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RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines,
Physical training with Valeology
INSTRUMENT TOOLS FOR THE FINAL ASSESSMENT OF
KNOWLEDGE AND SKILLS ON DISCIPLINE
Discipline: "Anatomy - 1"
Course / Course code: Anat-1 (2) 203
Speciality: 051301 - «General medicine»
Course – I, term - 2
Year 2016
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RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
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MR was discussed on "____" ________ 2016
Protocol №___
Head of department, Professor Assistant.: ___________ L.D. Zholymbekova
RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
1. Test on discipline:
1. The plane passing parallel to a forehead:
A) Horizontal
B) Frontal +
C) Sagittalny
D) Vertical
E) Slanting
2. The second cervical vertebra differs from others:
A) Existence of a toothlike shoot+
B) Existence of a long awned shoot
C) Lack of a body
D) Lack of an awned shoot
E) Existence of costal poles
3. The chest vertebra differs from others:
A) Existence of a toothlike shoot
B) Existence of a long awned shoot
C) Lack of a body
D) Lack of an awned shoot
E) Existence of costal poles +
4. Breast components:
A) Handle +
B) Scales
C) Malar shoot
D) Neck
E) Top
5. The xiphoidal shoot has:
A) Humeral bone
B) Shovel
C) Pelvic bone
D) Breast +
E) Clavicle
6. Rudimentary vertebras:
A) Cervical
B) Chest
C) Lumbar
D) Sacral
E) Coccygeal +
7. The thorax is formed:
A) Breast +
B) Pelvic bones
C) Patella
D) Lumbar vertebras
E) Cervical vertebras
8. The plane passing on the middle of a body and dividing it into two symmetric half:
A) frontal
B) horizontal
C) medial
D) median +
E) lateral
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RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
9. Designate the number of cervical vertebras:
A) 4
B) 5
C) 7+
D) 8
E) 12
10. Designate the number of chest vertebras:
A) 4
B) 5
C) 7
D) 8
E) 12+
11. Designate the number of lumbar vertebras:
A) 4
B) 5+
C) 7
D) 8
E) 12
12. Designate the number of sacral vertebras:
A) 4
B) 5+
C) 7
D) 8
E) 12
13. The vertebras having openings in cross shoots:
A) cervical +
B) chest
C) lumbar
D) sacral
E) coccygeal
14. The vertebras having costal poles:
A) cervical
B) chest +
C) lumbar
D) sacral
E) coccygeal
15. The sleepy hillock of the VI cervical vertebra is
A) on a cross shoot +
B) on an awned shoot
C) on the top articulate shoot
D) on a vertebra body
E) on the lower articulate shoot
16. Existence of an opening in cross shoots is characteristic for
A) cervical vertebras +
B) chest vertebras
C) lumbar vertebras
D) sacral vertebras
E) coccygeal vertebras
17. Has a pole of tooth
A) 7th cervical vertebra
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RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
B) 6th cervical vertebra
C) 2nd cervical vertebra
D) 1 cervical vertebra +
E) 1 chest vertebra
18. Anatomic formations of a sacrum:
A) auriculate surfaces +
B) top part
C) neck
D) part lobby
E) awned shoot
19. Parts of a breast:
A) basis
B) top
C) handle +
D) mastoidal shoot
E) awned
20. Treat false edges:
A) І - е an edge
B) VII-e edge
C) VIII-e edge +
D) X ІІ-a edge
E) XI-e edge
21. Components І cervical vertebra:
A) forward arch +
B) tooth
C) lower joint process
D) body
E) acantha
22. Transverse foramens are available:
A) at thoracal vertebrae
B) at cervical vertebrae +
C) at lumbar vertebrae
D) at sacral vertebrae
E) at coccygeal vertebrae
23. Characteristics of thoracal vertebrae:
A) existence of an opening of transversal processes
B) existence of vertebrae, costal on bodies, +
C) existence of hillocks on transversal processes
D) existence of mastoids
E) existence of forward and back hillocks on transversal processes
24. Anatomical structures І ribs:
A) sulcus of a subclavial artery +
B) rib head crest
C) rib groove
D) trapezoidal line
E) rib neck
25. Processes of vertebrae:
A) coracoid
B) acantha +
C) coronal process
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RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
044 -42/18-( )
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D) bulbar process
E) styliform process
26. Components of vertebrae:
A) arch +
B) wings
C) tooth
D) styliform process
E) head
27. Anatomic educations characteristic of cervical vertebrae:
A) an opening in transversal processes +
B) long acantha
C) forward and back pits on transversal processes
D) mastoid
E) costal fossas
28. Anatomic educations characteristic of thoracal (II-IX) vertebrae
A) top and lower costal fossas +
B) transversal and costal processes
C) styliform process
D) mastoids
E) somnolent hillock
29. What vertebrae on posterolateral surfaces of a body have at the same time full costal fossas
and semi-fossas:
A) I thoracal vertebra +
B) H-y thoracal vertebra
C) XI - ый a thoracal vertebra
D) XII - ый a thoracal vertebra
E) VIII thoracal vertebra
30. At the VI cervical vertebra the somnolent hillock is:
A) on a transversal process +
B) on an acantha
C) on the top joint process
D) on a vertebra body
E) on the lower joint process
31. Location of the cape of a spine column:
A) at the level of bond of the IV and V lumbar vertebrae
B) at the level of bond of the V lumbar vertebra with a sacrum +
C) at the level of a body of the V lumbar vertebra
D) at the level of I sacral vertebra
E) at the level of bond of the XII thoracal and I lumbar vertebra
32. Breast bone angle location:
A) in a handle junction with a midsternum +
B) in a midsternum junction with a xiphoid process
C) at the level of bulbar cutting of the handle of a breast bone
D) at the level of the middle of a midsternum
E) at the level of a xiphoid process
33. Parts of a rib:
A) body +
B) legs
C) hillock
D) arch
RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
044 -42/18-( )
