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BI 200 - Exam #3
Spring 2004
Name
Lab Section
Disclaimer
Consider each question, and answer each in the appropriate format (e.g., multiple choice).
You may qualify your answer if you have reservations. If your comments have merit,
you may receive partial or full credit.
Multiple Choice - 1 point each
1. Anaerobic respiratory bacteria differ from humans and other aerobic respiratory
organisms
A)
B)
C)
D)
in their substrate oxidizing pathways
in their electron transport chains
because they don’t form proton gradients
because they don’t contain the enzyme ATPase
2. Lithotrophic bacteria differ from humans and other chemoorganotrophs
A)
B)
C)
D)
in their substrate oxidizing pathways
in their electron transport chains
because they don’t form proton gradients
because they don’t contain the enzyme ATPase
3. The following carry out the detrimental activity where nitrate is depleted from soil
A) denitrifying bacteria
B) nitrogen-fixing bacteria
C) nitrifying bacteria
D) enteric bacteria
4. Which type of metabolism is probably the oldest?
A) anaerobic respiration
B) oxygenic photosynthesis
C) aerobic respiration
5. These bacteria have been implicated in the degradation of pollutants like benzene and
toluene in anaerobic sediments and groundwater aquifers
A) Paracoccus
B) Enteric bacteria
C) Iron reducing bacteria
D) Hydrogen-oxidizing bacteria
6. Which of the following organisms grows by transferring electrons from acetic acid to
Fe3+ (ferric iron)? It is an obligate anaerobe, and produces Fe2+ (ferrous iron) as end
product.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Gallionella
Thiobacillus ferrooxidans
Rusticyanin
Geobacter
Leptothrix
7. Methanogens
A) have a large separation between the electron donating couple and accepting couple
B) fluoresce under ultraviolet light due to chlorophyll
C) are obligate anaerobes
D) are not widely distributed in nature
E) can be found in cows, but not termites
8. Which statement describes the chromosomal content of a typical bacterium?
A) Two copies of a single double-stranded, circular DNA molecule.
B) Two copies of a single double-stranded, circular RNA molecule.
C) One copy of a single double-stranded, circular DNA molecule.
D) Two copies of multiple double-stranded, linear DNA molecules.
9. The inability to ferment lactose is an example of
A) a visible phenotypic marker
B) a differential phenotypic marker
C) a selectable phenotypic marker
D) a heterozygote
10. Resistance to the antibiotic penicillin is an example of
A) a visible phenotypic marker
B) a differential phenotypic marker
C) a selectable phenotypic marker
D) a homozygote
11. A mutant unable to synthesize the amino acid tryptophan is an example of
A) wild type
B) a prototroph
C) an autotroph
D) an auxotroph
12. Which of the following would be the correctly expressed phenotypic and genotypic
designation for the mutant described in the previous question?
A) TRP -; trpA
B) Trp+; trpA
C) Trp-; trpA
D) Lac +; TrpA
13. Which of the following is not a means of gene exchange among bacteria?
A) transcription
B) transformation
C) conjugation
D) transduction
14. Genes on plasmids may be responsible for all of the following except:
A) expression of a virulence factor
B) synthesis of ribosome protein
C) synthesis of pili
D) transfer of drug resistance
E) degradation of pollutants
15. In conjugation genes on plasmids are transferred in matings between:
A) two F- strains
B) F+ and F- cells
C) two F+ strains
D) a and b
E) b and c
16. Which of the following is not true about transformation?
A) Viruses are not involved.
B) The process is not sensitive to the enzyme DNase.
C) DNA can be transferred between species.
D) The donor cell must be lysed before transfer can take place.
