Survey
* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project
* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project
PROFESSIONAL SERVICES CLINICAL DIVISION RN/LPN MEDSURG TEST 1. Rank the following routes of drug administration according to the usual rate of absorption from the most rapid to the slowest. 1. 2. 3. Intramuscular Intravenous Subcutaneous a) b) c) d) 2. Hypoglycemic reactions may occur in which of the following cases: a) b) c) d) 3. Too little insulin, too little food, or too much exercise Too much exercise, too much insulin, or too little food Too little food, too little exercise, or too little insulin Too little exercise, too much insulin, or too little food The insulin used for a random blood sugar (glucometer) coverage is which of the following? a) b) c) d) 4. 1-2-3 2-3-1 3-2-1 2-1-3 NPH Regular Ultralente Protamine Zinc The drug of choice for anaphylactic shock is which of the following? a) b) c) d) Atropine Benadryl Aramine Epinephrine 5. Nitroglycerin is which of the following types of drugs? a) b) c) d) 6. Opiate over-dosage is best treated with which of the following? a) b) c) d) 7. Drowsiness, ataxia, dizziness, headache Rash, fever, dry mouth, chills Nausea, vomiting, confusion Jaundice, increased which blood count, diarrhea Which of the following drugs is least likely to lead to dependence? a) b) c) d) 9. Narcan Amphetamines Phenobarb Epinephrine Patients taking any of the minor tranquilizers are cautioned against activities such as driving automobiles, operating dangerous machinery, or performing tasks requiring precision because of the common occurrence of which of the following side effects? a) b) c) d) 8. Antiarrhythmic Vasoconstrictor Vasodilator Ganglionic blocking agent Morphine Codeine Demerol Heroin Culture and sensitivity tests are done prior to prescribing certain antibiotics because: a) b) c) d) Many people are allergic to certain medications The correct dosage must be determined Microorganisms vary greatly in their resistance to drugs Other drugs being taken by the patient may be incompatible 10. Then reconstituting drugs for injection, it is important for the nurse to use the type of diluent that the pharmaceutical company suggests for which of these reasons? a) b) c) d) To insure the solubility of the drug To minimize side effects from the drug To render the solution sterile To insure appropriate dosage of the drug 11. A patient with Bell’s palsy does not blink the affected eye. The nurse should: a) b) c) d) Apply an eye patch to the affected eye at all times Ask the patient to keep both eyes closed Assess pupil reaction to light and accommodation Obtain medical orders for eye lubrication 12. A patient with right hemiplegia is awake and alert. The patient is given exercise to do during the day. One afternoon the patient seems very discouraged, so the nurse plans to motivate her by: a) Reassuring her that there is no need for her to feel discouraged b) Reinforcing the small gains she has made c) Suggesting that she could rest today and exercise again tomorrow d) Explaining that exercise is necessary to get better 13. Pupil checks every hour are ordered for a patient with CVA. This is an important assessment because: a) b) c) d) Blurred vision is a sign of increasing ICP Cranial nerve III exits from the brain stem Dilated and fixed pupils indicate cardiac arrest Pinpoint pupils result from CNS depressant drugs 14. If a cerebrovascular injury involves the pyramidal tract the nurse expects to observe: a) b) c) d) Intention tremors Loss of pain and temperature sensation Loss of equilibrium Paralysis of voluntary movement 15. A female patient with CVA sometimes has difficulty “finding” the words she wants to say. The nurse will encourage the patient’s visitors to: a) b) c) d) Be patient with her while she thinks of a word End the visit if she becomes frustrated and angry Finish her sentence for her if they know what she wants to say Tactfully change the subject when she cannot find the word she wants to use 16. A patient has had a CVA with expressive aphasia. When assisting the patient to communicate during the early period after the CVA, it is most important for the nurse to: a) b) c) d) Create signals for the patient to use Speak loudly and clearly Stand directly in front of the client Write directions in large letters 17. In a patient with left hemiplegia, the nurse is applying pain by pressing on the base of the patient’s fingernail to access level of consciousness. The patient’s best response is: a) b) c) d) Flexion of both arms Flexion of the unaffected arm and unaffected leg Grimacing (making a face) Pulling the hand away 18. After a head injury, a client’s vital signs are stabilized and he is posted for a CT scan. To prepare him