal helps transfer information into LTM.
____ 122. According to the model of working memory, which of the following mental tasks should LEAST adversely
affect people’s driving performance while operating a car along an unfamiliar, winding road?
a. Trying to imagine how many cabinets are in their kitchen
b. Trying to remember a map of the area
c. Trying to remember the definition of a word they just learned
d. Trying to imagine a portrait from a recent museum exhibit
____ 123. It is easier to perform two tasks at the same time if
a. one is handled by the sketch pad and one is handled by the phonological loop.
b. both are handled by the sketch pad.
c. both are handled by the phonological loop.
d. both b and c are correct
____ 124. One function of ____ is controlling the suppression of irrelevant information.
a. sensory memory
c. articulatory suppression
b. the phonological loop
d. the central executive
____ 125. Shanta has frontal lobe damage. She is doing a problem solving task in which she has to choose the red object
out of many choices. She can easily complete this repeatedly, but when the experimenter asks her to choose the
blue object on a new trial of the task, she continues to choose the red one, even when the experimenter gives her
feedback that she is incorrect. Shanta is displaying
a. sensory memory.
c. perseveration.
b. decay.
d. the central executive.
____ 126. The episodic buffer directly connects to which two components in Baddley's model of memory?
a. The phonological loop and the visuospatial sketchpad
b. The central executive and long-term memory
c. The central executive and the phonological loop
d. The phonological loop and long-term memory
____ 127. Models designed to explain mental functioning are constantly refined and modified to explain new results.
Which of the following exemplifies this concept based on the results presented in your text?
a. Replacing the STM component of the modal model with working memory
b. Replacing the sensory memory component of the modal model with the episodic buffer
c. Replacing the STM component of the modal model with iconic memory
d. Replacing the sensory memory component of the modal model with working memory
____ 128. The inability to assimilate or retain new knowledge is known as
a. anterograde amnesia.
c. the primacy effect.
b. retrograde amnesia.
d. the serial effect.
____ 129. Which of the following would most likely be a detailed long-term memory?
a. I just sat down.
b. I was talking to that girl just before class.
c. I was talking to that boy three months ago.
d. I talked to my cousin Amelia on the phone six months ago.
____ 130. You’ve now learned about the serial position curve. The relevant research in your text describes this curve using
a free recall task (participants are free to recall words in any order they choose). Imagine that you conducted a
"remembering a list" experiment using a serial recall task (participants must recall words in the same order they
were presented). What would you predict for the results with the serial recall task?
a. The same serial position curve observed with free recall
b. A diminished recency effect, relative to free recall
c. A diminished primacy effect, relative to free recall
d. Diminished primacy and recency effects, relative to free recall
____ 131. Regarding free recall of a list of items, which of the following will most likely cause the recency effect to
disappear?
a. Inserting a 30-second delay before recall
b. Presenting the stimulus list at a slower pace
c. Counting backward for 30 seconds before recall
d. Using a very long list (greater than 30 items at one item per second)
____ 132. Your book discusses the memory functioning of patient H.M. who underwent brain surgery to relieve severe
epileptic seizures. H.M.’s case has been extremely informative to psychologists by demonstrating that
a. LTM can operate normally while STM is impaired.
b. impairment of one memory system (LTM or STM) necessarily leads to deficits in the
functioning of the other.
c. a double dissociation exists for STM and LTM.
d. STM can operate normally while LTM is impaired.
____ 133. Carrie answers her phone with "Hello?" A response, "Hi, Carrie!" comes from the other end of the line. Carrie
responds back with "Hi, Dad!" Carrie processed "Hi, Carrie" using a(n)
a. auditory code in short-term memory.
b. auditory code in long-term memory.
c. iconic code in short-term memory.
d. iconic code in long-term memory.
____ 134. The predominant type of coding in LTM is
a. phonological.
b. concrete.
c. semantic.
d. visual.
