* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project
Download D) none of the above
Survey
Document related concepts
Multiprotocol Label Switching wikipedia , lookup
IEEE 802.1aq wikipedia , lookup
Deep packet inspection wikipedia , lookup
Computer network wikipedia , lookup
Wake-on-LAN wikipedia , lookup
Network tap wikipedia , lookup
Airborne Networking wikipedia , lookup
Asynchronous Transfer Mode wikipedia , lookup
IEEE 802.11 wikipedia , lookup
Internet protocol suite wikipedia , lookup
Cracking of wireless networks wikipedia , lookup
Zero-configuration networking wikipedia , lookup
Recursive InterNetwork Architecture (RINA) wikipedia , lookup
Transcript
MCQs in Introduction to Datacom and Networking Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. There are ______________ Internet service providers. A) regional B) local C) national and international D) all of the above 2. ______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a network. A) Topology B) Mode of operation C) Data flow D) None of the above 3. A ______ is a data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world. A) MAN B) WAN C) LAN D) none of the above 4. A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between two devices. A) primary B) multipoint C) point-to-point D) secondary 5. Which topology requires a multipoint connection? A) Bus B) Star C) Mesh D) Ring 6. A ________ is a set of rules that governs data communication. A) protocol B) forum C) standard D) none of the above 7. In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are connected by a dedicated link. A) multipoint B) point-to-point C) (a) and (b) D) none of the above 8. The information to be communicated in a data communications system is the _______. A) Medium B) Protocol C) Message D) Transmission 9. ________ defines how a particular pattern to be interpreted, and what action is to be taken based on that interpretation. A) Syntax B) Semantics C) Timing D) None of the above 10. Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are measures of the _______of a network. A) Performance B) Security C) Reliability D) Feasibility 11. A television broadcast is an example of _______ transmission. A) half-duplex B) simplex C) full-duplex D) automatic 12. Data flow between two devices can occur in a _______ way. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) all of the above 13. _______ are special-interest groups that quickly test, evaluate, and standardize new technologies. A) Standards organizations B) Regulatory agencies C) Forums D) All of the above 14. Which agency developed standards for physical connection interfaces and electronic signaling specifications? A) ISO B) ITU-T C) ANSI D) EIA 15. A _______ is a data communication system within a building, plant, or campus, or between nearby buildings. A) LAN B) MAN C) WAN D) none of the above 16. _______ refers to two characteristics: when data should be sent and how fast it can be sent. A) Semantics B) Timing C) Syntax D) none of the above 17. This was the first network. A) CSNET B) NSFNET C) ARPANET D) ANSNET 18. Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology. A) mesh B) ring C) bus D) all of the above 19. _______ is the protocol suite for the current Internet. A) UNIX B) NCP C) TCP/IP D) ACM 20. ________ is a collection of many separate networks. A) A WAN B) An internet C) A LAN D) None of the above 21. In a ________ connection, three or more devices share a link. A) point-to-point B) multipoint C) (a) and (b) D) none of the above 22. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the communications field? A) FCC B) IEEE C) ITU-T D) ISOC 23. In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly connected together. A) routers B) host computers C) networks D) IMPs 24. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) automatic 25. Which topology requires a central controller or hub? A) Mesh B) Bus C) Star D) Ring 26. The _______ is the physical path over which a message travels. A) Protocol B) Signal C) Medium D) All the above 27. In a _______ connection, more than two devices can share a single link. A) multipoint B) point-to-point C) primary D) secondary 28. _______ refers to the structure or format of the data, meaning the order in which they are presented. A) Semantics B) Syntax C) Timing D) All of the above 29. An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue. A) Security B) Reliability C) Performance D) All the above 30. ________ is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an Internet standard. A) RCF B) ID C) RFC D) none of the above 31. In _______ transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both communicating devices at all times. A) simplex B) half-duplex C) full-duplex D) half-simplex All of the above Topology WAN Point-to-point Bus Protocol Point-to-point Message Semantics Reliability Simplex All of the above Forums EIA LAN Timing ARPANET All of the above TCP/IP An internet Multipoint FCC IMP's Simplex Star Medium Multipoint Syntax Security RFC Full-duplex MCQs in Network Models Set 1 Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. The ______ layer adds a header to the packet coming from the upper layer that includes the logical addresses of the sender and receiver. A) data link B) network C) physical D) none of the above 2. Which of the following is an application layer service? A) B) C) D) File transfer and access Mail service Remote log-in All the above 3. When data are transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's layer 4 is read by B's _______ layer. A) B) C) D) Transport Application Physical None of the above 4. __________ provides full transport layer services to applications. A) B) C) D) UDP TCP ARP none of the above 5. The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the responsibility of the _______ layer. A) B) C) D) Transport Application Physical Network 6. The ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from one hop (node) to the next. A) B) C) D) transport data link physical none of the above 7. The _______ layer is responsible for delivering data units from one station to the next without errors. A) B) C) D) physical data link transport network 8. The session, presentation, and application layers are the ____ support layers. A) B) C) D) user network both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b) 9. The physical, data link, and network layers are the ______ support layers. A) B) C) D) network user both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b) 10. The ________ layer is responsible for the process-to-process delivery of the entire message. A) B) C) D) transport physical network data link 11. The _______ layer lies between the network layer and the application layer. A) B) C) D) Data link Transport Physical None of the above 12. The Internetworking Protocol (IP) is a ________ protocol. A) connection-oriented B) reliable C) both a and b D) none of the above 13. The _______ layer links the network support layers and the user support layers. A) B) C) D) session transport data link network 14. ICMPv6 includes _______. A) B) C) D) IGMP ARP RARP a and b 15. The ____ address uniquely defines a host on the Internet. A) B) C) D) IP port specific physical 16. The _______ layer coordinates the functions required to transmit a bit stream over a physical medium. A) B) C) D) data link transport network physical 17. The ______ layer is responsible for the source-to-destination delivery of a packet across multiple network links. A) B) C) D) network physical data link transport 18. Mail services are available to network users through the _______ layer. A) B) C) D) Transport Physical Data link Application 19. The ____ created a model called the Open Systems Interconnection, which allows diverse systems to communicate. A) B) C) D) IEEE ISO OSI none of the above 20. The _______ layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals. A) B) C) D) Physical Transport Data link None of the above 21. IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses. A) B) C) D) 128 32 64 variable 22. The_____ address identifies a process on a host. A) B) C) D) specific port IP physical 23. The_________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one process to another. A) B) C) D) transport network physical none of the above 24. The _________ layer enables the users to access the network. A) B) C) D) application physical data link transport 1. Network 2. All of the above 3. Transport 4. TCP 5. Transport 6. Data link 7. Data link 8. User 9. Network 10. Transport 11. Transport 12. None of the above 13. Transport 14. IGMP and ARP 15. IP 16. Physical 17. Network 18. Application 19. ISO 20. Physical 21. 128 22. Port 23. Transport 24. Application MCQs in Network Models Set 2 Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 25. The TCP/IP _______ layer is equivalent to the combined session, presentation, and application layers of the OSI model. A) B) C) D) data link network physical application 26. When a host on network A sends a message to a host on network B, which address does the router look at? A) B) C) D) logical physical port none of the above 27. As the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are _______. A) B) C) D) Rearranged Removed Added Modified 28. The physical layer is concerned with the movement of _______ over the physical medium. A) B) C) D) dialogs protocols bits programs 29. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the _______ address must be consulted. A) B) C) D) physical port IP none of the above 30. Ethernet uses a ______ physical address that is imprinted on the network interface card (NIC). A) B) C) D) 32-bit 6-byte 64-bit none of the above 31. The _______ layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium. A) B) C) D) Network Transport Physical Data link 32. The OSI model consists of _______ layers. A) B) C) D) eight seven five three 33. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN. A) B) C) D) IP port specific physical 34. Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and the _______ layer. A) B) C) D) Data link Transport Network None of the above 35. Why was the OSI model developed? A) The rate of data transfer was increasing exponentially B) Standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicate C) Manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite. D) None of the above 36. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are _______. A) B) C) D) removed added rearranged modified 37. In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's layer 5 is read by B's _______ layer. A) B) C) D) session physical transport presentation 38. The seven-layer _____ model provides guidelines for the development of universally compatible networking protocols. A) B) C) D) ISO OSI IEEE none of the above 39. The Internet model consists of _______ layers. A) B) C) D) Eight Seven Five Three 40. In the OSI model, what is the main function of the transport layer? A) B) C) D) process-to-process message delivery node-to-node delivery synchronization updating and maintenance of routing tables 41. _______ is a process-to-process protocol that adds only port addresses, checksum error control, and length information to the data from the upper layer. A) B) C) D) IP TCP UDP none of the above 42. The ______ layer establishes, maintains, and synchronizes the interactions between communicating devices. A) B) C) D) session physical transport network 43. A port address in TCP/IP is ______ bits long. A) B) C) D) 16 32 48 none of the above 44. In the OSI model, encryption and decryption are functions of the ________ layer. A) B) C) D) application presentation session transport 45. TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical protocol suite developed ____ the OSI model. A) B) C) D) five-layer; before six-layer; before seven-layer; before five-layer; after 46. The ________ address, also known as the link address, is the address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN. A) logical B) port C) physical D) none of the above 47. The _______ model shows how the network functions of a computer ought to be organized. A) B) C) D) ANSI CCITT ISO OSI 48. The _______ layer ensures interoperability between communicating devices through transformation of data into a mutually agreed upon format. A) B) C) D) network presentation transport data link Application 26. Logical 27. Added 28. Bits 29. Port 30. 6-byte 31. Physical 32. Seven 33. Physical 34. Network 35. Standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicate 36. Removed 37. Session 38. OSI 39. Five 40. Process-to-process message delivery 41. UDP 42. Session 43. 16 44. Presentation 45. Five-layer; before 46. Physical 47. OSI 48. Presentation MCQs in Data and Signals Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is 2 V, the minimum amplitude is ________ V. A) B) C) D) 2 1 -2 between -2 and 2 2. _________ can impair a signal. A) B) C) D) Noise Attenuation Distortion All of the above 3. ________is the rate of change with respect to time. A) B) C) D) Time Frequency Amplitude Voltage 4. A signal is measured at two different points. The power is P1 at the first point and P2 at the second point. The dB is 0. This means ________. A) B) C) D) P2 equals P1 P2 is zero P2 is much larger than P1 P2 is much smaller than P1 5. Baseband transmission of a digital signal is possible only if we have a ____ channel. A) B) C) D) bandpass low-pass high rate low rate 6. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the resistance of the transmission medium. A) B) C) D) Distortion Attenuation Noise Decibel 7. A sine wave in the ______ domain can be represented by one single spike in the _____ domain. A) B) C) D) time; phase frequency; time time; frequency phase; time 8. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 KHz and the lowest frequency is 52 KHz, what is the highest frequency? A) B) C) D) 5 KHz 47 KHz 57 KHz 10 KHz 9. In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is a measure of ________. A) phase B) signal amplitude C) frequency D) time 10. _______ data are continuous and take continuous values. A) B) C) D) digital analog (a) or (b) none of the above 11. Frequency and period are ______. A) B) C) D) proportional to each other inverse of each other the same none of the above 12. When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation time, we get the ________. A) B) C) D) wavelength of the signal throughput distance a signal or bit has traveled distortion factor 13. A _________ sine wave is not useful in data communications; we need to send a _______ signal. A) B) C) D) single-frequency; composite composite; single-frequency This is the correct answer. single-frequency; double-frequency none of the above 14. The _________ product defines the number of bits that can fill the link. A) B) C) D) delay-amplitude frequency-amplitude bandwidth-period bandwidth-delay 15. _______ signals can have only a limited number of values. A) Digital B) Analog C) (a) or (b) D) None of the above 16. Before data can be transmitted, they must be transformed to ________. A) B) C) D) periodic signals electromagnetic signals aperiodic signals low-frequency sine waves 17. Data can be ________. A) B) C) D) digital analog (a) or (b) none of the above 18. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the different propagation speeds of each frequency that makes up the signal. A) B) C) D) Noise Distortion Attenuation Decibel 19. Signals can be ________. A) B) C) D) digital analog either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 20. A sine wave is ________. A) B) C) D) periodic and discrete aperiodic and discrete periodic and continuous aperiodic and continuous 21. _______ data have discrete states and take discrete values. A) B) C) D) Analog Digital (a) or (b) None of the above 22. For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to find the maximum bit rate. A) B) C) D) noiseless noisy low-pass bandpass 23. What is the bandwidth of a signal that ranges from 1 MHz to 4 MHz? A) B) C) D) 1 KHz 3 MHz 4 MHz none of the above 24. _____ signals can have an infinite number of values in a range. A) B) C) D) Analog Digital (a) or (b) None of the above 25. A(n)_________ signal is a composite analog signal with an infinite bandwidth. A) B) C) D) digital analog either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 26. A periodic signal completes one cycle in 0.001 s. What is the frequency? A) B) C) D) 1 Hz 100 Hz 1 KHz 1 MHz 27. The _____ of a composite signal is the difference between the highest and the lowest frequencies contained in that signal. A) B) C) D) period bandwidth frequency amplitude 28. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which an outside source such as crosstalk corrupts a signal. A) B) C) D) Noise Distortion Attenuation Decibel 29. _______ describes the position of the waveform relative to time 0. A) B) C) D) Amplitude Phase Frequency Voltage 30. Given two sine waves A and B, if the frequency of A is twice that of B, then the period of B is ________ that of A. A) B) C) D) one-half twice the same as indeterminate from 31. As frequency increases, the period ________. A) B) C) D) increases decreases doubles remains the same 32. If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital signal directly to the channel. A) B) C) D) low-pass low rate bandpass high rate 33. For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula defines the theoretical maximum bit rate. A) B) C) D) low-pass bandpass noisy noiseless 34. In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the ________. A) B) C) D) phase frequency slope peak amplitude 1. -2 2. All of the above 3. Frequency 4. P2 equals P1 5. Low-pass 6. Attenuation 7. Time; frequency 8. 57 KHz 9. Time 10. Analog 11. inverse of each other 12. distance a signal or bit has traveled 13. single-frequency; composite 14. Bandwidth-delay 15. Digital 16. Electromagnetic signals 17. Analog or Digital 18. Distortion 19. Either analog or digital 20. Periodic and continuous 21. Digital 22. Noisy 23. 3 MHz 24. Analog 25. Digital 26. 1 KHz 27. Bandwidth 28. Noise 29. Phase 30. Twice 31. Decreases 32. Bandpass 33. Noiseless 34. Frequency MCQs in Digital Transmission Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. Which of the following encoding methods does not provide for synchronization? A) RZ B) NRZ-L C) NRZ-I D) Manchester 2. If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with the highest frequency at 600 Hz, what should be the sampling rate, according to the Nyquist theorem? A) B) C) D) 200 samples/s 500 samples/s 1000 samples/s 1200 samples/s 3. In asynchronous transmission, the gap time between bytes is _______. A) B) C) D) variable fixed zero a function of the data rate 4. ______ substitutes eight consecutive zeros with 000VB0VB. A) B) C) D) B4B8 B8ZS HDB3 none of the above 5. The most common technique to change an analog signal to digital data is called __________. A) B) C) D) sampling PAL PCM none of the above 6. The minimum bandwidth of Manchester and differential Manchester is ____ that of NRZ. A) B) C) D) the same as twice thrice none of the above 7. The signal rate is sometimes called the ____ rate. A) B) C) D) bit baud signal none of the above 8. Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding are types of _______ encoding. A) B) C) D) line block NRZ Manchester 9. ________ is normally referred to as mB/nB coding; it replaces each m-bit group with an n-bit group. A) B) C) D) Line coding Block coding Scrambling None of the above 10. In ______ schemes, the voltages are on the both sides of the time axis. For example, the voltage level for 0 can be positive and the voltage level for 1 can be negative. A) B) C) D) unipolar bipolar polar all of the above 11. The ________ rate defines the number of data elements sent in 1s; the ______ rate is the number of signal elements sent in 1s. A) B) C) D) signal; data data; signal baud; bit none of the above 12. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-L are combined into the ________ scheme. A) Manchester B) differential Manchester C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 13. ________ provides synchronization without increasing the number of bits. A) B) C) D) Line coding Block coding Scrambling None of the above 14. The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum sampling rate to be_______. A) B) C) D) equal to the lowest frequency of a signal equal to the highest frequency of a signal twice the bandwidth of a signal twice the highest frequency of a signal 15. PCM is an example of _______ conversion. A) B) C) D) analog-to-analog analog-to-digital digital-to-digital digital-to-analog 16. There are three sampling methods: __________. A) B) C) D) ideal, natural, and flat-top ideal, sampled, and flat-top quantized, sampled, and ideal none of the above 17. In _______encoding, we use three levels: positive, zero, and negative. A) B) C) D) unipolar polar bipolar none of the above 18. Block coding can help in _______ at the receiver. A) Synchronization B) Error detection C) Attenuation D) (a) and (b) 19. In Manchester and differential Manchester encoding, the transition at the middle of the bit is used for __________. A) B) C) D) bit transfer synchronization baud transfer none of the above 20. _______ encoding has a transition at the beginning of each 0 bit. A) B) C) D) Differential Manchester Manchester RZ All the above 21. In ______, the change or lack of change in the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit. A) B) C) D) NRZ-L NRZ-I both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b) 22. In ___________ there is always a transition at the middle of the bit, but the bit values are determined at the beginning of the bit. If the next bit is 0, there is a transition; if the next bit is 1, there is none. A) B) C) D) Manchester differential Manchester both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b) 23. In _______ encoding, the duration of the bit is divided into two halves. The voltage remains at one level during the first half and moves to the other level in the second half. The transition at the middle of the bit provides synchronization. A) Manchester B) differential Manchester C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 24. The ________ mode provides synchronization for the entire stream of bits must. In other words, it guarantees that the data arrive at a fixed rate. A) B) C) D) isochronous synchronous asynchronous none of the above 25. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZ-I are combined into the ________ scheme. A) B) C) D) Manchester differential Manchester both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b) 26. In decoding a digital signal, the receiver calculates a running average of the received signal power, called the _______. A) B) C) D) base line baseline none of the above 27. In _________ transmission, we send bits one after another without start or stop bits or gaps. It is the responsibility of the receiver to group the bits. A) B) C) D) synchronous asynchronous isochronous none of the above 28. ______ finds the value of the signal amplitude for each sample; ____ finds the change from the previous sample. A) B) C) D) DM; CM DM; PCM PCM; DM none of the above 29. ______ substitutes four consecutive zeros with 000V or B00V. A) B) C) D) HDB3 B4B8 B8ZSf none of the above 30. The ______ scheme uses three levels (+V, 0, and -V) and three transition rules to move between the levels. A) B) C) D) 4B5B MLT-3 2B1Q none of the above 31. While there is (are) only _____ way(s) to send parallel data, there is (are) _____ subclass(es) of serial transmission. A) B) C) D) one; two one; three two; three none of the above 32. Which quantization level results in a more faithful reproduction of the signal? A) B) C) D) 2 8 16 32 33. A _________ digital signal includes timing information in the data being transmitted. A) B) C) D) self-synchronizing self-transmitted self-modulated none of the above 34. In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted over a single wire, one at a time. A) asynchronous serial B) synchronous serial C) parallel D) (a) and (b) 35. The first step in PCM is ________. A) B) C) D) quantization sampling modulation none of the above 36. _______ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit. A) B) C) D) Manchester Differential Manchester RZ All the above 37. In ______ transmission, we send 1 start bit (0) at the beginning and 1 or more stop bits (1s) at the end of each byte. A) B) C) D) synchronous asynchronous isochronous none of the above 38. In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted simultaneously, each across its own wire. A) B) C) D) Asynchronous serial Synchronous serial Parallel (a) and (b) 39. Which encoding method uses alternating positive and negative values for 1s? A) B) C) D) AMI RZ NRZ-I Manchester 40. The data rate is sometimes called the ___ rate. A) B) C) D) bit baud signal none of the above 41. _______ provides redundancy to ensure synchronization and inherent error detection. A) B) C) D) Line coding Block coding Scrambling None of the above 42. In _______ transmission, a start bit and a stop bit frame a character byte. A) B) C) D) synchronous serial asynchronous serial parallel (a) and (b) 43. Two common scrambling techniques are ________. A) B) C) D) B8ZS and HDB3 AMI and NRZ NRZ and RZ Manchester and differential Manchester 44. ___________ conversion involves three techniques: line coding, block coding, and scrambling. A) B) C) D) Analog-to-analog Analog-to-digital Digital-to-analog Digital-to-digital 45. The _____ scheme uses data patterns of size 2 and encodes the 2-bit patterns as one signal element belonging to a four-level signal. A) B) C) D) MLT-3 4B5B 2B1Q none of the above 46. In _____, the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit. A) B) C) D) NRZ-I NRZ-L both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b) 47. ________ is the process of converting digital data to a digital signal. A) B) C) D) Line coding Block coding Scrambling None of the above 48. In a _____ scheme, all the signal levels are on one side of the time axis, either above or below. A) B) C) D) unipolar polar bipolar all of the above 1. NRZ-L 2. 