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Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________
ID: A
honors review part 1
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
____
1. How many moles of tungsten atoms are in 4.8  10 25 atoms of tungsten?
a.
8.0  10 2 moles
c.
1.3  10 1 moles
b.
8.0  10 1 moles
d.
1.3  10 2 moles
2. How many moles of silver atoms are in 1.8  10 20 atoms of silver?
3.0  10 4
c.
3.0  10 2
d.
1.1  10 44
____
b. 3.3  10 3
3. What is the molar mass of (NH 4 ) 2 CO 3 ?
c.
d.
96 g
78 g
____
a. 144 g
b. 138 g
4. What is the mass of silver in 3.4 g AgNO 3 ?
a.
____
____
a. 0.025 g
c. 2.2 g
b. 0.64 g
d. 3.0 g
5. Which combination of temperature and pressure correctly describes standard temperature and pressure, STP?
a. 0C and 101 kPa
c. 0C and 22.4 kPa
d. 100C and 100 kPa
b. 1C and 0 kPa
6. What is the volume, in liters, of 0.500 mol of C 3 H 8 gas at STP?
____
a. 0.0335 L
c. 16.8 L
b. 11.2 L
d. 22.4 L
7. What is the number of moles in 500 L of He gas at STP?
a. 0.05 mol
c. 22 mol
b. 0.2 mol
d. 90 mol
8. What is the percent composition of chromium in BaCrO 4 ?
____
a. 4.87%
c. 20.5%
b. 9.47%
d. 25.2%
9. What is the percent composition of carbon, in heptane, C 7 H 16 ?
____
a. 12%
c. 68%
b. 19%
d. 84%
____ 10. The lowest whole-number ratio of the elements in a compound is called the ____.
a. empirical formula
c. binary formula
b. molecular formula
d. representative formula
____ 11. Which of the following is NOT an empirical formula?
a. C 2 N 2 H 8
c. BeCr 2 O 7
b.
C3 H8 O
d.
1
Sb 2 S 3
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 12. The equation below shows the decomposition of lead nitrate. How many grams of oxygen are produced when
11.5 g NO 2 is formed?
2Pb(NO 3 ) 2 (s)  2PbO(s)  4NO 2 (g)  O 2 (g)
a. 1.00 g
c. 2.88 g
b. 2.00 g
d. 32.0 g
____ 13. Iron(III) oxide is formed when iron combines with oxygen in the air. How many grams of Fe 2 O 3 are formed
when 16.7 g of Fe reacts completely with oxygen?
4Fe(s)  3O 2 (g)  2Fe 2 O 3 (s)
a. 12.0 g
c. 47.8 g
b. 23.9 g
d. 95.6 g
____ 14. Identify the limiting reagent and the volume of CO 2 formed when 11 L CS 2 reacts with 18 L O 2 to produce
CO 2 gas and SO 2 gas at STP.
CS 2 (g) + 3O 2 (g)  CO 2 (g) + 2SO 2 (g)
a.
CS 2 ; 5.5 L CO 2
c.
CS 2 ; 11 L CO 2
b.
O 2 ; 6.0 L CO 2
d.
O 2 ; 27 L CO 2
____ 15. What is the maximum number of grams of PH 3 that can be formed when 6.2 g of phosphorus reacts with 4.0 g
of hydrogen to form PH 3 ?
P 4 (g) + 6H 2 (g)  4PH 3 (g)
____ 16.
____ 17.
____ 18.
____ 19.
____ 20.
____ 21.
____ 22.
____ 23.
a. 0.43 g
c. 270 g
b. 6.8 g
d. 45 g
The closeness of a measurement to its true value is a measure of its ____.
a. precision
c. reproducibility
b. accuracy
d. usefulness
Which of the following measurements (of different masses) is the most accurate?
a. 3.1000 g
c. 3.12222 g
b. 3.10000 g
d. 3.000000 g
What is the temperature of absolute zero measured in C?
a. –373C
c. –173C
d. –73C
b. –273C
Which temperature scale has no negative temperatures?
a. Celsius
c. Joule
b. Fahrenheit
d. Kelvin
Chlorine boils at 239 K. What is the boiling point of chlorine expressed in degrees Celsius?
a. 93C
c. –61C
b. 34C
d. –34C
The particles that are found in the nucleus of an atom are ____.
a. neutrons and electrons
c. protons and neutrons
b. electrons only
d. protons and electrons
The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom equals the ____.
a. atomic number
c. atomic mass
b. nucleus number
d. mass number
What does the number 84 in the name krypton-84 represent?
a. the atomic number
c. the sum of the protons and electrons
b. the mass number
d. twice the number of protons
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 24. All atoms of the same element have the same ____.
a. number of neutrons
c.
b. number of protons
d.