____ 135. A study participant is given a list of words to remember. One week later, he recalls the list. Let’s say that one
of the list words was PEAR. Which of the following, none of which actually appeared on the list, would be most
likely incorrectly recalled if the participant doesn’t remember PEAR?
a. REAR
c. APPLE
b. PAIR
d. BEAR
____ 136. We are conscious of _____ memories.
a. implicit
b. procedural
c. declarative
d. all of the above
____ 137. One of the defining properties of the experience of episodic memory is that
a. it involves mental time travel.
b. it always corresponds to events from our past that actually happened.
c. it accesses knowledge about the world that does not have to be tied to any specific personal
experience.
d. it involves all of these.
____ 138. The following statement represents what kind of memory? "The Beatles stopped making music together as a
group in the early 1970s."
a. Episodic
c. Procedural
b. Semantic
d. Implicit
____ 139. "I remember being really excited last year, when my college team won the national championship in
basketball." This statement is an example of _____ memory.
a. episodic
c. semantic
b. implicit
d. procedural
____ 140. Phoebe steps up to the golf ball and hits it down the fairway. She sees that the ball is heading towards someone,
so she yells "Fore!" After her two partners hit their balls, they pick up their bags and start walking to the next
hole. But Phoebe says, "Wait a minute, I haven’t teed off yet." This behavior shows that Phoebe has a problem
with ____ memory.
a. semantic
c. episodic
b. procedural
d. working
____ 141. A patient with impaired episodic memory would most likely have the greatest difficulty in
a. recognizing famous people.
b. remembering the meaning of some words.
c. recalling where to find eating utensils in the kitchen.
d. remembering where a best friend had moved.
____ 142. Knowing the capital of California, but not being able to remember when you first learned it, is an example of
how
a. semantic memory can bias episodic memory.
b. episodic memory can be a "gateway" to semantic memory.
c. semantic memories are easier to form than episodic memories.
d. episodic memories last longer than semantic memories.
____ 143. Your text discusses how episodic and semantic memories are interconnected. This discussion revealed that
when we experience events,
a. episodic memory for events lasts longer than semantic memory for the events.
b. the knowledge that makes up semantic memories is initially attained through a personal
experience based in episodic memory.
c. semantic and episodic memories about events tend to last about the same length of time in
our memory.
d. semantic memory of events is enhanced when it is not interfered with by associated episodic
memories.
____ 144. Imagine that the students described below are all taking a multiple choice test. Which student’s behavior best
describes an example of implicit memory?
a. One student comes to a question for which he is unsure of the answer, but choice b seems
familiar so he decides that it must be right.
b. One student remembers the correct answer to a question as well as where the information
could be found in his notebook.
c. One student has no idea what an answer was supposed to be, but she does not want to leave
a question blank. So, she guesses by first writing out items that she thought would make
sense.
d. One student is sure he does not know the answer for a question, so he leaves it blank.
____ 145. Memory enhancement due to conceptual priming is a result of
a. the test stimulus being the same or resembling the priming stimulus.
b. the test stimulus being different from the priming stimulus.
c. the test stimulus being similar in meaning to the priming stimulus.
d. the test stimulus being different in meaning from the priming stimulus.
____ 146. Which task below would most likely be used to test for implicit memory?
a. Recognizing words that had been presented in an earlier list
b. Recalling the names of popular fairy tales
c. Matching Spanish vocabulary words with their English translations
d. Completing a word for which the first and last letter have been supplied
____ 147. An item on an implicit memory test would most likely resemble which of the following?
a. "Report the first word that you associate with TREE."
b. "Explain your earliest personal memory that relates to TREE."
c. "Which of the following words is related to "plant," TREE or SHOE."
d. "Fill in the following with the first word that comes to mind: T _ _ E."
____ 148. Which of the following involves procedural memory?
a. Knowing how it feels to be scared
b. Recalling a childhood memory
c. Knowing how an automobile engine works
d. Reading a sentence in a book
____ 149. Which of the following is most closely associated with implicit memory?
a. The self-reference effect
b. The propaganda effect
c. Release from proactive inhibition
d. Encoding specificity
____ 150. According to your text, which of the following movies is LEAST accurate in its portrayal of a memory
problem?
a. The Bourne Identity
c. The Long Kiss Goodnight
b. Memento
d. 50 First Dates
Essay
151. Explain how action potentials change in response to stimulus intensity. Use examples from two sensory
modalities to illustrate this process.
