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ONCOLOGY FOR SCIENTISTS RPN 532 EXAM 2 Dr. Iyer NAME:___________________________ 12 POINTS 1. The selection of a chemotherapeutic agent should be based on 3 separate but related scientific disciplines. These are pharmacodynamics, pharmacokinetics, and ____________. (1 point) a. b. c. d. 2. DATE: March 25th, 2010 cytokinetics histology cytology pharmaceutics Which of the following statements are true about alkylating agents? (1 point) a. Dissociate a positively charged, electrophilic alkyl group capable of attacking a negatively charged nucleophilic site on biologic molecules. b. Impair cell function by forming covalent bonds with amino, carboxyl, sulfhydryl and phosphate groups in DNA, RNA, proteins. c. Alter DNA structure and function and alter DNA base pairing, replication and transcription. d. Need cell proliferation to be active but not phase specific. e. a and c f. a,b,c and d 3. Mitomycin C is an antitumor antibiotic that functions as an __________. (1 point) a. b. c. d. 4. antimetabolite immunotherapeutic atypical alkylator antitumor enzyme What is dose intensity? (1 point) a. DI= amt of drug delivered/ unit time expressed as milligrams per square meter per week, regardless of schedule or route. b. DI= amt of drug delivered/ unit time expressed as milligrams per square meter per week, and varies by route- IV vs PO c. DI= amt of drug delivered/ unit time expressed as milligrams per square meter per week, compared to a standard regimen expressed in the same units. 5. Doxorubicin is an anthracycline antibiotic, and is associated with cardiac toxicity. Patients may be pretreated with _________ in an effort to limit or prevent cardiomyopathy. (1 point) a. b. c. d. 6. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is an immunotherapeutic agent principally used against _________. (1 point) a. b. c. d. 7. porfimer sodium denileukin difitox dexrazoxane tretinoin non-small-cell lung cancer bladder cancer Hodgkin’s lymphoma mycosis fungoides A pharmacist friend of yours was recently diagnosed with CNS lymphoma and is receiving methotrexate (MTX). He has read that the elimination of MTX from the body is well characterized. Ninety percent of an administered dose of MTX is eliminated unchanged in the urine. While the drug is excreted into the bile, enterohepatic recirculation is such that little is excreted in the stool. Elimination in the urine is by glomerular filtration and proximal renal tubular secretion. MTX is poorly soluble in acid urine. He asks you which of the following statements about reducing the toxicity of MTX are true. 1. In the presence of renal failure, cholestyramine (Antidote, anion-exchange resin) will increase stool MTX and potentially lower toxicity. 2. Patients on high dose schedules should be well hydrated and have their urine alkalinized to prevent precipitation. 3. Many drugs may interfere with renal tubular secretory capacity and concomitant administration of such drugs may lead to the delayed excretion of MTX and increased toxicity. 4. Since the drug depletes cells of reduced folates, one way to overcome the block would be to administer the reduced folates themselves i.e leucovorin rescue. a. b. c. d. 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 4 only All of the above 8. You have decided to spend your summer volunteering in the local public library and the librarian hears that you are a researcher. She then tells you she has breast cancer is going to start chemo the next week with a taxane. She asks if you could tell her how the drug works and what major side effects to expect as she can’t remember anything from her doctors visit- it was all a “blur.” (1 point) a. Taxanes are microtubule binding agents and can cause neuropathy and allergic reactions. b. Taxanes are antimetabolites with myelosupressive and nephrotoxic properties c. Taxanes are anti-microtubule agents associated with severe treatment related nausea. d. a and c 9. Which of these statements is false? (1 point) a. b. c. d. 10. All of the following require dose modification for liver dysfunction except. (1 point) a. b. c. d. e. 11. Paclitaxel Doxorubicin Vincristine Topotecan Irinotecan All of the following are mechanisms of resistance to 5-Fluorouracil except: (1 point) a. b. c. d. 12. Inactivation of the purine analogue 6-mercaptopurine is by enzyme xanthine oxidase. Allopurinol inhibits this enzyme and is often used to prevent hyperuricemia 6-MP dose needs to be reduced when given concomitantly. 