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E) tail
34. The ribs which don't have a crest on heads:
A) I-e rib +
B) H-rib
C) ІX-rib
D) II rib
E) V-e rib
35. Situation on the first rib of a sulcus of a subclavial artery;
A) behind a hillock of a forward scalene muscle +
B) ahead of a hillock of a forward scalene muscle
C) on a hillock of a forward scalene muscle
D) ahead of a rib hillock
E) on the lower surface of a rib
36. The bone having two necks - anatomic and surgical:
A) Humeral bone +
B) Scapula
C) Haunch bone
D) Breast bone
E) Ulnar bone
37. The bone relating to flat bones of a girdle of the top extremity:
A) Scapula +
B) Occipital bone,
C) Parietal bone,
D) Haunch bone
E) Top jaw
38. The joint hollow, cavitasglenoidalis, settles down on:
A) Humeral bone
B) To a clavicle
C) To a scapula +
D) Haunch bone
E) To a breast bone
39. Scapula processes:
A) Styliform process
B) Transversal process
C) Akromion +
D) Coronal process
E) Ulnar process
40. Forearm bones:
A) Humeral bone
B) Ulnar bone +
C) Haunch bone
D) Semi-lunar bone
E) Clavicle
41. Name of a middle part of a body of tubular bones:
A) diaphysis +
B) epiphysis
C) metaphysis
D) apophysis
E) diploe
42. The name of part of the bone located between a body and the extremities of tubular bones:
RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
A) diaphysis
B) epiphysis
C) metaphysis +
D) apophysis
E) diploe
43. Name of the extremities of tubular bones:
A) diaphysis
B) epiphysis +
C) metaphysis
D) apophysis
E) diploe
44. What bone on a structure a scapula:
A) tubular
B) abnormal
C) flat +
D) admixed
E) pneumatic
45. What humeral bone on a structure?
A) tubular +
B) spongiform
C) admixed
D) pneumatic
E) flat
46. Bone of a shoulder girdle:
A) breast bone
B) scapula +
C) humeral
D) ulnar
E) radial
47. Location of a joint hollow of a scapula:
A) top angle
B) bottom corner
C) lateral angle +
D) акромион
E) coracoid
48. Location of a scapular arista:
A) top angle
B) bottom corner
C) lateral angle
D) costal surface
E) dorzalny surface +
49. Designate the bone having акромион and a coracoid:
A) clavicle
B) breast bone
C) scapula +
D) humeral
E) ulnar
50. What bone has two necks?
A) humeral +
B) femoral
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RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
C) ulnar
D) tibial
E) radial
51. The bone having 3 poles on a disteel epifiz – elbow, beam and coronal:
A) shovel
B) humeral +
C) elbow
D) beam
E) clavicle
52. Departments of a brush:
A) wrist +
B) tarsus
C) instep
D) ossa pedis
E) апофиз
53. Cutting of a shovel is located
A) at medial edge
B) at the upper edge +
C) on the akromiyena
D) at lateral edge
E) on a shovel awn
54. Anatomic formations of a shovel:
A) articulate hollow +
B) awned shoot
C) big hillock
D) vertluzhny hollow
E) beak-shaped shoot
55. Anatomic educations on a back surface of a humeral bone:
A) mezhbugorkovy furrow
B) deltoid bugristost
C) big hillock
D) furrow of a beam nerve +
E) small hillock
56. Anatomic formations of an elbow bone:
A) costal cutting
B) big hillock
C) blokovidny cutting +
D) small hillock
E) jugular cutting
57. Bones of a disteel number of a wrist:
A) trihedral
B) semi-lunar
C) collision
D) bone trapeze +
E) pea-shaped
58. The bones having a coronal shoot:
A) temporal bone
B) humeral bone
C) upper jaw
D) malar jaw
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RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
E) elbow bone +
59. On the proximal end of a humeral bone are available:
A) beam pole
B) head +
C) condyle
D) awl-shaped shoot
E) block of a humeral bone
60. Anatomic formations of a humeral bone:
A) bugristost
B) mezhbugorkovy furrow +
C) coronal shoot
D) pole of a beam shoot
E) vertelny pole
61. On the proximal end of a beam bone are:
A) elbow cutting
B) head +
C) small hillock
D) big hillock
E) awl-shaped shoot
62. Bones of a belt of the upper extremity:
A) 1st edge
B) clavicle +
C) humeral bone
D) edges
E) breast
63. An arrangement of an articulate hollow for a joint with a humeral bone:
A) on the akromiyena
B) on the upper corner of a shovel
C) on a beak-shaped shoot
D) on a lateral corner of a shovel +
E) on an awned shoot
64. An arrangement on a clavicle of a cone-shaped hillock and the trapezoid line:
A) on the upper surface
B) on a forward surface
C) on the lower surface +
D) on a back surface
E) on the grudinny end of a clavicle
65. Anatomic formations of the disteel end of a humeral bone:
A) coronal pole +
B) small hillock
C) big hillock
D) mezhbugorkovy furrow
E) awl-shaped shoot
66. Anatomic formations of the disteel end of a beam bone:
A) elbow shoot
B) head
C) neck
D) awl-shaped shoot +
E) coronal shoot
67. Bones of a proximal number of a wrist:
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RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
A) golovchaty bone
B) collision bone
C) kryuchkovidny bone
D) cubical bone
E) bone trapeze +
68. Have an awl-shaped shoot:
A) humeral bone
B) elbow bone +
C) femur
D) foot
E) shovel
69. What does not belong to a shovel
A) beak-shaped shoot
B) nadsustavny hillock
C) podsustavno hillock
D) articulate hollow
E) lateral surface +
70. Anatomic formations of the proximal end of an elbow bone:
A) head
B) elbow shoot +
C) blokovidny shoot
D) awned
E) furrow
71. The medial anklebone is located on:
A) Humeral bone
B) Tibial bone +
C) Low-tibial bone
D) Pelvic bone
E) Femur
72. The lateral anklebone is located on:
A) Humeral bone
B) Tibial bone
C) Low-tibial bone +
D) Pelvic bone
E) Femur
73. The bone relating to flat bones of a belt of the lower extremity:
A) Shovel
B) Occipital bone,
C) Parietal bone,
D) Pelvic bone +
E) Upper jaw
74. The Vertluzhny hollow is located on:
A) Humeral bone
B) To a clavicle
C) To a shovel
D) Pelvic bone +
E) To a breast
75. Basin is formed:
A) Breast
B) Pelvic bones +
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RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
C) Patella
D) Lumbar vertebras
E) Cervical vertebras
76. The biggest sesamovidny bone:
A) Calcaneal bone
B) Patella +
C) Femur
D) Collision bone
E) Semi-lunar bone
77. Departments of foot:
A) wrist
B) пясть
C) tarsus +
D) fhalanges digitorum manus
E) metaphysical
78. The place of an union of podvzdoshny, sciatic and lonny bones in a pelvic bone:
A) in the field of acetalulum (a vertluzhny hollow) +
B) lonny union
C) auriculate surface
D) bugristost
E) lonny crest
79. Anatomic formations of a podvzdoshny bone:
A) crest of a podvzdoshny bone +
B) condyle of a podvzdoshny bone
C) rough line
D) lateral crest
E) slanting line
80. Anatomic formations of a femur:
A) radiant bugristost
B) articulate surface
C) mezhvertelny line +
D) mezhbugorkovy furrow
E) cross line
81. Sesamovidny bones are:
A) bone trapeze
B) patella +
C) collision
D) boatshaped bone
E) cubical bone
82. What doesn't belong to anatomic formations of a tibial bone:
A) medial condyle
B) lateral condyle
C) medial anklebone
D) lateral anklebone +
E) low-tibial cutting
83. On the disteel end of a femur are:
A) third spit
B) the arc-shaped line
C) slanting line
D) nadkolennikovy surface +
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RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
E) rough line
84. On the proximal end of a tibial bone are:
A) medial anklebone
B) head
C) neck
D) low-tibial cutting
E) intercondyloid eminence +
85. Bones of a proximal number of a tarsus:
A) boatshaped bone
B) cubical bone
C) collision bone +
D) kryuchkovidny bone
E) medial wedge-shaped bone
86. Have the block:
A) femur
B) collision bone +
C) calcaneal bone
D) beam bone
E) elbow bone
87. Have an auriculate articulate surface:
A) shovel
B) pubic bone
C) sciatic bone
D) podvzdoshny bone +
E) tailbone
88. Bones of a belt of the lower extremities:
A) sacrum
B) pubic bone
C) femur
D) pelvic bone +
E) tailbone
89. Kostya, participating in formation of a vertluzhny hollow:
A) podvzdoshny bone +
B) low-tibial bone
C) tibial bone
D) sacrum
E) femur
90. The bones having an auriculate articulate surface:
A) sacrum +
B) sciatic bone
C) pubic bone
D) femur
E) temporal bone
91. The borders which aren't separating a big basin from small:
A) on the arcuate line
B) on crests of pubic bones
C) on the upper edge of a pubic symphysis
D) cape
E) crests of ileal bones +
92. Anatomic formations of the proximal extremity of a femur:
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RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
A) lateral epicondyle
B) head +
C) medial epicondyle
D) intercondyloid fossa
E) anatomic neck
93. Bones of a distal series of a tarsus:
A) uncinatum
B) trapetsevidnayakost
C) lateral clinoid bone +
D) semi-lunar bone
E) calcaneus
94. On what part of a sacrum there is an auriculate (joint) surface?
A) on a dorsal surface
B) on lateral part +
C) on a pelvic surface
D) on the basis of a sacrum
E) on a sacrum apex
95. On the proximal extremity of femoral settle down:
A) lateral epicondyle
B) head +
C) medial epicondyle
D) intercondyloid fossa
E) epiarticular hillock
96. Bones of a cerebral skull:
A) Frontal bone +
B) Palatal bone
C) Mandible
D) Vomer
E) Top jaw
97. Has petrous part:
A) Frontal bone
B) Parietal bone
C) Temporal bone +
D) Occipital bone
E) Clinoid bone
98. Bone of a cerebral skull:
A) occipital +
B) the lacrimal
C) nasal
D) top jaw
E) mandible
99. The channel of a temporal bone through which there passes the internal carotid:
A) muscular and tubal
B) facial channel
C) somnolent channel +
D) channel of a cochlea
E) drum canaliculus
100. The channel of a temporal bone through which there passes the facial nerve:
A) canalis musculotubarius
B) canalis facialis +
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RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