____ 25. Isotopes of the same element have different ____.
a. numbers of neutrons
c.
b. numbers of protons
d.
mass numbers
mass
numbers of electrons
atomic numbers
____ 26. Using the periodic table, determine the number of neutrons in 16 O.
a. 4
c. 16
b. 8
d. 24
____ 27. How many protons, electrons, and neutrons does an atom with atomic number 50 and mass number 125
contain?
a. 50 protons, 50 electrons, 75 neutrons
c. 120 neutrons, 50 protons, 75 electrons
b. 75 electrons, 50 protons, 50 neutrons
d. 70 neutrons, 75 protons, 50 electrons
____ 28. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Atoms of the same element can have different masses.
b. Atoms of isotopes of an element have different numbers of protons.
c. The nucleus of an atom has a positive charge.
d. Atoms are mostly empty space.
____ 29. In which of the following is the number of neutrons correctly represented?
a. 199 F has 0 neutrons.
c. 24
Mg has 24 neutrons.
12
b.
75
33
As has 108 neutrons.
d.
238
92
U has 146 neutrons.
____ 30. When an electron moves from a lower to a higher energy level, the electron ____.
a. always doubles its energy
b. absorbs a continuously variable amount of energy
c. absorbs a quantum of energy
d. moves closer to the nucleus
____ 31. What is the electron configuration of potassium?
a. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 2 3s 2 3p 2 4s 1
c. 1s 2 2s 2 3s 2 3p 6 3d 1
2
2
10
2
3
b. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
d. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 1
____ 32. Which color of visible light has the shortest wavelength?
a. yellow
c. blue
b. green
d. violet
____ 33. Which of the following electromagnetic waves have the highest frequencies?
a. ultraviolet light waves
c. microwaves
b. X-rays
d. gamma rays
____ 34. Emission of light from an atom occurs when an electron ____.
a. drops from a higher to a lower energy level
b. jumps from a lower to a higher energy level
c. moves within its atomic orbital
d. falls into the nucleus
____ 35. What particle is emitted in alpha radiation?
a. electron
c. helium nucleus
b. photon
d. hydrogen nucleus
____ 36. What is the change in the atomic number when an atom emits an alpha particle?
a. decreases by 2
c. increases by 1
b. decreases by 1
d. increases by 2
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 37. Which of the following materials is necessary to stop an alpha particle?
a. three feet of concrete
c. single sheet of aluminum foil
b. three inches of lead
d. single sheet of paper
____ 38. Which of the following materials is necessary to stop a beta particle?
a. three feet of concrete
c. thin pieces of wood
b. three inches of lead
d. single sheet of paper
____ 39. Which of the following materials is most effective for stopping gamma radiation?
a. several cm of lead
c. single sheet of aluminum foil
b. one cm of water
d. single sheet of paper
____ 40. What particle is needed to complete this nuclear reaction?
222
Rn  218
Po + _____
86
84
a.
b.
4
2
0
1
He
c.
e
d.
1
1
1
0
H
n
____ 41. The modern periodic table is arranged in order of increasing atomic ____.
a. mass
c. number
b. charge
d. radius
____ 42. Who arranged the elements according to atomic mass and used the arrangement to predict the properties of
missing elements?
a. Henry Moseley
c. John Dalton
b. Antoine Lavoisier
d. Dmitri Mendeleev
____ 43. What element has the electron configuration 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 2 ?
a. nitrogen
c. silicon
b. selenium
d. silver
____ 44. What is the element with the lowest electronegativity value?
a. cesium
c. calcium
b. helium
d. fluorine
____ 45. What is the element with the highest electronegativity value?
a. cesium
c. calcium
b. helium
d. fluorine
____ 46. Compared with the electronegativities of the elements on the left side of a period, the electronegativities of the
elements on the right side of the same period tend to be ____.
a. lower
c. the same
b. higher
d. unpredictable
____ 47. How many valence electrons are in an atom of phosphorus?
a. 2
c. 4
b. 3
d. 5
____ 48. How many valence electrons are in an atom of magnesium?
a. 2
c. 4
b. 3
d. 5
____ 49. What is the electron configuration of the calcium ion?
a.
1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6
b. 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 4 4s 2
____ 50. What is the charge on the strontium ion?
a. 2–
b. 1–
c.