1200 samples/s 3. Variable 4. B8ZS 5. PCM 6. twice 7. baud 8. line 9. Block coding 10. polar 11. data; signal 12. Manchester 13. Scrambling 14. twice the highest frequency of a signal 15. analog-to-digital 16. ideal, natural, and flat-top 17. bipolar 18. Synchronization and Error detection 19. synchronization 20. Differential Manchester 21. NRZ-I 22. differential Manchester 23. Manchester and differential Manchester 24. isochronous 25. differential Manchester 26. baseline 27. synchronous 28. PCM; DM 29. HDB3 30. MLT-3 31. one; three 32. 32 33. self-synchronizing 34. asynchronous serial and synchronous serial 35. sampling 36. All the above 37. asynchronous 38. Parallel 39. AMI 40. bit 41. Block coding 42. asynchronous serial 43. B8ZS and HDB3 44. Digital-to-digital 45. 2B1Q 46. NRZ-L 47. Line coding 48. unipolar MCQs in Analog Transmission Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. In ________, the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied to create signal elements. Both frequency and phase remain constant A) B) C) D) PSK ASK FSK QAM 2. How many carrier frequencies are used in BPSK? A) B) C) D) 0 1 2 none of the above 3. The constellation diagram of 16-QAM has ______ dots. A) B) C) D) 4 8 16 none of the above 4. AM and FM are examples of ________ conversion. A) B) C) D) analog-to-analog digital-to-digital analog-to-digital digital-to-analog 5. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______ kHz for each FM station. A) B) C) D) 20 100 200 none of the above 6. Analog-to-analog conversion is needed if the available bandwidth is _______. A) B) C) D) band-pass low-pass either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 7. In _____ transmission, the frequency of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the changing voltage level (amplitude) of the modulating signal. The peak amplitude and phase of the carrier signal remain constant, but as the amplitude of the information signal changes, the frequency of the carrier changes correspondingly. A) B) C) D) AM FM PM none of the above 8. How many carrier frequencies are used in QPSK? A) B) C) D) 0 2 1 none of the above 9. Which of the following is not a digital-to-analog conversion? A) FSK B) ASK C) AM D) PSK 10. _______ conversion is the process of changing one of the characteristics of an analog signal based on the information in the digital data. A) B) C) D) Analog-to-analog Digital-to-digital Digital-to-analog Analog-to-digital 11. If the baud rate is 400 for a QPSK signal, the bit rate is ________ bps. A) B) C) D) 100 400 800 1600 12. In ________, the phase of the carrier is varied to represent two or more different signal elements. Both peak amplitude and frequency remain constant. A) B) C) D) PSK FSK ASK QAM 13. Which of the following is not an analog-to-analog conversion? A) B) C) D) QAM AM PM FM 14. How many carrier frequencies are used in BASK? A) B) C) D) 0 1 2 none of the above 15. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) is a combination of ___________. A) B) C) D) PSK and FSK ASK and FSK ASK and PSK none of the above 16. In _________, the frequency of the carrier signal is varied to represent data. Both peak amplitude and phase remain constant. A) B) C) D) ASK FSK PSK QAM 17. If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________. A) B) C) D) 1200 600 400 300 18. The constellation diagram of BPSK has ______ dots. A) B) C) D) 0 1 2 none of the above 19. The constellation diagram of QPSK has ______ dots. A) B) C) D) 4 2 1 none of the above 20. In _______, the peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the other is the same as the amplitude of the carrier frequency. A) B) C) D) OOK PSK FSK none of the above 21. If the bit rate for a 16-QAM signal is 4000 bps, what is the baud rate? A) B) C) D) 1200 1000 400 300 22. ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of ________ conversion. A) B) C) D) analog-to-analog digital-to-digital analog-to-digital digital-to-analog 23. If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________. A) B) C) D) 1200 600 400 300 24. The constellation diagram of BASK has ______ dots. A) B) C) D) 0 1 2 none of the above 25. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______kHz for each AM station. A) B) C) D) 20 10 5 none of the above 26. How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK? A) 2 B) 1 C) 0 D) none of the above 27. In _____ transmission, the phase of the carrier signal is modulated to follow the changing voltage level (amplitude) of the modulating signal. A) B) C) D) AM FM PM none of the above 28. _________ conversion is the representation of analog information by an analog signal. A) B) C) D) Analog-to-analog Digital-to-digital Analog-to-digital Digital-to-analog 29. In _____ transmission, the carrier signal is modulated so that its amplitude varies with the changing amplitudes of the modulating signal. A) B) C) D) PM FM AM none of the above 30. In QAM, both ________ of a carrier frequency are varied. A) B) C) D) phase and frequency amplitude and phase frequency and amplitude none of the above 31. ________ uses two carriers, one in-phase and the other quadrature. A) B) C) D) QAM ASK FSK PSK 32. Given an AM radio signal with a bandwidth of 10 KHz and the highest-frequency component at 705 KHz, what is the frequency of the carrier signal? A) B) C) D) 710 KHz 705 KHz 700 KHz Cannot be determined from given information 33. A constellation diagram shows us the __________ of a signal element, particularly when we are using two carriers (one in-phase and one quadrature). A) B) C) D) amplitude and frequency amplitude and phase frequency and phase none of the above 34. If the baud rate for a 64-QAM signal is 2000, what is the bit rate? A) B) C) D) 12000 1000 400 300 1. ASK 2. 1 3. 16 4. analog-to-analog 5. 100 6. band-pass 7. FM 8. 2 9. AM 10. Digital-to-analog 11. 800 12. PSK 13. QAM 14. 1 15. ASK and PSK 16. FSK 17. 1200 18. 2 19. 4 20. OOK 21. 1000 22. digital-to-analog 23. 1200 24. 2 25 10 26. 2 27. PM 28. Analog-to-analog 29. AM 30. amplitude and phase 31. QAM 32. 700 KHz 33. amplitude and phase 34. 12000 MCQs in Bandwidth Utilization: Multiplexing and Spreading Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. The _______ technique uses M different carrier frequencies that are modulated by the source signal. At one moment, the sign modulates one carrier frequency; at the next moment, the signal modulates another carrier frequency. A) DSSS B) FHSS C) FDM D) TDM 2. In synchronous TDM, for n signal sources of the same data rate, each frame contains _______ slots. A) B) C) D) n+1 n-1 0 to n n 3. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals? A) B) C) D) WDM FDM TDM None of the above 4. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _______. A) B) C) D) modulation multiplexing encoding line discipline 5. _______ is designed to be used in wireless applications in which stations must be able to share the medium without interception by an eavesdropper and without being subject to jamming from a malicious intruder. A) B) C) D) Multiplexing Spread spectrum Modulation None of the above. 6. ______ is an analog multiplexing technique to combine optical signals. A) B) C) D) WDM FDM TDM None of the above 7. FDM is an _________technique. A) B) C) D) digital analog either (a) or (b) none of the above 8. ______ can be applied when the bandwidth of a link (in hertz) is greater than the combined bandwidths of the signals to be transmitted. A) B) C) D) TDM FDM Both (a) or (b) Neither (a) or (b) 9. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum of the transmission rates of the signal sources. A) B) C) D) equal to less than greater than not related to 10. In a multiplexed system, __ lines share the bandwidth of ____ link. A) B) C) D) 1; n n; 1 1; 1 n; n 11. _________ utilization is the use of available bandwidth to achieve specific goals. A) B) C) D) Amplitude Frequency Bandwidth None of the above 12. ____ is designed to use the high bandwidth capability of fiber-optic cable. A) WDM B) FDM C) TDM D) None of the above 13. We can divide ____ into two different schemes: synchronous or statistical. A) B) C) D) WDM TDM FDM none of the above 14. In ________ TDM, each input connection has an allotment in the output even if it is not sending data. A) B) C) D) isochronous statistical synchronous none of the above 15. In ________ TDM, slots are dynamically allocated to improve bandwidth efficiency. A) B) C) D) isochronous synchronous statistical none of the above 16. The word ______ refers to the portion of a _______ that carries a transmission. A) B) C) D) line; channel channel; link link; channel line; link 17. Which multiplexing technique shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency? A) B) C) D) FDM TDM Both (a) and (b) None of the above 18. Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals? A) B) C) D) WDM TDM FDM (a) and (c) 19. ________ is the set of techniques that allows the simultaneous transmission of multiple signals across a single data link. A) B) C) D) Demodulating Multiplexing Compressing None of the above 20. ________ can be achieved by using multiplexing; ______ can be achieved by using spreading. A) B) C) D) Privacy and antijamming; efficiency Privacy and efficiency; antijamming Efficiency; privacy and antijamming Efficiency and antijamming; privacy 21. The ______ technique expands the bandwidth of a signal by replacing each data bit with n bits. A) B) C) D) DSSS FHSS FDM TDM 22. ________ is a digital process that allows several connections to share the high bandwidth of a link. A) B) C) D) WDM TDM FDM None of the above 23. _______ is a digital multiplexing technique for combining several low-rate channels into one high-rate one. A) WDM B) TDM C) FDM D) None of the above 24. In ________, we combine signals from different sources to fit into a larger bandwidth. A) B) C) D) line coding block coding spread spectrum none of the above 25. Which multiplexing technique involves signals composed of light beams? A) B) C) D) WDM FDM TDM none of the above 1. FHSS 2. n 3. TDM 4. multiplexing 5. Spread spectrum 6. WDM 7. analog 8. FDM 9. greater than 10. n; 1 11. Bandwidth 12. WDM 13. TDM 14. synchronous 15. statistical 16. channel; link 17. FDM 18. WDM, FDM 19. Multiplexing 20. Efficiency; privacy and antijamming 21. DSSS 22. TDM 23. TDM 24. spread spectrum 25. WDM MCQs in Transmission Media Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. When the angle of incidence is _______ the critical angle, the light beam bends along the interface. A) B) C) D) less than equal to more than none of the above 2. Transmission media lie below the _______ layer. A) B) C) D) application transport network physical 3. _________ cable consists of an inner copper core and a second conducting outer sheath. A) B) C) D) Twisted-pair Shielded twisted-pair Coaxial Fiber-optic 4. __________ consists of a central conductor and a shield. A) Twisted-pair B) Coaxial C) Fiber-optic D) none of the above 5. _______ cable can carry signals of higher frequency ranges than _______ cable. A) B) C) D) Coaxial; twisted-pair Twisted-pair; fiber-optic Coaxial; fiber-optic none of the above 6. _________ are used for cellular phone, satellite, and wireless LAN communications. A) B) C) D) Radio waves Infrared waves Microwaves none of the above 7. The inner core of an optical fiber is _______ in composition. A) B) C) D) copper glass or plastic bimetallic liquid 8. What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less susceptible to noise than twistedpair cable? A) B) C) D) insulating material inner conductor diameter of cable outer conductor 9. Signals with a frequency below 2 MHz use _______ propagation. A) B) C) D) line-of-sight sky ground none of the above 10. In an optical fiber, the inner core is _______ the cladding. A) B) C) D) less dense than denser than the same density as another name for 11. ________ cable consists of two insulated copper wires twisted together. A) B) C) D) Twisted-pair Coaxial Fiber-optic none of the above 12. In fiber optics, the signal is _______ waves. A) B) C) D) radio light infrared very low-frequency 13. Signals with a frequency above 30 MHz use _______propagation. A) B) C) D) line-of-sight sky ground none of the above 14. A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) _______ antenna. A) B) C) D) unidirectional bidirectional omnidirectional horn 15. A(n) _______ medium provides a physical conduit from one device to another. A) B) C) D) unguided guided either (a) or (b) none of the above 16. ________ cable is used for voice and data communications. A) B) C) D) Twisted-pair Coaxial Fiber-optic none of the above 17. Signals with a frequency between 2 MHz and 30 MHz use _______ propagation. A) B) C) D) ground line-of-sight sky none of the above 18. Transmission media are usually categorized as _______. A) B) C) D) determinate or indeterminate fixed or unfixed guided or unguided metallic or nonmetallic 19. ________ are used for short-range communications such as those between a PC and a peripheral device. A) B) C) D) Radio waves Infrared waves Microwaves none of the above 20. _________ media transport electromagnetic waves without the use of a physical conductor. A) B) C) D) Guided Unguided Either (a) or (b) None of the above 21. ________ cables are composed of a glass or plastic inner core surrounded by cladding, all encased in an outside jacket. A) Twisted-pair B) Coaxial C) Fiber-optic D) none of the above 22. Which of the following primarily uses guided media? A) B) C) D) radio broadcasting satellite communications local telephone system cellular telephone system 23. When a beam of light travels through media of two different densities, if the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle, _______ occurs. A) B) C) D) refraction reflection criticism incidence 24. Which of the following is not a guided medium? A) B) C) D) fiber-optic cable coaxial cable twisted-pair cable atmosphere 25. Microwaves are _________. A) B) C) D) omnidirectional bidirectional unidirectional none of the above 26. ________ cables carry data signals in the form of light. A) B) C) D) Twisted-pair Coaxial Fiber-optic none of the above 27. Radio waves are _________. A) unidirectional B) omnidirectional C) bidirectional D) none of the above 28. In a fiber-optic cable, the signal is propagated along the inner core by _______. A) B) C) D) refraction reflection modulation none of the above 1. equal to 2. physical 3. Coaxial 4. Coaxial 5. Coaxial; twisted-pair 6. Microwaves 7. glass or plastic 8. outer conductor 9. ground 10. denser than 11. Twisted-pair 12. light 13. line-of-sight 14. unidirectional 15. guided 16. Twisted-pair 17. sky 18. guided or unguided 19. Infrared waves 20. Unguided 21. Fiber-optic 22. local telephone system 23. reflection 24. atmosphere 25. unidirectional 26. Fiber-optic 27. omnidirectional 28. reflection MCQs in Switching Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. Packet-switched networks can also be divided into ______subcategories: virtual-circuit networks and datagram networks. A) B) C) D) five three two four 2. In __________, each packet is treated independently of all others. A) B) C) D) circuit switching datagram switching frame switching none of the above 3. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then k must be equal to or greater than ______. A) B) C) D) 19 21 31 41 4. In _________, resources are allocated on demand. A) B) C) D) circuit switching datagram switching frame switching none of the above 5. In _______ switching, the paths in the circuit are separated from one another spatially. A) B) C) D) time-division two-dimensional space-division three-dimensional 6. In a ________ network, two types of addressing are involved: global and local. A) B) C) D) datagram virtual-circuit circuit-switched none of the above 7. In a three-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of crosspoints is ______. A) B) C) D) 40,000 less than 40,000 greater than 40,000 greater than 100,000 8. A ________ network is made of a set of switches connected by physical links, in which each link is divided into n channels. A) B) C) D) circuit-switched line-switched frame-switched none of the above 9. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ microswitches at each stage. A) B) C) D) 2 3 4 8 10. In _________, there is no resource allocation for a packet. A) B) C) D) circuit switching datagram switching frame switching none of the above 11. A _________ network is a cross between a circuit-switched network and a datagram network. It has some characteristics of both. A) B) C) D) packet-switched frame-switched virtual-circuit none of the above 12. The most popular technology in time-division switching is called the _________. A) B) C) D) TSI STI ITS none of the above 13. A switched WAN is normally implemented as a _______ network. A) B) C) D) virtual-circuit datagram circuit-switched none of the above 14. We can say that a packet switch has _______ types of components. A) B) C) D) four three two none of the above 15. In a one-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the number of crosspoints is ______. A) 20,000 B) 40,000 C) 30,000 D) 10,000 16. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ stages. A) B) C) D) 2 3 4 8 17. A switch in a datagram network uses a routing table that is based on the ______ address. A) B) C) D) destination source local none of the above 18. Traditionally, _____ methods of switching have been important. A) B) C) D) six five four three 19. The network layer in the Internet is designed as a __________ network. A) B) C) D) circuit-switched datagram virtual-circuit none of the above 20. A ________ switch combines space-division and time-division technologies to take advantage of the best of both. A) B) C) D) SSS TST TTT none of the above 21. In _______, the resources need to be reserved during the setup phase; the resources remain dedicated for the entire duration of data transfer phase until the teardown phase. A) B) C) D) frame switching datagram switching circuit switching none of the above 22. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then n must be equal to or greater than ____. A) B) C) D) 40 30 20 10 23. Circuit switching takes place at the ________ layer. A) B) C) D) physical data line network transport 24. A ________ switch combines crossbar switches in several (normally three) stages. A) B) C) D) multiple path multiple crossbar multistage none of the above 25. In _______ there are no setup or teardown phases. A) B) C) D) circuit switching datagram switching frame switching none of the above 26. We can divide today's networks into ____ broad categories. A) B) C) D) five four three two 27. A ________ switch is a multistage switch with microswitches at each stage that route the packets based on the output port represented as a binary string. A) B) C) D) TSI banyan crossbar none of the above 28. The _______ address in the header of a packet in a datagram network normally remains the same during the entire journey of the packet. A) B) C) D) destination source local none of the above 29. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then the minimum number of crosspoints is greater than or equal to _______. A) B) C) D) 42,000 20,000 18,000 15,200 30. The simplest type of switching fabric is the ______ switch. A) B) C) D) crossbar crosspoint TSI STS 1. two 2. datagram switching 3. 19 4. datagram switching 5. space-division 6. virtual-circuit 7. less than 40,000 8. circuit-switched 9. 4 10. datagram switching 11. virtual-circuit 12. TSI 13. virtual-circuit 14. four 15. 40,000 16. 3 17. destination 18. three 19. datagram 20. TST 21. circuit switching 22. 10 23. physical 24. multistage 25. datagram switching 26. three 27. banyan 28. destination 29. 15,200 30. crossbar MCQs in Telephone and Cable Networks Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. To use a cable network for data transmission, we need two key devices: a ______ and a _________ A) B) C) D) CT; CMTS CM; CMTS CM; CMS none of the above 2. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network. A) B) C) D) packet-switched message-switched circuit-switched none of the above 3. A traditional cable TV network transmits signals ______. A) B) C) D) downstream upstream upstream and downstream none of the above 4. The traditional cable TV system used ________cable end to end. A) B) C) D) twisted-pair fiber-optic coaxial none of the above 5. The telephone network is made of ______ major components. A) B) C) D) 4 3 2 none of the above 6. Data from a computer are _______; the local loop handles _______ signals. A) analog; analog B) digital; digital C) digital; analog D) analog; digital 7. The original telephone network, which is referred to as the plain old telephone system (POTS), was an ________ system. A) B) C) D) analog digital digital as well as analog none of the above 8. The protocol that is used for signaling in the telephone network is called ______. A) B) C) D) SSS SS7 POP none of the above 9. _______technology is a set of technologies developed by the telephone companies to provide high data rate transmission. A) B) C) D) LDS ASL DSL none of the above 10. The local loop has _______ cable that connects the subscriber telephone to the nearest end office. A) B) C) D) fiber-optic coaxial twisted-pair none of the above 11. The second generation of cable networks is called a(n) _________ network. A) B) C) D) HCF HFC CFH none of the above 12. The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries _______. A) B) C) D) upstream data downstream data control data voice communication 13. _______ is suitable for businesses that require comparable upstream and downstream data rates. A) B) C) D) SDSL ADSL VDSL (b) and (c) 14. The carrier that handles intra-LATA services is called a(n) _____ . A) B) C) D) IXC LEC POP none of the above 15. DMT is a modulation technique that combines elements of _______ and _______. A) B) C) D) FDM; QAM FDM; TDM PSK; FSK QDM; QAM 16. The carrier that handles inter-LATA services is called a(n) _______. A) B) C) D) IXC LEC POP none of the above 17. The modern telephone network is now ________. A) digital B) digital as well as analog C) analog D) none of the above 18. In an HFC network, the upstream data are modulated using the _______ modulation technique. A) B) C) D) ASK PCM QAM QPSK 19. _______ was designed as an alternative to the T-1 line. A) B) C) D) ADSL HDSL VDSL SDSL 20. HDSL encodes data using _______. A) B) C) D) 2B1Q 1B2Q 4B/5B 6B/8T 21. In an HFC network, the downstream data are modulated using the _______ modulation technique. A) B) C) D) PCM QAM PSK ASK 22. Another name for the cable TV office is the _______. A) B) C) D) head end combiner fiber node splitter 23. The term modem is a composite word that refers to the two functional entities that make up the device: a signal _______ and a signal _______. A) B) C) D) demodulator; modulator modulator; demodulator modern; demo none of the above 24. The two most common digital services are ________ service and ______. A) B) C) D) switched/56; DDS switched/56; switched/64 DDS; switched 64 leased; out-of-band 25. The United States is divided into many _______. A) B) C) D) IXCs LECs LATAs none of the above 26. The standard for data transmission over an HFC network is called _______. A) B) C) D) ADSL CMTS DOCSIS MCNS 27. In ________signaling, a portion of the bandwidth is used for signaling and another portion for data. A) B) C) D) mixed in-band out-of-band none of the above 28. Telephone companies provide two types of analog services: analog _______ services and analog _____services. A) B) C) D) leased; out-of-band out-of-band; in-band switched; in-band switched; leased 29. The HFC network uses _______ cable. A) B) C) D) coaxial twisted-pair fiber-optic a combination of (a) and (c) 30. In ______signaling, the same circuit is used for both signaling and data. A) B) C) D) mixed out-of-band in-band none of the above 31. Most popular modems available are based on the ________standards. A) B) C) D) X-series V-series VX-series none of the above 1. CM; CMTS 2. circuit-switched 3. downstream 4. coaxial 5. 3 6. digital; analog 7. analog 8. SS7 9. DSL 10. twisted-pair 11. HFC 12. downstream data 13. SDSL 14. LEC 15. FDM; QAM 16. IXC 17. digital as well as analog 18. QPSK 19. HDSL 20. 