C) canalis caroticus
D) canaliculus cochlea
E) canaliculus tympani
101. The bone forming a joint with a head of the lower jaw:
A) malar
B) temporal +
C) top jaw
D) occipital
E) parietal
102. What bone of a skull has the made a hole plate?
A) frontal
B) plaintive
C) wedge-shaped
D) trellised +
E) nasal
103.A bone in which the biggest opening of a skull settles down:
A) frontal
B) parietal
C) occipital +
D) temporal
E) malar
104. Funtion of a brain skull:
A) covers the beginning of respiratory organs
B) a receptacle for a brain+
C) covers the beginning of digestive organs
D) a receptacle for an organ of vision
E) a receptacle for sense organs
105. Call an unpaired bone of a skull:
A) frontal +
B) top jaw
C) palatal
D) temporal
E) parietal
106. Skull bones as a part of which there are scales:
A) wedge-shaped bone
B) reshatchaty
C) frontal bone +
D) scapular bone
E) parietal bone
107. Anatomical structures of a frontal bone:
A) glabella +
B) visual channel
C) round otverstviye
D) infraorbital edge
E) slanting line
108. Belong to a wedge-shaped bone:
A) blind opening
B) round opening +
C) oval opening
D) front channel
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RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
E) jugular opening
109. The hypoglossal channel is:
A) in an occipital bone +
B) in the lower jaw
C) in the top jaw
D) in a wedge-shaped bone
E) in a palatal bone
110. Components of a trellised bone:
A) trellised cutting
B) perpendicular plate +
C) lower nasal sink
D) palatal bone
E) horizontal plate
111. Anatomic formations of a temporal bone:
A) cross shoot
B) malar shoot +
C) wedge-shaped shoot
D) beak-shaped shoot
E) frontal shoot
112. Comes to an end with the Shilosostsevidny opening:
A) mastoidal tubule
B) drum tubule
C) front channel +
D) sonnobarabanny tubules
E) musculopipe channel
113. Channels of a temporal bone:
A) myshchelkovy channel
B) front channel +
C) visual channel
D) the bringing channel
E) side channel
114. The wing-shaped channel is:
A) in a temporal bone
B) in the top jaw
C) in a wedge-shaped bone +
D) in a palatal bone
E) in the lower jaw
115. Bear on themselves a furrow of the top sagittalny sine:
A) temporal bone
B) frontal bone +
C) sluny
D) wedge-shaped bone
E) trellised bone
116. Bears on itself a furrow of the top stony sine:
A) wedge-shaped bone
B) occipital bone
C) frontal bone
D) temporal bone +
E) trellised bone
117. Anatomic formations of occipital scales:
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RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
A) the arc-shaped eminence
B) furrow of a cross sine +
C) furrow of the lower stony sine
D) furrow of the lower sagittalny sine
E) jugular cutting
118. On scaly part of a temporal bone are:
A) mandibular pole +
B) coronal shoot
C) mastoidal shoot
D) sleepy channel
E) shilosostsevidny shoot
119. Bones of a brain skull:
A) frontal +
B) plaintive
C) palatal
D) soshnik
E) nasal
120. Parts of a frontal bone:
A) scales +
B) body
C) plaintive part
D) lateral part
E) temporal part
121. Bone of a facial skull:
A) top jaw +
B) occipital
C) frontal
D) trellised
E) parietal
122. The pneumatic bone of a skull supporting Gaymorova a bosom:
A) frontal
B) wedge-shaped
C) trellised
D) top jaw +
E) temporal
123. Anatomic formations of the top jaw:
A) malar furrow
B) infraorbital edge +
C) nadglaznichny edge
D) slanting line
E) maxillary and hypoglossal furrow
124. Shoots of a palatal bone:
A) malar shoot
B) orbital shoot +
C) alveolar shoot
D) myshchelkovy shoot
E) temporal shoot
125. What doesn't belong to the lower jaw:
A) coronal shoot
B) myshchelkovy shoot
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RSE on the basis of ECR South-Kazakhstan State Pharmaceutical Academy МHSD of RK
Department of Morphological and Physiological disciplines, Physical education with Valeology
Instrument tools for the final assessment of knowledge and skills on discipline "Anatomy-1"
C) wing-shaped bugristost
D) deltoid bugristost +
E) slanting line
126. Joán participate in education:
A) soshnik +
B) occipital bone
C) plaintive bone
D) top jaw
E) trellised bone
127. Form a facial skull:
A) temporal bone
B) top jaw +
C) trellised jaw
D) frontal bone
E) plaintive bone
128. The arch of a skull isn't formed:
A) frontal bone
B) wedge-shaped bone
C) parietal bone
D) temporal bone
E) trellised bone +
129. What doesn't belong to a trellised bone:
A) perpendicular plate
B) orbital plate
C) trellised labyrinth
D) trellised plate
E) body +
130. Shoots of a trellised bone are:
A) soshnik
B) top nasal sink +
C) the highest nasal sink
D) lower nasal sink
E) medial nasal sink
131. What doesn't belong to shoots of the top jaw
A) palatal shoot
B) malar shoot
C) alveolar shoot
D) frontal shoot
E) awl-shaped shoot +
132. Anatomic formations of a branch of the lower jaw:
A) mental spine
B) coronoid process
C) belemnold +
D) oblique
E) masseteric tuberosity
133. The medial wall of an eye-socket is formed:
A) malar bone
B) trellised bone +
C) lower jaw
D) nasal bone
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E) top jaw
134. The bone partition of a nose is formed:
A) nasal bone
B) frontal
C) plaintive bone
D) perpendicular plate of a trellised bone +
E) top jaw
135. In the middle nasal meatus open:
A) maxillary bosom +
B) back of a cell of a trellised bone
C) nasal canal
D) wedge-shaped bosom
E) pterygopalatine canal
136. Forward hale of a cavity of a nose:
A) pirigorm aperature +
B) choanae
C) Top palpebral fissure
D) Lower palpebral fissure
E) Visual canal
137. Between the top and lateral walls of an eye-socket is:
A) pirigorm aperature
B) choanae
C) Top palpebral fissure+
D) Lower palpebral fissure
E) Visual canal
138. Between the lower and lateral walls of an eye-socket is:
A) pirigorm aperature
B) choanae
C) Top palpebral fissure
D) Lower palpebral fissure+
E) Visual canal
139. In an average cranial pole don't open:
A) blind opening +
B) oval opening
C) top palpebral fissure
D) jugular foramen
E) spinous foramen
140. The Nososlezny channel opens in:
A) superior nasal meatus
B) middle nasal meatus
C) oral cavity
D) inferior, nasal meatus +
E) to maxillary antrum
141. The aperture of a wedge-shaped bosom opens in:
A) forward cranial pole
A) superior nasal meatus
B) middle nasal meatus+
D) average cranial pole
E) inferior nasal meatus
142. Joán participate in education:
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A) share+
B) occipital bone
C) plaintive bone
D) top jaw
E) trellised bone
143. In a pleygomaxillary gossa open:
A) blind opening
B) oval opening
C) top palpe bral fissure
D) lower palpebral fissure +
E) facial canal
144. The internal acoustical opening settles down:
A) on a forward surface of a pyramid
B) on a back surface of a pyramid +
C) on the lower surface of a pyramid
D) on the top surface of a pyramid
E) on a lateral surface of a pyramid
145. Separate average and back cranial poles:
A) first line of a pyramid of a temporal bone
B) upper edge of a pyramid of a temporal bone +
C) rear edge of a pyramid of a temporal bone
D) hillock of the Turkish saddle
E) cockscomb
146. The malar arch is formed:
A) frontal bone
B) wedge-shaped bone
C) temporal bone +
D) occipital bone
E) top jaw
147. The lambdoidal suture seam is:
A) between temporal and parietal bones
B) between frontal and parietal bones
C) between parietal and occipital bones +
D) between temporal and wedge-shaped bones
E) between temporal and occipital bones
148. Openings of a big wing of a wedge-shaped bone:
A) spherotic foramen
B) lower palpebral fissure
C) nasal canal
D) spinous foramen+
E) facial canal
149. Anatomic educations on basioccipital bone:
A) occipital condyle
B) furrow of the top stony sine
C) furrow of a cross sine
D) occipital ledge
E) pharyngeal hillock +
150. Anatomic formations of occipital scales:
A) the arc-shaped eminence
B) furrow of a cross sine +
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C) furrow of the lower stony sine
D) furrow of the lower sagittalny sine
E) jugular cutting
151. On scaly part of a temporal bone are:
A) mandibular pole +
B) coronal shoot
C) mastoidal shoot
D) sleepy channel
E) stylomastoid shoot
152. The Krylonebny pole is reported with an average cranial pole through
A) oval opening
B) top orbital crack
C) lower orbital crack
D) round opening +
E) wedge-shaped and palatal opening
153. In an eye-socket open:
A) front channel
B) oval opening
C) top orbital crack +
D) blind opening
E) round opening
154. Border between average and back cranial poles are:
A) external occipital ledge
B) internal occipital ledge
C) upper edge of pyramids of temporal bones +
D) small wings of a wedge-shaped bone
E) coronal seam
155. From a wing-shaped and palatal pole in a cavity of a nose conducts:
A) wedge-shaped and palatal opening +
B) round opening
C) oval opening
D) lower orbital crack
E) wing-shaped channel
156. Forms a forward wall of a pterygoid and palatal fossa:
A) perpendicular plate of a palatal bone
B) infratemporal crest
C) pterygoid process clinoid bones
D) top jaw +
E) malar bone
157. The round opening is located
A) on a frontal bone
B) on a clinoid bone +
C) on a trellised bone
D) on an occipital bone
E) on a temporal bone
158. The calvaria is formed:
A) scales of a temporal bone +
B) lateral part
C) nasal part
D) parietal hillocks
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E) the lacrimal bone
159. Anatomic formations of an external surface of frontal scales:
A) temporal line +
B) frontal crest
C) ethmoidal incisure
D) supraorbital foramen
E) cockscomb
160. Anatomic formations of a forward surface of a pyramid of a temporal bone:
A) opening of the muscular and tubal channel
B) bulbar fossa
C) petrous pit
D) arcuate eminence +
E) internal auditory hatchway
161. Anatomic formations of the lower surface of a pyramid of a temporal bone:
A) subarc fossa
B) opening of an acoustical pipe
C) external opening of the somnolent channel +
D) oval fossa
E) trigeminal impression
162. Anatomic formations of a branch of a mandible:
A) mental arista
B) coronal process
C) styliform process +
D) slanting line
E) chewing tuberosity
163. The bones forming a forward cranial fossa:
A) the lacrimal bone
B) frontal bone +
C) parietal bone
D) vomer bone
E) occipital bone
164. The bones forming an average cranial fossa:
A) frontal bone
B) occipital bone
C) clinoid bone +
D) trellised bone
E) parietal bone
165. The bones forming a back cranial fossa:
A) top jaw
B) malar bone
C) clinoid bone
D) occipital bone +
E) nasal bone
166. Flexures, convex back:
A) Cervical lordosis
B) Lumbar lordosis
C) Thoracal kyphosis +
D) Pubic symphysis
E) Scoliosis
167. Flexures, convex forward:
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A) Sacral kyphosis
B) Lumbar lordosis +
C) Thoracal kyphosis
D) Pubic symphysis
E) Scoliosis
168. Side curvature:
A) Sacral kyphosis
