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AP Biology Evolution Quiz
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. Darwin's mechanism of natural selection required long time spans in order to modify species. From
whom did Darwin get the concept of Earth's ancient age?
a. Georges Cuvier
b. Charles Lyell
c. Alfred Wallace
d. Thomas Malthus
e. John Henslow
____
2. As a young biologist, Charles Darwin had expected the living plants of temperate South America
would resemble those of temperate Europe, but he was surprised to find that they more closely
resembled the plants of tropical South America. The biological explanation for this observation is
most properly associated with the field of
a. meteorology.
b. embryology.
c. vertebrate anatomy.
d. bioengineering.
e. biogeography.
____
3. Charles Darwin was the first person to propose
a. that evolution occurs.
b. a mechanism for how evolution occurs.
c. that the Earth is older than a few thousand years.
d. a mechanism for evolution that was supported by evidence.
e. a way to use artificial selection as a means of domesticating plants and animals.
____
4. In Darwin's thinking, the more closely related two different organisms are, the
a. more similar their habitats are.
b. less similar their DNA sequences are.
c. more recently they shared a common ancestor.
d. less likely they are to have the same genes in common.
e. more similar they are in size.
____
5. Natural selection is based on all of the following except
a. genetic variation exists within populations.
b. the best-adapted individuals tend to leave the most offspring.
c. individuals who survive longer tend to leave more offspring than those who die
young.
d. populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support.
e. individuals adapt to their environments and, thereby, evolve.
____
6. A biologist studied a population of squirrels for 15 years. During that time, the population was never
fewer than 30 squirrels and never more than 45. Her data showed that over half of the squirrels born
did not survive to reproduce, because of competition for food and predation. In a single generation,
90% of the squirrels that were born lived to reproduce, and the population increased to 80. Which
inference(s) about this population might be true?
a. The amount of available food may have increased.
b. The number of predators may have decreased.
c. The squirrels of subsequent generations should show greater levels of genetic
variation than previous generations, because squirrels that would not have survived
in the past will now survive.
d. A and B only
e. A, B, and C
____
7. To observe natural selection's effects on a population, which of these must be true?
a. One must observe more than one generation of the population.
b. The population must contain genetic variation.
c. Members of the population must increase or decrease the use of some portion of
their anatomy.
d. A and C only
e. A and B only
____
8. During drought years on the Galapagos, small, easily eaten seeds become rare, leaving mostly large,
hard-cased seeds that only birds with large beaks can eat. If a drought persists for several years, what
should one expect to result from natural selection?
a. Small birds gaining larger beaks by exercising their mouth parts.
b. Small birds mutating their beak genes with the result that later-generation offspring
have larger beaks.
c. Small birds anticipating the long drought and eating more to gain weight and,
consequently, growing larger beaks.
d. More small-beaked birds dying than larger-beaked birds. The offspring produced
in subsequent generations have a higher percentage of birds with large beaks.
e. Larger birds eating less so smaller birds can survive.
____
9. Which of the following must exist in a population before natural selection can act upon that
population?
a. Genetic variation among individuals
b. Variation among individuals caused by environmental factors
c. Sexual reproduction
d. B and C only
e. A, B, and C
___
10. In a hypothetical environment, fishes called pike-cichlids are visual predators of algae-eating fish
(i.e., they locate their prey by sight). If a population of algae-eaters experiences predation pressure
from pike-cichlids, which of the following should least likely be observed in the algae-eater
population over the course of many generations?
a. Selection for drab coloration of the algae-eaters
b. Selection for nocturnal algae-eaters (active only at night)
c. Selection for larger female algae-eaters, bearing broods composed of more, and
larger, young
d. Selection for algae-eaters that become sexually mature at smaller overall body
sizes
e. Selection for algae-eaters that are faster swimmers
____ 11. Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bird?
a. Dorsal fin of a shark
b. Hindlimb of a kangaroo
c. Wing of a butterfly
d. Tail fin of a flying fish
e. Flipper of a cetacean (whale)
____ 12. If two modern organisms are distantly related in an evolutionary sense, then one should expect that
a. they live in very different habitats.
b. they should share fewer homologous structures than two more closely related
organisms.
c. their chromosomes should be very similar.
d. they shared a common ancestor relatively recently.
e. they should be members of the same genus.