6-MP dose needs to be increased when given concomitantly. Reduced activation (deletion of uridine kinase or uridine phosphorylase) Increased catabolism (increased expression of acid and alkaline phosphatases) Deficiency in N5-10-methynyl FH4 leading to decreased binding of FdUMP to TS Decrease in target enzyme thymidylate synthase (increased binding affinity for FdUMP) Mechanisms of Imatinib mesylate (gleevec) action include all of the following except: (1 point) a. b. c. d. Inhibits BCR-ABL Promotes signal transduction in CML Inhibits PDGFR Inhibits c-kit ONCOLOGY FOR SCIENTISTS RPN 532 EXAM 2 Ms. Hutton NAME:___________________________ 13 POINTS DATE: March 25th, 2010 13. List two (2) characteristics associated with inherited susceptibility for cancer that you’d look for when assessing a family history. (2 points) 14. List two (2) situations in which DNA banking is a useful resource for a family. (2 points) 15. True_____ False_____ Inherited susceptibility accounts for about 25-30% of most common cancers, i.e. breast, colon, prostate. (1 point) 16. True_____ False_____ Identification of a hereditary cancer syndrome in an individual with cancer may impact their risk for recurrence. (1 point) 17. True_____ False_____ Genetic testing for cancer susceptibility in children is only appropriate if it will alter current medical management. (1 point) 18. True_____ False_____ Hereditary risk for breast and ovarian cancer is only inherited through the maternal side of the family. (1 point) Matching: (1 point each/5 points total) Cancer genetic syndromes often are associated with risk for more than one type of cancer. Thus, more than one cancer syndrome may need to be considered in the differential diagnosis in an individual/family. Match the cancer genetic syndrome (or genes) with the associated cancers or features: Cancer Genetic Syndrome [or genes] Associated Cancers or Features 19. _____ Familial Adenomatous Polyposis a. Parathyroid, Pituitary, Pancreatic 20. _____ Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 1 b. Breast, Ovarian, Prostate 21. _____ Von Hippel-Lindau c. Colon Polyps, Colon Cancer, CHRPEs 22. _____ BRCA1 and BRCA2 d. Breast, Thyroid, Endometrial 23. _____ Cowden syndrome Cancer, Pheochromocytomas, hemangioblastomas e. Renal ONCOLOGY FOR SCIENTISTS RPN 532 EXAM 2 Dr. Mhawech-Fauceglia NAME:___________________________ 13 POINTS 24. DATE: March 25th, 2010 Which of the following disciplines are not handled by the clinical pathology lab? (1 point) a. b. c. d. e. 25. microbiology hematology cytology a and b all of the above The Gleason grading system is used for which type of cancer? (1 point) a. b. c. d. 26. endometrial cancer prostate cancer lung cancer breast cancer All these are characteristic cytologic features for malignancy except: (1 point) a. b. c. d. e. 27. nuclear contour necrosis prominent nucleoli inflammation b and d Which of the following are not considered ancillary tools? (1 point) a. b. c. d. e. hematoxylin-eosin stain. immunohistochemistry cytogenetics flow cytometry both a and b 28. What is the purpose of immunohistochemistry? (1 point) a. b. c. d. e. 29. defining the cell lineage grading the tumor prognostic factors all of the above a and b What immunohistochemistry antibody do sarcomas never express? (1 point) a. b. c. d. 30. vimentin cytokeratin both of the above none of the above A surgical pathology report should include all except: (1 point) a. b. c. d. e. f. tumor size tumor stage tumor grade resection margins all of the above b, c and c only Match the corresponding (1 point each/ 3 points total) Type Tissue of Origin 31. 32. 33. __________ fibrosarcoma __________ adenocarcinoma __________ acute lymphocytic leukemia 34. True_____ 35. What is true about CK7 and CK20 immunohistochemistry? (1 point) a. b. c. d. False_____ a. mesenchymal tumors b. hematopoetic neoplasms c. epithelial tumors The definition of atypia always means cancer. (2 points) they are useful as a panel to define the origin of cancer Are rarely used in surgical pathology Are used as prognostic factors All of the above ONCOLOGY FOR SCIENTISTS RPN 532 EXAM 2 Dr. Lee NAME:___________________________ 12 POINTS 36. DATE: March 25th, 2010 For many years, human clinical trials using vaccines against established cancers have been called “unsuccessful” because they didn’t shrink the tumor (i.e. there were no responses). All of a sudden, they are being called “successful” (for example, vaccines against prostate cancer) – but they still don’t shrink tumors. Why are they now being regarded as successful? Explain the underlying biology for this newfound success. (6 points) 37. What are the essential components of an effective cancer vaccine? If it were the perfect vaccine, how would it fulfill the 4 potential advantages of vaccine based therapy over traditional cancer therapies (e.g. chemotherapy, radiation therapy)? (6 points) ONCOLOGY FOR SCIENTISTS RPN 532 EXAM 2 Dr. Brecher NAME:___________________________ 12 POINTS 38. DATE: March 25th, 2010 The number of new pediatric cancer cases in the U.S. each year is approximately: (1 point) a. b. c. d. 39. 