Download 1 - Northern Highlands

REVIEW QUESTIONS
PLEASE INDICATE YOUR ANSWER BY FILLING IN THE CORRECT OVAL ON THE SCANTRON
FORM PROVIDED. BE SURE TO READ EACH QUESTION COMPLETELY.
1. Maintaining a state of biological balance is termed
a. assimilation
c. homeostasis
b. anabolism
d. catabolism
2. If the low-power field has a diameter of 2000 micrometers and 5 cells can be seen across
the field then each cell is how large?
a. 10,000um
c. 4,000um
b. 400 um
d. 100,000 um
3. The basic unit of matter is the
a. proton
b. atom
c. neutron
d. electron
4. The nucleus of an atom contains
a. electrons
b. energy
c. energy levels
d. neutrons
5. If an atom has 5 protons, 7 neutrons, and 5 electrons, the atomic number of that atom is
a. 4
c. 7 45
b. 12
d. 5
6. In covalent bonds, atoms _______ their electrons
a. transfer
c. destroy
b. share
d. lose
7. In ionic bonds, atoms ________ their electrons
a. transfer
c. destroy
b. share
d. lose
8. In a solution of salt water, the water would be the :
a. solvent
c. suspension
b. solute
d. solution
9. A strong acid has a pH of
a. 2
b. 4
c. 7
d. 10
10. Which of these is not a characteristic of life
a. respiration
b. growth
c. breathing
d. reproduction
11. Carbohydrates are used for:
a. growth
b. energy
c. genetic transfer
d. structural integrity
12. Another name for a simple sugar is a
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. double sugar
d. polysaccharide
13. A lipid is a term for
a. sugar
b. starch
c. fat
d. enzyme
14. Dehydration synthesis links monomers by the removal of
a. carbon
c. hydrogen
b. water
d. acids
15. An important monosaccharide (C6 H12 O6) is
a. glucose
b. sucrose
c. maltose
d. fat
16. The monomers of proteins are
a. monosaccharides
b. nitrogenous bases
c. disaccharides
d. amino acids
17. All acids can be identified by which functional group
a. hydroxyl (OH)
b. Amino (NH2)
c. carboxyl (COOH)
d. methyl (CH3)