____ 13. Over evolutionary time, many cave-dwelling organisms have lost their eyes. Tapeworms have lost
their digestive systems. Whales have lost their hind limbs. How can natural selection account for
these losses?
a. Natural selection cannot account for losses, only for innovations.
b. Natural selection accounts for these losses by the principle of use and disuse.
c. Under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, each of these
structures presented greater costs than benefits.
d. The ancestors of these organisms experienced harmful mutations that forced them
to find new habitats that these species had not previously used.
____ 14. Monkeys of South and Central America have prehensile tails, meaning that their tails can be used to
grasp objects. The tails of African and Asian monkeys are not prehensile. Which discipline is most
likely to provide an evolutionary explanation for how this difference in tails came about?
a. Aerodynamics
b. Biogeography
c. Physiology
d. Biochemistry
e. Botany
____ 15. The theory of evolution is most accurately described as
a. an educated guess about how species originate.
b. one possible explanation, among several scientific alternatives, about how species
have come into existence.
c. an opinion that some scientists hold about how living things change over time.
d. an overarching explanation, supported by much evidence, for how populations
change over time.
e. an idea about how acquired characteristics are passed on to subsequent
generations.
____ 16. Which of the following is not an observation or inference on which natural selection is based?
a. There is heritable variation among individuals.
b. Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring.
c. Species produce more offspring than the environment can support.
d. Individuals whose characteristics are best suited to the environment generally
leave more offspring than those whose characteristics are less suited.
e. Only a fraction of the offspring produced by an individual may survive.
____ 17. Which of the following pairs of structures is least likely to represent homology?
a. The wings of a bat and the arms of a human
b. The hemoglobin of a baboon and that of a gorilla
c. The mitochondria of a plant and those of an animal
d. The wings of a bird and those of an insect
e. The brain of a cat and that of a dog
____ 18. Which definition of evolution would have been most foreign to Charles Darwin during his lifetime?
a. change in gene frequency in gene pools
b. descent with modification
c. the gradual change of a population's heritable traits over generations
d. populations becoming better adapted to their environments over the course of
generations
e. the appearance of new varieties and new species with the passage of time
____ 19. Each of the following has a better chance of influencing gene frequencies in small populations than
in large populations, but which one most consistently requires a small population as a precondition
for its occurrence?
a. Mutation
b. Non-random mating
c. Genetic drift
d. Natural selection
e. Gene flow
____ 20. In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, that are in equilibrium, the frequency of
the allele a is 0.4. What is the percentage of the population that is homozygous recessive?
a. 4
b. 16
c. 32
d. 36
e. 40
____ 21. You sample a population of butterflies and find that 42% are heterozygous at a particular locus.
What should be the frequency of the recessive allele in this population?
a. 0.09
b. 0.30
c. 0.49
d. 0.70
e. Allele frequency cannot be determined from this information.
The following questions refer to this information:
In the year 2500, five male space colonists and five female space colonists (all unrelated to each
other) settle on an uninhabited Earthlike planet in the Andromeda galaxy. The colonists and their
offspring randomly mate for generations. All ten of the original colonists had free earlobes, and two
were heterozygous for that trait. The allele for free earlobes is dominant to the allele for attached
earlobes.
____ 22. If four of the original colonists died before they produced offspring, the ratios of genotypes could be
quite different in the subsequent generations. This would be an example of
a. diploidy.
b. gene flow.
c. genetic drift.
d. disruptive selection.
e. stabilizing selection.
The following questions refer to this information:
You are studying three populations of birds. Population A has ten birds, of which one is brown (a
recessive trait) and nine are red. Population B has 100 birds, of which ten are brown. Population C
has 30 birds, and three of them are brown.
____ 23. In which population is the frequency of the allele for brown feathers highest?
a. Population A.
b. Population B.
c. Population C.
d. They are all the same.
e. It is impossible to tell from the information given.