B) Lumbar lordosis
C) Thoracal kyphosis
D) Pubic symphysis
E) Scoliosis +
169. An elbow joint on a structure:
A) Idle time
C) Difficult +
C) Combined
D) Complex
E) Anchylosis
170. A shoulder joint on a structure:
A) Idle time +
B) Difficult
C) Combined
D) Complex
E) Anchylosis
171. The radiocarpal joint on a structure:
A) Idle time
B) Difficult +
C) Combined
D) Complex
E) Anchylosis
172. A type of connection if in an interval between bones connecting fabric settles down:
A) синхондроз
B) синостоз
C) синдесмоз +
D) diarthrosis
E) гемиартроз
173. A type of connection at which bones soyediyatsya by means of cartilaginous tissue:
A) synchondrosis +
B) syndesmosis
C) synostosis
D) diarthrosis
E) gemiartroz
174. A type of connection at which bones connect by means of a bone tissue:
A) synchondrosis
B) syndesmosis
C) synostosis+
D) diarthrosis
E) gemiartroz
175. The name of the joints anatomic isolated, and functionally interconnected:
A) idle time
B) difficult
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C) complex
D) combined +
E) semi-joint
176. The joint having more than two the arthradial of surfaces is called:
A) simple
B) difficult +
C) complex
D) combined
E) symphusis
177. Auxiliary formations of joints are:
A) articulate surface
B) articulate disk +
C) articulate cavity
D) articulate capsule
E) joint oil
178. The articulate disk is available:
A) in a knee joint
B) in an ankle joint
C) in a radiocarpal joint +
D) in a humeroradial joint
E) in a coxofemoral joint
179. In interphalanx joints of a brush it is possible:
A) rotation
B) bending +
C) shift
D) reduction
E) assignment
180. By means of yellow sheaves connect:
A) bodies of vertebras
B) cross shoots of vertebras
C) awned shoots of vertebras
D) arches of vertebras +
E) articulate shoots of vertebras
181. The temporal and mandibular joint is
A) the combined joint +
B) spherical joint
C) cylindrical joint
D) multiaxis joint
E) flat joint
182. Treat multiaxis joints:
A) condyloid joints
B) cylindrical joints
C) spherical joints +
D) ginglymoid joints
E) ellipse joints
183. The shoulder joint is formed:
A) articulate disk
B) top cross ligament of a shovel
C) meniscuses
D) head of a humeral bone +
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E) lower cross ligament of a shovel
184. As a part of a proximal radioulnar joint are available:
A) articulate circle of an elbow bone
B) articulate circle of a beam bone +
C) articulate lip
D) elbow cutting of a beam bone
E) articulate disk
185. The movements in an elbow joint:
A) reduction
B) assignment
C) bending +
D) side shifts
E) roundabouts
186. Treat own ligaments of a shovel:
A) coraco-clavicular ligament
B) yellow ligament
C) coraco-humeral ligament
D) top cross ligament of a shovel +
E) inguinal arch
187. Monoaxial joints are:
A) shoulder joint
B) humeroradial joint +
C) radicappal joint
D) coxofemoral joint
E) knee joint
188. Biaxial joints are:
A) humeroradial joint
B) radicappal joint +
C) hip joint
D) humeroulnar joint
E) shoulder joint
189. The radiocarpal joint in a form is:
A) ellipsoidal joint +
B) spherical joint
C) flat joint
D) cylindrical joint
E) saddle joint
190. A saddle joint is:
A) carpometacarpal joint of thumb+
B) temporal and mandibular joint
C) radiocarpal joint
D) humerouinar joint
E) midcarpal joint
191. Treat blokovidny joints:
A) shoulder joint
B) coxofemoral joint
C) radiocarpal joint
D) interphalanx joints of a brush +
E) edge head joint
192. Treat cylindrical joints:
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A) humeroradial joint
B) proximal radioulnar joint +
C) shoulder joint
D) atlanto-occipital joint
E) sternoclavicular joint
193. Treat spherical joints:
A) shoulder joint +
B) knee joint
C) humeroradial joint
D) radiocarpal joint
E) interphalanx joints of a brush
194. Around a sagital axis it is made:
A) reduction +
B) rotation
C) roundabouts
D) bending
E) extension
195. Around a frontal axis it is made:
A) reduction
B) side shift
C) assignment
D) extension +
E) rotation
196. Sacral iliac a joint are a part:
A) auriculate surface of a sacrum +
B) sacral bugristost
C) articulate lip
D) podvzdoshny pole
E) articulate disk
197. Belong to a coxofemoral joint:
A) articulate hollow
B) vertluzhny hollow +
C) head of a humeral bone
D) femur neck
E) articulate disk
198. Intra articulate ligaments of a coxofemoral joint are:
A) sciatic and femoral sheaf
B) circular zone
C) pubic thigh sheaf
D) linking of a head of a femur +
E) iliac-femoral sheaf
199. Are a part of a knee joint:
A) top articulate surface of a tibial bone +
B) lower articulate surface of a tibial bone
C) femur head
D) articulate lip
E) articulate disks
200. On a back surface of a capsule of a knee joint are:
A) back crucial ligament
B) slanting popliteal sheaf +
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C) circular zone
D) patella ligament
E) low-tibial collateral sheaf
201. Participate in formation of an ankle joint:
A) femur
B) humeral bone
C) collision bone +
D) calcaneal bone
E) boatshaped bone
202. Monoaxial joints of the lower extremity:
A) sacral iliac joint
B) knee joint
C) to a tarsus-plusnevy joint
D) interphalanx joints of foot +
E) coxofemoral joint
203. Two-axis joints of the lower extremity:
A) intertibial joint
B) coxofemoral joint
C) subcollision joint
D) knee joint +
E) ankle joint
204. Multiaxis joints of the lower extremity:
A) coxofemoral joint +
B) knee joint
C) ankle joint
D) cross joint of foot
E) intertibial joint
205. Sacral iliac the joint in a form belongs:
A) to flat joints +
B) to saddle joints
C) to ellipsoidal joints
D) to myshchelkovy joints
E) bowl-shaped
206. Sacral iliac belongs to a joint:
A) sacral bugornaya sheaf
B) sacral iliac sheaf +
C) sacral and awned sheaf
D) crucial ligament
E) iliac-femoral sheaf
207. The most powerful ligament of a coxofemoral joint:
A) pubic and femoral sheaf
B) sciatic and femoral sheaf
C) linking of a head of a femur
D) iliac -femoral sheaf +
E) circular zone
208. A coxofemoral joint in a form
A) bowl-shaped +
B) saddle
C) scyphoid
D) ellipsoidal
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E) cylindrical
209. Extra articulate ligaments of a coxofemoral joint:
A) sciatic and femoral sheaf +
B) linking of a head of a femur
C) cross linking of a acetabular hollow
D) inguinal sheaf
E) sacral and awned sheaf
210. The coxofemoral joint has sheaves:
A) sacral and femoral sheaf
B) inguinal sheaf
C) kresttsogo-awned sheaf
D) pubic and femoral sheaf +
E) sacral бугорная sheaf
211. The bones involved in the formation of the knee:
A) low-tibial bone
B) tibial bone +
C) humeral bone
D) beam bone
E) calcaneal bone
212. The movements, possible in a knee joint:
A) bending and extension +
B) assignment
C) roundabouts
D) reduction
E) side shifts of articulate surfaces
213. Intra articulate formations of a knee joint:
A) the arc-shaped popliteal sheaf
B) slanting popliteal sheaf
C) cross ligament of a knee +
D) articulate lip
E) low-tibial collateral sheaf
214. Extra articulate ligaments of a knee joint:
A) cross sheaf
B) slanting popliteal sheaf +
C) iliac-femoral ligament
D) back crucial ligament
E) forward crucial ligament
215. The ankle joint in a form belongs:
A) to saddle joints
B) to spherical joints
C) to myshchelkovy joints
D) to the condylar joints +
E) to flat
216. The bones forming an ankle joint:
A) calcaneal bone
B) humeral bone
C) bedreny bone
D) collision bone +
E) boatshaped bone
217. The movements, possible in an ankle joint:
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A) assignment and reduction
B) rotation
C) bending and extension +
D) roundabouts
E) side shifts of articulate surfaces
218. Interphalanx joints of foot in a form belong:
A) to ellipsoidal joints
B) to spherical joints
C) to blokovidny joints +
D) to flat joints
E) to saddle joints
219.Kresttsovo-iliac joint is strengthened:
A) obturator membrane
B) dorsal sacroiliac ligament +
C) lateral ligament
D) inguinal ligament
E) the iliac-femoral ligament
220. Head muscles:
A) Hypodermic muscle of a neck
В) Chewing muscle +
C) Big pectoral muscle
D) The broadest muscle of a back
E) Shoulder biceps
221. Superficial muscles of a neck:
A) Hypodermic muscle of a neck +
В) Chewing muscle
C) Big pectoral muscle
D) The broadest muscle of a back
E) Shoulder biceps
222. The muscle raising the lower jaw:
A) lateral wing-shaped muscle
В) temporal muscle +
C) circular muscle of a mouth
D) shchechny muscle
E) big malar muscle
223. The muscle which is attached to a coronal shoot of the lower jaw:
A) actually chewing muscle
В) temporal muscle +
C) wing-shaped medial muscle
D) wing-shaped lateral muscle
E) shchechny muscle
224. The mimic muscle narrowing eyes:
A) temporal
C) actually chewing
C) wing-shaped medial
D) wing-shaped lateral
E) circular muscle of an eye +
225. The facial muscles of the head, lifts the upper lip:
A) m.buccinator
В) m.levator labii superioris +
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C) m.levator anguli oris
D) m.depressor labii inferioris
E) m.depressorangulioris
226. The muscles of the head are involved in:
A) articulate speech +
B) Enforcement
C) abduction
D) bending
E) extension
227. Features of the facial muscles:
A) are woven into the skin +
B) starts and attached to the bone
C) take part in the act of swallowing
D) are involved in the act of inspiration
E) are involved in the act of exhalation
228. The muscles of the neck, with bilateral reduction of which the head is held in a vertical
position:
A) platysma
B) sternoclavicular-mastoid +
C) Oral and sublingual
D) digastric
E) shilopodyazychnaya
229. The muscles of the neck, lying above the hyoid bone:
A) platysma
B) sternoclavicular-mastoid
C) sterno-hyoid
D) Oral and sublingual +
E) scapular-oid
230. The muscles of the neck, lying below the hyoid bone:
A) oral and sublingual
B) scapular-hyoid +
C) digastric
D) awl-oid
E) chin-hyoid
231. neck fascia covering the muscles prespinal:
A) Surface
B) superficial fascia piece of their own
C) a profound piece of their own fascia
D) the inner fascia
E) prespinal +
232. suprahyoid muscles:
A) sternothyroid muscle
B) digastric +
C) omohyoid muscle
D) sewn-hyoid muscle
E) temporal muscle
233. By the facial muscles are:
A) circular muscle of the eye +
B) medial pterygoid muscle
C) masseter
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D) temporal muscle
E) digastric
234. subhyoid muscles:
A) sternohyoid muscle +
B) awl-hyoid muscle
C) mylohyoid muscle
D) digastric
E) deltoid
235. Functions of the subcutaneous muscles of the neck:
A) protects the subcutaneous veins of compression +
B) lowers the lower jaw
C) lowers podyazychnuyu cell
D) pulls up the chest
E) raises the hyoid bone
236. Features of the structure and topography of the facial muscles:
A) are located superficially under the skin +
B) pulling up the chest
C) lowers the lower jaw
D) raises podyazychnuyu bone.