18. A substance that speeds up the rate of a reaction
a. protein
c. atom
b. molecule
d. catalyst
19. A macromolecule made of many smaller units is called a :
a. monomer
c. polymer
b. monosaccharide
d. amino acid
20. DNA is a type of :
a. amino acid
b. lipid
c. protein
d. nucleic acid
21. Amino acids can be told apart from one another by their
a. Amino Groups
c. Carbon chains
b. R- groups
d. glycerol molecules
22. A substrate binds to the enzyme at the
a. binding site
b. key-lock
c. chemical site
d. active site
23. Amino Acids are linked together by _______ bonds
a. peptide bonds
c. glycosidic linkage
b. Nitrification
d. amino acid synthesis
24. A compound that produces H+ ions is called a
a. acid
c. ion
b. base
25. Almost every enzyme is a
a. carbohydrate
b. lipid
d. organic molecule
c. protein
d. nucleic acid
26. What is the basic unit of structure and function in living things?
a. protein
c. Nucleus
b. vacuole
d. cell
27. The process by which substances move from regions of high concentration to low
concentration is
a. phagocytosis
c. active transport
b. diffusion
d. endocytosis
28. The movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane is known as
a. facilitated diffusion
c. osmosis
b. diffusion
d. active transport
29. The movement of a substance from an area of low concentration to one of high
concentration is
a. passive transport
c. absorption
b. active transport
d. diffusion
30. Prokaryotes
a. have a nucleus
b. are always multicellular
c. do not have an organized nucleus
d. do not have a cellular membrane
31. Which structure may be descended from independent organisms?
a. mitochondria and chloroplasts
b. mitochondria and lysosomes
c. chloroplasts and ribosomes
d. vacuoles and lysosomes
32. Which cell structures are most directly involved in protein synthesis?
a. endoplasmic reticulum and cell wall
b. Chloroplast and centriole
c. Nucleus and ribosome
d. Cell membrane and lysosomes
33. Which organelle contains hereditary factors and controls most cell activities?
a. vacuole
c. cell membrane
b. nucleus
d. endoplasmic reticulum
34. Which structures are found in every living cell ?
a. a cell wall and nucleus
c. vacuoles and a nucleus
b. chloroplasts and mitochondria
d. a plasma membrane and cytoplasm
35. Which statement best describes the plasma membrane of a living plant cell?
a. It has the same permeability to all substances found inside or outside the cell
b. It selectively regulates the passage of substances into and out of the cell
c. It is composed of proteins and carbohydrates only
d. It is a double protein layer with floating lipid molecules
36. Which statements below are associated with the cell theory
i. Cells are the basic units of structure in living things
ii. Cells are the basic units of function in living things
iii. Cells come from pre-existing cells.
a. B and C
c. A, B, and C
c. A and C
d. A and B
37. Who was the first person to identify and see cells?
a. Anton van Leeuwenhook
b. Robert Hooke
c. Matthias Schleiden
d. Rudolf Virchow
38. The cell membrane is made up of
a. lipids and proteins only
b. phospholipids and carbohydrates only
c. lipids, proteins, carbohydrates, and other compounds
d. proteins, carbohydrates, and other compounds
39. If you were to place a cell in a hypotonic solution, what would happen to the cell
a. shrink
c. stay the same
b. explode
d. change shape
40. Which of the following are not true about facilitated diffusion
a. it does not require energy
b. substances move down the concentration gradient
c. movement requires the help of a protein channel
d. always causes a cell to shrink
41. If a cell is placed in water with a higher concentration of oxygen molecules inside the cell
than outside the cell, the solution is said to be________
a. isotonic
c. hypotonic
b. hypertonic
d. gin and tonic
42. The difference between an area of high and low concentrations is called a
a. concentration gradient
c. isotonic solution
b. active transport
d. pinocytosis
43. Which structure is found in the cells of plants but not in animals
a. cell membrane
c. mitochondria
b. cell wall
d. lysosome
44. Which organelles harvest energy from the sunlight (photosynthesis)?
a. lysosome
c. chloroplast
b. mitochondria
d. ribosomes
45. Which organelles are responsible for producing energy (respiration) in the cell
a. lysosome
c. chloroplast
b. mitochondria
d. ribosomes
46. What two things are required for the light-dependent reactions to take place?
a. ATP and sunlight
c. Carbon dioxide and water
b. Water and sunlight
d. Oxygen and water
47. What is the name of the location where water is split by the energy of the sun
a. photosystem I
c. grana
b. Photosystem II
d. thylakoid
48. The process by which high energy electrons give off their energy to allow the formation
of ATP from ADP is called
a. electron transport chain
c. synthesis
b. photophosphorylation
d. autotrophic behavior
49. Which of the following molecules is given off as a waste product of the light reactions.
a. water
c. ATP
b. NADPH
d. O2
50. What is the name given to an organism that uses light to produce its own food?
a. autotroph
c. photoautotroph
b. chemo-autotroph
d. photographic
51. What is the name of the organelle responsible for photosynthesis ?
a. chloroplast
c. chlorophyll A
b. Carotene
d. Chlorophyll B
52. Clusters of chlorophyll molecules where solar energy is absorbed and electrons are
excited are called
a. photosystems
c. grana
b. cristae
d. stroma
53. One result of the light dependent reactions is
a. glucose
b. ADP
c. ATP
d. H2O
54. In order for an electron to maintain its energy to move into the dark reactions it must be
bound to a carrier molecule called
a. ATP
c. ADP
b. NADP
d. AMP
55. The light independent reactions of photosynthesis require
a. NADP+
c. Glucose
b. ADP
d. CO2
56. What is a product of the Calvin Cycle
a. Carbon Dioxide
b. ATP
c. high-energy sugar
d. NADPH
57. Which of the following is not an example of a heterotroph
a. mushroom
c. grass
b. leopard
d. human
58. What is the carrier molecule that transports electrons during photosynthesis?
a. NADP+
c. Glucose
b. ADP
d. CO2
59. How many molecules of ATP are produced in the Electron Transport chain of cellular
respiration?