____ 24. In which population would it be least likely that an accident would significantly alter the frequency
of the brown allele?
a. Population A.
b. Population B.
c. Population C.
d. They are all the same.
e. It is impossible to tell from the information given.
____ 25. Which population is most likely to be subject to the bottleneck effect?
a. Population A.
b. Population B.
c. Population C.
d. They are all the same.
e. It is impossible to tell from the information given.
____ 26. If the frequency of a particular allele that is present in a small, isolated population of alpine plants
decreases due to a landslide that leaves an even smaller remnant of surviving plants bearing this
allele, then what has occurred?
a. a bottleneck
b. genetic drift
c. microevolution
d. A and B only
e. A, B, and C
____ 27. Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of
human evolution by increasing
a. non-random mating.
b. geographic isolation.
c. genetic drift.
d. mutations.
e. gene flow.
____ 28. A certain species of land snail exists as either a cream color or a solid brown color. Intermediate
individuals are relatively rare. Which of the following terms best describes this?
a. artificial selection
b. directional selection
c. stabilizing selection
d. disruptive selection
e. sexual selection
____ 29. Cattle breeders have improved the quality of meat over the years by which process?
a. artificial selection
b. directional selection
c. stabilizing selection
d. A and B
e. A and C
____ 30. The recessive allele that causes phenylketonuria (PKU) is harmful, except when an infant's diet lacks
the amino acid, phenylalanine. What maintains the presence of this harmful allele in a population's
gene pool?
a. heterozygote advantage
b. stabilizing selection
c. Diploidy
d. balancing selection
____ 31. Mules are relatively long-lived and hardy organisms that cannot, generally speaking, perform
successful meiosis. Consequently, which statement about mules is true?
a. They have a relative evolutionary fitness of zero.
b. Their offspring have less genetic variation than the parents.
c. Mutations cannot occur in their genomes.
d. If crossing-over happens in mules, then it must be limited to prophase of mitosis.
e. When two mules interbreed, genetic recombination cannot occur by meiotic
crossing over, but only by the act of fertilization.
____ 32. Heterozygote advantage should be most closely linked to which of the following?
a. sexual selection
b. stabilizing selection
c. random selection
d. directional selection
e. disruptive selection
____ 33. In seedcracker finches from Cameroon, small- and large-billed birds specialize in cracking soft and
hard seeds, respectively. If long-term climatic change resulted in all seeds becoming hard, what type
of selection would then operate on the finch population?
a. disruptive selection
b. directional selection
c. stabilizing selection
d. sexual selection
e. No selection would operate because the population is in Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium.
____ 34. Male satin bowerbirds adorn structures that they build, called "bowers," with parrot feathers,
flowers, and other bizarre ornaments in order to attract females. Females inspect the bowers and, if
suitably impressed, allow males to mate with them. The evolution of this male behavior is due to
a. frequency-dependent selection.
b. artificial selection.
c. sexual selection.
d. natural selection.
e. disruptive selection.
The questions below are based on the following description.
Several closely related frog species of the genus Rana are found in the forests of the southeastern
United States. The species boundaries are maintained by reproductive barriers. In each case, match
the various descriptions of frogs below with the appropriate reproductive barrier listed.
Identify the isolation mechanism present:
____ 35. Males of one species sing only when its predators are absent; males of another species sing only
when its predators are present.
a. behavioral
b. gametic
c. habitat
d. temporal
e. mechanical
____ 36. One species lives only in tree holes; another species lives only in streams.
a. behavioral
b. gametic
c. habitat
d. temporal
e. mechanical
____ 37. Females of one species choose mates based on song quality; females of another species choose
mates on the basis of size.
a. behavioral
b. gametic
c. habitat
d. temporal
e. mechanical
____ 38. One species mates at the season when daylight is increasing from 13 hours to 13 hours, 15 minutes;
another species mates at the season when daylight is increasing from 14 hours to 14 hours, 15
minutes.
a. behavioral
b. gametic
c. habitat
d. temporal
e. mechanical
____ 39. Males of one species are too small to perform amplexus (an action that stimulates ovulation) with
females of all other species.
a. behavioral
b. gametic
c. habitat
d. temporal
e. mechanical
____ 40. Two species of frogs belonging to the same genus occasionally mate, but the offspring fail to
develop and hatch. What is the mechanism for keeping the two frog species separate?
a. the postzygotic barrier called hybrid inviability
b. the postzygotic barrier called hybrid breakdown
c. the prezygotic barrier called hybrid sterility
d. gametic isolation
e. adaptation
____ 41. A defining characteristic of allopatric speciation is
a. the appearance of new species in the midst of old ones.
b. asexually reproducing populations.
c. geographic isolation.
d. artificial selection.
e. large populations.
