Download 德明技術學院九十六學年度服務業經營管理研究所碩士班招生考試

德明技術學院九十六學年度服務業經營管理研究所碩士班招生考試
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1. 本試題單面印製，請注意總頁數，交卷時必須將答案紙與整份試題一起交回。
2. 考試時間為 80 分鐘，滿分為 100 分。
3. 本試題共 50 題選擇題，每題 2 分，共計 100 分。請按照第八頁所列的答案格式，依題目順序，一律橫式
作答於答案卷上，違者不予計分。
Part I. Microeconomics (each question 2 points): choose the best answer.
1.
Along a demand curve, as price falls
(A) the elasticity of demand is constant.
(B) the elasticity of demand falls.
(C) the elasticity of demand increases.
(D) the elasticity is the same as the slope of the demand curve.
2.
Consider the demand curve Qd＝200P－1. The elasticity of demand along this demand curve
(A) is inelastic.
(B) is elastic.
(C) is unitary elastic.
(D) falls as the price falls.
3.
Which of the following would cause an unambiguous increase in the equilibrium price in a market?
(A) An increase in supply and an increase in demand.
(B) An increase in supply and a decrease in demand.
(C) A decrease in supply and an increase in demand.
(D) A decrease in supply and a decrease in demand.
4.
The price of good A falls and the demand for good B decreases. Goods A and B are
(A) cannot be determined.
(B) normal goods.
(C) substitutes.
(D) complements.
5.
Suppose in a market with Q d＝200－10P and Q s＝10P the government imposes a price floor of $15.
If the
government is required to purchase any surplus at the price floor, how much will the government have to pay to
purchase the surplus in this market?
(A) Nothing; there is no surplus
(B) $1,000
(C) $1,500
(D) $750
6.
A positively-sloped Engel curve implies a(n)
(A) normal good.
(B) inferior good.
(C) Giffen good.
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(D) marginal good.
7.
Suppose a consumer purchases two goods, A and B, and that the price of A doubles, the consumer’s income doubles, and
the price of B remains unchanged. If good A is plotted on the horizontal axis, the budget line
(A) will remain unchanged.
(B) will become steeper.
(C) will become flatter.
(D) will shift out from the origin parallel to the original budget line.
8.
If two goods are perfect substitutes, then
(A) the marginal rate of substitution is constant.
(B) the indifference curves are straight lines.
(C) the indifference curves are “L-shaped.”
(D) both (A) and (B) are true.
9.
Suppose the price of good x is $2 and the price of good y is $3. Also, suppose MUx=y and MUy=x. Which of the
following baskets could be an interior optimum?
(A) x=10, y=15
(B) x=7.5, y=5
(C) x=2, y=4
(D) x=6, y=8
10.
Identify the statement that is true. Assume that the price of good x increases.
(A) The substitution effect shows that, if x is an inferior good, the consumption of x rises.
(B) The substitution effect shows that, if x is a normal good, the consumption of x rises.
(C) The income effect shows that, if x is a normal good, the consumption of x falls.
(D) The income effect shows that, if x is an inferior good, the consumption of x falls.
11.
Which of the following utility functions is an example of Cobb-Douglas preferences?
(A) U(x,y)＝xy
(B) U(x,y)＝min{2x,y}
(C) U(x,y)＝3x＋5y
(D) U(x,y)＝2x2＋4y
12.
If marginal product is greater than average product, then
(A) total product must be increasing.
(B) marginal product must be decreasing.
(C) marginal product must be increasing.
(D) average product may be increasing or decreasing.
13.
For the production function Q  25K  30 L , the equation for a typical isoquant is
(A) L 
Q  30 K
.
25
(B) K 
Q  30 L
.
25
Q2
.
L
400
(D) K 
.
L
(C) K 
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14.
 1
 1

Consider the CES production function Q  [aL   bK  ] 1 . This production function exhibits
(A) decreasing returns to scale.
(B) constant returns to scale.
(C) increasing returns to scale.
(D) either decreasing or constant returns to scale, but more information is needed to determine which one.
15.
Economies of scale exist when firms have
(A) increasing returns to scale.
(B) constant returns to scale.
(C) decreasing returns to scale.
(D) constant marginal cost.
16.
Minimum efficient scale is
(A) the lowest level of efficiency the firm can achieve.
(B) the highest level of output the firm can achieve.
(C) the lowest level of long-run average cost.
(D) the smallest quantity at which the long-run average cost achieves a minimum.
17.
Suppose a firm’s total cost curve is given by the equation TC＝Q2＋2Q＋100. At what level of Q does the firm’s
average cost curve reach a minimum?
(A) 100
(B) 2
(C) 10
(D) 20
18.
A perfectly competitive firm has a short run total cost function STC＝100＋20Q＋Q2.
If the market price is equal to
40, what is the maximum profit the firm can earn?