1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 5 4s 1
d.
1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2
c.
d.
1
2
4
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 51. What is the formula of the ion formed when potassium achieves noble-gas electron configuration?
a.
K2 
c.
K1 
b. K 
d. K 2 
____ 52. How does oxygen obey the octet rule when reacting to form compounds?
a. It gains electrons.
b. It gives up electrons.
c. It does not change its number of electrons.
d. Oxygen does not obey the octet rule.
____ 53. What is the formula for sodium sulfate?
a. NaSO 4
c. Na(SO 4 ) 2
b.
Na 2 SO 4
d.
Na 2 (SO 4 ) 2
____ 54. Which of the following compounds has the formula KNO 3 ?
____ 55.
____ 56.
____ 57.
____ 58.
____ 59.
____ 60.
____ 61.
a. potassium nitrate
c. potassium nitrite
b. potassium nitride
d. potassium nitrogen oxide
Which of the following pairs of elements is most likely to form an ionic compound?
a. magnesium and fluorine
b. nitrogen and sulfur
c. oxygen and chlorine
d. sodium and aluminum
Which of these elements does not exist as a diatomic molecule?
a. Ne
c. H
b. F
d. I
Why do atoms share electrons in covalent bonds?
a. to become ions and attract each other
b. to attain a noble-gas electron configuration
c. to become more polar
d. to increase their atomic numbers
Which of the following elements can form diatomic molecules held together by triple covalent bonds?
a. carbon
c. fluorine
b. oxygen
d. nitrogen
Which elements can form diatomic molecules joined by a single covalent bond?
a. hydrogen only
b. halogens only
c. halogens and members of the oxygen group only
d. hydrogen and the halogens only
According to VSEPR theory, molecules adjust their shapes to keep which of the following as far apart as
possible?
a. pairs of valence electrons
c. mobile electrons
b. inner shell electrons
d. the electrons closest to the nuclei
The shape of the methane molecule is called ____.
a. tetrahedral
c. four-cornered
b. square
d. planar
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Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 62. What causes water molecules to have a bent shape, according to VSEPR theory?
a. repulsive forces between unshared pairs of electrons
b. interaction between the fixed orbitals of the unshared pairs of oxygen
c. ionic attraction and repulsion
d. the unusual location of the free electrons
____ 63. A bond formed between a silicon atom and an oxygen atom is likely to be ____.
a. ionic
c. polar covalent
b. coordinate covalent
d. nonpolar covalent
____ 64. Which of the following covalent bonds is the most polar?
a. H—F
c. H—H
b. H—C
d. H—N
____ 65. When placed between oppositely charged metal plates, the region of a water molecule attracted to the negative
plate is the ____.
a. hydrogen region of the molecule
c. H—O—H plane of the molecule
b. geometric center of the molecule
d. oxygen region of the molecule
____ 66. What is thought to cause the dispersion forces?
a. attraction between ions
c. sharing of electron pairs
b. motion of electrons
d. differences in electronegativity
____ 67. Which of the forces of molecular attraction is the weakest?
a. dipole interaction
c. hydrogen bond
b. dispersion
d. single covalent bond
____ 68. What is the correct name for the N 3  ion?
a. nitrate ion
c. nitride ion
b. nitrogen ion
d. nitrite ion
____ 69. Which of the following formulas represents an ionic compound?
a. CS 2
c. N 2 O 4
b.
BaI 2
d.
PCl 3
____ 70. Which element, when combined with fluorine, would most likely form an ionic compound?
a. lithium
c. phosphorus
b. carbon
d. chlorine
____ 71. Which of the following formulas represents a molecular compound?
a. ZnO
c. SO 2
b.
Xe
d.
BeF 2
____ 72. Which of the following shows both the correct formula and correct name of an acid?
a. HClO 2 , chloric acid
c. H 3 PO 4 , phosphoric acid
b.
HNO 2 , hydronitrous acid
____ 73. What is the formula for phosphoric acid?
a. H 2 PO 3
b.
H 3 PO 4
d.
HI, iodic acid
c.
HPO 2
d.
HPO 4
____ 74. Select the correct formula for sulfur hexafluoride.
a. S 2 F 6
c.
b.
F 6 SO 3
d.