152. Explain how the object discrimination problem and the landmark discrimination problem help show what
pathways in the brain are responsible for different cognitive abilities. How does damage to different lobes of the
brain make these tasks more difficult, and what pathways are involved?
153. Describe Moray’s "words in the unattended ear" experiment. Why does this research pose a problem for
Broadbent’s filter model? Specifically, what does this research say about its classification as an early selection
model?
154. Treisman’s model has been called a "leaky filter" model. Describe her model, and explain why it is "leaky."
How does Treisman’s model explain the results of Moray’s "words in the unattended ear" experiment?
155. Lavie showed how results that appear contradictory (some supporting early selection, others supporting late
selection) can all be explained by the same general principle. What is this principle? Explain the experimental
results to support your conclusions.
156. Define automatic processing. Describe the research by Shiffrin and Schneider, which showed how practice can
affect our ability to do multiple tasks simultaneously. In your description, clearly distinguish between
consistent and varied mapping, both in terms of procedure and results.
157. Compare and contrast location- and object-based attention. Give a set of experimental results to support each
type of model.
158. Define working memory. Explain the functions of each of the three components of working memory and
provide experimental evidence for the phonological loop, making sure you describe 1) the phonological
similarity effect, 2) the word-length effect, and 3) articulatory suppression.
159. Models designed to explain mental functioning are constantly refined and modified to explain new
experimental results. Discuss this idea by describing an "old" theory, the "new or revised" theory, and the data
that brought about the change from the old theory to the new theory based on the research described in the
chapter on short-term and working memory.
160. Describe the serial position curve. Draw a graph (labeling each axis) to illustrate the curve, making sure you
explain each "section" of the curve. Explain the structural features of memory responsible for the shape of the
curve.
Sample Questions
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: A
2. ANS: C
REF: page 7
3. ANS: D
REF: page 7
4. ANS: C
REF: page 7
5. ANS: D
KEY: WWW
6. ANS: B
7. ANS: B
8. ANS: B
REF: page 8
9. ANS: C
10. ANS: C
11. ANS: C
REF: page 10
12. ANS: D
13. ANS: D
14. ANS: B
REF: page 12
15. ANS: A
16. ANS: D
REF: page 13
17. ANS: A
REF: page 13
18. ANS: C
19. ANS: C
20. ANS: C
21. ANS: A
REF: page 26
22. ANS: D
REF: page 26
23. ANS: D
24. ANS: D
REF: page 29
25. ANS: C
26. ANS: A
27. ANS: B
28. ANS: A
REF: page 30
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page 31
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page 31
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page 31-32
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page 32
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page 34
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page 35
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page 37
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page 39
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page 39
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page 40
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page 42-43
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page 51
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page 51
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page 57
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page 58
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page 62
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page 62
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page 68-69
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page 74
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page 84
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page 84
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page 84
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page 84-85
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page 86
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page 88
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page 98
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KEY:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
WWW
1
1
1
DIF: MODERATE
DIF: EASY
REF: page 132
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 133
DIF: EASY
REF: page 133
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 133
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
DIF: EASY
DIF: EASY
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 137
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 152-153
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
REF: page 153
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 154
DIF: MODERATE
PTS:
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
1
1
WWW
1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 158
DIF: MODERATE
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
PTS:
1
WWW
1
1
DIF: MODERATE
REF: page 135
REF: page 136
REF: page 136
REF: page 149
DIF: MODERATE
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 158
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 156
DIF: EASY
REF: page 161
DIF: MODERATE
REF:
147. ANS:
REF:
148. ANS:
REF:
149. ANS:
REF:
150. ANS:
REF:
page 161-162
D
page 161-162
D
page 164
B
page 163
D
page 167
PTS: 1
KEY: WWW
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
KEY: WWW
DIF: MODERATE
ESSAY
151. ANS:
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 29
152. ANS:
Answer not provided
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
REF: page 72-73
153. ANS:
Answer not provided
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
REF: page 85
154. ANS:
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 85-86
155. ANS:
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 87
156. ANS:
Answer not provided
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
REF: page 91-92
157. ANS:
Answer not provided
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
REF: page 102-104
158. ANS:
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 132-136
159. ANS:
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
160. ANS:
REF: page 135-136
KEY: WWW
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 151-153
KEY: WWW