(A) 400
(B) 200
(C) 100
(D) 0
19.
A competitive firm has a short run total cost function STC(Q)＝200＋2Q＋4Q2 for Q＞0 and STC(0)＝0. Its short-run
supply curve is
P2
0
(A) s( P)  
2  8Q P  2
0
(B) s( P)  
0.125P  0.25
P0
0
(C) s( P)  
2  8Q P  0
0
(D) s( P)  
0.125P  0.25
20.
P2
P2
P0
P0
Which of the following is not necessary for a firm to be able to engage in price discrimination?
(A) A firm must have some market power.
(B) A firm must be a price-taker.
(C) A firm must have some information about its consumers’ willingness to pay.
(D) A firm must be able to prevent arbitrage.
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21.
Suppose that a firm faces a demand curve for its product of P＝10Q－Q2. The firm has a constant marginal cost of $4
per unit. If the firm engages in first-degree price discrimination, how much producer surplus will it capture?
(A) $4.50.
(B) $9.
(C) $18.
(D) $21.
22.
Suppose that firms A and B are Cournot duopolists in the car industry. The market demand curve can be specified as P
＝50－Q . The marginal cost to each firm is $20. What is the Cournot equilibrium price in this market?
(A) 10.
(B) 20.
(C) 30.
(D) 40.
23.
A decision maker has a utility function U＝I2. This decision maker is
(A) risk-averse.
(B) risk-neutral.
(C) risk-loving.
(D) risk-gaining.
24.
Given the following Ricardo-type table showing the amount of labor input needed to produce one unit of output of the
two goods in the two countries:
Wine
Steel
United Kingdom
8 days
4 days
France
9 days
6 days
(A) France has an absolute advantage in both goods.
(B) France has a comparative advantage in Steel.
(C) The United Kingdom has an absolute advantage in neither good but a comparative advantage in steel.
(D) The United Kingdom has a comparative advantage in Steel.
25.
Two players, Player 1 and Player 2, are playing a game with two possible strategies, A and B. Profits for each possible
outcome are shown in the following table. Which strategy is a dominant strategy for player 1.
Player 2
Player 1
A
B
A
0,40
25,25
B
10,10
30,0
(A) Strategy A.
(B) Strategy B.
(C) Both strategy A and B are dominant strategies to player 1.
(D) None of the strategy available to player 1 is dominant strategy.
Part II. Macroeconomics (each question 2 points): choose the best answer.
26.
Which of the following is not a flow?
(A) Investment.
(B) Depreciation.
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(C) GDP.
(D) The supply of money.
27.
If the Consumer Price Index (CPI) in 2005 was 100 and the CPI in 2006 was 110, then the rate of inflation during 2006
was:
(A) 9%.
(B) 10%.
(C) 100%.
(D) 115%.
28.
GNP equals GDP
income earned domestically by foreigners
income that nationals earn abroad.
(A) plus ; plus
(B) minus ; minus
(C) plus ; minus
(D) minus ; plus
29.
If a country has a current account deficit, which one of the following is true?
(A) Y－(C＋I＋G)＞0
(B) S＋(G－T)－I＜0
(C) S＜I＋(G－T)
(D) C－Y＞0
30.
If the “multiplier” in a Keynesian open economy is 2.5, this is consistent with which one of the following combinations
of the marginal propensity to consume (MPC) and the marginal propensity to import (MPM)? (Assume that there is no
government sector.)
(A) MPC＝0.7, MPM＝0.2
(B) MPC＝0.3, MPM＝0.2
(C) MPC＝0.8, MPM＝0.2
(D) MPC＝0.5, MPM＝0.2
31.
Given the following model for an economy:
C＝80＋0.75Yd
I＝250
G=100
X＝200
Yd＝Y－T
T＝0.2Y
M＝0.30Y
Where Y is GNP, Yd is disposable income, C is consumption, I is investment, G is government expenditure, and T is
the government tax revenue. The equilibrium level of income is
(A) 900.
(B) 1375.
(C) 1575.
(D) 6300.
32.
The theory of liquidity preference implies that:
(A) as the interest rate rises, the demand for real balances will rise.
(B) as the interest rate rises, the demand for real balances will fall.
(C) the interest rate will have no effect on the demand for real balances.
(D) as the interest rate rises, income will rise.
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33.
If a “Big Mac” costs $5 in the United States and 4 pesos in Argentina, then the implied “purchasing-power-parity”
exchange rate using the “Big Mac” is
. If the actual exchange rate in the market is 0.6 pesos = $1, then an
economist would say that the Argentine peso is
in comparison with its “purchasing-power-parity” rate.
(A) 0.8 pesos＝$1; overvalued
(B) 0.8 pesos＝$1; undervalued
(C) 1.25 pesos＝$1; overvalued
(D) 1.25 pesos＝$1; undervalued
34.
