Download Systemic Anatomy Exam V

Systemic Anatomy Exam V
Prepared especially for the Trimester One Class, Fall 2003
Please place the single best answer for each of the following questions unless the question is marked by the
letters, MACA, in which you should mark all correct answers. There will be no questions once the exam begins
as interpretation of the question is a part of the examination.
FORM A
1) Which of the following is innervated by neurons carrying GVE information?
a) skeletal muscle cell
b) glandular epithelium
c) both of the above
2) In which of the following locations would I find a postganglionic neuron cell body?
a) lateral horn of the spinal cord
b) brain stem
c) adrenal medulla
d) sacral segments S2,3,4
e) three of the above
3) According to the Bell Magendie law, GVE neurons emerge from the spinal cord in ______ roots of the spinal
nerve.
a) the dorsal
b) the ventral
c) both dorsal and ventral roots
4) Preganglionic sympathetic neuron fibers enter the sympathetic chain ganglia via the ________.
a) the white rami communicantes
b) the gray rami communicantes
c) both the white and gray rami communicantes
5) Gray rami communicantes are found connecting to ____.
a) T1 through L2 spinal nerves
b) C1 through T12 spinal nerves
c) all spinal nerves
d) only those spinal nerves below the diaphragm
e) sacral segments S2,3,4
6) What neurotransmitter(s) is released from postganglionic sympathetic neurons?
a) epinephrine
b) acetylcholine
c) norepinephrine
d) two of the above
7) What enzyme inactivates the neurotransmitter released from postganglionic sympathetic neurons?
a) MAO
b) COMT
c) acetylcholinesterase
d) two of the above
page 1, SA Exam V, Q. # 1-7
8) Which of the following are considered catecholamines?
a) dopamine
b) epinephrine
c) acetylcholine
d) norepinephrine
e) all but one of the above
9) Choose the CORRECT statement concerning epinephrine.
a) is a negative chronotropic agent
b) will cause mydriasis
c) will cause blood glucose levels to drop
d) will increase peristalsis
e) will cause bronchoconstriction
10) Which of the following tissues are innervated by cholinergic postganglionic axons?
a) smooth muscle of the eye
b) SA node
c) apocrine sweat glands
d) blood vessels in skeletal muscle resulting in dilation
e) all of the above
11) Which of the following neurons DO NOT release acetylcholine?
a) parasympathetic preganglionic neurons
b) parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
c) sympathetic preganglionic neurons
d) sympathetic postganglionic neurons innervating the heart
e) sympathetic postganglionic neurons innervating pilo erector muscles
12) Which of the following structures receive input from autonomic neurons arising from the brain stem?
a) smooth muscle of the esophagus
b) gastric glands
c) smooth muscles of the eye
d) the heart
e) all the above
13) Which of the following cranial nerves DO NOT transmit GVE fibers?
a) CN X
b) CN V
c) CN VII
d) CN III
e) CN IX
14) GVE sympathetic fibers are carried in the ventral rami of in which of the following spinal nerves?
a) T1 – L2
b) C2-C4
c) L3 – L5
d) S2, 3, 4
e) all of the above
page 2, SA Exam V, Q.# 8-14
15) Cranial nerve nuclei that give rise to parasympathetic GVE fibers are located where in the CNS?
a) lateral horn of the spinal column T1 – L2
b) sacral segments S2,3,4
c) cerebellum
d) spinal cord, gray matter
e) none of the above
16) Preganglionic fibers from cell bodies located in the ____ are conveyed by the glossopharyngeal nerve and
synapse in the _____ ganglion.
a) superior salivatory nucleus; sphenopalatine
b) dorsal motor nucleus; terminal
c) Edinger Westphall nucleus; ciliary
d) inferior salivatory nucleus; otic
e) posterior salivatory; superior cervical
17) Postganglionic neurons arising from the otic ganglion innervate which of the following structures?