42. The explanation least consistent with evolutionary theory regarding why humans lack a tail is
a. Humans didn’t need a tail.
b. Primate ancestors without tails were more fit than those with tails.
c. In the population of the common ancestor of apes and humans, those that had shorter or no tails
left behind more offspring than those with full-sized tails.
d. Tails were a disadvantage to our ancestors
e. The lack of a tail was an advantage to our ancestors.
43. The functional similarity between the wings of a bird and the wings of an insect is an example of
a. Convergent evolution
b. Divergent evolution
c. Homology
d. Adaptive radiation
e. Common ancestry
44. The structural similarities between a whale flipper and a bat wing are an example of
a. Analogy
b. Homology
c. Adaptive radiation
d. Stabilizing selection
e. Ecological succession
45. In a population of field mice, two coat colors, white and dark brown, predominated. Over the course of
several decades, the majority of mice had the light brown coats. What types of selection occurred in this
population?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Directional
Stabilizing
Diversifying (disruptive)
Sexual
No selection occurred
46. The best evidence that chimpanzees are more closely related to humans than baboons involves:
a. Comparative embryology
b. Comparative anatomy
c. Similar cell structures
d. Behavioral similarities
e. DNA sequence comparisons
47. Which of the following can have a large effect on allele frequencies in a population?
i. Natural selection
ii. Sexual Selection
iii. Artificial Selection
iv. Genetic Drift
A.) I only
B.) II only
C.) I, II, III only
D.) I, II, IV only
E.) I, II, III and IV
48. Which of the following is the most characteristic of a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a. Genetic drift accounts for most changes in allele frequencies.
b. Mutations alone produce new alleles
c. Mating is random
d. Gene flow introduces new alleles into the population
e. Microevolution (change in allele frequencies) occurs over time (after several
generations
49. Which of the following best illustrates the difference between the way Darwin and Lamarck thought
evolution progressed?
a. Darwin thought that mutations provided genetic variation, while Lamarck thought adaptations were
acquired throughout life.
b. Darwin thought individuals evolved, while Lamarck thought populations evolved.
c. Lamarck thought that individuals evolved, while Darwin thought organisms could pass on acquired
characteristics.
d. Darwin proposed descent with modification, while Lamarck proposed inheritance of acquired
characteristics.
e. Both Darwin and Lamarck knew species change over time, but Lamarck thought it happened at a
faster rate.
50. Which of the following is expected in a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a. Recessive traits will eventually disappear unless there is a heterozygous advantage.
b. Recessive alleles are always selected against.
c. Dominant alleles increase in frequency with each generation.
d. The allele frequencies remain unchanged, but the numbers of heterozygotes increases with time.
e. Allele and phenotype frequencies are maintained from generation to generation.
51. A biologist created a computer program designed to simulate a large population of insects. The program
specifies that no mutations occur, there is no natural selection or gene flow, and mating is random. After
several generations, the population in the program
a. Diverged into two or more new species.
b. Evolved, but may not yet have speciated.
c. Will decline due to lack of genetic variation
d. Will get larger and larger since there are no selective pressures.
e. Will remain unchanged, although the original members of the population have been
replaced by later generations.
52. In an experiment, lab mice have their tails cut off soon after birth for 10 generations, but all of the
offspring in the 11th generation are born with tails. Which of the following correctly explains this
observation?
a. Natural selection
b. Lamarckism
c. Offspring can inherit characteristics acquired by the parent in their lifetime, but
only if there is a selective pressure to maintain the trait.
d. Offspring usually have little or no resemblance to their parents
e. Only mutations in gametes and cells that produce gametes affect offspring.