E) drive the lower jaw
237. Features of the structure and function of the masticatory muscles:
A) attached to the mandible +
B) raises podyazychnuyu bone
C) centered around the skull openings
D) reflect the internal state of mind
E) are attached to the skin
238. Getting the actual chewing muscles:
A) pterygoid bone sphenoid
B) zygomatic arch +
C) triceps
D) alveolar arch of the maxilla
E) the hyoid bone
239. The chewing muscles are:
A) buccal muscle
B) medial pterygoid muscle +
C) great zygomatic muscle
D) zygomaticus minor muscle
E) orbicularis oris muscle
240. The muscles of the back:
A) platysma
B) The masseter
C) pectoral muscle
D) Lat muscles +
E) of the biceps
241. The muscles of the back:
A) digastric
B) quadriceps
C) diamond-shaped +
D) The flexor
E) semitendinosus
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242. trapezius muscles referred to as:
A) Head
B) Neck
C) Spins +
D) Breast
E) Pelvis
243. Chest Muscles:
A) platysma
B) The masseter
C) pectoral muscle +
D) Lat muscles
E) of the biceps
244. Abdominal muscles:
A) platysma
B) The masseter
C) pectoral muscle
D) rectus +
E) of the biceps
245. The superficial muscles of the back:
A) trapezoidal +
B) erector spinae muscles
C) a small chest
D) iliopsoas
E) tailoring
246. Deep muscles of the back, straightening the torso:
A) m.traperius
В) m.latissimus dorsi
C) m.rhomboideus minor
D) m.erector spinae +
E) m. rhomboideusmajor
247. The chest muscles located between the clavicle and first rib.
A) pectoralis m.pectoralis major
B) small breast m. pectoralis minor
C) subclavian +
D) front gear
E) infracostal
248. The back wall of the vagina straight abdominal muscles above the navel is formed by:
A) aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominal muscles
B) the front plate of the aponeurosis of the internal oblique abdominal muscles
C) the back plate of the aponeurosis of the internal oblique muscle and aponeurosis of the
transverse abdominal muscles +
D) pyramidal muscle aponeurosis
E) aponeurosis all three abdominal muscles
249. The back wall of the inguinal canal forms:
A) aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle
B) the aponeurosis of the internal oblique muscle
C) the fascia of the transverse muscle
D) transverse fascia +
E) inguinal ligament
250. To the superficial muscles of the back are:
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A) serratus posterior superior muscle +
B) semispinalis capitis
C) erector spinae muscles
D) multifidus muscle
E), rotator cuff muscles
251. Most rhomboid muscles attached to the
A) corner edges II-V
B) the upper edge of the blade
C) the medial edge of the blade +
D) lateral edge of the blade
E) the scapula acromion
252. The deep muscles of the back are:
A) levator scapulae muscle
B) rhomboid muscles
C) transversospinales muscles +
D) latissimus dorsi
E) trapezius muscle
253. Large pectoral muscle is attached to:
A) intertubercular groove of the humerus
B) the crest of the greater tuberosity of the humerus +
C) scapula coracoid
D) the medial edge of the scapula
E) cartilage of the upper eight ribs
254. Small pectoral muscle originates from:
A) 1-II rib
B) VI-YIII ribs
C) II -V ribs +
D) of the sternum
E) of the clavicle
255. The muscles that contribute to the expansion of the chest:
A) pectoralis muscle +
B) deltoid
C) shoulder muscle
D) coracobrachialis muscle
E) serratus posterior inferior muscle
256. The muscles that drive the ribs:
A) external intercostal muscles
B) the internal intercostal muscles +
C) deltoid
D) shoulder muscle
E) serratus posterior superior muscle
257. Functions of the diaphragm:
A) respiratory muscle +
B) lowers the ribs
C) of the spine flexion
D) spine extension
E) the rotation of the spine
258. The walls of the inguinal canal:
A) deltoid
B) rectus abdominis
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C) square muscle
D) inguinal ligament +
E) the linea alba
259. Deep inguinal ring on the rear surface of the anterior abdominal wall is equal to:
A) the medial inguinal fossa
B) nadpuzyrnoy fossa
C) the lateral inguinal fossa +
D) vascular lacuna
E) linea alba
260. Muscle Belt of the upper limb:
A) platysma
B) The masseter
C) of the biceps
D) Lat muscles
E) Deltoid muscle +
261. Muscles of the free upper limb:
A) platysma
B) The masseter
C) pectoral muscle
D) Lat muscles
E) two-headed arm muscle +
262. Muscle Flex arm in the shoulder joint:
A) shoulder muscle
B) the triceps muscle
C) biceps+
D) teres major muscle
E) pectoralis minor
263. Muscles, extensor arm in the shoulder joint:
A) teres minor muscle
B) subscapularis muscle
C) coracobrachialis muscle
D) shoulder triceps +
E) of the biceps
264. On the front wall of the axillary cavity is isolated:
A) clavicular-pectoral triangle +
B) triangular hole
C) the femoral triangle
D) femoral canal
E) four-sided lole
265. The walls of the canal of the radial nerve is formed by:
A) rostral-shoulder ligament
B) humerus +
C) shoulder muscle
D) brachioradialis muscle
E) of the biceps
266. The brachium muscles operating on the elbow joint:
A) biceps muscle +
B) rostal-shoulder muscle
C) deltoid muscle
D) quadriceps muscle
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E) larger round muscle
267. Muscles of a forward surface of a brachium:
A) three-headed muscle of a brachium
B) rostal-shoulder muscle +
C) podostny muscle
D) infaspinabus muscle
E) larger round muscle
268. The quadriceps muscle of a femur is carried to:
A) To forward muscles group a femur +
B) To back muscles group a femur
C) To medial muscles group a femur
D) To forward muscles group an anticnemion
E) Back group muscles an anticnemion
269. The sartorius muscles relate to:
A) Head
B) Neck
C) Backs
D) Breast
E) Hip +
270. A thin muscle, m. gracilis, refer to the muscles:
A) Hip +
B) Neck
C) Backs
D) Breast
E) Pelvis
271. Biceps thigh muscle referred to as:
A) The anterior thigh muscle group
B) The rear muscle thigh group +
C) Medial thigh muscle group
D) The front group of leg muscles
E) The posterior group of leg muscles
272. The forward tibial muscle is carried to:
A) To forward muscles group a hip
B) To back muscles group a hip
C) To medial muscles group a hip
D) To forward muscles group an anticnemion +
E) Back group of muscles an anticnemion
273. The gastrocnemius muscle is carried to:
A) To forward muscles group a hip
B) To back muscles group a hip
C) To medial muscles group a hip
D) To forward muscles group an anticnemion
E) Back group of muscles an anticnemion +
274. The soleus muscle is carried to:
A) To forward muscles group a hip
B) To back muscles group a hip
C) To forward muscles group an anticnemion
D) To back muscles group an anticnemion +
E) To lateral muscles group an anticnemion
275. Treat internal group muscles of a basin:
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A) internal obturator muscle +
B) thin muscle
C) piriform muscle
D) sartorial muscle
E) maximus gluteus
276. Treat a deep layer of back muscles group of an anticnemion:
A) thin muscle
B) thumb extensor
C) plantar muscle
D) back tibial muscle +
E) long extensor of fingers
277. Pass through muscle compartment:
A) piriform muscle
B) iliolumbar muscle +
C) edge muscle
D) fermoral vein
E) femoral artery
278. Passes through a big sciatic holei:
A) iliolumbar muscle
B) internal obturator muscle
C) external obturator muscle
D) piriform muscle +
E) edge muscle
279. The superficial ring of the femoral channel is limited:
A) funiculus
B) iliac-edge arch
C) inguinal sheaf
D) crescent edge of a trellised fastion +
E) vascular lacuna
280. In a popliteal pole open:
A) femoral canal
B) inguinal canal
C) ankle-popliteal canal +
D) peroneal musscula upper canal
E) locking canal
281. With the ankle canal it is reported:
A) peroneal mucular loker canal +
B) the bringing canal
C) pereneal muscular upper canal
D) femoral canal
E) locking canal
282. Muscles of the back of foot:
A) short extensor digitorum +
B) the muscle giving a thumb.