a. 2 ATP
c. 32ATP
b. 4 ATP
d. 36 ATP
60. Which chemical is necessary to remove the high energy electrons from NADH and
FADH at the end of the electron transport chain in respiration?
a. Hydrogen
c. Carbon
b. Helium
d. Oxygen
61. This process proceeds both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
a. Krebs Cycle
c. Glycolysis
b. citric acid cycle
d. electron transport chain
62. The net ATP result of glycolysis is
a. 36 ATP
b. 2 ATP
c. 4 ATP
d. 38 ATP
63. Anaerobic respiration:
a. requires oxygen
b. results from exercise
c. Occurs without oxygen
d. all of these
64. The result of glycolysis is
a. citric acid and NAD+
b. alcohol, ATP, and CO2
c. lactic acid and NADH
d. Pyruvic acid and NADH
65. The direct purpose of the Kreb’s /Citric Acid Cycle is to produce
a. Glucose
c. NAD+ and ADP
b. NADH and ATP
d. Acetyl-Coenzyme A
66. What is the name of the molecule which results from the binding of a 2 Carbon molecule
(Acetyl) to Co-enzyme A in the first step of the citric acid cycle
a. Rubisco
c. Citric acidase
b. Acetyl Coenzyme A
d. Lactic Acid
67. Once pyruvic acid enters the Kreb’s cycle it is processed by giving off Carbon molecules
in the form of….
a. oxygen
c. Carbon dioxide
b. glucose
d. citric acid
68. During the process of fermentation, High energy electrons are passed back and forth for
what reason
a. So the Krebs cycle may begin
b. So fermentation can stop
c. To prevent cramping
d. To allow glycolysis to continue
69. Which of the following are not a stage of aerobic cellular respiration
a. glycolysis
c. Citric Acid Cycle
b. Fermentation
d. Electron Transport chain
70. Which is the correct formula for cellular respiration ?
a. 6O2 + C6H12O6--------- 6CO2+ 6H2O+ Energy
b. 6O2 + C6H12O6+ Energy ------- 6CO2+ 6H2O
c. 6CO2+ 6H2O ----- 6O2+ C6H12O6 + Energy
d. 6CO2+ 6H2O + Energy----- 6O2+ C6H12O6
71. Lactic Acid fermentation occurs in
a. milk
b. any environment containing O2
c. muscle cells
d. mitochondria
72. Which of the following passes high energy electrons to the electron transport chain
a. NADH
c. citric acid
b. ATP and ADP
d. Acetyl-CoA
73. An Olympic sprinter uses which metabolic pathway when competing
a. aerobic respiration
c. photosynthesis
b. Kreb’s Cycle
d. anaerobic respiration
74. How are cellular respiration and photosynthesis almost opposite processes
a. Photosynthesis releases energy, Respiration restores it
b. Photosynthesis removes CO2 from the atmosphere, and respiration restores it
c. Photosynthesis removes O2 from the atmosphere and respiration puts it back
d. All of the above
75. Photosynthesis is to chloroplasts as respiration is to
a. chloroplast
c. mitochondria
b. cytoplasm
d. nuclei
76. Which of the following acts as an electron carrier in respiration
a. ATP
c. lactic acid
b. glucose
d. NAD+
77. Cellular respiration (not including glycolysis) uses 1 molecule of glucose to produce
a. 2 ATP
c. 34 ATP
b. 36ATP
d. 4ATP
78. In the presence of oxygen, glycolysis is followed by…
a. lactic acid fermentation
c. photosynthesis
b. alcoholic fermentation
d. the Kreb’s cycle
79. The Kreb’s/CAC does not occur if
a. oxygen is present
b. fermentation occurs
c. glycolysis occurs
d. carbon dioxide is present
80. The starting molecule for the Kreb’s Cycle is