2B1Q 21. QAM 22. head end 23. modulator; demodulator 24. switched/56; DDS 25. LATAs 26. DOCSIS 27. out-of-band 28. switched; leased 29. coaxial and fiber-optic 30. in-band 31. V-series MCQs in Error Detection and Correction Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. Checksums use _________ arithmetic. A) B) C) D) one's complement arithmetic two's complement arithmetic either (a) or (b) none of the above 2. The checksum of 1111 and 1111 is _________. A) 0000 B) 1111 C) 1110 D) 0111 3. In modulo-11 arithmetic, we use only the integers in the range ______, inclusive. A) B) C) D) 1 to 10 0 to 10 1 to 11 none of the above 4. In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _______ the CRC. A) B) C) D) one bit less than one bit more than The same size as none of the above 5. The ________ between two words is the number of differences between corresponding bits. A) B) C) D) Hamming rule Hamming code Hamming distance none of the above 6. The _______ of a polynomial is the highest power in the polynomial. A) B) C) D) range power degree none of the above 7. In modulo-2 arithmetic, __________ give the same results. A) B) C) D) addition and subtraction addition and multiplication addition and division none of the above 8. In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC? A) B) C) D) The quotient The dividend The divisor The remainder 9. Which error detection method consists of just one redundant bit per data unit? A) B) C) D) CRC Checksum Simple parity check Two-dimensional parity check 10. In _____ coding, we divide our message into blocks, each of k bits, called ___. A) B) C) D) block; blockwords block; datawords linear; datawords none of the above 11. A _____ error means that two or more bits in the data unit have changed. A) B) C) D) burst double-bit single-bit none of the above 12. Adding 1 and 1 in modulo-2 arithmetic results in _________. A) B) C) D) 0 1 2 none of the above 13. In ________ error correction, the receiver corrects errors without requesting retransmission. A) B) C) D) onward forward backward none of the above 14. If the Hamming distance between a dataword and the corresponding codeword is three, there are _____ bits in error. A) B) C) D) 5 4 3 none of the above 15. A simple parity-check code can detect __________ errors. A) B) C) D) an odd-number of an even-number of two no errors 16. The Hamming distance between equal codewords is _________. A) B) C) D) 0 1 n none of the above 17. In a linear block code, the _______ of any two valid codewords creates another valid codeword. A) B) C) D) ANDing XORing ORing none of the above 18. In ________ error correction, the receiver asks the sender to send the data again. A) B) C) D) forward backward retransmission none of the above 19. We can divide coding schemes into two broad categories: ________ and ______coding. A) linear; nonlinear B) block; convolution C) block; linear D) none of the above 20. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use only ______. A) B) C) D) 1 and 2 0 and 1 0 and 2 none of the above 21. To guarantee correction of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code must be ________. A) B) C) D) 11 6 5 none of the above 22. The _____of errors is more difficult than the ______. A) B) C) D) detection; correction correction; detection creation; correction creation; detection 23. In block coding, if k = 2 and n = 3, we have _______ invalid codewords. A) B) C) D) 4 8 2 none of the above 24. The checksum of 0000 and 0000 is __________. A) B) C) D) 0000 1111 0111 1110 25. In one's complement arithmetic, if positive 7 is 0111, then negative 7 is ________. A) B) C) D) 1101 1000 1111 none of the above 26. In block coding, if n = 5, the maximum Hamming distance between two codewords is ________. A) B) C) D) 5 3 2 none of the above 27. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic? A) B) C) D) Checksum CRC Simple parity check Two-dimensional parity check 28. The divisor in a cyclic code is normally called the _________. A) B) C) D) redundancy degree generator none of the above 29. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use the ______ operation for both addition and subtraction. A) B) C) D) OR XOR AND none of the above 30. We add r redundant bits to each block to make the length n = k + r. The resulting n-bit blocks are called _________. A) B) C) D) codewords datawords blockwords none of the above 31. To guarantee the detection of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code must be _______. A) B) C) D) 11 5 6 none of the above 32. A generator that contains a factor of ____ can detect all odd-numbered errors. A) B) C) D) x 1 x+1 none of the above 33. _______codes are special linear block codes with one extra property. If a codeword is rotated, the result is another codeword. A) B) C) D) Convolution Cyclic Non-linear none of the above 34. The Hamming distance between 100 and 001 is ________. A) B) C) D) 0 1 2 none of the above 1. one's complement arithmetic 2. 0000 3. 0 to 10 4. one bit more than 5. Hamming distance 6. degree 7. addition and subtraction 8. The remainder 9. Simple parity check 10. block; datawords 11. burst 12. 0 13. forward 14. 3 15. an odd-number of 16. 0 17. XORing 18. retransmission 19. block; convolution 20. 0 and 1 21. 11 22. correction; detection 23. 4 24. 1111 25. 1000 26. 5 27. Checksum 28. generator 29. XOR 30. codewords 31. 6 32. x + 1 33. Cyclic 34. 2 MCQs in Data Link Control Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the receive window must be _____. A) B) C) D) 1 15 16 31 2. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are received successfully, the receiver may send an ACK _______ to the sender. A) B) C) D) 6 7 5 any of the above 3. The Stop-And-Wait ARQ, Go-Back-N ARQ, and the Selective Repeat ARQ are for ______ channels. A) B) C) D) noiseless noisy either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 4. The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control mechanism to the _______Protocol. A) B) C) D) Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait none of the above 5. In PPP, the ________ is responsible for establishing, maintaining, configuring, and terminating links. A) PAP B) CHAP C) LCP D) NCP 6. HDLC is an acronym for _______. A) B) C) D) Half-duplex digital link combination Host double-level circuit High-duplex line communication High-level data link control 7. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the receive window must be _____. A) B) C) D) 1 15 16 31 8. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the send window must be _____. A) B) C) D) 1 15 16 31 9. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, the acknowledgment number always announces in ______ arithmetic the sequence number of the next frame expected. A) B) C) D) modulo-m modulo-2 modulo-4 none of the above 10. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the sequence number, then the maximum size of the send window must be _____. A) B) C) D) 1 15 16 31 11. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment. A) B) C) D) Flow Error Transmission none of the above 12. In the Go-Back-N Protocol, if the size of the sequence number field is 8, the sequence numbers are in ________ arithmetic, A) B) C) D) modulo-256 modulo- 8 modulo-2 none of the above 13. ______ control refers to methods of error detection and correction. A) B) C) D) Flow Error Transmission none of the above 14. In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence numbers? A) B) C) D) 1 to 63 1 to 64 0 to 63 0 to 64 15. Both Go-Back-N and Selective-Repeat Protocols use a _________. A) B) C) D) sliding window sliding frame sliding packet none of the above 16. In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link is point-to-point, and each station can function as a primary and a secondary. A) ARM B) ABM C) NBM D) NRM 17. Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data section of the frame when there is a character with the same pattern as the ______. A) B) C) D) trailer flag header none of the above 18. The ______ Protocol has neither flow nor error control. A) B) C) D) Selective-Repeat ARQ Go-Back-N ARQ Stop-and-Wait Simplest 19. The most common protocol for point-to-point access is the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), which is a _________protocol. A) B) C) D) byte-oriented bit-oriented character-oriented none of the above 20. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 10 data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments are needed. A) B) C) D) less than 10 more than 10 exactly 10 none of the above 21. _________framing uses two categories of protocols: character-oriented and bitoriented. A) Standard B) Fixed-size C) Variable-size D) None of the above 22. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that the sender can send before waiting for acknowledgment. A) B) C) D) Flow Error Transmission none of the above 23. In a ________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of characters. A) B) C) D) bit-oriented character-oriented either (a) or (b) none of the above 24. In _______ framing, there is no need for defining the boundaries of frames. A) B) C) D) standard fixed-size variable-size none of the above 25. The _______Protocol has both flow control and error control. A) B) C) D) Stop-and-Wait Selective-Repeat ARQ Go-Back-N ARQ both (b) and (c) 26. In _________, the station configuration is unbalanced. We have one primary station and multiple secondary stations. A) B) C) D) ARM NBM NRM ABM 27. In a _________ protocol, the data section of a frame is a sequence of bits. A) B) C) D) bit-oriented byte-oriented either (a) or (b) none of the above 28. In ________ framing, we need a delimiter (flag) to define the boundary of two frames. A) B) C) D) standard fixed-size variable-size none of the above 29. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC) is a _______ protocol for communication over point-to-point and multipoint links. A) B) C) D) byte-oriented bit-oriented character-oriented none of the above 30. Bit stuffing means adding an extra 0 to the data section of the frame when there is a sequence of bits with the same pattern as the ________. A) B) C) D) trailer flag header none of the above 31. In the _________Protocol, if no acknowledgment for a frame has arrived, we resend all outstanding frames. A) B) C) D) Go-Back-N ARQ Selective-Repeat ARQ Stop-and-Wait ARQ none of the above 32. The Simplest Protocol and the Stop-and-Wait Protocol are for ______ channels. A) noiseless B) noisy C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 33. The _______Protocol has flow control, but not error control. A) B) C) D) Selective-Repeat ARQ Stop-and-Wait Simplest Go-Back-N ARQ 34. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, we use sequence numbers to number the frames. The sequence numbers are based on __________arithmetic. A) B) C) D) modulo-m modulo-2 modulo-4 none of the above 35. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends its frames one after another with no regard to the receiver. A) B) C) D) Simplest Selective-Repeat ARQ Stop-and-Wait Go-Back-N ARQ 36. _________control in the data link layer is based on automatic repeat request, which is the retransmission of data. A) B) C) D) Flow Error Transmission none of the above 37. In PPP, _______ is a three-way hand-shaking authentication protocol in which the password is kept secret; it is never sent online. A) B) C) D) PAP LCP NCP CHAP 38. In PPP, ________ is a simple authentication procedure with a two-step process: A) B) C) D) CHAP PAP LCP NCP 39. In the _________ protocol we avoid unnecessary transmission by sending only frames that are corrupted. A) B) C) D) Selective-Repeat ARQ Stop-and-Wait ARQ Go-Back-N ARQ none of the above 40. In ________ protocols, we use ________. A) B) C) D) byte-oriented; bit stuffing bit-oriented; bit stuffing character-oriented; bit stuffing none of the above 41. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends one frame, stops until it receives confirmation from the receiver, and then sends the next frame. A) B) C) D) Simplest Stop-and-Wait Selective-Repeat ARQ Go-Back-N ARQ 42. Stop-and-Wait ARQ is a special case of Go-Back-N ARQ in which the size of the send window is ___. A) B) C) D) 1 2 8 none of the above 43. ARQ stands for _______. A) Acknowledge repeat request B) Automatic retransmission request C) Automatic repeat quantization D) Automatic repeat request 44. _______ in the data link layer separates a message from one source to a destination, or from other messages going from other sources to other destinations. A) B) C) D) Controlling Framing Digitizing none of the above 45. Data link control deals with the design and procedures for ______ communication. A) B) C) D) node-to-node process-to-process host-to-host none of the above 46. In _________ protocols, we use ________. A) B) C) D) bit-oriented; character stuffing character-oriented; bit stuffing character-oriented; byte stuffing none of the above 1. 1 2. 7 3. noisy 4. Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait 5. LCP 6. High-level data link control 7. 16 8. 31 9. modulo-2 10. 16 11. Flow 12. modulo-256 13. Error 14. 0 to 63 15. sliding window 16. ABM 17. flag 18. Simplest 19. byte-oriented 20. exactly 10 21. Variable-size 22. Flow 23. character-oriented 24. fixed-size 25. Selective-Repeat ARQ and Go-Back-N ARQ 26. NRM 27. bit-oriented 28. variable-size 29. bit-oriented 30. flag 31. Go-Back-N ARQ 32. noiseless 33. Stop-and-Wait 34. modulo-2 35. Simplest 36. Error 37. CHAP 38. PAP 39. Selective-Repeat ARQ 40. bit-oriented; bit stuffing 41. Stop-and-Wait 42. 1 43. Automatic repeat request 44. Framing 45. node-to-node 46. character-oriented; byte stuffing MCQs in Multiple Access Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1.In _______, the stations share the bandwidth of the channel in time. A) FDMA B) CDMA C) TDMA D) none of the above 2. In ______, the chance of collision can be reduced if a station senses the medium before trying to use it. A) CSMA B) MA C) CDMA D) FDMA 3. In the _______ method, the stations in a network are organized in a logical ring. A) polling B) token passing C) reservation D) none of the above 4. In _______, the sequences are generated using orthogonal codes such the Walsh tables. A) TDMA B) CDMA C) FDMA D) none of the above 5. __________ augments the CSMA algorithm to detect collision. A) CSMA/CD B) CSMA/CA C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b) 6. In the _________ method, after the station finds the line idle, it sends its frame immediately. If the line is not idle, it continuously senses the line until it finds it idle. A) p-persistent B) nonpersistent C) 1-persistent D) none of the above 7. In the _____ method, time is divided into intervals. In each interval, a reservation frame precedes the data frames sent in that interval. A) token passing B) reservation C) polling D) none of the above 8. In the _______ method, each station has a predecessor and a successor. A) token passing B) polling C) reservation D) none of the above 9. The vulnerable time for CSMA is the ________propagation time. A) three times B) two times C) the same as D) none of the above 10. In the _________ method, a special packet called a ______ circulates through the ring. A) polling: poll request B) token passing: token C) reservation: control frame D) none of the above 11. The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is ________ per cent. A) 36.8 B) 18.4 C) 12.2 D) none of the above 12. In ________, the available bandwidth is divided into frequency bands. A) TDMA B) CDMA C) FDMA D) none of the above 13. In ___________ methods, no station is superior to another station and none is assigned the control over another. A) controlled access B) random access C) channelization D) none of the above 14. In the ________method, a station that has a frame to send senses the line. If the line is idle, it sends immediately. If the line is not idle, it waits a random amount of time and then senses the line again. A) 1-persistent B) nonpersistent C) p-persistent D) none of the above 15. In ______, each station is allocated a band to send its data. In other words, each band is reserved for a specific station, and it belongs to the station all the time. A) CDMA B) FDMA C) TDMA D) none of the above 16. In the _______method, after the station finds the line idle it sends or refrain from sending based on the outcome of a random number generator. If the line is busy, it tries again. A) p-persistent B) nonpersistent C) 1-persistent D) none of the above 17. To avoid collisions on wireless networks, ________was invented. A) CSMA/CD B) CSMA/CA C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b) 18. In _____, each station is allocated a time slot during which it can send data. Each station transmits its data in its assigned time slot. A) TDMA B) CDMA C) FDMA D) none of the above 19. In the _______ method, the primary device controls the link; the secondary devices follow its instructions. A) token passing B) reservation C) polling D) none of the above 20. In _____, each station transmits its data in its assigned time slot. A) TDMA B) CDMA C) FDMA D) none of the above 21. We discussed ________ channelization protocols. A) four B) three C) two D) none of the above 22. In the ______ method, all data exchanges must be made through the primary device even when the ultimate destination is a secondary device. A) polling B) token passing C) reservation D) none of the above 23. We discussed ______ popular controlled-access methods. A) four B) three C) two D) none of the above 24. In __________, each station is forced to send only at the beginning of the time slot. A) pure ALOHA B) slotted ALOHA C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 25. In _______ methods, the stations consult one another to find which station has the right to send. A) channelization B) random access C) controlled access D) none of the above 26. In ________ each station sends a frame whenever it has a frame to send. A) slotted ALOHA B) pure ALOHA C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 27. In ______, the stations use different codes to achieve multiple access. A) CDMA B) TDMA C) FDMA D) none of the above 28. In _______, collisions are avoided through the use of three strategies: the interframe space, the contention window, and acknowledgments. A) CSMA/CD B) CSMA/CA C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b) 29. In the ________ method, a station needs to make a reservation before sending data. Time is divided into intervals. A) token passing B) polling C) reservation D) none of the above 30. In pure ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time. A) two times B) three times C) the same as D) none of the above 31. The maximum throughput for slotted ALOHA is ________ per cent. A) 36.8 B) 18.4 C) 12.2 D) none of the above 32. _________ is a multiple-access method in which the available bandwidth of a link is shared in time, frequency, or through code, between different stations. A) Controlled access B) Channelization C) Random access D) none of the above 33. ________ requires that each station first listen to the medium before sending. A) FDMA B) CDMA C) MA D) CSMA 34. We have categorized access methods into _______ groups. A) five B) three C) four D) two 35. In _______ methods, a station cannot send unless it has been authorized by other stations. A) controlled access B) channelization C) random access D) none of the above 36. In slotted ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the frame transmission time. A) two times B) three times C) the same as D) none of the above 37. In ________, a station monitors the medium after it sends a frame to see if the transmission was successful. If so, the station is finished. If, however, there is a collision, the frame is sent again. A) CSMA/CD B) CSMA/CA C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b) 38. _______ is based on coding theory and uses sequences of numbers called chips. A) TDMA B) CDMA C) FDMA D) none of the above 1. TDMA 2. CSMA 3. token passing 4. CDMA 5. CSMA/CD 6. 1-persistent 7. reservation 8. token passing 9. the same as 10. token passing: token 11. 18.4 12. FDMA 13. random access 14. nonpersistent 15. FDMA 16. p-persistent 17. CSMA/CA 18. TDMA 19. polling 20. TDMA 21. three 22. polling 23. three 24. slotted ALOHA 25. controlled access 26. pure ALOHA 27. CDMA 28. CSMA/CA 29. reservation 30. two times 31. 36.8 32. Channelization 33. CSMA 34. three 35. controlled access 36. the same as 37. CSMA/CD 38. CDMA MCQs in Wired LANs: Ethernet Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. __________ uses four twisted pairs. A) 1000Base-LX B) 1000Base-T C) 1000Base-SX D) none of the above 2. 1000Base-SX, 1000Base-LX, and 1000Base-CX use _________ block coding and ________ line coding. A) B) C) D) 8B/10B; NRZ 4B/5B; NRZ 8B/10B; MLT-3 4B/5B; MLT-3 3. _________ uses two fiber-optic cables. A) B) C) D) 100Base-FX 100Base-T4 100Base-TX none of the above 4. __________ uses two optical fibers and a short-wave laser source. A) B) C) D) 1000Base-LX 1000Base-SX 1000Base-T none of the above 5. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the Ethernet address 01011010 00010001 01010101 00011000 10101010 00001111? A) B) C) D) 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F 6. In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits are 1s, the address is _________. A) B) C) D) multicast broadcast unicast none of the above 7. If an Ethernet destination address is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a ______ address. A) B) C) D) broadcast unicast multicast any of the above 8. Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique _______ address imprinted on its network interface card (NIC). A) B) C) D) 48-bit 32-bit 5-byte none of the above 9. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps. A) B) C) D) 10,000 1000 100 10 10. In the Ethernet frame, the _______ field contains error detection information. A) B) C) D) address preamble CRC none of the above 11. 100Base-T4 uses ________ line coding. A) B) C) D) 8B6T Manchester MLT-3 NRZ 12. ________uses long-wave 1310-nm single mode fiber. A) B) C) D) 10GBase-E 10GBase-S 10GBase-L none of the above 13. ______defines a protocol data unit (PDU) that is somewhat similar to that of HDLC. A) B) C) D) LLC LLU MAC none of the above 14. 100Base-TX uses _________ block coding and ________ line coding. A) B) C) D) 8B/10B; NRZ 4B/5B; MLT-3 4B/5B; NRZ 8B/10B; MLT-3 15. The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the CSMA/CD access method and framing. A) B) C) D) MAC MII LLC none of the above 16. _______ is the most widely used local area network protocol. A) B) C) D) Token Bus Ethernet Token Ring none of the above 17. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 1, the address is _________. A) B) C) D) multicast broadcast unicast none of the above 18. Gigabit Ethernet access methods include _______ mode. A) full-duplex B) half-duplex C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 19. _________ uses four pairs of voice-grade, or higher, twisted-pair cable. A) B) C) D) 100Base-T4 100Base-FX 100Base-TX none of the above 20. Standard Ethernet (10-Mbps) uses _______ encoding. A) B) C) D) AMI Manchester NRZ differential Manchester 21. In _________, auto negotiation allows two devices to negotiate the mode or data rate of operation. A) B) C) D) Ten-Gigabit Ethernet Gigabit Ethernet Fast Ethernet Standard 22. If an Ethernet destination address is 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a ______ address. A) B) C) D) broadcast unicast multicast any of the above 23. ________ uses short-wave 850-nm multimode fiber. A) B) C) D) 10GBase-E 10GBase-L 10GBase-S none of the above 24. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet multicast destination? A) B) C) D) 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4 83:32:21:21:4D:34 B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00 25. __________ uses thin coaxial cable. A) B) C) D) 10Base2 10Base5 10Base-F 10Base-T 26. In the Ethernet, the _______field is actually added at the physical layer and is not (formally) part of the frame. A) B) C) D) address CRC preamble none of the above 27. Fast Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps. A) B) C) D) 10,000 1000 100 10 28. The purpose of the _______ is to provide flow and error control for the upper-layer protocols that actually demand these services. A) B) C) D) LLC LLU MAC none of the above 29. __________ uses two pairs of twisted-pair cable. A) B) C) D) 100Base-T4 100Base-TX 100Base-FX none of the above 30. ________ uses fiber-optic cable. A) B) C) D) 10Base2 10Base-F 10Base-T 10Base5 31. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 0, the address is _________. A) B) C) D) broadcast multicast unicast none of the above 32. ________ uses 1550-mm single mode fiber. A) B) C) D) 10GBase-E 10GBase-S 10GBase-L none of the above 33. 1000Base-T uses ________ line coding. A) B) C) D) MLT-3 4D-PAM5 Manchester 8B6T 34. The maximum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is ________ bytes. A) B) C) D) 1200 1518 1500 none of the above 35. The minimum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is _______bytes. A) 128 B) 80 C) 32 D) none of the above 36. __________uses two optical fibers and a long-wave laser source. A) B) C) D) 1000Base-T 1000Base-SX 1000Base-LX none of the above 37. The _______ layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC sublayer and the MAC sublayer. A) B) C) D) network data link physical none of the above 38. 