C) the muscle which is taking away a thumb
D) back tibial muscle
E) square muscle of a sole
283. The olfactory nerve is:
A) I pairs of cranial nerves +
В) VII pairs of cranial nerves
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C) X pairs of cranial nerves
D) XIII pairs of cranial nerves
E) IX pairs of cranial nerves
284. The facial nerve is:
A) I pairs of cranial nerves
В) VII pairs of cranial nerves +
C) X pairs of cranial nerves
D) XIII pairs of cranial nerves
E) IX pairs of cranial nerves
285. The al factory nerve is:
A) I pairs of cranial nerves
В) VI pairs of cranial nerves +
C) X pairs of cranial nerves
D) XIII pairs of cranial nerves
E) IX pairs of cranial nerves
286. The trigeminal nerve is a nerve:
A) I pairs of cranial nerves
В) V pairs of cranial nerves +
C) X pairs of cranial nerves
D) XIII pairs of cranial nerves
E) IX pairs of cranial nerves
287. The wandering nerve is:
A) I pairs of cranial nerves
C) VII pairs of cranial nerves
C) X pairs of cranial nerves +
D) XIII pairs of cranial nerves
E) IX pairs of cranial nerves
288. The glossopharyngeal nerve is:
A) I pairs of cranial nerves
В) VII pairs of cranial nerves
C) X pairs of cranial nerves
D) XIII pairs of cranial nerves
E) IX pairs of cranial nerves +
289. The intermediate nerve is a part:
A) I pairs of cranial nerves
В) VIII pairs of cranial nerves
C) X pairs of cranial nerves
D) VII pairs of cranial nerves +
E) IX pairs of cranial nerves
290. The hypoglossur nerve is:
A) I pairs of cranial nerves
В) VII pairs of cranial nerves
C) X pairs of cranial nerves
D) XII pairs of cranial nerves +
E) I pairs of cranial nerves
291. The additional nerve is:
A) I pairs of cranial nerves
В) VII pairs of cranial nerves
C) X pairs of cranial nerves
D) XI pairs of cranial nerves +
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E) IX pairs of cranial nerves
292. The visual nerve is a nerve:
A) I pairs of cranial nerves
В) VII pairs of cranial nerves
C) X pairs of cranial nerves
D) II pairs of cranial nerves +
E) IX pairs of cranial nerves
293. The motoroculi nerve is a nerve:
A) I pairs of cranial nerves
В) VII pairs of cranial nerves
C) X pairs of cranial nerves
D) III pairs of cranial nerves +
E) IX pairs of cranial nerves
294. Blokovidny is a nerve:
A) I pairs of cranial nerves
В) IV pairs of cranial nerves +
C) X pairs of cranial nerves
D) XIII pairs of cranial nerves
E) IX pairs of cranial nerves
295. Vestibulocochlear nerve is:
A) I pairs of cranial nerves
В) VIII pairs of cranial nerves +
C) X pairs of cranial nerves
D) XIII pairs of cranial nerves
E) IX pairs of cranial nerves
296. The cranial nerve leaving a brain on border between the bridge and an average cerebellar
leg
A) a nerve of IX couples
B) nerve of the V couple +
C) nerve of the VIII couple
D) nerve of the VI couple
E) nerve of the VII couple
297. The cranial nerve leaving a brain on border of the bridge and a medulla
A) IV pair of cranial nerves
B) III pair of cranial nerves
C) VI pair of cranial nerves +
D) V pair of cranial nerves
E) VII pair of cranial nerves
298. A cranial nerve which leaves a brain between a pyramid and an olive
A) nerve of the IX couple
B) nerve of the XI-y couple
C) nerve of the XII-y couple +
D) nerve H-y of couple
E) nerve of the VII couple
299. Component of a big brain:
A) Hemispheres +
C) Chetverokholmiye
C) Talamus
D) Diamond-shaped pole
E) Cerebellum
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300. External cover of a brain:
A) Firm +
В) Web
C) Soft
D) Fibrous
E) Serous
301. Average cover of a brain:
A) Firm
В) Web +
C) Soft
D) Fibrous
E) Serous
302. Internal cover of a brain:
A) Firm
В) Web
C) Soft +
D) Fibrous
E) Serous
303. The IV ventricle is a cavity:
A) Final brain
В) Intermediate brain
C) Midbrain
D) Diamond-shaped brain +
E) Spinal cord
304. The Retikulyarny formation is an accumulation of neurons and nervous fibers in:
A) in a spinal cord and a trunk of a brain +
B) marrow
C) intermediate brain
D) brain covers
E) visual center
305. ... department of a brain the spinal cord reminding an external structure.
A) Medulla +
B) Final brain
C) Midbrain
D) Intermediate brain
E) Back brain
306. The upper legs of a cerebellum go to …
A) to a midbrain. +
B) to a medulla.
C) to a talamus.
D) to an intermediate brain.
E) to a gipotalamus.
307. The lower legs of a cerebellum go to …
A) oblong to a brain. +
B) to the bridge.
C) to an intermediate brain.
D) to a midbrain.
E) to a spinal cord.
308. The upper slyunootdelitelny kernel is located in …
A) bridge. +
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B) intermediate brain.
C) midbrain.
D) cerebellum.
E) final brain.
309. Lower the slyunootdelitelny kernel is located in …
A) medulla. +
B) cerebellum.
C) midbrain.
D) intermediate brain.
E) final brain.
310. …. cranial nerves, leaves a brain between a pyramid and an olive of a medulla.
A) XII couple +
B) IX couple
C) XI couple
D) X couple
E) V couple
311. The III ventricle is a cavity:
A) Final brain
C) Intermediate brain +
C) Midbrain
D) Diamond-shaped brain
E) Spinal cord
312. The water supply system of a brain is a cavity:
A) Final brain
В) Intermediate brain
C) Midbrain +
D) Diamond-shaped brain
E) Spinal cord
313. The upper hillocks of a midbrain are:
A) subcrustal centers of taste
B) subcrustal centers of sight +
C) subcrustal centers of hearing
D) subcrustal centers of balance
E) subcrustal centers of sense of smell
314. Midbrain cavity:
A) І ventricle
B) ІІ ventricle
C) brain water supply system +
D) central channel
E) trailer ventricle
315. Cavity of an intermediate brain:
A) brain water supply system
B) І ventricle
C) ІІ ventricle
D) IV желудлчек
E) ІІІ ventricle +
316. Treat a midbrain:
A) brain legs +
B) intermediate brain
C) final brain
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D) back brain
E) midbrain tire +
317. Treat an intermediate brain:
A) olive
B) таламус +
C) mastoidal body
D) visual recross
E) brain legs
318. Treat a gipotalamus:
A) gray hillock
B) mastoidal body +
C) funnel
D) lateral cranked body
E) the forward made a hole substance
319. Are a part of a midbrain:
A) black substance +
B) brain legs
C) trapezoid body
D) upper brain sail
E) medial cranked body
2. Situatsionnye tasks:
№1. The street trauma at the victim was resulted by a cardiac standstill. How is it possible to
give emergency aid and what parts of a skeleton at the same time influence?
Answer: It is necessary to make an artificial cardiac massage by rhythmic movements in the
field of a midsternum.
№2. The street trauma at the victim was resulted by arterial bleeding in cervical area from
carotid branches. How is it possible to stop bleeding?
Answer: Bleeding can be stopped by pressing of a blood vessel to a somnolent hillock of the
sixth cervical vertebra.
№3. The vertebra the short doubled acantha, on transversal processes has small openings. Define
a vertebra?
Answer: typical cervical vertebra
№4. Sharp falling at the victim was resulted by fracture of one of forearm bones. At the same
time pathological mobility on forward - lateral edge of a forearm becomes perceptible. Specify
what fracture of a bone it is observed at the victim.
Answer: The victim had a fracture of a radial bone.
