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Exam Chapters 10-13
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MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) All of the following are true about archaea except
A) Some produce methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen.
B) They are prokaryotes.
C) Some are thermoacidophiles; others are extreme halophiles.
D) Evidence suggests they evolved from eukaryotes.
E) They lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls.
2) The kingdom characterized by having chitin in cell walls is...
A) Fungi
B) Protista
C) Animalia
D) Monera
E) Plantae
3) Which of these is responsible for sexually transmitted, nongonococcal urethritis?
A) Candida
B) Salmonella
C) Ehrlichia
D) Chlamydia
4) Who proposed the three-domain system?
A) Whittaker
B) Lister
C) Linnaeus
D) Woese
E) Darwin
5) All of the following are used to determine Domain of an organism except
A) rRNA structure
B) membrane lipid linkages
C) Gram stain reaction
D) response to antibiotics
E) cell wall composition
6) Medically & industrially important Gram negative bacteria are discussed in which volume(s) of Bergey's
Manual?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) All of these
7) Which organism is responsible for syphilis?
A) Borellia burgdorferi
B) Neisseria syphilis
C) Azosporillium
D) Neisseria gonorrhoea
E) Treponema pallidum
8) The temporary paralysis known as Guillain-Barre' Syndrome is caused by an infection from this relatively
common food poisoning organism...
A) Bacillus cereus
B) Escherichia coli
C) Campylobacter
D) Clostridum botulinum
E) Helicobacter
B-1
9) A nitrogen fixer associated with plant roots
A) Bdellovibrio
B) Azospirillium
C) Hemophilus
D) Salmonella
E) E. coli
D) Enterobacter
E) Escherichia
10) All of these are facultatively anaerobic G- rods EXCEPT
A) Yersinia
B) Klebsiella
C) Bacillus
11) Which of these food poisoning organisms produces a toxin which is currently being marketed as a 'wrinkle
reducer'?
A) Bacillus cereus
B) Lactobacillus
C) Clostridium
D) Salmonella
E) Campylobacter
D) skunk
E) tortoise
12) The local, Texas animal associated with leprosy is ...
A) bat
B) pigeon
C) armadillo
13) The group which includes organisms responsible for both leprosy & tuberculosis
A) spirochetes
B) mycobacteria
C) irregular non-spore forming G+ rods
D) regular non-spore forming G+ rods
14) Which of the following is not a characteristic of spirochetes?
A) non-motile
B) Helical shape
C) Gram-negative
D) Possess an axial filament
E) some are parasitic
15) Which of the following is not gram-negative? (helpful hint - think of your unknown flowchart)
A) Salmonella
B) Rickettsia
C) Streptococcus
D) Pseudomonas
E) Bacteroides
16) Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Serratia are all
A) Gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rods.
B) Fermentative.
C) exclusively pathogenic
D) Gram-positive aerobic cocci.
E) None of the above.
17) You have isolated a prokaryotic cell. The first step in identification is
A) DNA fingerprint.
B) Endospore stain.
C) Gram stain.
D) Flagella stain.
E) Lactose fermentation.
18) What would be a good first diagnostic test of a microbiological specimen from a patient with suspected
tuberculosis?
A) Look at a wet mount.
B) An acid-fast stain.
C) A Gram stain.
D) Check for motility.
B-2
19) An organism responsible for nongonococcal urethritis is__
A) Chlamydia
B) Salmonella
C) Agrobacterium
D) Brucella
E) Desulfovibrio
D) Azospirillum
E) Borrelia
20) A genus of bacteria which preys on other bacteria
A) Bergeyi
B) Treponema
C) Bdellovibrio
21) Volume II of Bergey's Manual classifies
A) Gram-negative bacteria of medical and industrial importance
B) Gram-positive bacteria of medical and industrial importance
C) Other Gram-negative bacteria
D) Other Gram-positive bacteria & Actinomycetes
22) Diseases caused by Mycobacterium include
A) leprosy
B) tuberculosis
C) food poisoning
D) A & B
E) A, B & C
23) Which of the following bacteria resembles a slime mold at one point in its lifestyle and uses dung (feces) as a
food source and habitat?