100Base-FX uses _________ block coding and ________ line coding. A) B) C) D) 8B/10B; NRZ 4B/5B; MLT-3 8B/10B; MLT-3 4B/5B; NRZ-I 39. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet unicast destination? A) B) C) D) 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00 48:32:21:21:4D:34 44:AA:C1:23:45:32 40. _________ uses thick coaxial cable. A) B) C) D) 10Base2 10Base5 10Base-F 10Base-T 41. The IEEE 802.3 Standard defines _________ CSMA/CD as the access method for firstgeneration 10-Mbps Ethernet. A) non-persistent B) p-persistent C) 1-persistent D) none of the above 42. _________ uses four twisted-pair cables that connect each station to a common hub. A) B) C) D) 10Base-F 10Base-T 10Base5 10Base2 1. 1000Base-T 2. 8B/10B; NRZ 3. 100Base-FX 4. 1000Base-SX 5. 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F 6. broadcast 7. multicast 8. 48-bit 9. 1000 10. CRC 11. 8B6T 12. 10GBase-L 13. LLC 14. 4B/5B; MLT-3 15. MAC 16. Ethernet 17. multicast 18. both (a) and (b) 19. 100Base-T4 20. Manchester 21. Fast Ethernet 22. unicast 23. 10GBase-S 24. 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4 25. 10Base2 26. preamble 27. 100 28. LLC 29. 100Base-TX 30. 10Base-F 31. unicast 32. 10GBase-E 33. 4D-PAM5 34. 1518 35. none of the above 36. 1000Base-LX 37. data link 38. 4B/5B; NRZ-I 39. 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00 40. 10Base5 41. 1-persistent 42. 10Base-T MCQs in Wireless LANs Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. The original IEEE 802.11, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) B) C) D) 11 22 6 1 2. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from a station to an AP, the address flag is _____. A) B) C) D) 01 10 11 00 3. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one station in a BSS to another without passing through the distribution system, the address flag is _____. A) B) C) D) 11 00 10 01 4. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the PCF sublayer is ______. A) B) C) D) polling controlled contention none of the above 5. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called an _________. A) an infrastructure network B) an ad hoc architecture C) either (a) or (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 6. In IEEE 802.11, the addressing mechanism can include up to ______addresses. A) B) C) D) six five four none of the above 7. In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is roughly equivalent to the physical layer of the Internet model. A) B) C) D) baseband radio L2CAP none of the above 8. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility is either stationary (not moving) or moving only inside a BSS. A) B) C) D) ESS-transition no-transition BSS-transition none of the above 9. In Bluetooth, the L2CAP sublayer, is roughly equivalent to the LLC sublayer in LANs. A) B) C) D) baseband L2CAP radio none of the above 10. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one AP to another AP in a wireless distribution system, the address flag is _____. A) B) C) D) 10 01 11 00 11. A Bluetooth network is called a ________. A) B) C) D) scatternet bluenet piconet none of the above 12. A Bluetooth network consists of _____ primary device(s) and up to ____ secondary devices. A) B) C) D) one; seven one; five five; three two; six 13. In Bluetooth, the current data rate is ____Mbps. A) B) C) D) 11 5 2 none of the above 14. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP is sometimes referred to as ____________. A) B) C) D) an infrastructure network an ad hoc architecture either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 15. In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a timer used for collision avoidance. A) B) C) D) BSS ESS NAV none of the above 16. In IEEE 802.11, the MAC layer frame has ______ fields. A) B) C) D) four six five none of the above 17. Bluetooth uses ______method in the physical layer to avoid interference from other devices or other networks. A) B) C) D) FHSS DSSS FDMA none of the above 18. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when data integrity is more important than avoiding latency. A) B) C) D) SCL ACO ACL SCO 19. In Bluetooth, the _____layer is roughly equivalent to the MAC sublayer in LANs. A) B) C) D) L2CAP radio baseband none of the above 20. IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN, called _______, which covers the physical and data link layers. A) B) C) D) IEEE 802.5 IEEE 802.11 IEEE 802.2 IEEE 802.3 21. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility can move from one ESS to another. A) B) C) D) BSS-transition ESS-transition no-transition none of the above 22. The IEEE 802.11g, uses _________. A) DSSS B) OFDM C) FHSS D) either (a) or (c) 23. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the DCF sublayer is _________. A) B) C) D) CSMA/CA CSMA/CD ALOHA none of the above 24. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the hidden station problem. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the exposed station problem. A) B) C) D) cannot; cannot can; cannot cannot; can can; can 25. In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two different BSSs usually occurs via two ________. A) B) C) D) ESSs APs BSSs none of the above 26. Bluetooth is a _______ technology that connects devices (called gadgets) in a small area. A) B) C) D) VLAN wired LAN wireless LAN none of the above 27. The original IEEE 802.11, uses _________. A) B) C) D) FHSS OFDM DSSS either (a) or (c) 28. The IEEE 802.11a, uses _________. A) B) C) D) DSSS OFDM FHSS either (a) or (c) 29. In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and an optional central base station, known as the access point (AP). A) B) C) D) BSS CSS ESS none of the above 30. The IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LANs defines two services: ______ and _______. A) B) C) D) ESS; SSS BSS; ESS BSS; ASS BSS; DCF 31. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when avoiding latency (delay in data delivery) is more important than integrity (error-free delivery). A) B) C) D) SCL ACL ACO SCO 32. IEEE 802.11b, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) B) C) D) 5.5 2 1 none of the above 33. IEEE 802.11g, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) 22 B) 11 C) 2 D) 1 34. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________mobility can move from one BSS to another, but the movement is confined inside one ESS. A) B) C) D) ESS-transition no-transition BSS-transition none of the above 35. The access method in Bluetooth is ________. A) B) C) D) TDD-TDMA CDMA FDMA none of the above 36. The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use ________ types of frames. A) B) C) D) five six four none of the above 37. In IEEE 802.11, _______ is an optional access method that can be implemented in an infrastructure network (not in an ad hoc network). A) B) C) D) PCF DCF either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 38. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is coming from an AP and going to a station, the address flag is _______. A) B) C) D) 00 11 10 01 39. In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form a network called a _________. A) B) C) D) piconets: bluenet scatternet; piconets piconets: scatternet bluenet; scatternet 40. The IEEE 802.11b, uses _________. A) B) C) D) OFDM FHSS DSSS either (a) or (b) 41. IEEE 802.11a, has a data rate of _____Mbps. A) B) C) D) 6 2 1 none of the above 1. 1 2. 10 3. 00 4. polling 5. an ad hoc architecture 6. four 7. radio 8. no-transition 9. L2CAP 10. 11 11. piconet 12. one; seven 13. none of the above 14. an infrastructure network 15. NAV 16. none of the above 17. FHSS 18. ACL 19. baseband 20. IEEE 802.11 21. ESS-transition 22. OFDM 23. CSMA/CA 24. can; cannot 25. APs 26. wireless LAN 27. either FHSS or DSSS 28. OFDM 29. BSS 30. BSS; ESS 31. SCO 32. 5.5 33. 22 34. BSS-transition 35. TDD-TDMA 36. none of the above 37. PCF 38. 01 39. piconets: scatternet 40. DSSS 41. 6 MCQs in Connecting LANs, Backbone Networks, and Virtual LANs Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. VLANs create _________ domains. A) B) C) D) multicast broadcast unicast none of the above 2. A ________ operates in both the physical and the data link layer. A) B) C) D) router bridge repeater passive hub 3. A _______ is a device that operates only in the physical layer. A) B) C) D) bridge router passive hub repeater 4. A ______ switch is a faster and more sophisticated router. A) B) C) D) two-layer four-layer three-layer none of the above 5. _________ is just a connector. A) B) C) D) A passive hub An active hub either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 6. A ______ normally connects LANs and WANs in the Internet and has a table that is used for making decisions about the route. A) B) C) D) router bridge repeater none of the above 7. A repeater is a connecting device that operates in the _______ layer of the Internet model. A) B) C) D) network data link physical all of the above 8. A _______ regenerates a signal, connects segments of a LAN, and has no filtering capability. A) B) C) D) router repeater bridge none of the above 9. In a(n) _______ configuration, the administrator types the port numbers, the IP addresses, or other characteristics, using the VLAN software. A) B) C) D) automatic manual semiautomatic none of the above 10. A _______ LAN allows several LANs to be connected. A) B) C) D) wired wireless backbone none of the above 11. A backbone is usually a ______. A) B) C) D) star bus either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 12. A bridge can use the _________ algorithm to create a loopless topology. A) B) C) D) multiway tree binary tree spanning tree none of the above 13. ________ is actually a multiport repeater. It is normally used to create connections between stations in a physical star topology. A) B) C) D) A passive hub An active hub either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 14. In a _____ backbone, the backbone is just one switch. A) B) C) D) star bus ring none of the above 15. A spanning tree is a graph in which there is no _____. A) B) C) D) arc loop node branch 16. A ________ bridge can forward and filter frames and automatically build its forwarding table. A) B) C) D) dual transparent simple none of the above 17. A virtual local area network (VLAN) is configured by _________. A) B) C) D) hardware physical wiring software none of the above 18. A ________ is normally a computer that operates in all five layers of the Internet model or seven layers of OSI model. A) B) C) D) gateway router bridge repeater 19. A ________ is a device in which the stations are completely unaware of its existence. A) B) C) D) simple bridge transparent bridge passive hub repeater 20. A ______ has a table used in filtering decisions. A) B) C) D) bridge passive hub repeater none of the above 21. In a star-topology Ethernet LAN, _______ is just a point where the signals coming from different stations collide; it is the collision point. A) B) C) D) A passive hub An active hub either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 22. VLANs can_________. A) provide an extra measure of security B) reduce network traffic C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b) 23. A ________ link acts as a LAN in a remote backbone connected by remote bridges. A) B) C) D) multidrop point-to-point multipoint none of the above 24. A __________ forwards every frame; it has no filtering capability. A) B) C) D) router bridge passive hub repeater 25. A _______ is a connecting device that operates in the physical and data link layers of the Internet model. A) B) C) D) router repeater bridge none of the above 26. A _______ can check the MAC addresses contained in the frame. A) B) C) D) repeater bridge router passive hub 27. ________ is part of the media; its location in the Internet model is below the physical layer. A) B) C) D) A passive hub An active hub either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 28. In a(n) _____ configuration, the stations are automatically connected or disconnected from a VLAN using criteria defined by the administrator. A) B) C) D) automatic semiautomatic manual none of the above 29. IEEE 802.1d specification, defines _________ criteria for a transparent bridges. A) B) C) D) two four three none of the above 30. A two-layer switch is a ______. A) B) C) D) router repeater bridge none of the above 31. In a bridged LAN, the _______ algorithm creates a topology in which each LAN can be reached from any other LAN through one path only. A) B) C) D) binary tree spanning tree unary tree none of the above 32. A _____ can be used as a connecting device between two internetworks that use different models. A) B) C) D) gateway router bridge repeater 33. Membership in a VLAN can be based on _________. A) MAC addresses B) IP addresses C) port numbers D) all of the above 34. A ________receives a signal and, before it becomes too weak or corrupted, regenerates the original bit pattern. It then sends the refreshed signal. A) B) C) D) router bridge repeater passive hub 35. In a(n) ______ configuration, the initializing is done manually, with migrations done automatically. A) B) C) D) automatic semiautomatic manual none of the above 36. A _______ is a three-layer device that handles packets based on their logical addresses. A) B) C) D) router repeater bridge none of the above 37. A three-layer switch is a kind of ________. A) B) C) D) bridge router repeater none of the above 38. Some new two-layer switches, called _______ switches, have been designed to forward the frame as soon as they check the MAC addresses in the header of the frame. A) come-through B) go-through C) cut-through D) none of the above 1. broadcast 2. bridge 3. repeater 4. three-layer 5. A passive hub 6. router 7. physical 8. repeater 9. manual 10. backbone 11. either star or bus 12. spanning tree 13. An active hub 14. star 15. loop 16. transparent 17. software 18. gateway 19. transparent bridge 20. bridge 21. A passive hub 22. provide an extra measure of security and reduce network traffic 23. point-to-point 24. repeater 25. bridge 26. bridge 27. A passive hub 28. automatic 29. three 30. bridge 31. spanning tree 32. gateway 33. all of the above 34. repeater 35. semiautomatic 36. router 37. router 38. cut-through MCQs in Wireless WANs: Cellular Telephone and Satellite Networks 1. IS-95 uses the _______ satellite system for synchronization. A) B) C) D) Iridium GPS Teledesic none of the above 2. ________ satellites can provide direct universal voice and data communications for handheld terminals. A) B) C) D) Teledesic GPS Iridium none of the above 3. ________ is a second-generation cellular phone system based on CDMA and DSSS. A) IS-95 B) D-AMPS C) GSM D) none of the above 4. GSM allows a reuse factor of _______. A) B) C) D) 7 5 3 1 5. In the third generation of cellular phones, ________ uses CDMA2000. A) B) C) D) IMT-MC IMT-TC IMT-SC IMT-DS 6. Iridium satellites are ________satellites. A) B) C) D) MEO LEO GEO none of the above 7. In an IS-95 system, the frequency-reuse factor is normally _____. A) B) C) D) 7 5 3 1 8. ___________ is a second-generation cellular phone system used in Europe. A) B) C) D) IS-95 GSM D-AMPS none of the above 9. A GEO is at the ________ orbit and revolves in phase with Earth. A) B) C) D) inclined polar equatorial none of the above 10. _______ is a first-generation cellular phone system. A) B) C) D) GSM AMPS D-AMPS none of the above 11. ____________ is a digital version of AMPS. A) B) C) D) GSM IS-95 D-AMPS none of the above 12. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses TDMA. A) B) C) D) IMT-TC IMT-SC IMT-MC IMT-DS 13. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can communicate with two base stations at the same time. A) B) C) D) soft hard medium none of the above 14. IS-95 uses the ISM _______band. A) B) C) D) 800-MHz 900-MHz 1900-MHz either (a) or (c) 15. ________ satellites provide time and location information for vehicles and ships. A) B) C) D) Teledesic GPS Iridium none of the above 16. There is (are) _____ orbit(s) for a GEO satellite. A) B) C) D) two one many none of the above 17. GPS satellites are ________ satellites. A) B) C) D) MEO LEO GEO none of the above 18. The period of a satellite, the time required for a satellite to make a complete trip around the Earth, is determined by _________ law. A) B) C) D) Ohm's Newton's Kepler's none of the above 19. LEO satellites are normally below an altitude of ________ km. A) B) C) D) 3000 2000 1000 none of the above 20. __________ is a second-generation cellular phone system. A) GSM B) AMPS C) D-AMPS D) none of the above 21. In AMPS, each band is divided into ______ channels. A) B) C) D) 1000 900 800 none of the above 22. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______ uses W-CDMA. A) B) C) D) IMT-TC IMT-DS IMT-SC IMT-MC 23. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station only communicates with one base station. A) B) C) D) soft medium hard none of the above 24. AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels. A) B) C) D) TDMA FDMA CDMA none of the above 25. ______ is based on a principle called trilateration. A) B) C) D) Iridium Teledesic GPS none of the above 26. ________ satellites will provide universal broadband Internet access. A) Teledesic B) GPS C) Iridium D) none of the above 27. The __________ cellular phone system will provide universal personal communication. A) B) C) D) second-generation third-generation first-generation none of the above 28. AMPS has a frequency reuse factor of _______. A) B) C) D) 7 5 3 1 29. AMPS operates in the ISM _____ band. A) B) C) D) 1800-MHz 900-MHz 800-MHz none of the above 30. Low-Earth-orbit (LEO) satellites have _____ orbits. A) B) C) D) polar inclined equatorial none of the above 31. The signal from a satellite is normally aimed at a specific area called the _________. A) B) C) D) effect footprint path none of the above 32. _______ is an analog cellular phone system using FDMA. A) GSM B) AMPS C) D-AMPS D) none of the above 33. Teledesic satellites are _________satellites. A) B) C) D) MEO LEO GEO none of the above 34. GSM is a digital cellular phone system using ________. A) B) C) D) FDMA CDMA TDMA both (a) and (c) 35. In the third generation of cellular phones, ______ uses a combination of W-CDMA and TDMA. A) B) C) D) IMT-TC IMT-SC IMT-DS IMT-MC 36. MEO satellites are located at altitudes between km. A) B) C) D) 5000 and 10,000 5000 and 15,000 3000 and 5000 none of the above 37. IS-95 is based on ____________. A) B) C) D) DSSS FDMA CDMA all of the above 38. D-AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into channels. A) B) C) D) FDMA CDMA TDMA both (a) and (c) 1. GPS 2. Iridium 3. IS-95 4. 3 5. IMT-MC 6. LEO 7. 1 8. GSM 9. equatorial 10. AMPS 11. D-AMPS 12. IMT-SC 13. soft 14. either 800-MHz or 1900-MHz 15. GPS 16. one 17. MEO 18. Kepler's 19. 2000 20. D-AMPS 21. none of the above 22. IMT-DS 23. hard 24. FDMA 25. GPS 26. Teledesic 27. third-generation 28. 7 29. 800-MHz 30. polar 31. footprint 32. AMPS 33. LEO 34. both FDMA and TDMA 35. IMT-TC 36. 5000 and 15,000 37. all of the above 38. both FDMA and TDMA MCQs in SONET/SDH 1. In SONET each frame lasts _______ microseconds. A) B) C) D) 20 64 125 none of the above 2. A linear SONET network can be __________. A) B) C) D) multipoint point-to-point either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 3. The path overhead consists of ______ bytes. A) B) C) D) 18 9 6 1 4. _______ is a standard developed by ITU-T. A) B) C) D) SONET SDH either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 5. A ______ is the portion of the network between two multiplexers. A) B) C) D) line path section none of the above 6. A ________ is a repeater. A) B) C) D) ADM regenerator STS multiplexer/demultiplexer none of the above 7. The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal across a physical section. A) B) C) D) path section photonic line 8. In ______ APS, there is one working line and one protection line. The data are normally sent on the working line until it fails. A) B) C) D) one-to-one one-plus-one one-to-many none of the above 9. Line overhead consists of ________ bytes. A) B) C) D) 18 9 6 1 10. In SONET, for each frame, the bytes are transmitted __________. A) B) C) D) from left to the right, bottom to top from left to the right, top to bottom from right to the left, top to bottom from right to the left, bottom to top 11. Each ________in a SONET frame can carry a digitized voice channel. A) B) C) D) frame bit byte none of the above 12. An STS-1 frame is made ______columns. A) B) C) D) 90 9 1 none of the above 13. The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal from its optical source to its optical destination. A) B) C) D) line path photonic section 14. The ____ layer is responsible for the movement of a signal across a physical line. A) line B) path C) photonic D) section 15. An STS multiplexer is a ______ device. A) B) C) D) four-layer three-layer two-layer one-layer 16. A ring SONET network can be _________. A) B) C) D) bidirectional unidirectional either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 17. _______ is a standard developed by ANSI for fiber-optic networks. A) B) C) D) SDH SONET either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 18. An add/drop multiplexer is a ______ device. A) B) C) D) four-layer three-layer two-layer one-layer 19. In SONET, for each byte, the bits are transmitted ____________. A) B) C) D) from most significant to the least significant from least significant to the most significant three at a time two at a time 20. A _______ is the optical link connecting two neighbor devices. A) path B) line C) section D) none of the above 21. A ______is the end-to-end portion of the network between two STS multiplexers. A) B) C) D) line path section none of the above 22. The _______ layer corresponds to the physical layer of the OSI model. A) B) C) D) photonic path line section 23. SONET is a _______ TDM system. A) B) C) D) statistical asynchronous synchronous none of the above 24. An STS-3 frame is made of ______ rows. A) B) C) D) 27 9 1 none of the above 25. SONET defines _______ layers. A) B) C) D) five four three two 26. In ________ APS, there are normally two lines: one working line and one protection line. Both lines are active all the time. A) B) C) D) one-to-one one-to-many one-plus-one none of the above 27. __________ allow insertion and extraction of signals. A) B) C) D) STS multiplexer/demultiplexers regenerators ADMs none of the above 28. An STS-3 frame is made of ________ columns. A) B) C) D) 270 90 9 none of the above 29. SONET has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________. A) B) C) D) STMs STSs either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 30. An ______ signal is the optical modulation of an STS-n (or STM-n) signal. A) B) C) D) FDM-n OC-n TDM-n none of the above 31. A regenerator is a ________ device. A) B) C) D) three-layer one-layer two-layer four-layer 32. An STS-1 frame is made of ________ rows A) B) C) D) 90 9 1 none of the above 33. SDH has defined a hierarchy of signals called ________. A) B) C) D) STMs STSs either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 34. To make SONET backward-compatible with the current hierarchy, its frame design includes a system of ____. A) B) C) D) VTs STSs STMs OCs 35. SONET network topologies can be __________. A) B) C) D) ring mesh linear all of the above 36. SONET sends ________ frames per second. A) B) C) D) 8000 4000 2000 1000 37. A SONET system can use _________. A) B) C) D) regenerators add/drop multiplexers STS multiplexers all of the above 38. In ________APS, there is only one protection line for many working lines. When a failure occurs in one of the working lines, the protection line takes control until the failed line is repaired. A) B) C) D) one-to-one one-plus-one one-to-many none of the above 39. The section overhead consists of ______octets. A) B) C) D) 18 9 6 1 1. 125 2. either multipoint or point-to-point 3. 9 4. SDH 5. line 6. regenerator 7. section 8. one-to-one 9. 18 10. from left to the right, top to bottom 11. byte 12. 90 13. path 14. line 15. four-layer 16. either bidirectional or unidirectional 17. SONET 18. three-layer 19. from most significant to the least significant 20. section 21. path 22. photonic 23. synchronous 24. 9 25. four 26. one-plus-one 27. ADMs 28. 270 29. STSs 30. OC-n 31. two-layer 32. 9 33. STMs 34. VTs 35. all of the above 36. 8000 37. all of the above 38. one-to-many 39. 