a. glucose
c. pyruvic acid
b. citric acid
d. coenzyme A
81. A waste product of cellular respiration is
a. oxygen
c. ATP
b. Water
d. carbon dioxide
82. One cause of muscle soreness is
a. alcoholic fermentation
b. glycolysis
c. lactic acid fermentation
d. the Krebs cycle
83. Breathing heavily after running a race is your body’s way of
a. making more citric acid
b. repaying an oxygen debt
c. restarting glycolysis
d. recharging the electron transport chain
84. All of the followinig are sources of energy during exercise except
a. stored ATP
b. lactic acid fermentation
c. cellular respiration
d. alcoholic respiration
85. A normal human cell has how many chromosomes
a. 23
c. 4
b. 46
d. 92
86. Another name for sex cells is
a. gametes
b. zygote
c. chromosomes
d. embryo
87. The male sex cell is called the
a. egg
b. fertilization
c. sperm
d. pollen
88. In human sex cells there are ________ chromosomes
a. 23
b. 46
c. 92
d. 104
89. During which phase of meiosis do chromosomes move to opposite sides of
a. metaphase I
c. Anaphase II
b. Telophase II
d. Prophase II
90. A diploid cell has ___________ chromosomes as a haploid cell
a. half as many
c. double the number of
b. 4 times as many
d. the same number of
the cell
91. The first thing that happens to a cell in mitosis is
a. nuclear membrane disappears
b. Cell membrane begins to split
c. DNA is replicated
d. Chromosomes move to opposite sides of the cell
92. G1, G2, and S phases are often called
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. telophase
93. Each chromosome contains two strands called
a. centromeres
c. chromatids
b. centrioles
d. microtubules
94. The cytoplasm divides during
a. telophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. cytokenesis
95. The products of mitosis are
a. two cells with half the number of chromosomes
b. two cells that are genetically identical
c. four cells with half the number of chromosomes
d. four cells that are genetically identical
96. Which phase of mitosis does a cell spend most of its life in
a. interphase
c. anaphase
b. prophase
d. telophase
97. The process which produces sex cells is called
a. Meiosis
b. Asexual reproduction
c. Mitosis
d. Sexual reproduction
98. Which phase is missing from Meiosis II that makes it different from
Meiosis I and
mitosis
a. interphase I
c. metaphase I
b. interphase II
d. telophase II
99. If an organism has 72 chromosomes in its body cells, what will result after
a.
2 cells with 72 chromosomes
b.
4 cells with 72 chromosomes
c.
2 cells with 36 chromosomes
d.
4 cells with 36 chromosomes
100.
meiosis
During meiosis, tetrad formation and crossing-over occur during which phase
a. metaphase II
c. anaphase II
b. metaphase I
d. telophase II
1) Who is given credit with first discovering the structure of DNA?
a. Thomas Hunt Morgan
c. Rosalind Franklin
b. Watson and Crick
d. Hershey and Chase
2) What is the name of the structure given to DNA?
a. Double spiral
c. Double Helix
b. Double Stranded Ladder
d. Twisting Ladder
3) The “backbone of DNA” is comprised of what two parts
a. Deoxyribose sugar, Nitrogenous Base
c. Ribose Sugar, Phosphate grouop
b. Ribose sugar, Thymine
d. Deoxyribose sugar, Phosphate
4) What are the three parts of a nucleotide ?