№5. Mother took the seven-year-old daughter on reception to the surgeon. The fact that at the
daughter the forearm extension in an elbow joint appeared more than 180 served as the reason of
its address to the doctor. However the surgeon didn't establish the fact of pathology and
abirritated uneasy mother. Why more than 180 at the girl the doctor didn't consider an extension
in an elbow joint as pathology?
Answer: At children and some women the forearm overextension in an elbow joint because of a
relaxation of ligaments and the small sizes of an ulnar process is possible.
№6. On the roentgenogram of healthy foot 7 - the summer child the doctor saw multiple
fragments in the field of a calcaneal hillock of a calcaneus. What reason?
Answer: At the child of 7-9 years the calcaneal hillock of a calcaneus develops from several
ossification centers who merge with a body by 12-15 years.
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№7. For definition of age of the child brought to the doctor the roentgenogram of a femur on
which there was only one ossification center in the field of a femur head. What age the child
had?
Answer: The child was 1 year old.
№8. In a car accident the victim had a trauma of a side surface of the head. At the same time
there was an abruption of scaly part of a temporal bone from a pyramid. What canal of a
temporal bone will be damaged in these conditions?
Answer: The muscular and tubal canal will be damaged.
№9. During operation the surgeon manipulates on the lower surface of a pyramid of a temporal
bone of a kpereda from a bulbar fossa. What destruction of the channel is possible at careless
actions of the operator?
Answer: At careless actions of the operator destruction of the channel of a carotid with the
subsequent massive arterial bleeding is possible.
№10. At the one-year-old child in a radiological picture the expressed cleft is determined by the
average line of frontal part of a skull. What reason?
Answer: The frontal bone develops from two half which by 2nd years grow together, forming a
so-called metopic seam.
№11. In a car accident the victim had a nose trauma. At the same time there was a fracture of a
septum of a nose. What bones suffered in these conditions?
Answer: The trellised bone and a vomer suffered.
№12. Inflammatory process in the field of the lower wall of an orbit was resulted by an abscess.
The attending physician expects distribution of an inflammation to area a wing - a palatal fossa.
Through what opening distribution of inflammatory process of an orbit to a wing - a palatal fossa
is possible?
Answer: Distribution of an inflammation from an orbit in a wing - a palatal fossa perhaps
through the lower orbital cleft.
№13. The jugular opening is located on the lower surface of a skull. Through it there pass nerves
and a large venous vessel. In what cavity of a skull will be will extend hemorrhage. If this
venous vessel is destroyed in the field of a jugular opening?
Answer: Hemorrhage from a venous vessel will extend in a back cranial pole.
№14. As a result of conjunctivitis purulent allocations from an eye-socket began to arrive in a
nasal cavity. Via what channel there is a distribution of inflammatory process of an eye-socket to
a nasal cavity and what bones participate in formation of this channel?
Answer:rasprostraneniye of an inflammation from an eye-socket goes to a nasal cavity via the
nososlezny channel in which formation the upper jaw and a plaintive bone participate.
№15. In a temporal and mandibular joint several types of movement are possible: lowering and
lifting of the lower jaw, promotion forward and return back, shift of the lower jaw to the right
and to the left. At the same time, excessive movements in this joint can lead to dislocation of the
lower jaw forward. What anatomic education interferes with emergence of the specified
violation?
Answer: Dislocation of a head of the lower jaw is interfered articulate by a hillock of a temporal
bone forward.
№16. In case of vertical fall from height the compression fracture of a lumbar vertebra is
diagnosed for the victim. At the same time curvature of a lordoz of this department of a
backbone has sharply increased. By what injury of a ligament such change of curvature of a
spine column can be followed?
Answer: Increase in a lordoz of lumbar department of a povonochny column can come in case
of violation of integrity of a forward longitudinal linking of this department.
№17. On a x-ray film of a radiocarpal joint in medial part "the x-ray cleft" is strong is expanded.
Whether it is pathology?
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Answer: "The x-ray cleft" of a radiocarpal joint in medial part is expanded according to the joint
disk located here which isn't detaining X-rays.
№18. The most frequent injury of joints of the top extremity is dislocation of a shoulder joint.
Specify what anatomic factors promote dislocation of a shoulder joint?
Answer: The most frequent dislocation of a shoulder joint is promoted:
Lack of well expressed copular device, free joint capsule, not congruence in size of joint
surfaces.
№19. Mother took the seven-year-old daughter on reception to the surgeon. The fact that at the
daughter the forearm extension in an elbow joint appeared more than 180 served as the reason of
its address to the doctor. However the surgeon didn't establish the fact of pathology and
abirritated uneasy mother. Why more than 180 at the girl the doctor didn't consider an extension
in an elbow joint as pathology?
Answer: At children and some women the forearm overextension in an elbow joint because of a
relaxation of ligaments and the small sizes of an ulnar process is possible.
№20. The surgeon needs to make excision of part of the injured foot in the area of Shoparov of a
joint. What ligament needs to be crossed that the specified operation was possible?
Answer: For partial excision of bones of the injured foot in the area of Shoparov of a joint it is
necessary to cross the doubled ligament (calcaneonavicular and calcaneocuboid).
№21. At a long jump the athlete at the time of a landing was sharply thrown back back and felt
severe pain in hip joints. On survey at the traumatologist it turned out that the victim isn't able to
make a femur extension. The doctor diagnosed sprain of a hip joint. What ligaments of a hip
joint suffered to a large extent at this trauma?
Answer: In the described conditions podvzdoshno femoral ligaments to a great extent suffered.
№22. At the patient after an inflammation of a sciatic nerve there came complication in the
form of paralysis of back group of muscles of a femur. What disturbances in the movement of
the lower extremity will accompany this complication?
Answer: It will be difficult to patient to incurvate and turn a knaruzha femur.
№23. It is known that feature of a mimic musculation is lack of fascias and a peculiar
attachment of muscles: beginning on bones of a facial skull, they come to an end in face skin.
What of mimic muscles is an exception of the specified general features, i.e. has a fascia and
beginning on one bone is attached on other bone of a facial skull?
Answer: Myshshchy the buccal muscle is such.
№24. As a result of a traumatology lesion of the head the victim lost ability to push a
mandible forward.At what lesion of masseters such movement in a temporal mandibular joint
is limited?
Answer: Promotion of a mandible is impossible forward at bilateral damage of lateral
pterygoid masseters.
№25. At wound in a neck at the victim the severe bleeding which was complicated by an air
embolism began. What promotes emergence of such serious complications at wounds of a
neck?
Answer: Emergence of serious complications at wounds of a neck is promoted by the
following features:
- in a neck a large number of veins and arteries is located
- existence of a large number of the muscles which are activly participating in respiration
- a large number of fascias which don't allow to be fallen down to vessels
- the existence of negative respiration of a thoracal cavity promoting retractions of air in neck
vessels.
№26. For conservation of an optimum shape of a stomach the doctor on physiotherapy exercises
recommends to strengthen direct muscles of a stomach. What exercises it is expedient to
recommend to clients for strengthening of direct muscles of a stomach?
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Answer: For training of direct muscles of a stomach it is expedient to carry out exercises on a
flexion and an extension of a spine column.
№27. The patient arrived with complaints to pains in epigastriß area. According to the surgeon
these complaints are bound to a possibility of development of hernial educations.
Call weak points in a forward abdominal wall in epigastriß area which when rising intra
abdominal pressure can be places of formation of hernias.
Answer: Clefts in the white line of a stomach can be such places in epigastriß area.
№28. During training of the gymnast the trainer paid attention to delicacy of the muscles
promoting lowering of a scapula.What exercise of muscles it is necessary to pay attention to the
athlete to fill the disadvantage prompted by the trainer?
Answer: It is necessary to develop exercises for rising of a load on small thoracal and on
subclavial muscles.
№29. As a result of a trauma at the victim function of back group of muscles of a brachium was
broken. What disturbances will arise as an elbow joint?
Answer: In these conditions function of an extension of a forearm will be broken.
№30. When falling in the wood the child strongly hit a forearm against an acute bough. At survey
by the surgeon the getting wound of the lower quarter of a forearm is established. The victim can't
carry out turn of a brush inside. What muscle suffered at the same time?
Answer: In case of an injury the square pronator of a forearm has suffered.
№31. At the patient the felon of a thumb was complicated by a purulent inflammation of a
little finger. Why there was a complication and why the lying finger has not inflamed nearby.?
Answer: Purulent process has extended on a sinovialny vagina to the area of a carpal tunnel
where a row has located a sinovialny vagina of sgibatel of fingers, and on it pus has reached a
little finger, i.e. there was Y-figurative an inflammation. On the next finger distribution has
not happened since the II finger has the isolated sinovialny vagina.
№32. The surgeon for carrying out the sparing transaction on vessels of a hip needs to carry
out a section in a femoral triangle. Call reference points of borders of a femoral triangle.
Answer: The upper border - an inguinal sheaf, lateral border - a sartorial muscle, medial
border - the long bringing hip muscle.
№33. In case of game in soccer players perform the most frequent blows to a ball a foot sock
with sharp extension of a shin. What muscles perform this main movement of a leg?
Answer: The specified movement is performed by the four-main muscle of a hip.
№34. The patient has arrived with a craniocereberal injury with brain hypostasis signs. For
preparation for transaction - cranial trepanation, it is necessary to make medical manipulation
a spinal puncture. In what department of a spine column it is made?