for this test, the nurse needs to understand that a CT scan: a) Involves injection of a radiopaque contrast medium into an artery, which causes a burning sensation b) Is a measure of electrical energy flowing away from the brain c) Lasts only a few minutes, but he will have to remain flat for 12 hours after the test. d) Requires him to lie very still during the examination 19. A male patient with herniated nucleus pulposis (HNP) had a myelogram this morning. To prevent headache, the nurse instructs him to remain flat in bed for 6 hours, and the nurse will: a) b) c) d) Dim the lights in his room Force fluids Offer analgesic medication Turn him every 2 hours from side to side 20. After a cerebral angiogram, the nurse will encourage the patient to: a) b) c) d) Ask for assistance with ambulation Drink fluids Turn, cough, and deep breathe Void 21. To prepare a female patient for an MRI, the nurse explains that the patient will: a) b) c) d) Be asked to lie still during the entire procedure and will hear a humming noise Have an injection of a radiopaque contrast medium into her vein Have many small electrodes placed on her scalp Need to stay in bed with the head of the bed elevated for 6-8 hours after the procedure 22. A patient with Guillaine-Barre syndrome is going to undergo plasmapheresis and is concerned about what it means. The nurse’s response is based on the understanding that plasmaphersis: a) b) c) d) Alleviates symptoms by removing autoimmune autibodies from the blood May cause mild allergic reaction with generalized itching Prevents secondary bacterial infection to the nervous system Reduces the need for Oxygen while the patient is on a respirator 23. To help prevent tonic-clonic type seizures due to epilepsy, the nurse will teach a patient to: a) b) c) d) Avoid any situation that produces fatigue Refrain from participating in competitive sports Take extra medication if an infection is present Try to determine factors that consistently precede a seizure 24. Which of the following assessments most likely indicates a complication of total hip replacement during the early postoperative period? a) b) c) d) Both legs cool to touch Calf tenderness when the foot is dorsiflexed Tenderness at the surgical site Lightheadedness when standing 25. The nurse expects a person with rheumatoid arthritis to have the most difficulty with pain and stiffness after: a) b) c) d) ADL Heat application Meals Sleep 26. Then counseling women about exercise to prevent osteoporosis, the nurse knows the best exercise is: a) b) c) d) Isometric exercises of all major muscle groups Leg raises with the knees bent Swimming Walking 27. The primary purpose of Buck’s traction for the immediate treatment of hip fracture is to: a) b) c) d) Eliminate rotation of the femur Immobilize the fracture Maintain abduction Reduce the fracture 28. When assessing a patient in Buck’s traction, the nurse observes the patient’s affected foot resting on the foot of the bed. The appropriate intervention is to: a) b) c) d) Place a pillow between the affected foot and the foot of the bed Pull the patient up in bed Take no action Turn the patient to the side 29. The nurse is assessing a 46-year old man with a fractured pelvis due to an automobile accident. Which of the following signs or symptoms alerts the nurse to a serious complication of pelvic fracture? a) b) c) d) Eccymosis of the perineum Edema over the symphysis pubis Hematuria Discomfort at the fracture site 30. Which of the following is an early sign of fat embolism and should alert the nurse to the need for medical intervention? a) b) c) d) Irritability and confusion Fat in the stool Hyperglycemia Pruritus 31. Following an injury, the nurse should access for fat embolism: a) b) c) d) During the first 12 hours During the first 48 hours If the client has chronic respiratory disease If the client is in skeletal traction 32. To best assess circulation to extremities, the nurse should check: a) b) c) d) Capillary refill Motion and sensation Pain and pallor Skin temperature 33. After and above-the-knee amputation, the nurse will encourage the client to lie prone periodically to: a) b) c) d) Extend the client’s hip joint Increase the client’s vital lung capacity Prepare the client by lifting weights for crutch walking Provide diversion 34. When accessing a client with obstructive cholelithiasis, the nurse might expect to find: a) b) c) d) Abdominal distention Dark urine Diminished bowel sounds Loose stools 35. In a client with a stone lodged in the cystic duct, the nurse would expect to observe: a) b) c) d) Beginning jaundice, dark urine, and clay-colored stools Burning and frequency in voiding, cloudy urine Colicky pain after a fatty meal Petechiae, melena, and possible hematemesis 