17. Independent virus particles (virion)
A) do not contain nucleic acids
B) do not carry out metabolism
C) do not contain ribosomes
D) a, b, and c are all true
E) only b and c are true
18. Viruses that infect bacteria are called
A) retroviruses
B) bacteriorhodopsin
C) bacteriochlorophyll
D) bacteriophage
19. Enzymes that bind DNA fit in the
A) major groove
B) minor groove
C) anti-parallel strand
D) stem-loop
20. Viruses may be as small as
A) 0.02 nm
B) 0.02 m
C) 0.02 mm
D) 0.02 inches
21. The type of bacterial virus which is covalently inserted into its host’s DNA is called
A) an Hfr strain
B) temperate phage
C) macrophage
D) virulent phage
22. A piece of double stranded DNA has 14% Adenine bases. Which of the following
would not be true?
A) there would be 36% cytosine in the DNA
B) there would be 14% uracil in the DNA
C) there would be 36% guanine in the DNA
D) none of the above, all are true in the DNA
23. Although uncommon, double stranded RNA “hair pin” or stem loop structures do
occur in
A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) rRNA
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
24. Which of these is not normally competent for transformation?
A) E. coli
B) Bacillus
C) Haemophilus
D) Streptococcus
25. When lysogenized the bacterial host may undergo phage conversion, and
A) is immune to further infection
B) may produce additional toxins as with diptheria and scarlet fever
C) can reproduce indefinitely
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
26. Which are required for recombination?
A) virus
B) Dnase
C) homologous sequence
D) gyrase
C) homologous sequence
D) gyrase
27. Transformation is sensitive to
A) virus
B) Dnase
28. Forced competence can be achieved by
A) Electroporation
B) Dnase
C) Ca2+/Cold shock
D) A and C
E) A, B, and C
29. An archaea that carries out Sulfur oxidation would be
A) Sulfolobus
B) Thiobacillus
C) Desulfovibrio
D) Beggiatoa
30. A bacterium that carries out Sulfur oxidation at low pH would be
A) Sulfolobus
B) Thiobacillus
C) Desulfovibrio
D) Beggiatoa
The figure on the left represents which
type of virus structure?
A. Complex
B. Icosohedral
C. Enveloped
D. Helical
E. Corona
The name for the individual protein
structural subunits is
A. Nucleocapsid
B. Plaque
C. Retrovirus
D. Capsid
E. Capsomere
The plate on the left is an example of a
A. Tissue culture
B. Replica plate
C. Plaques Assay
D. Eclipse period
E. Prototroph
The diagram on the left would represent
substrate oxidation by
A. Hydrogenobacter
B. E. coli
C. Thiobacillus ferroxidans
D. Desulfovibrio
E. a denitrifier
The type of metabolism is
A. Fermentation
B. Photosynthesis
C. Aerobic Respiration
D. Anaerobic Respiration
The diagram on the left would represent
metabolism by
A. Nitrosomonas
B. E. coli
C. Nitrosococcus
D. Lactobacillus
E. a denitrifier
The type of metabolism is
A. Fermentation
B. Photosynthesis
C. Aerobic Respiration
D. Anaerobic Respiration
This metabolic process is important in
A. Acid Mine Drainage
B. Acid Rain
C. Agriculture
D. Degradation of pollutants in the
ocean
The diagram above depicts
A. Transduction
B. Curing
C. Transformation
D. Conjugation
After the events in the figure above
A. Both cells are female
B. Both cells are male
C. The cells are clones
D. The cells are cured
The structures inside the bacterium above are sulfur granules and may occur in all but
A. Desulfovibrio
B. Thoibacillus
C. Beggiatoa
Complete the following narrative by circling the word or phrase in each bold faced
parenthesis that most accurately completes the statement. (1 point each).
The viruses that infect vertebrates have (RNA, DNA, either RNA or DNA, protein
only) as their genetic material. They often are “cloaked” in an envelope made of
(phospholipids, capsomeres, either RNA or DNA, peptidoglycan) that was taken from
their host. Many are icosohedral, such as parvovirus, while others are helical like (Kuru,
HIV, picornovirus, orthomyxovirus). The largest of the viruses is (pox, corona virus,
picornavirus, T4). An example of a zoonoses is (parvovirus, rhinovirus, rhabdovirus,
small pox), which has several different animal hosts. Papilloma viruses such as (Mu,
HIV, hepatitis A, HPV) can cause certain types of cancers including cervical cancer and
(skin, breast, liver, hair) cancer. Herpes viruses include that cause fever blisters, cold
sores, genital warts, chicken pox, and (hepatitis, phage conversion, mononucleosis,
AIDS). The mode of infection exhibited by herpes viruses is (tumorogenic, latent,
persistent, lytic). (HIV, Ebola, Epstien-Barr, T4) is an example of a lytic animal virus.
