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BI 200 - Exam #3 Spring 2004 Name Lab Section Disclaimer Consider each question, and answer each in the appropriate format (e.g., multiple choice). You may qualify your answer if you have reservations. If your comments have merit, you may receive partial or full credit. Multiple Choice - 1 point each 1. Anaerobic respiratory bacteria differ from humans and other aerobic respiratory organisms A) B) C) D) in their substrate oxidizing pathways in their electron transport chains because they don’t form proton gradients because they don’t contain the enzyme ATPase 2. Lithotrophic bacteria differ from humans and other chemoorganotrophs A) B) C) D) in their substrate oxidizing pathways in their electron transport chains because they don’t form proton gradients because they don’t contain the enzyme ATPase 3. The following carry out the detrimental activity where nitrate is depleted from soil A) denitrifying bacteria B) nitrogen-fixing bacteria C) nitrifying bacteria D) enteric bacteria 4. Which type of metabolism is probably the oldest? A) anaerobic respiration B) oxygenic photosynthesis C) aerobic respiration 5. These bacteria have been implicated in the degradation of pollutants like benzene and toluene in anaerobic sediments and groundwater aquifers A) Paracoccus B) Enteric bacteria C) Iron reducing bacteria D) Hydrogen-oxidizing bacteria 6. Which of the following organisms grows by transferring electrons from acetic acid to Fe3+ (ferric iron)? It is an obligate anaerobe, and produces Fe2+ (ferrous iron) as end product. A) B) C) D) E) Gallionella Thiobacillus ferrooxidans Rusticyanin Geobacter Leptothrix 7. Methanogens A) have a large separation between the electron donating couple and accepting couple B) fluoresce under ultraviolet light due to chlorophyll C) are obligate anaerobes D) are not widely distributed in nature E) can be found in cows, but not termites 8. Which statement describes the chromosomal content of a typical bacterium? A) Two copies of a single double-stranded, circular DNA molecule. B) Two copies of a single double-stranded, circular RNA molecule. C) One copy of a single double-stranded, circular DNA molecule. D) Two copies of multiple double-stranded, linear DNA molecules. 9. The inability to ferment lactose is an example of A) a visible phenotypic marker B) a differential phenotypic marker C) a selectable phenotypic marker D) a heterozygote 10. Resistance to the antibiotic penicillin is an example of A) a visible phenotypic marker B) a differential phenotypic marker C) a selectable phenotypic marker D) a homozygote 11. A mutant unable to synthesize the amino acid tryptophan is an example of A) wild type B) a prototroph C) an autotroph D) an auxotroph 12. Which of the following would be the correctly expressed phenotypic and genotypic designation for the mutant described in the previous question? A) TRP -; trpA B) Trp+; trpA C) Trp-; trpA D) Lac +; TrpA 13. Which of the following is not a means of gene exchange among bacteria? A) transcription B) transformation C) conjugation D) transduction 14. Genes on plasmids may be responsible for all of the following except: A) expression of a virulence factor B) synthesis of ribosome protein C) synthesis of pili D) transfer of drug resistance E) degradation of pollutants 15. In conjugation genes on plasmids are transferred in matings between: A) two F- strains B) F+ and F- cells C) two F+ strains D) a and b E) b and c 16. Which of the following is not true about transformation? A) Viruses are not involved. B) The process is not sensitive to the enzyme DNase. C) DNA can be transferred between species. D) The donor cell must be lysed before transfer can take place. 17. Independent virus particles (virion) A) do not contain nucleic acids B) do not carry out metabolism C) do not contain ribosomes D) a, b, and c are all true E) only b and c are true 18. Viruses that infect bacteria are called A) retroviruses B) bacteriorhodopsin C) bacteriochlorophyll D) bacteriophage 19. Enzymes that bind DNA fit in the A) major groove B) minor groove C) anti-parallel strand D) stem-loop 20. Viruses may be as small as A) 0.02 nm B) 0.02 m C) 0.02 mm D) 0.02 inches 21. The type of bacterial virus which is covalently inserted into its host’s DNA is called A) an Hfr strain B) temperate phage C) macrophage D) virulent phage 22. A piece of double stranded DNA has 14% Adenine bases. Which of the following would not be true? A) there would be 36% cytosine in the DNA B) there would be 14% uracil in the DNA C) there would be 36% guanine in the DNA D) none of the above, all are true in the DNA 23. Although uncommon, double stranded RNA “hair pin” or stem loop structures do occur in A) mRNA B) tRNA C) rRNA D) all of the above E) none of the above 24. Which of these is not normally competent for transformation? A) E. coli B) Bacillus C) Haemophilus D) Streptococcus 25. When lysogenized the bacterial host may undergo phage conversion, and A) is immune to further infection B) may produce additional toxins as with diptheria and scarlet fever C) can reproduce indefinitely D) all of the above E) none of the above 26. Which are required for recombination? A) virus B) Dnase C) homologous sequence D) gyrase C) homologous sequence D) gyrase 27. Transformation is sensitive to A) virus B) Dnase 28. Forced competence can be achieved by A) Electroporation B) Dnase C) Ca2+/Cold shock D) A and C E) A, B, and C 29. An archaea that carries out Sulfur oxidation would be A) Sulfolobus B) Thiobacillus C) Desulfovibrio D) Beggiatoa 30. A bacterium that carries out Sulfur oxidation at low pH would be A) Sulfolobus B) Thiobacillus C) Desulfovibrio D) Beggiatoa The figure on the left represents which type of virus structure? A. Complex B. Icosohedral C. Enveloped D. Helical E. Corona The name for the individual protein structural subunits is A. Nucleocapsid B. Plaque C. Retrovirus D. Capsid E. Capsomere The plate on the