36. After a cholecystectomy, a client asks why he has to have a nasogastric (NG) tube. The nurse states the purpose of the NG tube is to: a) b) c) d) Administer high-caloric liquid feeding Facilitate collection of gastric secretions Prevent postoperative distention Simplify administration of medications 37. A client with cholescystectomy and exploration of a the common bile duct has a T-tube and a Jackson-Pratt drain. Because of the location of the incision, an important nursing action is to encourage the client to: a) b) c) d) Lie on the inoperative side Remain in a semi-Fowler position Splint the incision when moving Turn, cough, and deep breathe 38. The nurse expects which of the following laboratory results for a client with jaundice? a) b) c) d) Decreased PT Elevated serum bilirubin Elevated serum potassium Metabolic acidosis 39. Which of the following is most likely to put a client with cirrhosis at risk for hepatic encephalopathy? a) b) c) d) Anorexia and weight loss Diarrhea and tenesmus GI Bleeding Nausea and vomiting 40. When caring for a client with advanced cirrhosis, the nurse is alret for changes in all of the following. Which change suggests hepatic encephalopathy? a) b) c) d) Level of consciousness Respiratory status Urine output Vital signs 41. Your order reads Penicillin 400,000 units. You have on hand a vial of 500,000 units in 10 cc’s. How many cc’s would you give? a) b) c) d) 6 9 8 5 42. To give Ganstrisin 1 GM, you would need to give how many 250mg tablets? a) b) c) d) 4 2 8 3 43. A patient is to receive 800ml of intravenous fluids in 6 hours. The infusion pump should be set to deliver how many milliliters per hour? a) b) c) d) 125 150 133 115 44. You have on hand a tubex syringe labeled Digoxin 0.5mg in 2 cc’s. How many cc (s) would you need to administer 0.125 mg? a) b) c) d) 0.5 2.5 1 0.25 45. IV fluids are ordered at the rate of 50 cc’s per hour. In 24 hours, your patient should receive how many cc’s? a) b) c) d) 1000 800 1200 1800 46. MOM ½ ounce is ordered. You would give how many cc’s? a) b) c) d) 30 10 15 60 47. The doctor orders lasix 40 mg by injection. Since the label on the ampule reads Lasix 20 mg per 2 ml, you would give how many milliliters? a) b) c) d) 10 4 2 6 48. Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg has been ordered. The drug label states gr 1/150 equals 1 tablet. How many tablets would the nurse give? a) b) c) d) 1 ½ 2 1½ 49. Cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) 0.5 g has been ordered. The drug comes in 250 mg per capsule. How many capsules would the nurse give? a) b) c) d) 5 4 2 1 50. Penicillin V potassium (Pen-Vee K) suspension 0.75 g has been ordered. The drug is available as 250 mg per 5 ml. How many milliliters would the nurse give? a) b) c) d) 10 15 3 20 51. Cyclophsphamide (Cytoxan) 4 mg/kg per day po has been ordered. The client weighs 154 lb. How much would the nurse give each day? a) b) c) d) 100 mg 120 mg 240 mg 280 mg 52. Vitamin K is available as 1 mg per 0.5 ml. Vitamin K 0.5 mg has been ordered. The amount of vitamin K to be administered is: a) b) c) d) 2.5 ml 0.5 ml 0.25 ml 1 ml 53. Digoxin is available as 0.125 mg per tablet. Digoxin 0.25 mg has been ordered. The number of tablets to be administered is: a) b) c) d) 1 ½ 2 1½ 54. Meperidine (Demerol) is available as 75 mg/ml. Meperidine 50 mg has been ordered. The amount of drug to be administered is: a) b) c) d) 0.5 ml 0.6 ml 0.7 ml 1.5 ml 55. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is available as 25 mg/ml. The amount ordered is 100 mg po q 4-6 hours prn. How many milliliters would the nurse give for each prn dose? a) b) c) d) 0.25 ml 2.5 ml 4 ml 40 ml 56. The amount of solution and amount of aminophylline received by a client IV each hour when there is 500 mg of aminophylline in 250 m. given every 24 hours is: a) b) c) d) 12.5 ml/hr and 0.33 mg/hr 10 ml/hr and 21 mg/hr 21 ml/hr and 20 mg/hr 20 ml/hr and 40 mg/hr 57. The amount of solution and the amount of aminophylline received by a client IV each hour when there in 500 mg of aminophylline in 500 ml over 12 hours is: a) b) c) d) 21 ml/hr and 20 mg/hr 20 ml/hr and 40 mg/hr 50 ml/hr and 21 mg/hr 42 ml/hr and 42 mg/hr 58. If the client is ordered to received insulin at 3 units per hour with a solution of 50 units per 100 ml in normal saline, the rate of infusion in milliliters would be: a) b) c) d) 4 ml/hour 12 gtts/ml 10 ml/hour 6 ml/hour 59. Hydroxyzine 25 mg IM has been ordered. The vital reads 100 mg in 2 ml. How many milliliters would the nurse give? a) b) c) d) 5 ml 4 ml 0.5 ml 1.4 ml 60. The nurse is to infuse 1000 ml of IV fluid in 8 hours. Set calibration is 10 gtts/ml. How many drops per minute would the nurse give? a) b) c) d) 20 gtt/min 21 gtt/min 125 gtt/min 12.5 gtt/min