Download BIOL 2402 Sample Test 2 MULTIPLE CHOICE (Fill in the best

BIOL 2402
Sample Test 2
MULTIPLE CHOICE (Fill in the best answer)
40 Points
1. Which of the following plasma proteins is most abundant?
A. albumin
B. globulins
C. fibrinogen
D. immunoglobulins
E. hemoglobin
2. Which of the following are true concerning erythrocytes?
A. they rely strictly on anaerobic respiration
B. their precursor is called a megakaryoblast
C. mature cells are nucleated
D. Mature cells are capable of replications
E. they are involved in coagulation
3. Functions of plasma proteins include
A. body temperature regulation.
B. regulation of osmotic pressure.
C. transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
D. serving as a source of energy for metabolism.
E. buffering the blood.
4. A deficiency of which of the following stem cells would result in a marked increase in
the clotting time of blood?
A. lymphoblast
B. megakaryoblast
C. monoblast
D. myeloblast
E. proerythroblast
5. The stem cell from which all formed elements are derived is the
A. megakaryocyte
B. hemocytoblast
C. myeloid stem cell
D. erythroblast
E. lymphoblast
6. An increase in hemoglobin increases
A. the ability of the blood to carry oxygen to various tissues.
B. the quantity of plasma protein available for blood clotting.
C. the leukocyte count.
D. the body's immune response.
E. the osmotic pressure of the blood.
7. Which cell stage directly precedes the reticulocyte stage in erythropoieses?
A. basophilic erythroblast
B. proerythroblast
C. late erythroblast
D. normoblast
E. monoblast
8. When carbon dioxide binds to the hemoglobin molecule, hemoglobin is called
A. oxyhemoglobin
B. deoxyhemoglobin
C. carboxyhemoglobin
D. carbaminohemoglobin
E. fetal hemoglobin
9. The second most numerous of the leukocytes is the
A. neutrophil.
B. basophil.
C. eosinophil.
D. lymphocyte.
E. monocyte.
10. Which leukocyte is responsible for destroying parasitic worms?
A. neutrophils
B. basophils
C. eosinophils
D. lymphocytes
E. monocytes
11. Agglutination of red blood cells means
A. they rupture.
B. they form a clot.
C. they clump together.
D. they lose their nucleus.
E. they bump into each other.
12. Type A blood
A. has no agglutinogins.
B. has A agglutinogens.
C. has A anglutinins.
D. has B agglutinogens.
E. has both A and B agglutinins.
13. A person with type O blood should receive a blood transfusion from a donor with
A. type A blood.
B. type B blood.
C. type O blood.
D. type AB blood.
E. type A or type B blood.
14. The hematocrit is
A. an estimate of blood flow/hour.
B. the number of WBCs per mm3.
C. the amount of hemoglobin by weight in the blood.
D. the percentage of RBCs in a given volume of blood.
E. the number of RBCs in the body.
15. What is the difference between a thrombus and an embolus?
A. One occurs in the bloodstream; the other occurs outside the bloodstream
B. One occurs in arteries, the other in veins
C. One is a blood clot; the other is a parasitic worm
D. A thrombus must travel to become an embolus
E. A thrombus can be deadly; an embolus is not
16. A plasma component that forms the fibrous skeleton of a clot is
A. platelets
B. fibrinogen
C. prothrombin
D. thrombin
E. factor X
17. Which of the following is an agranulocyte?
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Monocytes
E. All are agranulocytes
18. Which of the following layers forms the internal heart wall?
A. epicardium
B. pericardium
C. endocardium
D. myocardium
E. visceral pericardium
19. Blood in the coronary sinus returns to the
A. right atrium.
B. left atrium.
C. right ventricle.
D. left ventricle.
E. coronary sinus.
20. In a normal electrocardiogram, the
A. P wave results from repolarization of the atria.
B. QRS complex results from ventricular depolarization.
C. P wave occurs after the QRS complex but before the T wave.
D. T wave represents depolarization of the atria.
E. repolarization of the atria is clearly visible.
21. Contraction of the ventricles is referred to as ventricular
A. systole.
B. diastole.
C. fibrillation.
D. ischemia.
E. depolarization
22. These vessels empty blood into the left atrium.
A. aorta
B. right atrium
C. pulmonary trunk
D. pulmonary arteries
E. pulmonary veins
23. This blood vessel carries blood from the left ventricle.
A. aorta
B. right atrium
C. pulmonary trunk
D. pulmonary arteries
E. pulmonary veins
24. These vessels transport blood to the right and left lungs.
A. aorta
B. right atrium
C. pulmonary trunk
D. pulmonary arteries
E. pulmonary veins
25. The fibrous skeleton of the heart
A. supports blood vessels
B. anchors blood vessels
C. provides electrical insulation to separate the atrial mass from the ventricular mass
D. anchors cardiac muscle fibers
E. allows blood to move from the ventricles to the atria
26. During atrial systole
A. ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure
B. 70% ventricular filling occurs
C. AV valves are open
D. blood backflows into the atria
E. the atria is relaxed
27. Calcium slow channels are open in cardiac cells plasma membranes during
A. depolarization
B. repolarization
C. plateau phase
D. resting membrane potential
E. relaxation
28. A heart rate of 30 beats per minute indicates that the _______________ is
functioning as an ectopic focus.