A) gliding, fruiting bacteria
B) Archae
C) non-photosynthetic, non-fruiting, gliding bacteria
D) budding or appendaged bacteria
24) Which group has the evolutionary advantage of being able to grow in low nutrient environments?
A) Archae
B) gliding, fruiting bacteria
C) budding or appendaged bacteria
D) Actinomycetes
25) This group contains some important antibiotic producers
A) gliding, fruiting bacteria
B) regular, non-spore-forming Gram-positive rods
C) Spirochetes
D) Actinomycetes
E) oxygenic, photosynthetic bacteria
26) Both pulmonary infection and a destructive infection of hands & feet (mycetoma) can be caused by which
organism?
A) Staphylococcus
B) Nocardia
C) Streptococcus
B-3
D) Gardnerella
27) Nitrosomonas & Nitrobacter are of importance because they both
A) are used to treat sewage
B) are associated with plant roots & help provide nitrogen to plants
C) can grow with limited nutritional resources
D) have plant-like photosynthesis
28) An Archae useful in treating sewage is
A) Nitrosomonas
C) Methanobacterium
B) Sulfolobus
D) Halobacterium
29) Coenocytic hyphae in fungi
A) lack septa
B) have septa
C) contain the ascospores
D) are present in the asexual life cycle
30) Which difision of fungi produce sexual spores in a 'sac-shaped' structure?
A) Deuteromycota
B) Zygomycota
C) Ascomycota
D) Basidiomycota
31) Conidiospores are produced asexually by which of the following?
A) Ascomycota
B) Basidiomycota
C) Deuteromycota
D) All of these
E) A & C only
32) Which of the following is most likely to intentionally end up on the dinner plate?
A) basidiomycota
B) zygomyota
C) ascomycota
33) The algae responsible for both red tide & paralytic shellfish poisoning is...
A) Red algae
B) Euglena
C) Brown algae
D) Green algae
34) All of the following statements about fungi are true except
A) Fungi are heterotrophic.
B) Few fungi are pathogenic to humans.
C) All fungi have eukaryotic cells.
D) All fungi are unicellular.
E) Most fungi are aerobic.
35) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) A lichen doesn't exist if the fungal and algal partners are separated.
B) Lichens are parasites.
C) In a lichen, the alga produces carbohydrates.
D) In a lichen, the fungus provides the holdfast.
E) Lichens are important soil producers.
B-4
E) Gonyaulax
36) Which of the following systems in a parasitic helminth is not greatly reduced compared to free-living
helminths?
A) Nervous system
B) Locomotion
C) Reproductive system
D) Digestive system
E) All are reduced.
37) Yeast infections are caused by
A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
B) Penicillium.
C) Histoplasma.
D) Aspergillus.
E) Candida albicans.
38) Fungi can cause infections in humans
A) on the skin (cutaneous)
B) throughout the body (systemic)
C) under the skin (subcutaneous)
D) all of these
E) fungi do not infect humans
39) Fission yeast differ from budding yeast in that
A) fission yeast produce zygospores
B) one lacks chitin in the cell wall
C) the cells of fission yeast divide evenly where budding yeast divide unevenly
D) fission yeasts are prokaryotic where budding yeast are eukaryotic
40) Rhizopus (black bread mold) belongs to which fungal group?
A) Ascomycota
B) Zygomycota
C) Basidiomycota
D) all of these
E) none of these
41) A fungal disease in humans is called a
A) mycosis
B) zygosporitis
C) fungicide
D) yeast infestation
42) Agar (as used in the lab to make media) comes from which algae division?
A) brown algae
B) blue-green algae
C) red algae
D) green algae
43) Both a type of food poisoning & tetanus result from this genus of bacteria
A) Staphylococcus
B) Streptococcus
C) Bacillus
B-5
D) Salmonella
E) Clostridium
44) Which stage of Plasmodium is present in the mosquito salivary gland and injected into humans with the bite?