53. Which of the following organisms would be considered the most fit?
a. A young bear with three baby cubs
b. A young female bear who has just reached sexual maturity
c. An old, male bear whose two offspring each have two offspring
d. A young, male bear with three offspring who has just killed an unrelated bear that posed a threat to
them.
e. An adolescent female bear who has three mature males competing to mate with her.
54. Evolutionary fitness is measured by
a. Reproductive potential
b. Physical fitness
c. Lifespan
d. Competition
e. Reproductive success
55.)
Which of the following organisms is most successful in evolutionary terms?
a. The one that has the largest territory
b. The one that has the greatest food supply
c. The one that has the most mates
d. The one that has the greatest biomass
e. That one that leaves behind the greatest number of offspring
56. In a population of raccoons, a small number of individuals had the dominant allele for black fur. A storm
killed a large percentage of the raccoons, including all 6 of the black ones. Which of the following terms
best describes this situation?
a. Speciation
b. Mutation
c. Gene flow
d. The founder effect
e. Genetic drift
57. Which of the following generates the formation of adaptations?
a. Genetic drift
b. Mutations
c. Gene flow
d. Sexual reproduction
e. Natural selection
58. The frequency of individuals better able to survive in a new habitat increases in a population over time. The best
explanation for this is
a. Mutation
b. Natural selection
c. Genetic drift
d. Gene flow
e. The founder effect
The following questions refer to Figure 22.1, which shows an outcrop of sedimentary rock whose
strata are labeled A-D.
Figure 22.1
59. Which stratum should contain the greatest proportion of extinct organisms?
60. If "x" indicates the location of fossils of two closely related species, then fossils of their most-recent
common ancestor are most likely to occur in which stratum?
AP Biology Evolution Quiz
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS:
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26. ANS:
B
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
E
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
C
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
D
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
C
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
E
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
E
PTS: 1
Synthesis/Evaluation
E
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
D
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
A
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
C
PTS: 1
Synthesis/Evaluation
E
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
B
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
C
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
B
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
D
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
B
PTS: 1
D
PTS: 1
A
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
C
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
B
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
E
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
C
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
D
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
B
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
A
PTS: 1
TOP: Concept 22.2
TOP: Concept 22.2
TOP: Concept 22.2
TOP: Concept 22.2
TOP: Concepts 22.1-22.2
TOP: Concept 22.2
TOP: Concept 22.2
TOP: Concepts 22.1-22.2
TOP: Concept 22.2
TOP: Concept 22.2
TOP: Concept 22.3
TOP: Concept 22.3
TOP: Concept 22.3
TOP: Concept 22.3
TOP: Concept 22.3
TOP: Concept 22.3
TOP: Self-Quiz Questions
TOP: Self-Quiz Questions
TOP: Concept 23.1
TOP: Concepts 23.1, 23.3
TOP: Concept 23.2
TOP: Concept 23.2
TOP: Concept 23.3
TOP: Concept 23.2
TOP: Concepts 23.2-23.3
TOP: Concepts 23.2-23.3
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Knowledge/Comprehension
E
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
E
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
D
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
D
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
C
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
A
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
B
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
B
PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
C
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
A
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
C
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
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PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
D
PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
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PTS: 1
Application/Analysis
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PTS: 1
Knowledge/Comprehension
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PTS: 1
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PTS: 1
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TOP: Concept 23.3
TOP: Concept 23.3
TOP: Concept 23.4
TOP: Concept 23.4
TOP: Concept 23.4
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TOP: Concept 23.4
TOP: Concept 23.4
TOP: Concept 23.4
TOP: Concept 24.1
TOP: Concept 24.1
TOP: Concept 24.1
TOP: Concept 24.1
TOP: Concept 24.1
TOP: Concept 24.1
TOP: Concept 24.2
TOP: Concept 24.2
SHORT ANSWER
44. ANS:
D
PTS: 1
45. ANS:
TOP: Concept 22.1
MSC: Knowledge/Comprehension
TOP: Concept 22.1
MSC: Application/Analysis
C
PTS: 1