The viral disease with the highest mortality rate is (SARS corona virus, influenzae,
Norwalk rotavirus, Ebola hemorrhagic fever), while the one responsible for the most
human death in the twentieth century is (AIDS, orthomyxovirus, small pox, polio).
Fortunately (polio, HIV, small pox, rabies) has been essentially eliminated from the face
of the Earth by an extensive program of (vaccination, vaccination, vaccination,
vaccination). Vaccination has led to a great reduction in the number of cases of (polio,
HIV, Ebola, HPV) in the United States.
2 points each. Fill in the blank from the
proteins, enzymes, RNAs, or other
complexes listed on this page. There
may be more than one correct answer,
and you may use an answer more than
once, but put only one answer for each.
1._______________________________
Binds DNA in major groove
2._______________________________
Found only in eukaryotes
3._______________________________
Found only in prokaryotes
4._______________________________
Target of ciproflxin
5._______________________________
Responsible for DNA replication in
bacteria
6._______________________________
Recognizes beginning of bacterial
operons
7._______________________________
Unique to retroviruses
8._______________________________
Introduces supercoiling in bacteria,
makes double-strand breaks
9._______________________________
Found in both eukaryotes and
prokaryotes
10.______________________________
Necessary for homologous
recombination
11.______________________________
Last enzyme expressed in T4 infection
12.______________________________
Contains exons and introns
13.______________________________
α2ββ’
14.______________________________
Your least favorite DNA binding protein
15.______________________________
Your favorite DNA binding protein
16S S rRNA
70S Ribosome
80S Ribosome
Capsomere
Core enzyme of RNA polymerase
DNA pol I
DNA pol III
DNase
Histone
Lysozyme
primary transcript
RecA
Reverse transcriptase
Sigma factor of RNA polymerase
Single stranded binding protein
Topoisomerase I
Topoisomerase II (gyrase)
tRNA
DNA Ligase
For each of the following features of information flow in cells, indicate if
each occurs predominantly in prokaryotes (pro), eukaryotes (euk), or both?
1. ____________ DNA
2. ____________ Nucleus
3. ____________ Satellite DNA
4. ____________ Operons
5. ____________ Introns
6. ____________ Sigma factor
7. ____________ Primary transcript
8. ____________ tRNA
9. ____________ 80S Ribosome
10. ____________ 16S Small sub unit rRNA
Match the key biochemical or cell feature that with the type of microorganism in (or on)
which it might be found. (1 point each)
A. Hydrogen oxidixing chemolithotroph
_____ Dissimilatory Nitrate Reductase
B. Fluorescent Methanogenic bacterium
_____ F420
C. Sulfate reducing bacterium
_____ Carboxysome
D. Any autotrophic bacterium
_____ Ammonium monooxygenase
(AMO)
E. Iron reducing bacterium
_____ Hydrogenase
F. NH3 oxidizing Nitrosomonas
_____ Rustcyanin
G. Iron oxidizing T. ferroxydans
_____ Menaquinone
H. Escherichia coli
_____ APS and Cytochrome c3
Match the gene name with trait or activity it is associated with. (1 point each)
A. ori
_____ synthesis of tryptophan
B. recA
_____ homologous recombination
C. lacZ
_____ pilus synthesis
D. trpE
_____ resistance to tetracycline
E. tra
_____ the origin of replication
F. tetA
_____ β-galactosidase
Double bonus (10 points). Describe the time course of events in T4 infection. Using the time line below, indicate when the early and
late genes are transcribed and translated. What are those proteins, and what are their functions? When is the DNA replicated? Make
a separate list of the five stages of lytic infection.
O minutes
25 minutes