A) sporozoite
B) ring stage
C) merozoite
D) gametocyte
45) Which stage of the lung fluke Paragonimus leaves the snail to infect the crayfish (2nd intermediate host)?
A) redia
B) sporozoite
C) miracidium
D) metacercaria
E) cercaria
46) Which roundworm is often diagnosed by the "Graham sticky-tape" (otherwise know as the 'Scotch tape')
method?
A) hookworm
B) tapeworm
C) Enterobius
D) Ascaris
47) Which of these is the pork tapeworm?
A) Taenia solium
B) Schistosoma
C) Echinococcus granulosus
D) Taenia saginata
48) You would expect to find proglottids in which of the following
A) tapeworms
B) malaria infested mosquito
C) roundworms
D) flukes
49) A component of algae likely to turn up in commercial ice cream (& other food products)...
A) plankton
B) diatomaceous earth
C) algin
D) agar
E) cellulose
50) The definitive host for the beef tapeworm is the
A) grass
B) cow
C) snail
D) fish
E) human
51) The only ciliate which parasitizes humans is
A) Balantidium coli
B) Naegleria fowleri
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Trypanosoma cruzi
E) Trypanosoma brucei
52) The organism responsible for "Montezuma's Revenge" dysentery (traveler's diarrhea) is...
A) Naegleria fowleri
B) Entamoeba histolytica
C) Balantidium coli
D) Trypanosoma brucei
E) Trypanosoma cruzi
53) Blood fluke which burrows throught he skin (not ingested like most other flukes)
A) Schistosoma
B) Clonorchis
B-6
C) Cestodes
54) The Asian liver fluke is occasionally seen in the USA but is not transmitted here because
A) there is no definitive host in the US
B) there is no intermediate host in the US
C) immunization prevents the spread of flukes
D) flukes can't fly airplanes
E) Americans are immune to the fluke
55) An organism containing both male & female reproductive parts in the same individual is said to be
A) monecious
B) dioecious
C) heterosexual
D) unisexual
E) homosexual
56) Flat, leaf-shaped body organisms with oral & ventral suckers which may be parasitic...
A) hook worms
B) tapeworms
C) round worms
D) pin worms
E) flukes
57) Flys (including mosquitos) serve as vectors for all the following EXCEPT
A) Tularemia
B) African Trypanosomiasis
C) Lyme disease
D) Yellow Fever
E) Malaria
58) A healthy protein becomes a prion when
A) humans consume contaminated beef
B) you milk an angry cow
C) an infectious protein alters a healthy protein
D) a new (prion) gene is inserted in the cell
E) a virus alters the protein's gene
59) Which of the following provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals?
A) They are not composed of cells.
B) They are filterable.
C) They cannot reproduce themselves outside of a host.
D) They are chemically simple.
E) They cause diseases similar to those caused by chemicals.
60) The process of making a normal cell cancerous by a virus inserting DNA is known as
A) lytic phase
B) latent infection
C) oncogenic degradation
D) lysogenic phase
E) transformation
B-7
61) Which of the following is not a method of culturing viruses?
A) In laboratory animals
B) In culture media
C) In cell culture
D) In embryonated eggs
E) None of the above (all are useful methods)
62) The definitive event of lysogeny is
A) The period during replication when virions are not present.
B) Lysis of the host cell due to a phage.
C) Viral DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA.
D) When the burst time takes an unusually long time.
E) None of the above.
Figure 13.1
63) In Figure 13.1, which of these is a complex virus?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) All of the above
64) A clear area against a continuous "lawn" of bacteria is called a
A) Phage.
B) Cell lysis.
C) Plaque.
D) Pock.
E) None of the above.
B-8
65) A lipid envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?
A) Release
B) Penetration
C) Adsorption
D) Uncoating
E) None of the above
66) An example of a latent viral infection is
A) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.
B) Smallpox.
C) Cold sores.
D) Influenza.
E) None of the above.
67) Specialized transduction differs from generalized transduction in that specialized transduction
A) Transfers specific DNA.
B) Kills the host.
C) Involves lysogeny.
D) Transfers DNA from one cell to another.
E) None of the above.