left is an example of a A. Tissue culture B. Replica plate C. Plaques Assay D. Eclipse period E. Prototroph The diagram on the left would represent substrate oxidation by A. Hydrogenobacter B. E. coli C. Thiobacillus ferroxidans D. Desulfovibrio E. a denitrifier The type of metabolism is A. Fermentation B. Photosynthesis C. Aerobic Respiration D. Anaerobic Respiration The diagram on the left would represent metabolism by A. Nitrosomonas B. E. coli C. Nitrosococcus D. Lactobacillus E. a denitrifier The type of metabolism is A. Fermentation B. Photosynthesis C. Aerobic Respiration D. Anaerobic Respiration This metabolic process is important in A. Acid Mine Drainage B. Acid Rain C. Agriculture D. Degradation of pollutants in the ocean The diagram above depicts A. Transduction B. Curing C. Transformation D. Conjugation After the events in the figure above A. Both cells are female B. Both cells are male C. The cells are clones D. The cells are cured The structures inside the bacterium above are sulfur granules and may occur in all but A. Desulfovibrio B. Thoibacillus C. Beggiatoa Complete the following narrative by circling the word or phrase in each bold faced parenthesis that most accurately completes the statement. (1 point each). The viruses that infect vertebrates have (RNA, DNA, either RNA or DNA, protein only) as their genetic material. They often are “cloaked” in an envelope made of (phospholipids, capsomeres, either RNA or DNA, peptidoglycan) that was taken from their host. Many are icosohedral, such as parvovirus, while others are helical like (Kuru, HIV, picornovirus, orthomyxovirus). The largest of the viruses is (pox, corona virus, picornavirus, T4). An example of a zoonoses is (parvovirus, rhinovirus, rhabdovirus, small pox), which has several different animal hosts. Papilloma viruses such as (Mu, HIV, hepatitis A, HPV) can cause certain types of cancers including cervical cancer and (skin, breast, liver, hair) cancer. Herpes viruses include that cause fever blisters, cold sores, genital warts, chicken pox, and (hepatitis, phage conversion, mononucleosis, AIDS). The mode of infection exhibited by herpes viruses is (tumorogenic, latent, persistent, lytic). (HIV, Ebola, Epstien-Barr, T4) is an example of a lytic animal virus. The viral disease with the highest mortality rate is (SARS corona virus, influenzae, Norwalk rotavirus, Ebola hemorrhagic fever), while the one responsible for the most human death in the twentieth century is (AIDS, orthomyxovirus, small pox, polio). Fortunately (polio, HIV, small pox, rabies) has been essentially eliminated from the face of the Earth by an extensive program of (vaccination, vaccination, vaccination, vaccination). Vaccination has led to a great reduction in the number of cases of (polio, HIV, Ebola, HPV) in the United States. 2 points each. Fill in the blank from the proteins, enzymes, RNAs, or other complexes listed on this page. There may be more than one correct answer, and you may use an answer more than once, but put only one answer for each. 1._______________________________ Binds DNA in major groove 2._______________________________ Found only in eukaryotes 3._______________________________ Found only in prokaryotes 4._______________________________ Target of ciproflxin 5._______________________________ Responsible for DNA replication in bacteria 6._______________________________ Recognizes beginning of bacterial operons 7._______________________________ Unique to retroviruses 8._______________________________ Introduces supercoiling in bacteria, makes double-strand breaks 9._______________________________ Found in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes 10.______________________________ Necessary for homologous recombination 11.______________________________ Last enzyme expressed in T4 infection 12.______________________________ Contains exons and introns 13.______________________________ α2ββ’ 14.______________________________ Your least favorite DNA binding protein 15.______________________________ Your favorite DNA binding protein 16S S rRNA 70S Ribosome 80S Ribosome Capsomere Core enzyme of RNA polymerase DNA pol I DNA pol III DNase Histone Lysozyme primary transcript RecA Reverse transcriptase Sigma factor of RNA polymerase Single stranded binding protein Topoisomerase I Topoisomerase II (gyrase) tRNA DNA Ligase For each of the following features of information flow in cells, indicate if each occurs predominantly in prokaryotes (pro), eukaryotes (euk), or both? 1. ____________ DNA 2. ____________ Nucleus 3. ____________ Satellite DNA 4. ____________ Operons 5. ____________ Introns 6. ____________ Sigma factor 7. ____________ Primary transcript 8. ____________ tRNA 9. ____________ 80S Ribosome 10. ____________ 16S Small sub unit rRNA Match the key biochemical or cell feature that with the type of microorganism in (or on) which it might be found. (1 point each) A. Hydrogen oxidixing chemolithotroph _____ Dissimilatory Nitrate Reductase B. Fluorescent Methanogenic bacterium _____ F420 C. Sulfate reducing bacterium _____ Carboxysome D. Any autotrophic bacterium _____ Ammonium monooxygenase (AMO) E. Iron reducing bacterium _____ Hydrogenase F. NH3 oxidizing Nitrosomonas _____ Rustcyanin G. Iron oxidizing T. ferroxydans _____ Menaquinone H. Escherichia coli _____ APS and Cytochrome c3 Match the gene name with trait or activity it is associated with. (1 point each) A. ori _____ synthesis of tryptophan B. recA _____ homologous recombination C. lacZ _____ pilus synthesis D. trpE _____ resistance to tetracycline E. tra _____ the origin of replication F. tetA _____ β-galactosidase Double bonus (10 points). Describe the time course of events in T4 infection. Using the time line below, indicate when the early and late genes are transcribed and translated. What are those proteins, and what are their functions? When is the DNA replicated? Make a separate list of the five stages of lytic infection. O minutes 25 minutes