6
F6 S2
SF 6
Name: ________________________
ID: A
____ 75. Which of the following is the correct name for N 2 O 5 ?
a. nitrous oxide
c. nitrogen dioxide
b. dinitrogen pentoxide
d. nitrate oxide
____ 76. In the chemical equation H 2 O 2 (aq)  H 2 O(l)  O 2 (g), the O 2 is a ____.
a. catalyst
c. product
b. solid
d. reactant
____ 77. This symbol (
) indicates that ____.
a. heat must be applied
b. an incomplete combustion reaction has occurred
c. a gas is formed by the reaction
d. the reaction is reversible
____ 78. What are the coefficients that will balance the skeleton equation below?
AlCl 3 + NaOH  Al(OH) 3  NaCl
a. 1, 3, 1, 3
c. 1, 1, 1, 3
b. 3, 1, 3, 1
d. 1, 3, 3, 1
____ 79. What are the coefficients that will balance the skeleton equation below?
N 2 + H 2  NH 3
a. 1, 1, 2
c. 3, 1, 2
b. 1, 3, 3
d. 1, 3, 2
____ 80. When the equation Fe  Cl 2  FeCl 3 is balanced, what is the coefficient for Cl 2 ?
a. 1
c. 3
b. 2
d. 4
____ 81. Chemical equations must be balanced to satisfy ____.
a. the law of definite proportions
c. the law of conservation of mass
b. the law of multiple proportions
d. Avogadro’s principle
____ 82. In every balanced chemical equation, each side of the equation has the same number of ____.
a. atoms of each element
c. moles
b. molecules
d. coefficients
____ 83. What are the missing coefficients for the skeleton equation below?
Cr(s)  Fe(NO 3 ) 2 (aq)  Fe(s)  Cr(NO 3 ) 3 (aq)
a. 4, 6, 6, 2
c. 2, 3, 3, 2
b. 2, 3, 2, 3
d. 1, 3, 3, 1
____ 84. In a combustion reaction, one of the reactants is ____.
a. hydrogen
c. oxygen
b. nitrogen
d. a metal
____ 85. The reaction 2Fe  3Cl 2  2FeCl 3 is an example of which type of reaction?
a. combustion reaction
c. combination reaction
b. single-replacement reaction
d. decomposition reaction
____ 86. The equation Mg(s)  2HCl(aq)  MgCl 2 (aq)  H 2 g is an example of which type of reaction?
a. combination reaction
c. decomposition reaction
b. single-replacement reaction
d. double-replacement reaction
____ 87. The equation H 3 PO 4  3KOH  K 3 PO 3  3H 2 O is an example of which type of reaction?
a.
b.
double-replacement reaction
combination reaction
c.
d.
7
decomposition reaction
single-replacement reaction
Name: ________________________
ID: A
short answer
88. Chlorine has two naturally occurring isotopes, Cl-35 and Cl-37. The atomic mass of chlorine is 35.45. Which of
these two isotopes of chlorine is more abundant?
89. Consider an element Z that has two naturally occurring isotopes with the following percent abundances: the
isotope with a mass number of 19.0 is 55.0% abundant; the isotope with a mass number of 21.0 is 45.0%
abundant. What is the average atomic mass for element Z?
90. Give the electron configuration for a neutral atom of chlorine.
91. If the half-life of sodium-24 is 15 hours, how much remains from a 10.0-g sample after 60 hours?
92. The decomposition of potassium chlorate yields oxygen gas. If 39 g of KClO 3 are used and 10.0 L of O2 are
produced, what is the % yield?
2KClO 3 (s)  2KCl(s) + 3O 2 (g)
93. Calculate the molecular formulas of the compounds having the following empirical formulas and molar masses:
C 2 H 5 , 58 g/mol; CH, 78 g/mol; and HgCl, 236.1 g/mol.
Numeric Response
94. How many unshared pairs of electrons does the nitrogen atom in ammonia possess? what is the shape of this
molecule
95. What is the bond angle in a water molecule and what is the name of the shape?
short answer (qualitative)
96. Explain the difference between precision and accuracy. Suppose you made three different mass measurements
of a sugar sample you knew to have a mass of 1 g. How would you know whether or not the measurements
were accurate? How would you know whether or not they were precise? Could the three measurements be
precise, but not accurate? Explain.
97. What is the % error if your measured/experimental value is 3.2 g and the true/accepted value is 3.0 g?
98. What is the explanation for the discrete lines in atomic emission spectra?
99. What are dispersion forces? How is the strength of dispersion forces related to the number of electrons in a
molecule? Give an example of molecules that are attracted to each other by dispersion forces.
100. Write the electron dot structures for the elements in the 2nd row of the periodic table.
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