9 MCQs in Virtual-Circuit Networks: Frame Relay and ATM Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. To handle frames arriving from other protocols, Frame Relay uses a device called a _________. A) B) C) D) MUX VOFR FRAD none of the above 2. In Frame Relay, an address can be ________ bytes. A) B) C) D) 2 to 3 2 to 4 only f2 none of the above 3. In ATM, the _____ layer defines the transmission medium, bit transmission, encoding, and electrical-to-optical transformation. A) B) C) D) AAL physical ATM layer none of the above 4. A _______ ATM LAN combines features of a pure ATM LAN and a legacy ATM LAN. A) B) C) D) legacy pure mixed architecture none of the above 5. A(n) ______ is the interface between a user and an ATM switch. A) B) C) D) NNN UNI NNI None of the above 6. In ATM, a virtual connection is defined by _________. A) B) C) D) DLCI VPI VCI a combination of (b) and (c) 7. In ATM, _______is for short packets. A) B) C) D) AAL5 AAL3/4 AAL2 AAL1 8. In Frame Relay, when a _____ is selected, the corresponding table entry is recorded for all switches by the administrator. A) B) C) D) SVC PVC either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 9. In ATM, the _______layer accepts transmissions from upper-layer services and maps them into ATM cells. A) B) C) D) AAL physical ATM none of the above 10. The VPI of a UNI is _______ bits in length. A) B) C) D) 32 16 12 8 11. The ATM standard defines ______ layers. A) five B) four C) three D) two 12. ________ technology can be adapted for use in a LAN (ATM LAN). A) B) C) D) ATM X.25 Frame Relay none of the above 13. VCIs in Frame Relay are called ______. A) B) C) D) SVC DLCIs PVC none of the above 14. The AAL is divided into _______ sublayers. A) B) C) D) four three two none of the above 15. _________ is the interface between two ATM switches. A) B) C) D) NNI NNN UNI none of the above 16. Frame Relay networks offer an option called ______________ that sends voice through the network. A) B) C) D) FRAD VOFR MUX none of the above 17. A _______ is defined as a small, fixed-size block of information. A) B) C) D) packet cell frame none of the above 18. In ATM, the ______ layer provides routing, traffic management, switching, and multiplexing services. A) B) C) D) ATM AAL physical none of the above 19. In ATM, _____ is for conventional packet switching (virtual-circuit approach or datagram approach). A) B) C) D) AAL5 AAL3/4 AAL2 AAL1 20. Frame Relay provides ________. A) B) C) D) SVCs PVCs either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 21. In Frame Relay, the EA field defines the number of bytes; it is _____ in the last byte of the address. A) B) C) D) 0 1 2 3 22. In a _____ ATM LAN, an ATM switch connects stations. A) legacy B) pure C) mixed architecture D) none of the above 23. The VPI of an NNI is _______ bits in length. A) B) C) D) 24 16 12 8 24. At the data link layer, Frame Relay uses a protocol that supports _____control. A) B) C) D) error flow either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 25. ________ is the cell relay protocol designed by the corresponding Forum and adopted by the ITU-T. A) B) C) D) Frame Relay ATM X.25 none of the above 26. In Frame Relay, when ______ is selected, it requires establishing and terminating phases. A) B) C) D) a PVC an SVC either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 27. In a _______ ATM LAN, the backbone that connects traditional LANs uses ATM technology. A) B) C) D) legacy pure mixed architecture none of the above 28. In ATM, connection between two endpoints is accomplished through _______. A) B) C) D) VCs TPs VPs all of the above 29. Frame Relay has _______. A) B) C) D) the physical, data link, and network layers the physical and data link layers only the data link only the physical layer 30. In ATM, ______ is for packets requiring no sequencing and no error control mechanism. A) B) C) D) AAL5 AAL3/4 AAL2 AAL1 31. ______ eliminates the varying delay times associated with different-size packets. A) B) C) D) Frame Relay ATM X.25 all of the above 32. In ATM, ______ is for constant-bit-rate data. A) B) C) D) AAL5 AAL3/4 AAL2 AAL1 33. ________ is a virtual-circuit wide-area network that was designed in response to demands for a new type of WAN in the late 1980s and early 1990s. A) B) C) D) ATM Frame Relay X.25 none of the above 34. The ATM data packet is a cell composed of ______ bytes. A) B) C) D) 53 52 43 42 1. FRAD 2. 2 to 4 3. physical 4. mixed architecture 5. UNI 6. a combination of VPI and VCI 7. AAL2 8. PVC 9. AAL 10. 8 11. three 12. ATM 13. DLCIs 14. two 15. NNI 16. VOFR 17. cell 18. ATM 19. AAL3/4 20. either SVCs or PVCs 21. 1 22. pure 23. 12 24. neither error nor flow 25. ATM 26. an SVC 27. legacy 28. all of the above 29. the physical and data link layers 30. AAL5 31. ATM 32. AAL1 33. Frame Relay 34. 53 MCQs in Network Layer: Logical Addressing Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 4.5.6.7. A) B) C) D) A B C none of the above 2. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.76/10? A) B) C) D) 12.0.0.0 12.2.0.0 12.2.2.2 none of the above 3. In IPv6, the___________ address is generally used by a normal host as a unicast address. A) B) C) D) provider-based unicast link local site local none of the above 4. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.7/24. A) B) C) D) 32 64 256 none of the above 5. The number of addresses in a class C block is _______. A) B) C) D) 65,534 16,777,216 256 none of the above 6. In classless addressing, the prefix length defines the _____________. A) B) C) D) netid hostid mask none of the above 7. What is the result of ANDing 255 and 15? A) B) C) D) 255 15 0 none of the above 8. In IPv6, _______ address defines a single computer. A) B) C) D) a unicast a multicast an anycast none of the above 9. What is the result of ANDing 254 and 15? A) B) C) D) 254 14 0 none of the above 10. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ colons. A) B) C) D) 8 7 4 none of the above 11. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 16 classless addresses? A) B) C) D) 2.4.6.5 2.4.6.15 2.4.6.62 none of the above 12. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 229.1.2.3. A) B) C) D) A B D none of the above 13. What is the default mask for class A in CIDR notation? A) B) C) D) /9 /8 /16 none of the above 14. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.127/28? A) B) C) 12.2.2.0 12.2.2.96 12.2.2.112 D) none of the above 15. What is the default mask for class B in CIDR notation? A) B) C) D) /9 /8 /16 none of the above 16. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 191.1.2.3. A) B) C) D) A B C none of the above 17. In IPv6, a ______address is used if a site with several networks uses the Internet protocols but is not connected to the Internet for security reasons. A) B) C) D) link local site local mapped none of the above 18. In IPv6, _________ address defines a group of computers. A) B) C) D) a unicast a multicast an anycast none of the above 19. The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______. A) B) C) D) can be any number must be a multiple of 256 must be a power of 2 none of the above 20. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.7/30. A) B) C) D) 2 4 8 none of the above 21. In IPv6, ____ address defines a group of computers with addresses that have the same prefix. A) B) C) D) a unicast a multicast an anycast none of the above 22. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.76.128/29. How many addresses are granted? A) B) C) D) 8 16 32 none of the above 23. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.76.64/28. How many addresses are granted? A) B) C) D) 8 16 32 none of the above 24. An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/20. The organization needs 10 subnets. What is the subnet prefix length? A) B) C) D) /20 /24 /25 none of the above 25. What is the default mask for class C in CIDR notation? A) B) /24 /8 C) D) /16 none of the above 26. In hexadecimal colon notation, a 128-bit address is divided into _______ sections, each _____ hexadecimal digits in length. A) B) C) D) 8: 2 8: 3 8: 4 none of the above 27. In a block, the mask is 255.255.192.0; what is the prefix length? A) B) C) D) /20 /28 /18 none of the above 28. An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.32.0/27. How many addresses are granted? A) B) C) D) 8 16 32 none of the above 29. Which one is not a contiguous mask? A) B) C) D) 255.255.255.254 255.255.224.0 255.148.0.0 all are 30. To make addresses more readable, IPv6 specifies ____________notation. A) B) C) D) dotted decimal hexadecimal colon both a and b none of the above 31. In a block, the prefix length is /15; what is the mask? A) B) C) D) 255.254.0.0 255.255.255.0 255.255.255.128 none of the above 32. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ hexadecimal digits. A) B) C) D) 16 32 8 none of the above 33. In IPv6, a ___________ address is an address of 96 bits of zero followed by 32 bits of IPv4 address. A) B) C) D) link local site local mapped none of the above 34. In classless addressing, the _______ is the varying part (similar to the hostid). A) B) C) D) suffix prefix hostid none of the above 35. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 256 classless addresses? A) B) C) D) 2.4.6.5 2.4.6.15 2.4.6.0 none of the above 36. What is the result of ANDing 0 and 15? A) B) C) D) 255 15 0 none of the above 37. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.76/27? A) B) C) D) 12.2.2.0 12.2.2.32 12.2.2.64 none of the above 38. An IPv4 address consists of _______ bits. A) B) C) D) 4 8 32 64 39. In classless addressing, the ______ is another name for the common part of the address range. A) B) C) D) suffix prefix netid none of the above 40. An IPv6 address is _________ bits long. A) B) C) D) 32 64 128 none of the above 41. The number of addresses in a class A block is _______. A) B) C) D) 65,534 16,777,216 256 none of the above 42. What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.6/30? A) 12.2.2.2 B) C) D) 12.2.2.6 12.2.2.7 none of the above 43. Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 32 classless addresses? A) B) C) D) 2.4.6.5 2.4.6.16 2.4.6.64 none of the above 44. In IPv6, a _______ address is used if a LAN uses the Internet protocols but is not connected to the Internet for security reasons. A) B) C) D) link local site local mapped none of the above 45. What is the result of ANDing 192 and 65? A) B) C) D) 192 65 64 none of the above 46. In IPv4, class _______ has the greatest number of addresses in each block. A) B) C) D) A B C D 47. The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______. A) B) C) D) must be a power of 4 must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes none of the above 48. In IPv6, a _________address comprises 80 bits of zero, followed by 16 bits of one, followed by the 32-bit IPv4 address. A) B) C) D) link local site local mapped none of the above 49. The number of addresses in a class B block is _______. A) B) C) D) 65,536 16,777,216 256 none of the above 50. What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.127/28? A) B) C) D) 12.2.2.16 12.2.2.112 12.2.2.127 none of the above 51. In IPv6, the ________ prefix defines the purpose of the address. A) B) C) D) type purpose both a and b none of the above 52. In a block, the prefix length is /24; what is the mask? A) B) C) D) 255.255.255.0 255.255.242.0 255.255.0.0 none of the above 53. An IPv6 address consists of ________ bytes (octets); A) B) 4 8 C) D) 16 none of the above 54. An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/25. If the subnet prefix length is /28, what is the maximum number of subnets? A) B) C) D) 2 4 8 none of the above 1. A 2. 12.0.0.0 3. provider-based unicast 4. 256 5. 256 6. mask 7. 15 8. a unicast 9. 14 10. 7 11. none of the above 12. D 13. /8 14. 12.2.2.112 15. /16 16. B 17. site local 18. a multicast 19. must be a power of 2 20. 4 21. an anycast 22. 8 23. 16 24. /24 25. /24 26. 8: 4 27. /18 28. 32 29. 255.148.0.0 30. hexadecimal colon 31. 255.254.0.0 32. 32 33. none of the above 34. suffix 35. 2.4.6.0 36. 0 37. 12.2.2.64 38. 32 39. prefix 40. 128 41. 16,777,216 42. 12.2.2.7 43. 2.4.6.64 44. link local 45. 64 46. A 47. must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses 48. mapped 49. 65,536 50. 12.2.2.127 51. type 52. 255.255.255.0 53. 16 54. 8 MCQs in Network Layer: Internet Protocol Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header restricts the lifetime of a datagram. A) B) C) D) version next-header hop limit neighbor-advertisement 2. In IPv4 header, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______. A) B) C) D) there are 10 bytes of options there are 40 bytes of options there are 10 bytes in the header there are 40 bytes in the header 3. In IPv4, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______. A) B) C) D) there are 10 bytes of options there are 40 bytes of options there are 40 bytes in the header none of the above 4. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header and the sender IP address combine to indicate a unique path identifier for a specific flow of data. A) flow label B) C) D) next header hop limit destination IP address 5. In IPv4, what is the value of the total length field in bytes if the header is 28 bytes and the data field is 400 bytes? A) B) C) D) 428 407 107 427 6. The term ________ means that IP provides no error checking or tracking. IP assumes the unreliability of the underlying layers and does its best to get a transmission through to its destination, but with no guarantees. A) B) C) D) reliable delivery connection-oriented delivery best-effort delivery none of the above 7. The ________ protocol is the transmission mechanism used by the TCP/IP suite. A) B) C) D) ARP IP RARP none of the above 8. In IPv4, what is the length of the data field given an HLEN value of 12 and total length value of 40,000? A) B) C) D) 39,988 40,012 40,048 39,952 9. In IPv4, what is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment? A) B) C) Identification number Offset number Total length D) (b) and (c) 10. The IPv4 header size _______. A) B) C) D) is 20 to 60 bytes long is 20 bytes long is 60 bytes long none of the above 11. In IPv6, when a datagram needs to be discarded in a congested network, the decision is based on the _______ field in the base header. A) B) C) D) hop limit priority next header none of the above 12. In IPv4, which field or bit value unambiguously identifies the datagram as a fragment? A) B) C) D) Do not fragment bit ? 0 More Fragment bit ? 0 Fragment offset = 1000 none of the above 13. Which of the following is a necessary part of the IPv6 datagram? A) B) C) D) Base header Extension header Data packet from the upper layer (a) and (c) 14. In IPv4, when a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, the total size of the datagram must be less than the _______. A) B) C) D) MUT MAT MTU none of the above 15. In IPv6, options are inserted between the _________ and the ___________ data. A) B) C) D) base header; extension header base header; upper-layer data base header; frame header none of the above 16. An IPv4 datagram is fragmented into three smaller datagrams. Which of the following is true? A) B) C) D) The do not fragment bit is set to 1 for all three datagrams. The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all three datagrams. The identification field is the same for all three datagrams. The offset field is the same for all three datagrams. 17. In IPv4, if the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that _______. A) B) C) D) the datagram has not been fragmented the datagram is 100 bytes in size the first byte of the datagram is byte 100 the first byte of the datagram is byte 800 18. IP is _________ datagram protocol. A) B) C) D) an unreliable a connectionless both a and b none of the above 19. IPv6 allows _________ security provisions than IPv4. A) B) C) D) more less the same level none of the above 20. The IPv4 header field formerly known as the service type field is now called the _______ field. A) B) C) D) IETF checksum differentiated services none of the above 21. A best-effort delivery service such as IPv4 includes _______. A) B) C) D) error checking error correction datagram acknowledgment none of the above 22. The IPv4 header size _______. A) B) C) D) is 20 to 60 bytes long is 20 bytes long is 60 bytes long none of the above 1. hop limit 2. there are 40 bytes in the header 3. there are 40 bytes in the header 4. flow label 5. 428 6. best-effort delivery 7. IP 8. 39,952 9. Offset number and total length 10. is 20 to 60 bytes long 11. priority 12. Fragment offset = 1000 13. Base header 14. MTU 15. base header; upper-layer data 16. The identification field is the same for all three datagrams. 17. the first byte of the datagram is byte 800 18. an unreliable and a connectionless 19. more 20. differentiated services 21. none of the above 22. is 20 to 60 bytes long MCQs in Network Layer: Address Mapping, Error Reporting, and Multicasting Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. The IP packet that carries an IGMP packet has a value of _______ in its protocol field. A) B) C) D) 3 2 1 none of the above 2. IGMP is _______ protocol. A) B) C) D) an error reporting a group management a transmission none of the above 3. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on the same network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. A) B) C) D) the destination IP address in the datagram header the IP address of the router found in the routing table either a or b none of the above 4. The target hardware address on an Ethernet is _______ in an ARP request. A) B) C) D) 0x000000000000 0.0.0.0 variable class dependent 5. If four hosts on a network belong to the same group, a total of _______ sent in response to a general query message. A) B) C) D) one membership report is two membership reports are three membership reports are none of the above 6. The _______ is used by a router in response to a received leave report. A) B) C) D) general query message special query message membership report none of the above 7. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages? A) B) C) D) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message. An ICMP error message may be generated only for the first fragment. An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram. none is true 8. An IGMP packet is carried in an __________ packet. A) B) C) D) UDP IP Ethernet frame none of the above 9. An IGMP query is sent from a _______ to a _______. A) B) C) D) host; host host; router router; host or router none of the above 10. In _______, a table associating a logical address with a physical address is updated manually. A) B) static mapping dynamic mapping C) D) physical mapping none of the above 11. A multicast message is sent from _______ to _______. A) B) C) D) one source; one destination one source; multiple destinations multiple sources; one destination none of the above 12. An ARP request is normally _______. A) B) C) D) broadcast multicast unicast none of the above 13. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to another host on another network, the logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. A) B) C) D) the destination IP address in the datagram header the IP address of the router found in the routing table either a or b none of the above 14. The _______ field of the IGMP message is all zeros in a query message. A) B) C) D) version type group address none of the above 15. A technique called ______ is used to create a subnetting effect. A) B) C) D) ARP RARP proxy ARP none of the above 16. A ________ is a local address. Its jurisdiction is over a local network. A) B) C) D) physical logical a and b none of the above 17. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on another network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. A) B) C) D) the destination IP address in the datagram header the IP address of the router found in the routing table either a or b none of the above 18. The sender is a router that has received a datagram destined for a host on the same network. The logical address that must be mapped to a physical address is ______. A) B) C) D) the destination IP address in the datagram header the IP address of the router found in the routing table either a or b none of the above 19. IGMP operates __________. A) locally B) globally C) both a and b D) none of the above 20. IGMP helps a ________ router create and update a list of loyal members related to each router interface. A) broadcast B) unicast C) multicast D) none of the above 21. In IGMP, the general query message ___________________ group. A) B) C) D) does not define a particular explicitly defines a can define more than one none of the above 22. A _______ is an ARP that acts on behalf of a set of hosts. A) B) C) D) ARP RARP proxy ARP none of the above 23. IGMP is a companion to the ______ protocol. A) B) C) D) UDP TCP ICM none of the above 24. ICMP is a _________ layer protocol. A) B) C) D) data link transport network none of the above 25. An ARP reply is normally _______. A) B) C) D) broadcast multicast unicast none of the above 26. _______ is a dynamic mapping protocol in which a physical address is found for a given logical address. A) B) C) D) ARP RARP both a and b none of the above 27. ICMP messages are divided into two broad categories: _____________. A) B) C) query and error reporting messages request and response messages request and reply messages D) none of the above 28. An ICMP message has _____ header and a variable-size data section. A) B) C) D) a 16-byte a 32-byte an 8-byte none of the above 29. The logical addresses in the Internet are called _______ addresses. A) B) C) D) port IP Email none of the above 30. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages? A) B) C) D) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message. An ICMP error message may be generated for each fragment. An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram. none is true 31. In networks that do not support physical multicast addressing, multicasting can be accomplished through _______. A) B) C) D) mapping queries tunneling none of the above 32. The least significant 23 bits in a 48-bit Ethernet address identify a ________. A) B) C) D) multicast router host multicast group none of the above 33. A _______ address is an internetwork address with universal jurisdiction. A) physical B) C) D) logical a and b none of the above 34. In IGMP, a membership report is sent _______. A) B) C) D) once twice three times none of the above 1. 2 2. a group management 3. the destination IP address in the datagram header 4. 0x000000000000 5. two membership reports are 6. special query message 7. An ICMP error message may be generated only for the first fragment. 8. IP 9. router; host or router 10. static mapping 11. one source; multiple destinations 12. broadcast 13. the IP address of the router found in the routing table 14. group address 15. proxy ARP 16. physical 17. the IP address of the router found in the routing table 18. the destination IP address in the datagram header 19. locally 20. multicast 21. does not define a particular 22. proxy ARP 23. none of the above 24. network 25. unicast 26. ARP 27. query and error reporting messages 28. an 8-byte 29. IP 30. none is true 31. tunneling 32. multicast group 33. logical 34. twice MCQs in Network Layer: Delivery, Forwarding and Routing Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. In _______ delivery, the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination are on different networks. A) B) C) D) a connection-oriented a direct an indirect none of the above 2. The input and output ports of a router perform the ________ layer functions of the router. A) B) C) D) physical and data link network transport none of the above 3. _________ broadcasts packets, but creates loops in the systems. A) B) C) D) Forwarding Flooding Backwarding none of the above 4. CBT is a ________ protocol that uses a core as the root of the tree. A) B) C) D) source-based group-shared a or b none of the above 5. RPF guarantees that each network receives only ____ of the multicast packet. A) B) C) D) one copy two copies a or b none of the above 6. Routing between autonomous systems is referred to as ____________. A) B) C) D) interdomain routing intradomain routing both a and b none of the above 7. DVMRP is a ________routing protocol, based on RIP. A) B) C) D) source-based group-shared both a and b none of the above 8. In _______, the router may forward the received packet through several of its interfaces. A) B) C) D) unicasting multicasting broadcasting none of the above 9. __________ is an implementation of multicast distance vector routing. It is a sourcebased routing protocol, based on RIP. A) B) C) D) MOSPF DVMRP CBT none of the above 10. In multicast routing, each involved router needs to construct a ________ path tree for each group. A) B) C) D) average longest shortest none of the above 11. In ________, the multicast packet must reach only those networks that have active members for that particular group. A) B) C) D) RPF RPB RPM none of the above 12. In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of minimum distances to every node. A) B) C) D) path vector distance vector link state none of the above 13. A _______ message tells an upstream router to start sending multicast messages for a specific group through a specific router. A) B) C) D) weed graft prune none of the above 14. RPB guarantees that each destination receives _________ of the packet. A) B) C) D) one copy no copies multiple copies none of the above 15. Emulation of ________ through ___________ is not efficient and may create long delays. A) B) C) D) unicasting; multiple unicasting multicasting; multiple unicasting broadcasting; multicasting none of the above 16. MOSPF is a _______ protocol. A) B) C) D) data-driven command-driven both a and b none of the above 17. RPB creates a shortest path _______ tree from the source to each destination. A) B) C) D) unicast multicast broadcast none of the above 18. The _______ protocol allows the administrator to assign a cost, called the metric, to each route. A) B) C) D) OSPF RIP BGP none of the above 19. A one-to-all communication between one source and all hosts on a network is classified as a _______ communication. A) B) C) unicast multicast broadcast D) none of the above 20. For purposes of routing, the Internet is divided into ___________. A) B) C) D) wide area networks autonomous networks autonomous systems none of the above 21. The metric used by _______ is the hop count. A) B) C) D) OSPF RIP BGP none of the above 22. A static table is one _______. A) B) C) D) with manual entries which is updated automatically either a or b none of the above 23. The idea of address aggregation was designed to alleviate the increase in routing table entries when using ________. A) B) C) D) classful addressing classless addressing both a and b none of the above 24. In _______ forwarding, the full IP address of a destination is given in the routing table. A) B) C) D) next-hop network-specific host-specific default 25. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intradomain routing based on _________ routing. A) B) C) D) distance vector link state path vector none of the above 26. ____________ is a group of networks and routers under the authority of a single administration. A) B) C) D) An autonomous system An area both a and b none of the above 27. In the group-shared tree approach, _________ involved in multicasting. A) B) C) D) only the core router is all routers are only some routers are none of the above 28. In OSPF, a ________ link is a network is connected to only one router. A) B) C) D) point-to-point transient stub none of the above 29. _______ adds pruning and grafting to _______ to create a multicast shortest path tree that supports dynamic membership changes. A) B) C) D) RPM; RPB RPB; RPM RPF: RPM none of the above 30. In OSPF, when the link between two routers is broken, the administration may create a _________ link between them using a longer path that probably goes through several routers. A) B) point-to-point transient C) D) stub none of the above 31. The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an intradomain routing protocol based on _______ routing. A) B) C) D) distance vector link state path vector none of the above 32. In unicast routing, each router in the domain has a table that defines a ______ path tree to possible destinations. A) B) C) D) average longest shortest none of the above 33. In _______, a logical tunnel is established by encapsulating the multicast packet inside a unicast packet. A) B) C) D) UNIBONE MULTBONE MBONE none of the above 34. _______ deals with the issues of creating and maintaining routing tables. A) B) C) D) Forwarding Routing Directing none of the above 35. To create a neighborhood relationship, a router running BGP sends an ________ message. A) B) C) D) open update keep alive none of the above 36. The Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF) protocol is an extension of the OSPF protocol that uses multicast routing to create source-based trees. The protocol is based on _______ routing. A) B) C) D) distance vector link state path vector none of the above 37. RPF eliminates the ________ in the flooding process. A) B) C) D) forwarding backwarding flooding none of the above 38. A _______ routing table is updated periodically using one of the dynamic routing protocols. A) B) C) D) static dynamic hierarchical none of the above 39. A one-to-many communication between one source and a specific group of hosts is classified as a _______ communication. A) B) C) D) unicast multicast broadcast none of the above 40. A one-to-one communication between one source and one destination is classified as a _______ communication. A) B) C) D) unicast multicast broadcast none of the above 41. A _______ routing table contains information entered manually. A) B) C) D) static dynamic hierarchical none of the above 42. PIM-DM is used in a _______ multicast environment, such as a LAN. A) B) C) D) dense sparse a or b none of the above 43. In distance vector routing, each node periodically shares its routing table with _________ and whenever there is a change. A) B) C) D) every other node its immediate neighbors one neighbor none of the above 44. Routing inside an autonomous system is referred to as _______________. A) B) C) D) interdomain routing intradomain routing both a and b none of the above 45. In RPF, a router forwards only the copy that has traveled the _______ path from the source to the router. A) B) C) D) shortest longest average none of the above 46. In ________ routing, we assume that there is one node (or more) in each autonomous system that acts on behalf of the entire autonomous system. A) B) C) distant vector path vector link state D) none of the above 47. ___________ is an interdomain routing protocol using path vector routing. A) B) C) D) BGP RIP OSPF none of the above 48. In OSPF, a ________ link connects two routers without any other host or router in between. A) B) C) D) point-to-point transient stub none of the above 49. In _______ forwarding, the routing table holds the address of just the next hop instead of complete route information. A) B) C) D) next-hop network-specific host-specific default 50. In _______ forwarding, the destination address is a network address in the routing table. A) B) C) D) next-hop network-specific host-specific default 51. Pruning and grafting are strategies used in _______. A) B) C) D) RPF RPB RPM none of the above 52. The task of moving the packet from the input queue to the output queue in a router is done by _________. A) B) C) D) input and output ports routing processor switching fabrics none of the above 53. In _______ delivery, both the deliverer of the IP packet and the destination are on the same network. A) B) C) D) a connectionless a direct an indirect none of the above 54. In _______ forwarding, the mask and destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in the routing table. A) B) C) D) next-hop network-specific host-specific default 55. In the _______ tree approach, each router needs to have one shortest path tree for each group. A) B) C) D) group-shared source-based a or b none of the above 56. The use of hierarchy in routing tables can ________ the size of the routing tables. A) B) C) D) reduce increase both a and b none of the above 57. In _______ routing, the least cost route between any two nodes is the route with the minimum distance. A) B) C) D) path vector distance vector link state none of the above 58. Multicast link state routing uses the _______ tree approach. A) B) C) D) source-based group-shared a or b none of the above 59. A dynamic table is one _______. A) B) C) D) with manual entries which is updated automatically either a or b none of the above 60. In ______, the router forwards the received packet through only one of its interfaces. A) B) C) D) unicasting multicasting broadcasting none of the above 61. In OSPF, a _______ link is a network with several routers attached to it. A) B) C) D) point-to-point transient stub none of the above 62. The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to build a routing table. A) B) C) D) distance vector link state path vector none of the above 63. An area is _______. A) B) C) D) part of an AS composed of at least two ASs another term for an AS none of the above 64. The principle of ________ states that the routing table is sorted from the longest mask to the shortest mask. A) B) C) D) first mask matching shortest mask matching longest mask matching none of the above 65. PIM-SM is used in a _______multicast environment such as a WAN. A) B) C) D) dense sparse a or b none of the above 66. The routing processor of a router performs the ________ layer functions of the router. A) B) C) D) physical and data link network transport none of the above 67. A _______ message tells an upstream router to stop sending multicast messages for a specific group through a specific router. A) B) C) D) weed graft prune none of the above 1. an indirect 2. physical and data link 3. Flooding 4. group-shared 5. none of the above 6. interdomain routing 7. source-based 8. multicasting 9. DVMRP 10. shortest 11. RPM 12. distance vector 13. graft 14. one copy 15. multicasting; multiple unicasting 16. data-driven 17. broadcast 18. OSPF 19. broadcast 20. autonomous systems 21. RIP 22. with manual entries 23. classless addressing 24. host-specific 25. distance vector 26. An autonomous system 27. only the core router is 28. stub 29. RPM; RPB 30. none of the above 31. link state 32. shortest 33. MBONE 34. Routing 35. open 36. link state 37. none of the above 38. dynamic 39. multicast 40. unicast 41. static 42. dense 43. its immediate neighbors 44. intradomain routing 45. shortest 46. path vector 47. BGP 48. point-to-point 49. next-hop 50. network-specific 51. RPM 52. switching fabrics 53. a direct 54. default 55. source-based 56. reduce 57. distance vector 58. source-based 59. which is updated automatically 60. unicasting 61. transient 62. link state 63. part of an AS 64. longest mask matching 65. sparse 66. network 67. prune MCQs in Process-to-Process Delivery: UDP, TCP, and SCTP Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. Urgent data requires the urgent pointer field as well as the URG bit in the _______ field. A) B) C) D) control offset sequence number none of the above 2. To accomplish flow control, TCP uses a ___________ window protocol. A) B) C) D) limited-size sliding fixed-size none of the above 3. UDP and TCP are both _______ layer protocols. A) B) C) D) data link network transport none of the above 4. In TCP, one end can stop sending data while still receiving data. This is called a ______. A) B) C) D) half-close half-open one-way termination none of the above 5. In SCTP, the acknowledgment number and window size are part of each ________. A) B) C) D) data chunk control chunk a or b none of the above 6. A connection in SCTP is called an ____________. A) B) C) D) negotiation association transmission none of the above 7. An ACK segment, if carrying no data, consumes ______ sequence number(s). A) B) C) D) no one two none of the above 8. The association identifier in SCTP is __________________. A) B) C) D) a unique verification tag a combination of logical and port addresses either a or b none of the above 9. In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered using ________. A) B) C) D) a TSN an SI an SSN none of the above 10. The bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. The numbering starts with a __________________. A) B) C) D) 0 1 randomly generated number none of the above 11. In the sending computer, UDP receives a data unit from the _______ layer. A) B) C) D) application transport IP none of the above 12. SCTP allows __________ service in each association. A) B) C) D) single stream multistream double stream none of the above 13. TCP is a ___________ protocol. A) B) C) D) connection-oriented connectionless both a and b none of the above 14. UDP uses ________ to handle outgoing user datagrams from multiple processes on one host. A) B) C) D) flow control multiplexing demultiplexing none of the above 15. Because the sending and the receiving processes may not write or read data at the same speed, TCP ________. A) speeds up the slower process B) C) D) slows down the faster process uses buffers none of the above 16. SCTP association allows _____________ for each end. A) B) C) D) only one IP address multiple IP addresses only two IP address none of the above 17. UDP needs the _______ address to deliver the user datagram to the correct application process. A) B) C) D) port application internet none of the above 18. In an SCTP packet, control chunks come ___________ data chunks. A) B) C) D) after before a or b none of the above 19. TCP is a(n) _______ transport protocol. A) B) C) D) unreliable best-effort delivery reliable none of the above 20. TCP delivers _______ out-of-order segments to the process. A) B) C) D) all no some none of the above 21. Multiply the header length field by _______ to find the total number of bytes in the TCP header. A) B) C) D) 2 4 6 none of the above 22. Which of the following does UDP guarantee? A) B) C) D) flow control connection-oriented delivery either a or b none of the above 23. TCP allows the sending process to deliver data as a _______of bytes and allows the receiving process to obtain data as a _________ of bytes. A) B) C) D) message; message stream; stream block; block none of the above 24. To distinguish between different data chunks belonging to the same stream, SCTP uses ___________. A) B) C) D) TSNs SIs SSNs none of the above 25. The ports ranging from 49,152 to 65,535 can be used as temporary or private port numbers. They are called the ________ ports. A) B) C) D) well-known registered dynamic none of the above 26. UDP does not add anything to the services of IP except for providing _______ communication. A) B) C) D) node-to-node process-to-process host-to-host none of the above 27. The combination of an IP address and a port number is called a ____________. A) B) C) D) transport address network address socket address none of the above 28. The options field of the TCP header ranges from 0 to _______ bytes. A) B) C) D) 10 20 40 none of the above 29. A port address in UDP is _______bits long. A) B) C) D) 8 16 32 none of the above 30. The FIN segment consumes ____ sequence numbers if it does not carry data. A) B) C) D) two three no none of the above 31. The inclusion of the checksum in the TCP segment is ________. A) B) C) D) optional mandatory at the discretion of the application program none of the above 32. The FIN + ACK segment consumes _____ sequence number(s) if it does not carry data. A) B) C) D) two three one none of the above 33. TCP uses _________________ to check the safe and sound arrival of data. A) B) C) D) an acknowledgment mechanism out-of-band signaling the services of another protocol none of the above 34. ACK segments consume _______ sequence number(s) and _______ acknowledged. A) B) C) D) no; are not one; are not no; are none of the above 35. In SCTP, acknowledgment numbers are used to acknowledge _____________. A) B) C) D) both data chunks and control chunks only control chunks only data chunks none of the above 36. The source port address on the UDP user datagram header defines _______. A) B) C) D) the sending computer the receiving computer the process running on the sending computer none of the above 37. __________ control regulates the amount of data a source can send before receiving an acknowledgment from the destination. A) B) C) D) Error Flow Congestion none of the above 38. To use the services of UDP, we need ________ socket addresses. A) B) C) D) four two three none of the above 39. The value of the window size is determined by _________. A) B) C) D) the sender the receiver both the sender and receiver none of the above 40. TCP assigns a sequence number to each segment that is being sent. The sequence number for each segment is the number of the _______ byte carried in that segment. A) B) C) D) first last middle none of the above 41. An SCTP packet can carry __________. A) B) C) D) only one data chunk several data chunks no data chunks none of the above 42. UDP is an acronym for _______. A) B) C) D) User Delivery Protocol User Datagram Procedure User Datagram Protocol none of the above 43. A SYN + ACK segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ sequence number(s). A) B) C) no three two D) none of the above 44. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called a ___________. A) B) C) D) user datagram segment datagram none of the above 45. There is no need for a header length field in SCTP because ________________. A) B) C) D) there are no options in the general header the size of the header is fixed both a and b none of the above 46. Connection establishment in TCP is called __________ handshaking. A) B) C) D) two-way four-way one-way none of the above 47. UDP packets are encapsulated in ___________. A) B) C) D) an Ethernet frame an TCP segment an IP datagram none of the above 48. The checksum in SCTP is ________ bits. A) B) C) D) 16 32 64 none of the above 49. TCP sliding windows are __________ oriented. A) B) packet segment C) D) byte none of the above 50. If a segment carries data along with an acknowledgment, this is called _______. A) B) C) D) backpacking piggybacking piggypacking none of the above 51. If the ACK value is 200, then byte _______ has been received successfully. A) B) C) D) 199 200 201 none of the above 52. A TCP segment is encapsulated in __________. A) B) C) D) an IP datagram an Ethernet frame a UDP user datagram none of the above 53. TCP is a __________protocol. A) B) C) D) stream-oriented message-oriented block-oriented none of the above 54. UDP packets are called __________. A) B) C) D) user datagrams segments frames none of the above 55. In the sending computer, UDP sends a data unit to the _______ layer. A) application B) C) D) transport IP none of the above 56. In SCTP, control information and data information are carried in _______ chunks. A) B) C) D) the same chunk different chunks either a or b none of the above 57. TCP has ____________; SCTP has ____________. A) B) C) D) packets; segments segments; packets segments; frames none of the above 58. One of the responsibilities of the transport layer protocol is to create a ______ communication. A) B) C) D) host-to-host process-to-process node-to-node none of the above 59. The control information in SCTP is included in the ________. A) B) C) D) header control field control chunks data chunks none of the above 60. Communication in TCP is ___________. A) B) C) D) simplex half-duplex full-duplex none of the above 61. Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a new _____________protocol. A) B) C) D) reliable, character-oriented reliable, message-oriented unreliable, message-oriented none of the above 62. To distinguish between different streams, SCTP uses ___________. A) B) C) D) a TSN an SI an SSN none of the above 63. Which of the following functions does UDP perform? A) B) C) D) process-to-process communication host-to-host communication end-to-end reliable data delivery none of the above 64. IP is responsible for _______ communication while TCP is responsible for _______ communication. A) B) C) D) host-to-host; process-to-process process-to-process; host-to-host process-to-process; network-to-network none of the above 65. The connection establishment procedure in TCP is susceptible to a serious security problem called the _________ attack. A) B) C) D) ACK flooding FIN flooding SYN flooding none of the above 66. UDP is called a _____________transport protocol. A) B) C) D) connectionless, reliable connection-oriented, unreliable connectionless, unreliable none of the above 67. In SCTP, ___________ can be carried in a packet that carries an INIT chunk. A) B) C) D) only data chunks only control chunks no other chunk none of the above 68. UDP packets have a fixed-size header of _______ bytes. A) B) C) D) 16 8 40 none of the above 69. The SYN flooding attack belongs to a group of security attacks known as a _____ attack. A) B) C) D) denial of service replay man-in-the middle none of the above 70. When the IP layer of a receiving host receives a datagram, _______. A) B) C) D) delivery is complete a transport layer protocol takes over a header is added none of the above 71. The value of the acknowledgment field in a segment defines the number of the ______byte a party expects to receive. A) B) C) D) first last next none of the above 72. A SYN segment cannot carry data; it consumes _____ sequence number(s). A) B) no one C) D) two none of the above 73. The acknowledgment number is ________. A) B) C) D) independent randomly generated cumulative none of the above 74. The local host and the remote host are defined using IP addresses. To define the processes, we need second identifiers called ____________. A) B) C) D) UDP addresses transport addresses port addresses none of the above 75. Although there are several ways to achieve process-to-process communication, the most common is through the __________ paradigm. A) B) C) D) client-server client-client server-server none of the above 76. A(n) _________ machine is a machine that goes through a limited number of states. A) B) C) D) infinite state finite state both a and b none of the above 77. UDP uses _______ to handle incoming user datagrams that go to different processes on the same host. A) B) C) D) flow control multiplexing demultiplexing none of the above 1. control 2. sliding 3. transport 4. half-close 5. control chunk 6. association 7. no 8. a unique verification tag 9. a TSN 10. randomly generated number 11. application 12. multistream 13. connection-oriented 14. multiplexing 15. uses buffers 16. multiple IP addresses 17. port 18. before 19. reliable 20. no 21. 4 22. none of the above 23. stream; stream 24. SSNs 25. dynamic 26. process-to-process 27. socket address 28. 40 29. 16 30. none of the above 31. mandatory 32. one 33. an acknowledgment mechanism 34. no; are not 35. only data chunks 36. the process running on the sending computer 37. Flow 38. two 39. the receiver 40. first 41. several data chunks 42. User Datagram Protocol 43. none of the above 44. segment 45. both a and b 46. none of the above 47. an IP datagram 48. 32 49. byte 50. piggybacking 51. 199 52. an IP datagram 53. stream-oriented 54. user datagrams 55. IP 56. different chunks 57. segments; packets 58. process-to-process 59. control chunks 60. full-duplex 61. reliable, message-oriented 62. an SI 63. process-to-process communication 64. host-to-host; process-to-process 65. SYN flooding 66. connectionless, unreliable 67. no other chunk 68. 