5,000 12,000 25,000 50,000 Approximately what percentage of childhood deaths in this country is a result of cancer? (1 point) a. b. c. d. 40. 1% 5% 10% 25% Wilms tumor arises from the: (1 point) a. b. c. d. 41. Brain Liver Kidney Adrenal Gland Sarcomas generally arise at the: (1 point) a. b. c. d. Epithelium Endothelium Meseschyme All germ layers 42. True_____ False_____ Hyperdiploidy often confers a favorable prognosis in childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia: (1 point) 43. Burkitts Lymphoma arises from: (1 point) a. b. c. d. B lymphocyte T lymphocyte Natural killer cells Dendritic cells 44. True_____ point) 45. The peak age for neuroblastoma is: (1 point) a. b. c. d. 46. 0 – 5 years 5 – 10 years 10 – 15 years 15 – 20 years The t (11:22) is often found in: (1 point) a. b. c. d. 47. Acute myeloid leukemia Rhabdomyosarcoma Osteogenic sarcoma Ewings sarcoma Bleomycin may cause damage to the: (1 point) a. b. c. d. 48. Heart Lungs Liver Kidneys Auer Rods are seen in: (1 point) a. b. c. d. 49. False_____ Brain tumors in children frequently present with seizures. (1 Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia Acute Myeloid Leukemia Lymphoblastic Lymphoma Burkitts Lymphoma True_____ False_____ Acute Myeloid Leukemia accounts for almost 80% of childhood leukemias. (1 point) ONCOLOGY FOR SCIENTISTS RPN 532 EXAM 2 Dr. Jayaprakash NAME:___________________________ 12 POINTS DATE: March 25th, 2010 The worldwide overall five-year relative survival rate from Oral Cancer is about: (1 point) a. b. c. d. 50% 20% 10% 79% The most common histological type of Head and Neck Cancer is: (1 point) a. b. c. d. Adenocarcinoma Salivary gland carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma Lymphoepithelial carcinoma The virus that is considered a risk factor for nasopharyngeal carcinoma is: (1 point) ** in paper 3 very brief, but in stolers lectures a. b. c. d. Human Papilloma Virus Merkel cell polyomavirus Human T-lymphotropic virus Epstein-Barr virus Which of the following lesions is NOT an oral premalignant lesion? (1 point) a. b. c. d. Leukoplakia Lichen planus Hyperkeratosis Erythroplakia Which one of the following characteristics does NOT predict a greater risk of progression of leukoplakias? (1 point) a. b. c. d. If it is located in the floor of the mouth Presence of nodular or red areas Presence of epithelial dysplasia Remains longer than 5 years In the TNM classification system, what do T, N, and M stand for? (3 points) The most common site of metastasis of Head and Neck Cancers is: (1 point) a. b. c. d. Liver Brain Lung Kidney Most common site of oral cancer that accounts for 12% of all Head and Neck Carcinomas is: (1 point) a. b. c. d. Buccal mucosa Maxillary gingiva Lip Hard palate The HPV strain commonly associated with oropharyngeal cancer is: (1 point) a. b. c. d. HPV 5 HPV 16 HPV 27 HPV 1 Surgery, Radiotherapy and Chemotherapy (or a combination of these) are the available treatment modalities for Head and Neck cancers. Factor(s) that influence the choice of treatment modality for Head and Neck Cancers: (1 point) a. b. c. d. e. Site of the cancer Stage of the cancer General medical condition of the patient All of the above b&c Possible questions to add in: True_____ False_____ The US has the highest rates of HNSCC worldwide. (1 point) True_____ False_____ The combined use of both alcohol and tobacco causes an increased risk of Head & Neck cancer above that of either agent alone. (1 point) True_____ False_____ The intensity and duration of tobacco use, but not alcohol use, increases risk of head and neck cancer . (1 point) True_____ point) False_____ The majority of people who smoke will not go on to develop (1 ((*question about alcohol and tobacco use…(prominent theme throughout papers) possibly a short answer - risk is related to both intensity and duration (for both) -combined use increases the risk above that of either exposure alone -If you smoke you WILL get H&N cancer (false, only a minority does) * oral health (paper 1…poor oral health is associated with the risk of H&N cancer) * incidence question, T/F it is #1 in incidence in US (F!) )) ONCOLOGY FOR SCIENTISTS RPN 532 EXAM 2 Dr. Underwood NAME:___________________________ 12 POINTS DATE: March 25th, 2010