A. AV node
B. SA node
C. Purkinje fibers
D. no node
E. all nodes
29. Pain in the chest is called
A. tachycardia
B. bradycardia
C. angina
D. atherosclerosis
E. stroke volume
30. The valve located between the right atrium and right ventricle is the
A. aortic semilunar valve
B. pulmonary semilunar valve
C. tricuspid valve
D. bicuspid valve
E. mitral valve
31. The papillary muscles
A. are attached to chordae tendineae
B. are found in the atria
C. contract close to the foramen ovale
D. are attached to the semilunar valves
E. surround the openings of the coronary arteries
32. Muscular ridges on the interior surface of the auricles are
A. trabeculae carneae
B. crista terminalis
C. pectinate muscles
D. endocardium
E. papillary muscles
33. An increase in extracellular potassium levels could cause
A. an increase in stroke volume
B. an increase in the force of contraction
C. a decrease in heart rate
D. an increase in heart rate
E. all of the above
34. The cardiac region of the heart is found in the
A. pituitary gland
B. pineal gland
C. spinal cord
D. hypothalamus
E. medulla oblongata
35. During pulmonary circulation, blood leaves the
A. right atrium and goes directly to the left ventricle
B. right ventricle and goes directly to the aorta
C. left ventricle and moves to the lungs
D. right ventricle and moves to the lungs.
E. right atrium and goes directly to the lungs
36. During systemic circulation, blood leaves the
A. right ventricle and goes directly to the aorta
B. right ventricle and moves to the lungs
C. left ventricle and goes directly to the aorta
D. right atrium and goes directly to the lungs
E. lungs and moves to the left atrium
37. The coronary arteries arise from the
A. inferior vena cava
B. superior vena cava
C. right atrium
D. pulmonary trunk
E. aorta
38. The endocardium is composed of
A. simple columnar epithelium
B. simple cuboidal epithelium
C. simple squamous epithelium
D. cardiac muscle cells
E. stratified squamouns epithlium
39. One factor that increases EDV is
A. decreased heart rate
B. increased venous return
C. increased force of contraction
D. lowered blood volume
E. all of the above
40. Asprin inhibits
A. prostaglandin synthesis
B. formation of platelets
C. heart rate
D. force of contraction
E. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
TRUE AND FALSE (Fill in A if the answer is True and B if the answer is False)
15 Points
41. Oxygen binds to the globin chain on the hemoglobin molecule.
42. The lub sound of a heart beat signals closure of the semilunar valves.
43. Dicrotic notch occurs as blood rebounds from the ventricles to the atria.
44. An increase in heart rate can increase EDV.
45. Coarctation of the aorta refers to narrowing of the aorta.
46. There are 4 pulmonary arteries.
47. Folic acid is necessary for DNA synthesis in rbcs
48. Potassium is needed for synthesis of procoagulants.
49. Iron deficient red blood cells may appear small and pale.
50. When red blood cells are degraded, hemoglobin binds to ferretin for
transportation to the liver.
51. Streptokinase can be used to dissolve a fibrin clot.
52. Acute forms of leukemia usually have large numbers of “blast” wbc.
53. A maximum of 2 oxygen molecules can bind to a single hemoglobin.
54. Type O positive would be considered a universal donor.
55. Hematopoiesis occurs in yellow bone marrow.
FILL IN THE BLANK
10 Points
56. High levels of circulating white blood cells are called ___________________.
57. One cause of anemia is ______________________.
58. Stroke Volume = EDV - _____________________.
59. One way to increase EDV is ______________________________.
60. High concentrations of potassium in the bloodstream are called
______________________.
61. One cause of congestive heart failure is ________________________.
62. Erythropoietin is produced in what organ? _________________________
63. Which factor is needed to activate prothrombin activator?
______________________
64. One of the 3 major coronary arteries is _____________________.
65. What structures prevent backflow into the ventricles when the heart is relaxed?
____________________
DISCUSSION (Answer any 3 questions)
30 Points
1. What are the phases of the cardiac cycle?
2. Describe the direction of blood flow through the heart (both systemic and
pulmonary circuits).
3. Explain how heart valves (AV and semilunar) open and close.
4. Describe the ABO blood groups (agglutinins, agglutinogens, universal donor and
acceptor).
5. Describe the general characteristics of granulocytes and agranulocytes. What are
the differences (structurally and functionally) between neutrophils, basophils,
eosinophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes.
6. List and explain the general functions of blood.
ANSWER THIS QUESTION
5 Points
Name the 5 types of white blood cells in order from the most numerous to least
numerous.
The real test has
50 multiple choice
10 true and false
10 fill in the blank
3 discussion questions
If your discussion answer is only 2 or 3 sentences long, it’s not detailed enough.
Good Luck!