8 69. denial of service 70. a transport layer protocol takes over 71. next 72. one 73. cumulative 74. port addresses 75. client-server 76. finite state 77. demultiplexing MCQs in Congestion Control and Quality of Service Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. _______ is a flow characteristic that applications can tolerate in different degrees. A) B) C) D) Reliability Delay Jitter Bandwidth 2. The _______ defines the maximum data rate of the traffic. A) B) C) D) peak data rate maximum burst size effective bandwidth none of the above 3. In Frame Relay, the _____________ defines an average rate in bits per second. A) B) C) D) access rate committed burst size committed information rate excess burst size 4. In ________ congestion control, policies are applied to prevent congestion before it happens. A) B) C) D) open-loop closed-loop either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 5. In ________ we try to avoid traffic congestion. A) B) C) D) congestion control quality of service either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b) 6. _________ is a characteristic that a flow needs. Lack of it means losing a packet or acknowledgment, which entails retransmission. A) B) Reliability Delay C) D) Jitter Bandwidth 7. In a network, after the load reaches the capacity, throughput _______. A) B) C) D) increases sharply increases proportionally with the load declines sharply declines proportionally with the load 8. In _________ queuing, the packets are assigned to different classes and admitted to different queues. The queues, however, are weighted based on the priority of the queues; higher priority means a higher weight. The system processes packets in each queue in a round-robin fashion with the number of packets selected from each queue based on the corresponding weight. A) B) C) D) FIFO priority weighted fair none of the above 9. In ATM, the _________ class is a best-effort delivery service that does not guarantee anything. A) B) C) D) CBR VBR ABR UBR 10. The________ normally refers to the maximum length of time the traffic is generated at the peak rate. A) B) C) D) peak data rate maximum burst size effective bandwidth none of the above 11. In _______ congestion control, mechanisms are used to alleviate congestion after it happens. A) open-loop B) C) D) closed-loop either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 12. _______ happens in any system that involves waiting. A) B) C) D) Congestion Jamming Error none of the above 13. In the ________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the congestion window increases exponentially until it reaches a threshold. A) B) C) D) slow-start congestion avoidance congestion detection none of the above 14. In Frame Relay, the user can never exceed the_________. A) B) C) D) access rate committed burst size committed information rate excess burst size 15. In the ___________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the threshold is dropped to one-half, a multiplicative decrease. A) B) C) D) slow-start congestion avoidance congestion detection none of the above 16. In _________, when a source makes a reservation, it needs to define a flow specification. A) B) C) D) Integrated Services Differentiated Services Connectionless Connection-Oriented 17. A _________ traffic model has a data rate that does not change. A) B) C) D) constant bit rate variable bit rate bursty none of the above 18. ________ is the variation in delay for packets belonging to the same flow. A) B) C) D) Reliability Delay Jitter Bandwidth 19. A ___________ is a packet sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion. A) B) C) D) backpressure choke packet implicit signaling explicit signaling 20. In ATM, the _________ class delivers cells at a minimum rate. If more network capacity is available, this minimum rate can be exceeded. A) B) C) D) CBR VBR ABR UBR 21. In the ________ traffic model, the rate of the data flow changes in time, with the changes smooth instead of sudden and sharp. A) B) C) D) constant bit rate variable bit rate bursty none of the above 22. In __________, there is no communication between the congested node or nodes and the source. The source guesses that there is a congestion somewhere in the network from other symptoms. A) B) C) D) backpressure choke packet implicit signaling explicit signaling 23. In a network, when the load reaches the network capacity, the delay _______. A) B) C) D) increases sharply decreases sharply remains constant cannot be predicted 24. The technique of ________refers to a congestion control mechanism in which a congested node stops receiving data from the immediate upstream node or nodes. A) B) C) D) backpressure choke packet implicit signaling explicit signaling 25. In ________ queuing, packets are first assigned to a priority class. Each class has its own queue. A) B) C) D) FIFO priority weighted fair none of the above 26. In ________, queuing packets wait in a buffer (queue) until the node (router or switch) is ready to process them. A) B) C) D) FIFO priority weighted fair none of the above 27. Traditionally, ________types of characteristics are attributed to a flow. A) B) C) two three four D) five 28. In Frame Relay, the ___________ is the maximum number of bits in excess of Bc that a user can send during a predefined time. A) B) C) D) access rate committed burst size committed information rate excess burst size 29. In a network, when the load is below the capacity of the network, the throughput ______________. A) B) C) D) increases sharply increases proportionally with the load declines sharply declines proportionally with the load 30. In the __________ method, the signal is included in the packets that carry data. A) B) C) D) backpressure choke packet implicit signaling explicit signaling 31. In a network, when the load is much less than the capacity of the network, the delay is _________. A) B) C) D) at a maximum at a minimum constant none of the above 32. Congestion in a network or internetwork occurs because routers and switches have _______. A) B) C) D) tables queues crosspoints none of the above 33. In _________, we try to create an appropriate environment for the traffic. A) B) C) D) congestion control quality of service either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b) 34. In Frame Relay, the ________ bit warns the sender of congestion in the network. A) B) C) D) BECN FECN either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 35. In Frame Relay, the ________ bit is used to warn the receiver of congestion in the network. A) B) C) D) BECN FECN either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 36. The ________ is a function of three values: average data rate, peak data rate, and maximum burst size. A) B) C) D) peak data rate maximum burst size effective bandwidth none of the above 37. In the _________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the congestion window increases additively until congestion is detected. A) B) C) D) slow-start congestion avoidance congestion detection none of the above 38. In ATM, the _________ class is divided into two subclasses: real-time (VBR-RT) and non-real-time (VBR-NRT). VBR-RT is designed for those users who need real-time services (such as voice and video transmission) and use compression techniques to create a variable bit rate. VBR-NRT is designed for those users who do not need real-time services but use compression techniques to create a variable bit rate. A) B) C) D) CBR VBR ABR UBR 39. Traffic ______ are qualitative values that represent a data flow. A) B) C) D) controls descriptors values none of the above 40. _________ is a class-based QoS model designed for IP. A) B) C) D) Integrated Services Differentiated Services Connectionless Connection-Oriented 41. In the ______ bucket algorithm, bursty chunks are stored in the bucket and sent out at an average rate. A) B) C) D) leaky token either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 42. The _______ bucket algorithm allows idle hosts to accumulate credit for the future in the form of tokens. A) B) C) D) leaky token either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 43. In ATM, the _________ class is designed for customers who need real-time audio or video services. The service is similar to that provided by a dedicated line such as a T line. A) B) C) D) CBR VBR ABR UBR 44. In the ______ traffic model, the data rate changes suddenly in a very short time. A) B) C) D) constant bit rate variable bit rate bursty none of the above 45. In Frame Relay, a ___________ is the maximum number of bits in a predefined time that the network is committed to transfer without discarding any frame or setting the DE bit. A) B) C) D) access rate committed burst size committed information rate excess burst size 1. Delay 2. peak data rate 3. committed information rate 4. open-loop 5. congestion control 6. Reliability 7. declines sharply 8. weighted fair 9. UBR 10. maximum burst size 11. closed-loop 12. Congestion 13. slow-start 14. access rate 15. congestion detection 16. Integrated Services 17. constant bit rate 18. Jitter 19. choke packet 20. ABR 21. variable bit rate 22. implicit signaling 23. increases sharply 24. backpressure 25. priority 26. FIFO 27. four 28. excess burst size 29. increases proportionally with the load 30. explicit signaling 31. at a minimum 32. queues 33. quality of service 34. BECN 35. FECN 36. effective bandwidth 37. congestion avoidance 38. VBR 39. descriptors 40. Differentiated Services 41. leaky 42. token 43. CBR 44. bursty 45. committed burst size MCQs in Domain Name System Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. A full domain name is a sequence of labels separated by ________. A) B) C) D) semicolons dots colons none of the above 2. A ________ server loads all information from the primary server. A) B) C) D) primary secondary zone none of the above 3. The first level in the generic domains section allows ______ possible labels. A) B) C) D) 10 12 16 none of the above 4. If a label is not terminated by a null string, it is called a __________. A) B) C) D) PQDN FQDN SQDN none of the above 5. What a server is responsible for or has authority over is called a _________. A) B) C) D) domain label zone none of the above 6. DNS can use the services of ________ using the well-known port 53. A) B) C) D) UDP TCP either (a) or (b) none of the above 7. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is the most specific label. A) B) C) D) chal atc fhda none of the above 8. The root of the DNS tree is _______. A) B) C) D) a string of characters a string of 63 characters an empty string none of the above 9. When the secondary downloads information from the primary, it is called ______ transfer. A) B) C) D) domain zone label none of the above 10. A _______ is a server whose zone consists of the whole tree. A) B) C) D) domain server zone server root server none of the above 11. A pointer query involves the _______ domain. A) B) C) D) inverse reverse root none of the above 12. Each node in the tree has a _______, which is a string with a maximum of ___ characters. A) B) C) D) label; 127 name; 255 label; 63 none of the above 13. To have a hierarchical name space, a ______________ was designed. A) B) C) D) domain space domain name domain name space none of the above 14. The _______ domains define registered hosts according to their generic behavior. A) B) C) D) generic country inverse none of the above 15. In a _________name space, each name is made of several parts. A) B) C) D) flat hierarchical organized none of the above 16. In a _______ name space, a name is assigned to an address. A name in this space is a sequence of characters without structure. A) B) flat hierarchical C) D) organized Connection-Oriented 17. The _________ domain is used to map an address to a name. A) B) C) D) generic country inverse none of the above 18. The ____________ domain section uses two-character country abbreviations. A) B) C) D) generic country inverse Bandwidth 19. A _________ is a subtree of the domain name space. A) B) C) D) label name domain none of the above 20. In the DNS, the names are defined in ___________ structure. A) B) C) D) a linear list an inverted-tree a graph none of the above 21. If a label is terminated by a null string, it is called a __________. A) B) C) D) PQDN FQDN SQDN none of the above 22. In the Internet, the domain name space (tree) is divided into _______ different sections: A) three B) C) D) two four none of the above 23. In __________ resolution, the server returns the IP address of the server that it thinks can resolve the query. A) B) C) D) iterative recursive straight none of the above 24. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is the least specific label. A) B) C) D) chal atc edu none of the above 25. A host with the domain name pit.arc.nasa.gov. is on the _______ level of the DNS hierarchical tree. (The root is level one.) A) B) C) D) third fourth fifth none of the above 26. In __________ resolution, the resolver expects the server to supply the final answer. A) B) C) D) iterative recursive straight none of the above 27. A ________ server loads all information from the disk file. A) B) C) D) primary secondary zone none of the above 1. dots 2. secondary 3. none of the above 4. PQDN 5. zone 6. either UDP or TCP 7. chal 8. an empty string 9. zone 10. root server 11. inverse 12. label; 63 13. domain name space 14. generic 15. hierarchical 16. flat 17. inverse 18. country 19. domain 20. an inverted-tree 21. FQDN 22. three 23. iterative 24. edu 25. fifth 26. recursive 27. primary MCQs in Remote Logging, Electronic Mail, and File Transfer Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. When both sender and receiver are connected to a mail server via a LAN or a WAN, we need ___________________. A) B) C) D) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and a pair of MAAs two UAs, and two pairs of MTAs two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and two pairs of MAAs none of the above 2. The actual mail transfer is done through ____________. A) B) C) D) UAs MTAs MAAs none of the above 3. If the sender wants an option enabled by the receiver, it sends a _______ command. A) B) C) D) WILL DO WONT none of the above 4. When the sender is connected to the mail server via a LAN or a WAN, we need ______________. A) B) C) D) two MTA two UAs and two pairs of MTAs two UAs and a pair of MTAs none of the above 5. The ________ usually contains the sender address, the receiver address, and other information. A) B) message envelope C) D) both a and b none of the above 6. NVT uses two sets of characters, one for _____and one for __________. A) B) C) D) sending; receiving request; reply data; control none of the above 7. In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define an attribute called _______. A) B) C) D) file type data structure transmission mode none of the above 8. The third stage in an email transfer needs a ________ protocol. A) B) C) D) pull push both a and b none of the above 9. _______ is the standard mechanism provided by TCP/IP for copying a file from one host to another. A) B) C) D) TELNET SMTP TFTP none of the above 10. In the _______ mode, each character typed is sent by the client to the server. A) B) C) D) default character line none of the above 11. The _______ is software residing on the remote system that allows the remote system to receive characters from a TELNET server. A) B) C) D) terminal driver pseudoterminal driver TELNET client none of the above 12. FTP uses the services of ________. A) B) C) D) UDP IP TCP none of the above 13. For the control connection, FTP uses the __________ character set. A) B) C) D) regular ASCII EBCDIC NVT ASCII none of the above 14. In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the client to the server. A) B) C) D) retrieve a file store a file retrieve a list none of the above 15. During an FTP session the data connection is opened _______. A) B) C) D) exactly once exactly twice as many times as necessary none of the above 16. In FTP, _______ is the service type used by the IP protocol because this is an interactive connection between a user (human) and a server. A) B) C) D) maximize throughput minimize delay minimize error none of the above 17. When a user wants to access an application program or utility located on a remote machine, he or she performs ___________ login. A) B) C) D) local remote temporary none of the above 18. The third stage in an email transfer uses a(n) ________ protocol. A) B) C) D) UA MTA MAA none of the above 19. TELNET uses only one TCP connection. The server uses ________ port and the client uses ________ port. A) B) C) D) a well-known; another well-known an ephemeral; another ephemeral a well-known; an ephemeral none of the above 20. For control, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to ______. A) B) C) D) 1 0 a or b none of the above 21. The formal protocol that defines the MTA client and server in the Internet is called ___________. A) B) C) D) SMTP SNMP TELNET none of the above 22. _________ is a supplementary protocol that allows non-ASCII data to be sent through email. A) B) C) D) JPEG MPEG MIME none of the above 23. Which of the following services is not provided by a UA? A) B) C) D) composing messages reading messages replying messages all are 24. If the sender wants to enable an option, it sends a _______ command. A) B) C) D) WILL DO WONT none of the above 25. In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the server to the client. A) B) C) D) retrieve a file retrieve a list a and b none of the above 26. TELNET is an abbreviation for ____________. A) B) C) D) terminal network telephone network telecommunication network none of the above 27. When a user logs into a local time-sharing system, it is called ________ login. A) B) C) D) local remote temporary none of the above 28. Which part of the mail created by the UA contains the sender and receiver names? A) B) C) D) envelope address header none of the above 29. ________ is part of a local hard drive, a special file with permission restrictions. A) B) C) D) A message A response An agent none of the above 30. ________ provides service to the user to make the process of sending and receiving a message easier. A) B) C) D) An MTA An MAA A UA none of the above 31. The message contains the ________ and the __________. A) B) C) D) header; envelop header; body envelop; body none of the above 32. In the ____ mode, line editing (echoing, character erasing, line erasing, and so on) is done by the client. A) B) C) D) default character line none of the above 33. The MIME _______ header uses text to describe the type of data in the body of the message. A) B) C) content-type content-transfer-encoding content-description D) none of the above 34. If the sender wants to disable an option, it sends a _______ command. A) B) C) D) WILL DO WONT none of the above 35. SMTP is a __________protocol. A) B) C) D) pull push both a and b none of the above 36. In FTP, there are three types of _______: stream, block, and compressed. A) B) C) D) file types data structures transmission modes none of the above 37. For data, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to ______. A) B) C) D) 1 0 a or b none of the above 38. The _______ translates NVT characters into a form acceptable by the remote operating system. A) B) C) D) terminal driver TELNET client TELNET server none of the above 39. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on the same system, we need only ___________. A) B) C) D) one UA two UAs one UA and one MTA none of the above 40. In the Internet, the email address consists of two parts: a _______ and a _______. A) B) C) D) local part; domain name global part; domain name label; domain name none of the above 41. To distinguish data from control characters, each sequence of control characters is preceded by a special control character called ________. A) B) C) D) ICA IAC AIC none of the above 42. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different systems, we need only _____________. A) B) C) D) one MTA two UAs two UAs and one pair of MTAs none of the above 43. During an FTP session the control connection is opened _______. A) B) C) D) exactly once exactly twice as many times as necessary none of the above 44. If the sender wants an option disabled by the receiver, it sends a _______ command. A) B) C) D) WILL DO DONT none of the above 45. The _______ translates local characters into NVT form. A) B) C) D) terminal driver TELNET client TELNET server none of the above 46. Currently two message access protocols are available: _______ and _________. A) B) C) D) POP3; IMAP2 POP4; IMAP1 POP3; IMAP4 none of the above 47. TELNET is a ________ client-server application program. A) B) C) D) specific-purpose general-purpose both a and b none of the above 48. In FTP, a file can be organized into records, pages, or a stream of bytes. These are types of an attribute called _______. A) B) C) D) file types data structures transmission modes none of the above 49. The process of transferring a mail message occurs in ________ phases. A) B) C) D) two four five none of the above 50. In FTP, the well-known port ____ is used for the control connection and the well-known port ________ for the data connection. A) B) 21; 22 21; 20 C) D) 20; 21 none of the above 51. In the _______ mode, the echoing is done by the client. A) B) C) D) default character line none of the above 52. There are two types of user agents: _________ and ___________. A) B) C) D) command-driven; data-driven command-driven; GUI-based command-based and data-based none of the above 53. _______ is more powerful and complex than _______. A) B) C) D) POP3; IMAP4 IMAP4; POP3 SMTP; POP3 none of the above 1. two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and a pair of MAAs 2. MTAs 3. DO 4. two UAs and two pairs of MTAs 5. envelope 6. data; control 7. file type 8. pull 9. none of the above 10. character 11. pseudoterminal driver 12. TCP 13. NVT ASCII 14. store a file 15. as many times as necessary 16. minimize delay 17. remote 18. MAA 19. a well-known; an ephemeral 20. 1 21. SMTP 22. MIME 23. all are 24. WILL 25. retrieve file and retrieve list 26. terminal network 27. local 28. header 29. none of the above 30. A UA 31. header; body 32. line 33. content-description 34. WONT 35. push 36. transmission modes 37. 0 38. TELNET server 39. two UAs 40. local part; domain name 41. IAC 42. two UAs and one pair of MTAs 43. exactly once 44. DONT 45. TELNET client 46. POP3; IMAP4 47. general-purpose 48. data structures 49. none of the above 50. 21; 20 51. default 52. command-driven; GUI-based 53. IMAP4; POP3 MCQs in WWW and HTTP Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. A user needs to send the server some information. The request line method is _______. A) B) C) D) OPTION PATCH POST none of the above 2. In a URL, the _______ is the client-server program used to retrieve the document. A) B) C) D) path protocol host none of the above 3. A _______ document is created by a Web server whenever a browser requests the document. A) B) C) D) static dynamic active none of the above 4. One way to create an active document is to use __________. A) B) C) D) CGI Java stand-alone programs Java applets none of the above 5. A cookie is made by the ________ and eaten by the _________. A) B) C) D) client; client client; server server; server none of the above 6. A _______ document is a fixed-content document that is created and stored in a server. The client can get a copy of the document only. A) B) C) D) static dynamic active none of the above 7. The _________ is a standard for specifying any kind of information on the Internet. A) B) C) D) URL ULR RLU none of the above 8. _________ is a repository of information linked together from points all over the world. A) B) C) D) The WWW HTTP HTML none of the above 9. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line? A) B) C) D) HTTP version number URL status code none of the above 10. Active documents are sometimes referred to as _________ dynamic documents. A) B) C) client-site server-site both a and b D) none of the above 11. HTTP uses the services of _________ on well-known port 80. A) B) C) D) UDP IP TCP none of the above 12. Dynamic documents are sometimes referred to as _________ dynamic documents. A) B) C) D) client-site server-site both a and b none of the above 13. For many applications, we need a program or a script to be run at the client site. These are called _______________ documents. A) B) C) D) static dynamic active none of the above 14. In HTTP, a _______ server is a computer that keeps copies of responses to recent requests. A) B) C) D) regular proxy both a and b none of the above 15. The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to get information about a document without retrieving the document itself. A) B) C) D) HEAD POST COPY none of the above 16. A response message always contains _______. A) B) C) D) a header and a body a request line and a header a status line and a header none of the above 17. In a URL, an optional ________ can be inserted between the host and the path, and it is separated from the host by a colon. A) B) C) D) path protocol host none of the above 18. An applet is _______ document application program. A) B) C) D) a static an active a passive a dynamic 19. The documents in the WWW can be grouped into ______ broad categories. A) B) C) D) two three four none of the above 20. _____________ is a language for creating Web pages. A) B) C) D) HTTP HTML FTTP none of the above 21. ___________ is a technology that creates and handles dynamic documents. A) B) C) D) GIC CGI GCI none of the above 22. The HTTP request line contains a _______ method to request a document from the server. A) B) C) D) GET POST COPY none of the above 23. In a ___________connection, the server leaves the connection open for more requests after sending a response. A) B) C) D) persistent nonpersistent both a and b none of the above 24. An HTTP request message always contains _______. A) B) C) D) a header and a body a request line and a header a status line, a header, and a body none of the above 25. In a ___________ connection, one TCP connection is made for each request/response. A) B) C) D) persistent nonpersistent both a and b none of the above 26. In a URL, the _______ is the full name of the file where the information is located. A) B) C) D) path protocol host none of the above 27. In a URL, the ______ is the computer on which the information is located. A) B) path protocol C) D) host none of the above 28. HTTP version 1.1 specifies a _________connection by default. A) B) C) D) persistent nonpersistent both a and b none of the above 29. In HTTP, the first line in a request message is called a _______ line; the first line in the response message is called the ________ line. A) B) C) D) request; response response; request response; status none of the above 30. The WWW today is a _______ client-server service, in which a client using a browser can access a service using a server. A) B) C) D) 1. POST 2. protocol 3. dynamic 4. Java applets 5. server; server 6. static limited vast distributed none of the above 7. URL 8. The WWW 9. HTTP version number 10. client-site 11. TCP 12. server-site 13. active 14. proxy 15. HEAD 16. a status line and a header 17. none of the above 18. an active 19. three 20. HTML 21. CGI 22. GET 23. persistent 24. a request line and a header 25. nonpersistent 26. path 27. host 28. persistent 29. none of the above 30. distributed MCQs in Network Management: SNMP Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. A manager is a host that runs the SNMP _______ process. A) B) C) D) client server both a and b none of the above 2. An SNMP agent can send _______ messages. A) Response B) C) D) GetRequest SetRequest none of the above 3. SMI uses another standard, ___________, to encode data to be transmitted over the network. A) B) C) D) MIB ANS.1 BER none of the above 4. We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a program. Both tasks need variable declarations. In network management this is handled by _________. A) B) C) D) SMNP MIB SMI none of the above 5. We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a program. Both tasks need rules. In network management this is handled by ___________. A) B) C) D) SMNP MIB SMI none of the above 6. The _______ data types are atomic data types. A) B) C) D) structure simple both a and b none of the above 7. An SNMP agent can send _______ messages. A) B) C) D) GetRequest SetRequest Trap none of the above 8. Which is a manager duty? A) B) C) D) Retrieve the value of an object defined in an agent. Store the value of an object defined in an agent. a and b none of the above 9. We can compare the task of network management to the task of writing a program. Both tasks have actions performed by statements. In network management this is handled by _______. A) B) C) D) SMNP MIB SMI none of the above 10. An agent is a host or computer that runs the SNMP _______ process. A) B) C) D) client server both a and b none of the above 11. The Trap PDU is sent from the ______ to the _______ to report an event. A) B) C) D) server; client client; server network; host none of the above 12. To name objects globally, SMI uses an object identifier, which is a hierarchical identifier based on a _______ structure. A) B) C) D) linear tree graph none of the above 13. INTEGER, OCTET STRING, and Object Identifier are _______ definitions used by SMI. A) MIB B) C) D) SNMP ASN.1 none of the above 14. The Response PDU is sent from the ______ to the ______ in response to GetRequest or GetNextRequest. A) B) C) D) server; client client; server network; host none of the above 15. SMI emphasizes three attributes to handle an object: _____, ________, and _________. A) B) C) D) name; data type; size name; size; encoding method name; data type; encoding method none of the above 16. SNMP uses the services of UDP on two well-known ports, _______ and _______. A) B) C) D) 161; 162 160; 161 160; 162 none of the above 17. SNMP uses two other protocols:________ and _________. A) B) C) D) MIB; SMTP SMI; MIB FTP; SMI none of the above 18. _______ runs the SNMP client program; _______ runs the SNMP server program. A) B) C) D) A manager; a manager An agent; an agent A manager; an agent An agent; a manager 19. An object id defines a _______. Add a zero suffix to define the _______. A) B) C) D) variable; table table; variable variable; variable contents none of the above 20. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU consists of a sequence of variables and their corresponding values. A) B) C) D) version community VarBindList none of the above 21. SMI defines two structured data types: ________ and _________. A) B) C) D) sequence; atomic sequence; sequence of a sequence of; array none of the above 22. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU reports an error in a response message. A) B) C) D) community enterprise error status none of the above 23. All objects managed by SNMP are given an object identifier. The object identifier always starts with _______. A) B) C) D) 1.3.6.1.2.1 1.3.6.1.2.2 1.3.6.1.2.3 none of the above 24. Which of the following could be a legitimate MIB object identifier? A) B) 1.3.6.1.2.1.1 1.3.6.1.2.2.1 C) D) 2.3.6.1.2.1.2 none of the above 25. SMI has two broad categories of data type: _______ and _______. A) B) C) D) simple; complex simple; structured structured; unstructured none of the above 26. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU is an offset that points to the variable in error. A) B) C) D) community enterprise error index none of the above 27. SNMP defines the ___________________ to be sent from a manager to an agent and vice versa. A) B) C) D) format of the packets encoding of the packets number of packets none of the above 28. The GetRequest PDU is sent from the _______ to the __________ to retrieve the value of a variable or a set of variables. A) B) C) D) client; server server; client server; network none of the above 29. The _________ ordering enables a manager to access a set of variables one after another by defining the first variable. A) B) C) D) lexicographic linear non-linear none of the above 30. To define the data type, SMI uses fundamental _______ definitions and adds some new definitions. A) B) C) D) AMS.1 ASN.1 ASN.2 none of the above 31. ________ defines the general rules for naming objects, defining object types, and showing how to encode objects and values. A) B) C) D) MIB BER SMI none of the above 32. For a 1-byte length field, what is the maximum value for the data length? A) B) C) D) 1. client 2. Response 3. BER 4. MIB 5. SMI 6. simple 7. Trap 127 128 255 none of the above 8. a and b 9. SMNP 10. server 11. server; client 12. tree 13. ASN.1 14. server; client 15. name; data type; encoding method 16. 161; 162 17. SMI; MIB 18. A manager; an agent 19. variable; variable contents 20. VarBindList 21. sequence; sequence of 22. error status 23. 1.3.6.1.2.1 24. 1.3.6.1.2.1.1 25. simple; structured 26. error index 27. format of the packets 28. client; server 29. lexicographic 30. ASN.1 31. SMI 32. 127 MCQs in Multimedia Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. _______ is a standard to allow telephones on the public telephone network to talk to computers connected to the Internet. A) B) C) D) SIP H.323 Q.991 none of the above 2. When there is more than one source, the _______ identifier defines the mixer. A) B) C) D) synchronization source contributor timestamp none of the above 3. __________ is the protocol designed to handle real-time traffic on the Internet. A) B) C) D) TCP UDP RTP none of the above 4. Jitter is introduced in real-time data by the _______________. A) B) C) D) error caused during transmission delay between packets both a and b none of the above 5. In a real-time video conference, data from the server is _______ to the client sites. A) B) C) D) unicast multicast broadcast none of the above 6. An RTP packet is encapsulated in _______. A) B) C) D) a UDP user datagram a TCP segment an IP datagram none of the above 7. A _______ changes the format of a high-bandwidth video signal to a lower quality narrow-bandwidth signal. A) B) C) timestamp sequence number translator D) none of the above 8. ____________ is used to compress video. A) B) C) D) MPEG JPEG either a or b none of the above 9. Real-time traffic needs the support of ____________. A) B) C) D) broadcasting multicasting both a and b none of the above 10. _______ are used to number the packets of a real-time transmission. A) B) C) D) Timestamps Playback buffers Sequence numbers none of the above 11. The third phase of JPEG is ___________. A) B) C) D) DCT transformation quantization data compression none of the above 12. The second phase of JPEG is ___________. A) B) C) D) DCT transformation quantization data compression none of the above 13. A __________on each packet is required for real-time traffic. A) B) timestamp sequence number C) D) both a and b none of the above 14. To prevent _________, we can timestamp the packets and separate the arrival time from the playback time. A) B) C) D) error jitter either a or b none of the above 15. __________ means combining several streams of traffic into one stream. A) B) C) D) Translation Mixing both a and b none of the above 16. A real-time video performance lasts 10 min. If there is jitter in the system, the viewer spends _______ minutes watching the performance. A) B) C) D) less than 10 more than 10 exactly 10 none of the above 17. ___________ audio/video refers to the broadcasting of radio and TV programs through the Internet. A) B) C) D) Interactive Streaming live Streaming stored none of the above 18. __________ means changing the encoding of a payload to a lower quality to match the bandwidth of the receiving network. A) B) C) D) Translation Mixing both a and b none of the above 19. ____________ is used to compress images. A) B) C) D) MPEG JPEG either a or b none of the above 20. A ________buffer is required for real-time traffic. A) B) C) D) playback reordering sorting none of the above 21. In ________ encoding, the differences between the samples are encoded instead of encoding all the sampled values. A) B) C) D) predictive perceptual both a and b none of the above 22. __________ encoding is based on the science of psychoacoustics, which is the study of how people perceive sound. A) B) C) D) Predictive Perceptual both a and b none of the above 23. _________ audio/video refers to the use of the Internet for interactive audio/video applications. A) B) C) D) Interactive Streaming live Streaming stored none of the above 24. According to the Nyquist theorem, we need to sample an analog signal ________times the highest frequency. A) B) C) D) three two four none of the above 25. ___________ is an application protocol that establishes, manages, and terminates a multimedia session. A) B) C) D) RIP SIP DIP none of the above 26. _________ is not suitable for interactive multimedia traffic because it retransmits packets in case of errors. A) B) C) D) UDP TCP both a and b none of the above 27. RTCP uses an odd-numbered _______ port number that follows the port number selected for RTP. A) B) C) D) UDP TCP both a and b none of the above 28. We can divide audio and video services into _______ broad categories. A) B) C) D) three two four none of the above 29. RTP uses a temporary even-numbered _______ port. A) B) C) UDP TCP both a and b D) none of the above 30. ________ audio/video refers to on-demand requests for compressed audio/video files. A) B) C) D) Streaming live Streaming stored Interactive none of the above 31. ___________ is a protocol for controlling the flow and quality of data. A) B) C) D) RTP RTCP UDP none of the above 32. A _______ adds signals from different sources to create a single signal. A) B) C) D) timestamp sequence number mixer none of the above 33. A _______ shows the time a packet was produced relative to the first or previous packet. A) B) C) D) timestamp playback buffer sequence number none of the above 34. The first phase of JPEG is ___________. A) B) C) D) DCT transformation quantization data compression none of the above 1. H.323 2. synchronization source 3. RTP 4. delay between packets 5. multicast 6. a UDP user datagram 7. translator 8. MPEG 9. multicasting 10. Sequence numbers 11. data compression 12. quantization 13. both timestamp and sequence number 14. jitter 15. Mixing 16. more than 10 17. Streaming live 18. Translation 19. JPEG 20. playback 21. predictive 22. Perceptual 23. Interactive 24. two 25. SIP 26. TCP 27. UDP 28. three 29. UDP 30. Streaming stored 31. RTCP 32. mixer 33. timestamp 34. DCT transformation MCQs in Cryptography Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. One commonly used public-key cryptography method is the ______ algorithm. A) B) C) D) RSS RAS RSA RAA 2. A(n) ______ algorithm transforms ciphertext to plaintext. A) B) C) D) encryption decryption either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 3. The ________ is the message after transformation. A) B) C) D) ciphertext plaintext secret-text none of the above 4. A(n) _______ algorithm transforms plaintext to ciphertext. A) B) C) D) encryption decryption either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 5. The ________ method provides a one-time session key for two parties. A) B) C) D) Diffie-Hellman RSA DES AES 6. A(n) ______ is a keyless substitution cipher with N inputs and M outputs that uses a formula to define the relationship between the input stream and the output stream. A) B) C) D) S-box P-box T-box none of the above 7. A ________ cipher replaces one character with another character. A) B) C) D) substitution transposition either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 8. The ________ cipher reorders the plaintext characters to create a ciphertext. A) B) C) D) substitution transposition either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 9. _______ is a round cipher based on the Rijndael algorithm that uses a 128-bit block of data. A) B) C) D) AEE AED AER AES 10. The ________is the original message before transformation. A) B) C) D) ciphertext plaintext secret-text none of the above 11. A modern cipher is usually a complex _____cipher made of a combination of different simple ciphers. A) B) C) D) round circle square none of the above 12. The _________ attack can endanger the security of the Diffie-Hellman method if two parties are not authenticated to each other. A) B) C) D) man-in-the-middle ciphertext attack plaintext attack none of the above 13. A combination of an encryption algorithm and a decryption algorithm is called a ________. A) B) C) D) cipher secret key none of the above 14. In an asymmetric-key cipher, the receiver uses the ______ key. A) B) C) D) private public either a or b neither (a) nor (b) 15. AES has _____ different configurations. A) B) C) D) two three four five 16. DES is a(n) ________ method adopted by the U.S. government. A) symmetric-key B) C) D) asymmetric-key either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 17. DES uses a key generator to generate sixteen _______ round keys. A) B) C) D) 32-bit 48-bit 54-bit 42-bit 18. The Caesar cipher is a _______cipher that has a key of 3. A) B) C) D) transposition additive shift none of the above 19. ECB and CBC are ________ ciphers. A) B) C) D) block stream field none of the above 20. A(n) _______is a keyless transposition cipher with N inputs and M outputs that uses a table to define the relationship between the input stream and the output stream. A) B) C) D) S-box P-box T-box none of the above 21. ________ DES was designed to increase the size of the DES key. A) B) C) D) Double Triple Quadruple none of the above 22. ________ is the science and art of transforming messages to make them secure and immune to attacks. A) B) C) D) Cryptography Cryptoanalysis either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 23. DES has an initial and final permutation block and _________ rounds. A) B) C) D) 14 15 16 none of the above 24. The DES function has _______ components. A) B) C) D) 2 3 4 5 25. In a(n) ________ cipher, the same key is used by both the sender and receiver. A) B) C) D) symmetric-key asymmetric-key either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 26. _________ ciphers can be categorized into two broad categories: monoalphabetic and polyalphabetic. A) B) C) D) Substitution Transposition either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 27. The _______ cipher is the simplest monoalphabetic cipher. It uses modular arithmetic with a modulus of 26. A) transposition B) C) D) additive shift none of the above 28. In an asymmetric-key cipher, the sender uses the__________ key. A) B) C) D) private public either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 29. In a(n) ________ cipher, a pair of keys is used. A) B) C) D) symmetric-key asymmetric-key either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 30. The _______ is a number or a set of numbers on which the cipher operates. A) B) C) D) cipher secret key none of the above 31. In a(n) ________, the key is called the secret key. A) B) C) D) 1. RSA 2. decryption 3. ciphertext 4. encryption 5. Diffie-Hellman 6. S-box symmetric-key asymmetric-key either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 7. substitution 8. transposition 9. AES 10. plaintext 11. round 12. man-in-the-middle 13. cipher 14. private 15. three 16. symmetric-key 17. 48-bit 18. shift 19. block 20. P-box 21. Triple 22. Cryptography 23. 16 24. 4 25. symmetric-key 26. Substitution 27. shift 28. public 29. asymmetric-key 30. key 31. symmetric-key MCQs in Network Security Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. Message_____ means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as sent. A) B) C) D) confidentiality integrity authentication none of the above 2. Message _______ means that the receiver is ensured that the message is coming from the intended sender, not an imposter. A) B) C) D) confidentiality integrity authentication none of the above 3. A(n) ________function creates a message digest out of a message. A) B) C) D) encryption decryption hash none of the above 4. The secret key between members needs to be created as a ______ key when two members contact KDC. A) B) C) D) public session complimentary none of the above 5. The ________ criterion ensures that a message cannot easily be forged. A) B) C) D) one-wayness weak-collision-resistance strong-collision-resistance none of the above 6. A(n) _____ is a trusted third party that assigns a symmetric key to two parties. A) B) C) D) KDC CA KDD none of the above 7. A witness used in entity authentication is ____________. A) B) C) D) something known something possessed something inherent all of the above 8. A _______ message digest is used as an MDC. A) B) C) D) keyless keyed either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 9. A(n)______ creates a secret key only between a member and the center. A) B) C) D) CA KDC KDD none of the above 10. ________ means to prove the identity of the entity that tries to access the system's resources. A) B) C) D) Message authentication Entity authentication Message confidentiality none of the above 11. A ________ signature is included in the document; a _______ signature is a separate entity. A) B) conventional; digital digital; digital C) D) either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 12. If _________ is needed, a cryptosystem must be applied over the scheme. A) B) C) D) integrity confidentiality nonrepudiation authentication 13. Digital signature provides ________. A) B) C) D) authentication nonrepudiation both (a) and (b) neither (a) nor (b) 14. Digital signature cannot provide ________ for the message. A) B) C) D) integrity confidentiality nonrepudiation authentication 15. To authenticate the data origin, one needs a(n) _______. A) B) C) D) MDC MAC either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 16. A(n) _________ can be used to preserve the integrity of a document or a message. A) B) C) D) message digest message summary encrypted message none of the above 17. Challenge-response authentication can be done using ________. A) symmetric-key ciphers B) C) D) asymmetric-key ciphers keyed-hash functions all of the above 18. The _______criterion ensures that we cannot find two messages that hash to the same digest. A) B) C) D) one-wayness weak-collision-resistance strong-collision-resistance none of the above 19. A digital signature needs a(n)_________ system. A) B) C) D) symmetric-key asymmetric-key either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 20. A(n) ________is a federal or state organization that binds a public key to an entity and issues a certificate. A) B) C) D) KDC Kerberos CA none of the above 21. Message ________ means that the sender and the receiver expect privacy. A) B) C) D) confidentiality integrity authentication none of the above 22. In ________ authentication, the claimant proves that she knows a secret without actually sending it. A) B) C) D) password-based challenge-response either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 23. In _______, a claimant proves her identity to the verifier by using one of the three kinds of witnesses. A) B) C) D) message authentication entity authentication message confidentiality message integrity 24. The _______ criterion states that it must be extremely difficult or impossible to create the message if the message digest is given. A) B) C) D) one-wayness weak-collision-resistance strong-collision-resistance none of the above 25. A(n) ______ is a hierarchical system that answers queries about key certification. A) B) C) D) KDC PKI CA none of the above 26. _________ means that a sender must not be able to deny sending a message that he sent. A) B) C) D) Confidentiality Integrity Authentication Nonrepudiation 27. A hash function must meet ________ criteria. A) B) C) D) two three four none of the above 28. __________ is a popular session key creator protocol that requires an authentication server and a ticket-granting server. A) B) C) D) KDC Kerberos CA none of the above 29. Password-based authentication can be divided into two broad categories: _______ and _______. A) B) C) D) fixed; variable time-stamped; fixed fixed; one-time none of the above 1. integrity 2. authentication 3. hash 4. session 5. weak-collision-resistance 6. KDC 7. all of the above 8. keyless 9. KDC 10. Entity authentication 11. conventional; digital 12. confidentiality 13. both authentication and nonrepudiation 14. confidentiality 15. MAC 16. message digest 17. all of the above 18. strong-collision-resistance 19. asymmetric-key 20. CA 21. confidentiality 22. challenge-response 23. entity authentication 24. one-wayness 25. CA 26. Nonrepudiation 27. three 28. Kerberos 29. fixed; one-time MCQs in Security in the Internet: IPSec, SSL/TLS, PGP, VPN, and Firewalls Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. 1. _________ operates in the transport mode or the tunnel mode. A) B) C) D) IPSec SSL PGP none of the above 2. IKE creates SAs for _____. A) B) C) D) SSL PGP IPSec VP 3. ______ provides either authentication or encryption, or both, for packets at the IP level. A) B) C) D) AH ESP PGP SSL 4. One security protocol for the e-mail system is _________. A) B) C) IPSec SSL PGP D) none of the above 5. Typically, ______ can receive application data from any application layer protocol, but the protocol is normally HTTP. A) B) C) D) SSL TLS either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b) 6. IKE is a complex protocol based on ______ other protocols. A) B) C) D) two three four five 7. IPSec defines two protocols: _______ and ________. A) B) C) D) AH; SSL PGP; ESP AH; ESP all of the above 8. In the ______ mode, IPSec protects information delivered from the transport layer to the network layer. A) B) C) D) transport tunnel either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 9. ______ is the protocol designed to create security associations, both inbound and outbound. A) B) C) D) SA CA KDC IKE 10. A _______network is used inside an organization. A) B) C) D) private public semi-private semi-public 11. SSL provides _________. A) B) C) D) message integrity confidentiality compression all of the above 12. The Internet authorities have reserved addresses for _______. A) B) C) D) intranets internets extranets none of the above 13. An _________ is a network that allows authorized access from outside users. A) B) C) D) intranet internet extranet none of the above 14. _________ is a collection of protocols designed by the IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force) to provide security for a packet at the network level. A) B) C) D) IPSec SSL PGP none of the above 15. IKE uses _______. A) B) C) D) Oakley SKEME ISAKMP all of the above 16. IPSec uses a set of SAs called the ________. A) B) C) D) SAD SAB SADB none of the above 17. An ________ is a private network that uses the Internet model. A) B) C) D) intranet internet extranet none of the above 18. ______ is actually an IETF version of _____. A) B) C) D) TLS; TSS SSL; TLS TLS; SSL SSL; SLT 19. In ______, there is a single path from the fully trusted authority to any certificate. A) B) C) D) X509 PGP KDC none of the above 20. The combination of key exchange, hash, and encryption algorithms defines a ________ for each SSL session. A) B) C) D) list of protocols cipher suite list of keys none of the above 21. A ______ provides privacy for LANs that must communicate through the global Internet. A) B) C) VPP VNP VNN D) VPN 22. _______ uses the idea of certificate trust levels. A) B) C) D) X509 PGP KDC none of the above 23. IPSec in the ______ mode does not protect the IP header. A) B) C) D) transport tunnel either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 24. ________ provides privacy, integrity, and authentication in e-mail. A) B) C) D) IPSec SSL PGP none of the above 25. In _____, there can be multiple paths from fully or partially trusted authorities. A) B) C) D) X509 PGP KDC none of the above 26. ______ provides authentication at the IP level. A) B) C) D) AH ESP PGP SSL 27. In _______, the cryptographic algorithms and secrets are sent with the message. A) B) IPSec SSL C) D) TLS PGP 28. ______ is designed to provide security and compression services to data generated from the application layer. A) B) C) D) SSL TLS either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b) 29. _______ provide security at the transport layer. A) B) C) D) SSL TLS either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b) 30. The _______ mode is normally used when we need host-to-host (end-to-end) protection of data. A) B) C) D) transport tunnel either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 31. In the _______ mode, IPSec protects the whole IP packet, including the original IP header. A) B) C) D) transport tunnel either (a) or (b) neither (a) nor (b) 32. ______ was invented by Phil Zimmerman. A) B) C) D) IPSec SSL PGP none of the above 33. A _______ layer security protocol provides end-to-end security services for applications. A) B) C) D) data link network transport none of the above 34. In PGP, to exchange e-mail messages, a user needs a ring of _______ keys. A) B) C) D) secret public either (a) or (b) both (a) and (b) 1. IPSec 2. IPSec 3. ESP 4. PGP 5. both SSL and TLS 6. three 7. AH; ESP 8. transport 9. IKE 10. private 11. all of the above 12. none of the above 13. extranet 14. IPSec 15. all of the above 16. SADB 17. intranet 18. TLS; SSL 19. X509 20. cipher suite 21. VPN 22. PGP 23. transport 24. PGP 25. PGP 26. AH 27. PGP 28. both SSL and TLS 29. both SSL and TLS 30. transport 31. tunnel 32. PGP 33. transport 34. public