a. Phosphate group, oxygen base, and 5-Carbon sugar
b. Oxygen group, nitrogenous base, 5 carbon sugar
c. Phosphate group, nitrogenous base, 5 carbon sugar
d. Phosphate group, Oxygen group, 5-carbon sugar
5) Cytosine always bonds with
a. adenine
b. guanine
c. cytosine
d. uracil
6) DNA is copied in a process called
a. replication
b. transcription
c. translation
d. transformation
7) The process by which RNA molecules are made is called
a. replication
c. translation
b. transcription
d. transformation
8) The form of RNA that carries the instructions is known as
a. tRNA
c. rRNA
b. mRNA
d. RNA polymerase
9) The molecule that transfers amino acids to the ribosomes are
a. tRNA
c. rRNA
b. mRNA
d. RNA polymerase
10) Which scientist is responsible for first identifying DNA as the Genetic Material
a. Griffith
c. Hershey and chase
b. Avery
d. Franklin
11) Which scientists x-ray photograph of DNA lead to the discovery of its structure
a. Griffith
c. Hershey and chase
b. Avery
d. Franklin
12) The use of radioactive isotopes to identify DNA in Bacteriophage was done by
a. Griffith
c. Hershey and chase
b. Avery
d. Franklin
13) In Griffith’s experiment he found that one type of bacteria were ___________
Into another
a. changed
c. altered
b. mutated
d. transformed
14) The two strands of DNA are held together by __________ bonds
a. nitrogen-oxygen
c. covalent
b. ionic
d. hydrogen
15) The amount of Adenine in a sample of DNA is approximately equal to the amount
of Thymine. This relationship is referred to as
a. Crick’s Razor
c. Franklin’s hypothesis
b. Chargaff’s Rule
d. Avery theorem
16) The process by which a strand of DNA is copied is called
a. replication
c. duplication
b. copying
d. protein synthesis
17) Two strands are broken and DNA is unzipped by
a. carbohydrates
c. Nucleotides
b. Enzymes
d. Lipids
18) DNA is copied during which phase of Mitosis
a. Interphase
c. Metaphase
b. Prophase
d. Anaphase
19) RNA is different from DNA in all of the following ways except
a. Ribose sugar replaces Deoxyribose Sugar
b. Uracil replaces Thymine
c. RNA is double stranded
d. RNA is capable of leaving the nucleus
20) RNA polymerase is the enzyme that carries out
a. transcription
c. transformation
b. translation
d. DNA replication
21) Which molecules are found in chromosomes ?
a. DNA only
c. proteins only
b. RNA only
d. DNA and proteins
22) The group of three nucleotides that specifies an amino acid on mRNA is
a. translation
c. codon
b. replication fragment
d. anticodon
23) Where in the cell are proteins assembled
a. ribosome
c. nucleus
b. mitochondria
d. cell membrane
24) Which molecule carries the anticodon containing three nitrogenous bases
a. tRNA
c. rRNA
b. mRNA
d. RNA polymerase
25) In the presence of Lactose, the ____________ falls off allowing the gene to be
transcribed and digestion of lactose to take place
a. operator
c. promoter
b. intron
d. repressor
26) Edited and discarded parts of the genetic sequence are called
a. introns
c. promoters
b. exons
d. operons
27) Special enzymes that are used to cut segments of DNA at specific locations are
called
a. repressors
c. restriction enzymes
b. LAC genes
c. Electrophoresis
28) What is the name of the process by which protein is synthesized from mRNA at
the ribosome?
a. replication
c. translation
b. transcription
d. transformation
29) Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine and Uracil are called
a. Phosphates
b. Nucleotides
c. 5-Carbon Sugars
d. Nitrogenous Bases
30) What is the name of the entire process by which proteins are created from a DNA
blueprint?