a) smooth muscles of the eye causing miosis
b) smooth muscles of the eye causing mydriasis
c) salivary glands causing secretion
d) parotid salivary gland
e) sublingual salivary gland
18) Preganglionic fibers from cell bodies located in the ____ are conveyed by the vagus nerve and synapse in
the _____ ganglion.
a) superior salivatory nucleus; sphenopalatine
b) dorsal motor nucleus; terminal
c) Edinger Westphall nucleus; ciliary
d) inferior salivatory nucleus; otic
e) posterior salivatory; superior cervical
19) Postganglionic neurons carried in the CN VII innervates which of the following structures?
a) smooth muscles of the eye causing miosis
b) sublingual salivary gland
c) parotid salivary gland
d) blood vessels of the face
e) the heart slowing rate
20) Preganglionic fibers from cell bodies located in the ____ are conveyed by CN III and synapse in the _____
ganglion.
a) superior salivatory nucleus; sphenopalatine
b) dorsal motor nucleus; terminal
c) Edinger Westphall nucleus; ciliary
d) inferior salivatory nucleus; otic
e) posterior salivatory; superior cervical
21) Postganglionic neurons of CN X innervate which of the following structures?
a) smooth muscles of the eye causing miosis
b) sublingual salivary gland
c) parotid salivary gland
d) lacrimal gland
e) the heart slowing rate
page 3, SA Exam V, Q. # 15-21
22) Neurotransmitters are released from synaptic vesicles and cross the synaptic cleft by what process?
a) active transport
b) passive diffusion
c) facilitated diffusion
d) osmosis
e) none of the above
23) Which of the following tissues contain receptors that respond to ACH?
a) cardiac muscle cells
b) postganglionic neurons
c) smooth muscle cells
d) myoneural junction of skeletal muscle
e) all but one of the above
24) Stimulation of nicotinic receptors has what effect?
a) release of norepinephrine from postganglionic sympathetic neurons
b) release of acetylcholine from postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
c) contraction of skeletal muscle fiber
d) release of acetylcholine form postganglionic sympathetic cholinergic fibers
e) all of the above
25) Stimulation of muscarinic receptors has what effect?
a) mydriasis
b) decreased secretions from salivary glands
c) increase heart rate
d) decrease heart rate
e) increase peristalsis
26) Choose the CORRECT match.
a) pediculosis – inflammation of the feet
b) plumbism – chronic mercury poisoning
c) pruritus – inflammation of the pleura
d) taxis – movement
e) syncope – joined by adhesions
27) Choose the CORRECT match.
a) virulence – any viral infection
b) myringotomy – to make a surgical puncture into a hollow cavity
c) pathognomonic – disease of the taste buds
d) hypercapnia – increased levels of CO2 in the blood stream
e) palsy – degenerative condition of the globus pallidus
28) What effect would a muscarinic blocking agent like atropine have upon heart rate?
a) speed it up
b) slow it down
c) no effect
page 4, SA Exam V, Q. # 22-28
29) Why can’t you focus on objects near to you after your eyes have been dilated in the ophthalmologist’s
office with a muscarinic blocking agent?
a) the radial muscles of the iris are paralyzed
b) disruption in the axoplasmic flow of the optic nerve
c) paralysis of the extrinsic ocular muscles
d) cholinergic receptors on the ciliary bodies are dysfunctional
e) none of the above
30) Parasympathetic fibers to apocrine sweat glands located in the axilla arise from which spinal segments?
a) C4-6 spinal segments
b) C6-8 spinal segments
c) T1-2 spinal segments
d) T4 spinal segment
e) none of the above
31) Compared to sympathetic axons, parasympathetic preganglionic axons are ___ and postganglionic axons are
____.
a) long; short
b) short; long
c) long; long
d) short; short
32) Are there GVE neurons directly innervating skeletal muscles fibers?
a) yes
b) no
33) Which one of the following effects would epinephrine cause if administered to a patient?
a) negative chronotrope
b) positive inotrope
c) increase peristalsis
d) bronchoconstriction
e) miosis
34) A patient is presented to your clinic after having a bilateral vagotomy because of chronic acid reflux disease.