Answer: Between 3 and 4 lumbar vertebras.
№35. The patient with the diagnosis - Sharp meningitis has come to hospital. The disease was
complicated by brain dropsy. Specify what violation of openings of a diamond-shaped brain
leads to violation of circulation of cerebrospinal fluid from ventricles in subweb space.
Answer: Median opening (Magendi) and two side (Luschka) vascular ventricle IY roof covers.
№36. At the patient violation of work of muscles of extremities is noted. Specify what defeat of
anatomic formations of a cerebellum occurs at the patient.
Answer: At defeat of hemispheres and a gear kernel.
№37. The patient had had a respiratory standstill and blood circulation. Specify what defeat of
anatomic formations of a diamond-shaped brain it was observed at the patient.
Answer: Centers of breath and blood circulation of a medulla.
№38. At the time of delivery the newborn had had a craniocereberal trauma to a cerebellum
separation. Specify what damage of a shoot of a firm brain cover took place?
Answer: Rupture of a sickle of a cerebellum.
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№39. The patient has a hemorrhage in the field of a bottom corner of a diamond-shaped pole.
What kernels of nerves have suffered?
Answer:Have suffered: motive kernel of the XII couple and vegetative kernel of the X pair of
craniocereberal nerves.
№40. The patient has a tumor in the field of a gray hillock of podtalamichesky area. What
pathological changes are possible?
Answer: As, the gray hillock is a major subcrustal center of regulation the vegatitivnykh of
function, violations of all types of an exchange and work of internals are possible.
№41. At sick hemorrhage to the right (left) lateral area of a visual hillock. What are possible
violations?
Answer: Here switches all elements (left) and (the right medial loop). Their communication with
a cerebral cortex is broken.
3. Questions tests, exams:
1. To call the main Latin anatomic terms?
2. To call axes and the planes of section of a human body?
3. Structure of a spine column, its departments?
4. General properties of vertebras?
5. Structure of a typical vertebra?
6. Features of a structure of cervical, chest vertebras?
7. Distinctive features I, II, VI, VII cervical vertebras?
8. Distinctive features of I, X, XI, XII chest vertebras?
9. Features of a structure of lumbar vertebras?
10. Structure of a breast, part.
11. Edge structure, types.
12. Anatomy of sacral vertebras.
13. A shovel structure, its location concerning a trunk skeleton.
14. Clavicle structure, its skeletotopiya.
15. To call all formations of humeral, elbow, beam bones in Latin?
16. To distinguish right from left tubular bones upper extremities?
17. Latin name of bones of a brush.
18. Structure of 3 departments: wrists, пястья, phalanxes of fingers.
19. Structure of a pelvic bone in general.
20. Functional value of pelvic bones.
21. Call parts of a femur?
22. Describe more and low-tibial bones?
23. Call departments of foot and specify what bones form proximal and distalny ranks of a
tarsus?
24. Describe anatomic features of bones of foot?
25. Overview of a skull, division into brain and front departments?
26. Describe a structure of scales of a frontal bone?
27. Describe a structure of orbital part of a frontal bone?
28. Describe a structure of nasal part of a frontal bone?
29. Describe a structure of external and internal surfaces of a parietal bone?
30. Call parts of an occipital bone and their structure?
31. Show a provision of a wedge-shaped bone in a skull and describe a structure?
32. Determine a provision of a temporal bone in a skull?
33. List bones on which the temporal bone borders?
34. Describe a structure of a temporal bone?
35. Call channels of a temporal bone?
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36. Describe a structure of a trellised bone?
37. List and show bones of a facial skull?
38. Call and show surfaces of a body of the top jaw?
39. List shoots of a body of the top jaw?
40. List nasal sinks which of them is an independent bone?
41. Call shoots of a palatal bone?
42. Call surfaces of a perpendicular plate of a palatal bone which of them are medial?
43. With what shoots the perpendicular plate of a palatal bone comes to an end?
44. List and show shoots, and openings of a malar bone?
45. List and show parts of the lower jaw?
46. Call shoots of the lower jaw?
47. List eminences of the lower jaw?
48. What bones of a facial skull are pneumatic?
49. What bone of a facial skull is located in a neck? Call her parts?
50. Age and sexual specific features of a skull. Variations and anomalies of bones of a skull.
51. Bones of a facial skull. Eye-socket and and nasal cavity.
52. Temporal bone, her parts, channels and their name.
53. Wedge-shaped bone, her parts, opening and their development.
54. Krylonebny pole, her walls, opening and their value.
55. Okolonosovy bosoms, their values.
56. Internal basis of a skull, opening, their value.
57. External basis of a skull, opening, their value.
58. Distinctions in a structure of a skull, a form. Cranial indicators in compliance of a shape of a
skull.
59. Features of a structure of a skull of the newborn.
60. Classification of connections of bones.
61. Types of continuous connections, examples.
62. Preryvny connections, examples.
63. Components of joints.
64. Classification of joints (in a form, on a structure, on function).
65. Connections of vertebras.
66. Connections of edges with a spine column and breast.
67. Thorax in general.
68. Connections of bones of a skull.
69. Temporal and mandibular joint.
70. Connection of a spine column with a skull.
71. Grudino-klyuchichny joint.
72. Shoulder joint.
73. Elbow joint.
74. Brush joints.
75. Sacral iliac joint.
76. Pubic symphysis.
77. Basin in general.
78. Coxofemoral joint.
79. Knee joint.
80. Ankle joint.
81. Connections of bones of foot.
82. Features of mimic muscles of the person.
83. Nadcherepny muscle and muscles of an auricle.
84. The muscles surrounding natural openings of a facial skull.
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85. Bone fascial and intermuscular spaces of the head.
86. Classification of muscles of a neck.
87. Neck triangles.
88. Fastion of a neck.
89. Superficial muscles of a neck.
90. Deep muscles of a neck.
91. Muscles are higher and lower than a hypoglossal bone.
92. Mezhfastsialny spaces of a neck.
93. Surface muscles of a breast.
94. Deep muscles of a breast.
95. Diafrgama openings, triangles.
96. Respiratory function of muscles of a breast and diafrgama.
97. Superficial muscles of a back.
98. Deep muscles of a back.
99. A role of muscles of a back in the movement of a body of the person.
100. Peredny group of muscles of a stomach.
101. Side group of muscles of a stomach.
102. Back group of muscles of a stomach.
103. Vagina of a direct muscle of a stomach.
104. White line of a stomach, umbilical ring.
105. Walls of the inguinal channel.
106. Structure of an external abdominal ring.
107. Structure of the internal inguinal channel.
108. Contents of the inguinal channel at men and women.
109. Back group of muscles of a humeral belt, their function.
110. Forward group of muscles of a humeral belt, their function.
111. Forward group of muscles of a shoulder, their function.
112. Back group of muscles of a shoulder, their function.
113. Forward group of muscles преплечья, their function.
114. Back group of muscles преплечья, their function.
115. Brush muscles, their function.
116. Fastion and vagina of sinews of the top extremity.
117. Topography of the upper extremity.
118. Forward group of muscles of a pelvic belt, their function.
119. Back group of muscles of a pelvic belt, their function.
120. Forward group of muscles of a hip, their function.
121. Back group of muscles of a hip, their function.
122. Medial group of muscles of a hip, their function.
123. Forward group of muscles of a shin, their function
124. Back group of muscles of a shin, their function.
125. Lateral shin muscles, their function.
126. Muscles of the back of foot, their function.
127. Sole muscles, their fukntion.
128. Fastion and vagina of sinews of the lower extremity.
129. Topography of the lower extremity.
130. Characteristic of the main stages of forming of a brain.
131. Name of 12 pairs of craniocereberal nerves. To show on a preparation of the place of an
exit of all nerves based on a skull and from a skull.
132. List brain covers as their arrangement and creation, physiological value of bosoms
133. Firm brain cover, its structure.
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134. Bosoms of a firm brain cover. What principle of their arrangement and creation,
physiological value of bosoms.
135. Where there is a place of discharge of bosoms. How communication of bosoms among
themselves and how there is an outflow of a blue blood from a skull is performed?
136. Web brain cover, its structure.
137. Soft brain cover, its structures.
138. A medulla, educations, an arrangement on a ventral and dorsalny surface;
139. Internal structure of a medulla (gray and white substance);
140. Diamond-shaped brain, its components.
141. Bridge of a brain, its surface.
142. Internal structure of the bridge of a brain.
143. Isthmus of a diamond-shaped brain, its components.
144. External shape of a cerebellum.
145. Communication of a cerebellum with other departments of a brain
146. Internal structure of a cerebellum. Cerebellum kernels.
147. Diamond-shaped pole, form, educations.
148. Topography of kernels of the V-XII craniocereberal nerves.
149. IV ventricle, walls, messages.
150. Midbrain, its departments;
151. Internal structure of a midbrain;
152. Silviyev water supply system, its functional value;
153. Departments of an intermediate brain;
154. Visual hillock, its surfaces, topography, internal structure, functional value;
155. The educations which are a part of nadtalamichesky area;
156. Zatalamichesky region, functional value;
157. Gipotalamus, division it on part;
158. III ventricle, its walls, message.