a. replication
c. translation
b. transcription
d. synthesis
31) In translation, amino acids bond to molecules of
a. DNA
c. rRNA
b. mRNA
d. tRNA
32) A normal human cell has how many chromosomes
a. 23
c. 4
b. 46
d. 92
33) Another name for sex cells is
a. gametes
b. zygote
c. chromosomes
d. embryo
34)The male sex cell is called the
a. egg
b. fertilization
c. sperm
d. pollen
35)Which of the following is not a type of asexual reproduction
a. budding
c. sexual intercourse
b. regeneration
d. vegetative reproduction
36) How many gametes are produced from one cell in Meiosis
a. 1
c. 4
b. 2
d. 6
37) During which phase of Meiosis do chromosomes replicate
a. interphase I
c. Both of these
b. interphase II
d. Neither of these
38) In human sex cells there are ________ chromosomes
a. 23
c. 92
b. 46
d. 104
39) Hydras reproduce asexually by
a. budding
b. regeneration
c. vegetative reproduction
d. fission
40) A sperm cell and an egg cell recombine during
a. fertilization
c. fission
b. fusion
d. pollination
41) During which phase of meiosis do chromosomes move to opposite sides of the
cell
a. metaphase I
c. Anaphase II
b. Telophase II
d. Prophase II
42) A diploid cell has ___________ chromosomes as a haploid cell
a. half as many
c. double the number of
b. 4 times as many
d. the same number of
43) The first thing that happens to a cell in mitosis is
a. nuclear membrane disappears
b. Cell membrane begins to split
c. DNA is replicated
d. Chromosomes move to opposite sides of the cell
44) A bacterial cell reproduces
a. sexually
b. by budding
c. by vegetative reproduction
d. by fission
45) G1, G2, and S phases are often called
a. interphase
c. metaphase
b. prophase
d. telophase
46) Each chromosome contains two strands called
a. centromeres
c. chromatids
b. centrioles
d. microtubules
47) The cytoplasm divides during
a. telophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. cytokenesis
48) A group of tissues that work together form a
a. cell
c. muscle
b. organ
d. organ system
49) The type of asexual reproduction, in which a piece of tissue grows out of the
parent organism and forms a genetically identical offspring is called
a. fission
c. regeneration
b. budding
d. vegetative reproduction
50) During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear membrane split to form two new
nuclei and cytokenesis
a. interphase
c. anaphase
b. prophase
d. telophase
51) The products of mitosis are
a. two cells with half the number of chromosomes
b. two cells that are genetically identical
c. four cells with half the number of chromosomes
d. four cells that are genetically identical
52) The single celled organism that results from the fusion of a sperm and an egg a.
a. egg
c. zygote
b. gamete
d. fetus
53) A picture of all the genetic information of an organism
a. pedigree
c. double helix
b. karyotype
d. genetic disorder
54) Which phase of mitosis does a cell spend most of its life in
a. interphase
c. anaphase
b. prophase
d. telophase
55) The process which produces sex cells is called
a. Meiosis
c. Mitosis
b. Asexual reproduction
d. Sexual reproduction
56) The products of meiosis are
a. two cells with half the number of chromosomes
b. two cells that are genetically identical
c. four cells with half the number of chromosomes
d. four cells that are genetically identical
57) Which phase is missing from Meiosis II that makes it different from Meiosis I and
mitosis
a. interphase I
c. metaphase I
b. interphase II
d. telophase II
58) If an organism has 72 chromosomes in its body cells, what will result after
meiosis
a. 2 cells with 72 chromosomes
b. 4 cells with 72 chromosomes
c. 2 cells with 36 chromosomes
d. 4 cells with 36 chromosomes
59) The phase of mitosis when the chromosomes line up across the middle of the cell
is
a. Interphase
c. Anaphase II
b. Metaphase
d. Telophase
60) The type of asexual reproduction which results in the re-growth of missing or
damaged parts of an organism is called
a. budding
c. vegetative reproduction
b. regeneration
d. fission
61) In Mendel’s experiment with the pea plant, he found that although his first cross
included the “dominant and recessive trait”, only the dominant trait showed up in
the offspring. This led to the formation of his law of
a. blended inheritance
c. segregation
b. dominance
d. Independent Assortment
62) Different expressions of the same genes are
a. traits
b. characteristics
c. alleles
d. chromosomes
63) When the genotype of an individual has two sets of the same exact information
they are said to be
a. homozygous
c. dominant
b. heterozygous
d. recessive
64) If you were to genetically cross two plants, one homozygous for the tall trait and
one short plant, what are the odds the first offspring would be short
a. 75%
c. 25%
b. 50%
d. 0%
65) During meiosis, tetrad formation and crossing-over occur during which phase
a. metaphase II
c. anaphase II
b. metaphase I
d. telophase II
66) What are the end products of meiosis?