You expect this patient’s heart rate to be ________.
a) increased
b) decreased
c) no effect on heart rate
35) What effect would a positive chronotropic drug have upon the heart?
a) decrease cardiac output
b) increase cardiac output
c) no effect
36) Stimulation of adrenergic receptors would have which one of the following effects?
a) bradycardia
b) bronchoconstriction
c) decrease release of norepinephrine
d) penile erection
e) miosis
page 5, SA Exam V, Q. # 29-36
37) Stimulation of alpha one receptors would have what generalized effect upon blood pressure?
a) decrease it
b) elevate it
c) no effect
38) Beta blockers have what general effect upon heart rate?
a) negative chronotrope
b) positive chronotrope
c) no effect
39) ________________ = (peripheral resistance) x (cardiac output)
a) length of blood vessels
b) blood pressure
c) heart rate
d) diameter of blood vessels
e) stroke volume
40) The _____ valves are closed during ventricular systole.
a) atrioventricular
b) semilunar
41) The chordae tendonae attach directly from papillary muscles to the ______.
a) infundibulum
b) trabeculae carnae
c) pectinate muscles
d) free edges of the valves
e) sinoatrial node
42) Blood flows from the left ventricle directly into the _______.
a) aorta
b) pulmonary trunk
c) inferior vena cava
d) superior vena cava
43) The contractile impulse travels from the SA node to the AV node and directly to the _____.
a) atrioventricular node
b) Purkinje fibers
c) apex of the heart
d) bundle of His
e) interseptal fibers
44) Where is the sinoatrial node of the heart located?
a) the left atrium
b) the left ventricle
c) the right atrium
d) the right ventricle
e) none of the above
page 6, SA Exam V, Q. # 37-44
45) Which of the following fibers carry the conduction impulse from the apex of the ventricles up toward the
base of the heart?
a) internodal fibers
b) AV bundle (of His)
c) right bundle branch
d) left bundle branch
e) Purkinje fibers
46) The axillary artery becomes the brachial artery once it passes what structure?
a) the teres minor muscle
b) the teres major muscle
c) the first rib
d) the clavicle
e) the head of the humerus
47) Choose the TRUE statement.
a) cranial nerve 8 exits the skull via the stylomastoid foramen
b) the internal acoustic meatus is located on the squamous portion of the temporal bone
c) the temporal lines are located on the lateral aspect of the parietal bone and serve as the origin of the
temporalis m.
d) cranial nerve 9, 10 and 11 exit the skull thru the foramen magnum
e) the dural sinus located in the groove for the sigmoid sinus exits the skull through the hypoglossal
canal as the jugular vein
48) Choose the INCORRECT statement.
a) the musculospiral groove runs superior to the deltoid tuberosity
b) the lesser tubercle of the humerus is medial to the greater tubercle
c) the medial epicondyle of the humerus is typically larger than the lateral epicondyle
d) the semilunar notch of the ulna is proximal to the coronoid process
e) the styloid process of the radius and the styloid process of the ulna are both located on the distal
aspect of each respective bone.
49) What are the attachments for the trapezius m.? (MACA)
a) clavicle
b) spine of the scapula
c) acromion
d) EOP
e) spinous process from L1 to L6
50) Choose the INCORRECT match of muscle to nerve(s) that innervates it.
a) biceps femoris m. – tibial nerve, common peroneal nerve
b) adductor magnus m. – obturator nerve, tibial nerve
c) brachialis m. – musculocutaneous nerve, radial nerve
d) pectineus m. – obturator nerve, femoral nerve
e) flexor digitorum profundus m. – median nerve, radial nerve
page 7, SA Exam V, Q. # 45-50
The end of exam 5, Your grades will be emailed to you by the close of the day.