68) A viral species is a group of viruses that
A) Have the same morphology and nucleic acid.
B) Have the same genetic information and ecological niche.
C) Infect the same cells and cause the same disease.
D) Can't be defined.
69) Nontoxic strains of Vibrio cholerae can become toxic when they are in the human intestine with toxic strains of
bacteria. This suggests that the toxin genes may be acquired by
A) Prions.
B) Host enzymes.
C) Reverse transcriptase.
D) Transduction.
E) None of the above.
B-9
70) Which statement best describes events in this figure?
A) some cow somewhere has gone crazy
B) the prion PrPSc is invading the cell and inducing cancer
C) the virus PrPSc is invading the cell and producing prion particles
D) the virus PrPSc is invading the cell forcing the cell to reproduce virus particles
E) prion PrPSc is invading the cell and converting normal protein to prion protein
71) A bacteriophage is
A) a virus which specifically infects bacteria
B) a bacteria which is infected by viruses in the lysogenic phase
C) a virus laden bacteria which has infected a human tissue
D) a dormant virus in a bacterial chromosome
72) A complete, fully developed infectious viral particle is a/an
A) DNA virus
B) viroid
C) capsomere
D) capsid
E) virion
73) A long hollow cylindrical rod shaped capsid with a coiled nucleic acid core is best described as a/an
A) complex virus
B) polyhedral virus
C) helical virus
D) enveloped virus
74) The 'cytopathic effect' is most likely to be observed as
A) the conversion of normal proteins into destructive prion particles
B) none of these
C) virus particles inserting their DNA into a bacterial genome
D) animal cells dying in response to viral infection
75) Which of the following represents the normal sequence of events when a virus infects an animal cell?
1-maturation & release; 2-uncoating; 3-penetration; 4-attachment; 5-biosynthesis
A) 4-3-2-5-1
B) 5-3-2-1-4
C) 4-1-3-5-2
D) 1-2-3-4-5
E) 1-5-2-3-4
C) 2001
D) 1988
E) 1928
76) Viruses were first associated with cancers in:
A) 1908
B) 1958
77) A cell exhibiting impared contact inhibition will
A) die after several generations of contact with other cells
B) continue dividing regarless of contact with other cells
C) cease dividing when it makes contact on all sides with other cells
D) fail to divide if in contact with other cells
B-10
78) Spongiform encephalopathys are most often caused by
A) prions
B) viroids
C) bacteria
D) viruses
79) A prion disease resulting from cultural funeral practice in the New Guinea highlands is...
A) Mad headhunter disease
B) Creutzfeld-Jacob Disease (CJD)
C) Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome (GSS)
D) Kuru
E) Fatal familial insomnia (FFI)
80) Viruses may have
A) single stranded DNA
B) - stranded RNA
C) double stranded DNA
D) + stranded RNA
E) all of these
81) The capsid of a virus is composed of
A) protein subunits called capsomeres
B) lipids
C) nucleic acid (RNA or DNA)
D) spikes
82) During a viral invasion of an organ most of the infected cells rupture and die as a result of the viruses. Some
cells incorporate the virus in their DNA and survive for an extended period of time. What can be said of the
virus in these surviving cells?
A) it is in the lytic phase
B) it is in the lysogenic phase
C) the virus can be refered to as a prophage
D) A and C
E) B and C
83) Spikes are used by a virus to
A) fool the host's immune system
B) rupture the viral envelope & escape
C) attach to the host cell
D) protect the cell
E) penetrate the host cell
84) Which of these prion diseases is NOT found in humans
A) Fatal familial insomnia
B) Kuru
C) Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome
D) Chronic wasting disease
E) Creutzfeld-Jacob Disease
B-11
85) Approximately how many prion diseases are known to medical science at this time (in 2003)
A) thirty seven
B) eighty
C) twenty
B-12
D) five
E) nine
Answer Key
Testname: MICRO-CH10-13_FALL05.TST
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1)
2)
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D
A
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E
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B-1
Answer Key
Testname: MICRO-CH10-13_FALL05.TST
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E
A
B
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B
A
E
C
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E
B
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E
B-2