a. 2 diploid cells
b. 4 diploid cells
c. 2 haploid cells
d. 4 haploid cells
67) The red, pink, and white flowers of the snapdragon are contolled by a gene that
shows
a. incomplete dominance
b. codominance
c. polygenic traits
d. multiple alleles
68) Human blood types are an example of
a. incomplete dominance
b. codominance
c. polygenic traits
d. multiple alleles
69) A person whose genotype is IAi would produce which blood type
a. A
c. AB
b. B
d. O
70) In humans, each cell contains ________ pairs of autosomes and _______ pairs of
sex chromosomes
a. 23 and 23
c. 46 and 23
b. 23 and 46
d. 22 and 1
71) An organism has 12 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will its sex cells
have
a. 3
c. 9
b. 6
d. 12
72) In humans, sex is determined by
a. the number of chromosomes
b. the absence of an X chromosome
c. presence of the Y chromosome
d. a number of different genes on many different chromosomes
73) All of the following are examples of polygenic traits except
a. skin color
c. hair color
b. hemophilia
d. eye color
74) The offspring of two parent individuals is called
a. p generation
c. F2 generation
b. F1 generation
d. second generation
75) Sex-linked inheritance was first studied by
a. Gregor Mendel
c. Watson and Crick
b. Punnet
d. Thomas Hunt Morgan
76) A diagram that follows the inheritance of a single trait through several generations
of a family is called a
a. Pedigree
c. Punnet square
b. Karyotype
d. model
77) In humans, the childs sex is normally determined by
a. the father’s gamete
c. random events
b. the mother’s gamete
d. hormonal influence in early development
78) Which of the following is true if a human male has a recessive X-linked gene
a. The dominant form is expressed because it is on the Y chromosome
b. The dominant form is expressed because the second gene is dominant
c. The recessive gene is expressed because males have only one X
chromosome
d. The dominant form will be expressed because males have two X
chromosomes
ANSWER THE FIRST TWO QUESTIONS (#1 AND 2) AND THEN CHOOSE TO DO 2 OF THE
FOLLOWING QUESTIONS. YOU SHOULD BE ANSWERING FOUR TOTAL ESSAY QUESTIONS.
BE SURE TO COMPLETELY ANSWER THESE QUESTIONS. (20 POINTS EACH)
1. Write the chemical equation for photosynthesis and aerobic respiration. Refer to these
equations to describe how goldfish and aquatic plants coexist in a fish tank. How is
aerobic respiration different from anaerobic respiration? Describe the mechanism by
which lactic acid builds up in muscles of the body during strenuous activity.
2. Describe the structure and the function of the Cellular membrane? Distinguish between
Active and Passive Transport citing examples of each type. Explain what would happen
if elodea cells were placed in an isotonic, hypertonic, and hypotonic solutions and why
this would happen?
3. Carbon dioxide is bubbled through two flasks of bromothymol blue until they become
acidic (yellow). Then a sprig of Elodea was placed in each flask. One flask was left in
green light for 24 hours, the other flask in red light. Describe and explain the changes
that would occur in each flask after 24 hrs.
4. Compare and contrast the way organisms reproduce? Some reproduce sexually and some
reproduce asexually. Be sure to describe the two methods of reproduction by walking a
normal human cell with 23 pairs of chromosomes (46 Total) through both processes
5.
How is aerobic respiration different from anaerobic respiration? Describe the
mechanism by which lactic acid builds up in muscles of the body during strenuous
activity.
Describe the different metabolic pathways (Types of Respiration) used in the following
activities and explain how they are different from one another. Be specific in your
explanations of the two pathways and how they are beneficial to each runner.
a. Running a Marathon
b. Sprinting 40 yards
6. a. Describe how the scientific method was used to discover how Yellow Fever was
spread among the troops of the US Army during the Spanish American War. How did
Findlay come up with his hypothesis and test it to be sure the mosquito was the vector by
which the disease was spread?
Or
b. How did Italian Biologist, Francisco Redi use the scientific method to disprove the
long-believed theory of the spontaneous generation of maggots from spoiled meat.
Describe his experimental design and what his results showed?