If the interest rate is higher in the US than in the UK, then
(A) The interest rate in the US is expected to increase.
(B) The interest rate in the US is expected to decrease.
(C) The dollar is expected to appreciate with respect to the pound.
(D) The pound is expected to appreciate with respect to the dollar.
35.
If the real interest rate declines by 2% and the inflation rate increases by 3%, the nominal interest rate must
(A) increase by 2%.
(B) increase by 1%.
(C) remain constant.
(D) decrease by 1%.
36.
Consider a small economy where the total population is 10,000. The size of the labor force is 8000, while the number of
people employed is 7,500. What is the unemployment rate in this economy?
(A) 6.25%
(B) 12.5%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%
37.
Frictional unemployment is unemployment caused by:
(A) the time it takes workers to search for a job.
(B) minimum-wage legislation.
(C) wage rigidity.
(D) clashes between the motives of insiders and outsiders.
38.
Compared to periods of lower rates of inflation, during a hyperinflation all of the following occur except:
(A) shoe leather costs increase.
(B) menu costs become larger.
(C) tax distortions increase.
(D) relative prices do a better job of reflecting true scarcity.
39.
If the money supply increase 12%, velocity decreases 4%, and the price level increases 4%, and the price level increases
4%, then the change in real GDP must be
(A) 3%.
(B) 4%.
(C) 12%.
(D) 20%.
40.
High-powered money is another name for
(A) currency.
(B) demand deposits.
(C) the monetary base.
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(D) M2.
41.
Tobin’s q equals the:
(A) cost of buying and renting out one unit of capital measured in units of the economy’s output.
(B) marginal product of capital minus the cost of capital.
(C) ratio of the replacement value of capital to the market value of capital.
(D) ratio of the market value of capital to the replacement cost of capital.
42.
Under a fixed exchange rates, a balance-of-payments surplus for a country will lead to a
as the country’s central bank
in order to maintain the fixed exchange rate.
in the money supply
(A) rise; purchases foreign exchange
(B) rise; purchases domestic currency
(C) fall; sells foreign exchange
(D) fall; sells domestic currency
43.
A general rule is that, as international capital mobility for a country increases, the country’s BP curve will
(A) become steeper.
(B) maintain the same slope.
(C) become flatter.
(D) become downward-sloping.
44.
Which of the following policy options would simultaneously increase interest rates and decrease output?
(A) The Federal Reserve Board expands the money supply.
(B) The federal government increases its defense purchases.
(C) The federal government increases the tax rate.
(D) The Federal Reserve Board sells bonds through open market operations.
45.
Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Fiscal policy is unambiguously more effective in influencing national income under flexible exchange rates than
under fixed exchange rates.
(B) Fiscal policy is unambiguously more effective in influencing national income under fixed exchange rates than under
flexible exchange rates.
(C) Monetary policy is unambiguously more effective in influencing national income under flexible exchange rates than
under fixed exchange rates.
(D) Monetary policy is unambiguously more effective in influencing national income under fixed exchange rates than
under flexible exchange rates.
46.
The Japan has a flexible exchange rate and perfect capital mobility. In the 1990’s, it experienced an increase in money
supply. According to the Mundell-Fleming model, this will lead income
(A) to rise and the exchange rate to depreciate.
(B) to rise and the exchange rate to appreciate.
(C) to fall and the exchange rate to depreciate.
(D) to fall and the exchange rate to appreciate.
47.
The Solow growth model describes:
(A) how saving, population growth, and technological change affect output over time.
(B) how output is determined at a point in time.
(C) how output is determined with fixed amounts of capital and labor.
(D) the static allocation, production, and distribution of the economy’s output.
48.
If the per-worker production function is y＝Ak, where A is a positive constant, in the steady state, a
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(A) lower saving rate does not affect the growth rate.
(B) higher saving rate does not affect the growth rate.
(C) lower saving rate leads to a higher growth rate.
(D) higher saving rate leads to a higher growth rate.
49.
In the Solow growth model, if investment exceeds depreciation, the capital stock will ______ and output will ______
until the steady state is attained.
(A) increase; decrease
(B) increase; increase
(C) decrease; decrease
(D) decrease; increase
50.
The following figure plots a macroeconomic variable using Taiwanese data from 1991 to 2006. This variable is most
likely :
6.00
5.17
4.00
2.00
0.00
Year
1991
1994
1997
2000
2003
2006
(A) the inflation rate.
(B) the unemployment rate.
(C) the NT dollar / US dollar exchange rate.
(D) the growth rate of money supply (M2).
答案格式如下：(請作答於答案卷上，否則不予計分)
Part I.
1.(
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6.(
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11.(
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Part II.
26.(
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36.(
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23.(
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25.(
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30.(
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45.(
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27.(
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