Download Communicable and Non Communicable - E

Nehru Arts and Science College- TM palayalam, Coimbatore 105
II M.SC Microbiology Batch 2016-2018
Question bank
1. Influenza subtypes differ in their
(1) protein spikes (2) capsid composition (3) capsule composition (4) kinds of nucleic acids
2. The infectious substance of prions is
(1) protein (2) glycophosphate (3) RNA (4) DNA
3.Viruses are considered to be
(1) non-living (2) primitive precursors of bacteria (3) a link between life and non-life (4) very
small bacteria
4.Each HIV particle possesses a glycoprotein called __________ on its surface
(1) CD4 (2) gp120 (3) CXCR4 (4) gp8
5.Viruses that cause lysis in host cells are called
(1) temperate viruses (2) phagocytic viruses (3) virulent viruses (4) infectious viruses
6._________ is the virus causing fever blisters
(1) Herpes simplex (2) Chlamydia (3) Epstein-Barr virus (4) Human papillomavirus
7.Which of the following is not a viral disease?
(1) mumps (2) measles (3) diphtheria (4) rubella
8.An example of an emerging virus is
(1) Herpes (2) polio (3) Ebola (4) CJD
9.Persons infected with HIV may not develop AIDS because the virus has the ________ gene.
(1) CAF (2) nef (3) gag (4) env
10.Typically, viruses form _______________ around their nucleic acid.
(1) an envelope (2) a capsid (3) a cell membrane (4) a capsule
11.The first virus to be purified was the
(1) flu virus (2) tobacco mosaic virus (3) polio virus (4) plague virus
12.When a virus kills the infected host cell in which it is replicating, the reproductive cycle is
called a ________ cycle.
(1) lysogenic (2) lytic (3) endocytic (4) viroidal
13.Of the viruses listed below, the most lethal is
(1) influenza (2) Ebola (3) measles (4) Epstein-Barr
14.New strains of influenza continually arise because the virus mutates and recombines the gene
encoding the protein that makes it resistant to antibodies.
(1) True (2) False (3) not sure (4) none of the above
15.An infectious disease is one that is ___________.
(1) spread from person to person (2) transferred by mosquitoes (3) caused by all bacteria (4)
caused by a pathogen or its products
16.How do most disease-causing bacteria cause damage?
(1) through high fevers (2) by reproducing asexually (3) through lesions (4) by releasing toxins
17.What causes antibiotic-resistant bacteria to develop?
(1) new antibodies (2) homeopathic remedies (3) overuse of antibiotics (4) lack of sterile
conditions
18.How do viruses gain entry to a host cell?
(1) by binding to a receptor site on the host cell (2) by dissolving a piece of the host cell
membrane (3) by binding to an antibody site on the host cells (4) all of the above
19.Why do most attempts to develop antiviral drugs fail?
(1) Why do most attempts to develop antiviral drugs fail? (2) The drugs are toxic to the host cell.
(3) The drugs lead to cancer. (4) The drugs lead to cancer.
20.What is a protozoan that is commonly found in lakes and streams that can cause severe
diarrhea?
(1) Giardia (2) HIV (3) HIV (4) E. coli
21.What is a sporadic disease?
(1) a disease that occurs only occasionally and at unpredictable intervals (2) a disease that is
always present in a population (3) a disease with clinically distinct symptoms whose incidence
has increased, particularly over the last two decades (4) a global outbreak of disease
22.What is an epidemic disease?
(1) a global outbreak of disease (2) a disease that occurs suddenly and spreads rapidly to many
people (3) a disease with clinically distinct symptoms whose incidence has increased,
particularly over the last two decades (4) a disease that occurs only occasionally and at
unpredictable intervals
23.Which of the following is LEAST similar to the others?
(1) prions (2) fungi (3) bacteria (4) parasitic worms
24.Which of the following is an example of the spreading of disease by direct contact?
(1) sweating (2) kissing (3) coughing (4) sneezing
Section-B
Answer all the questions
1. Explain briefly about Respiratory infections
2. Write about Acute respiratory infections
3. Explain briefly about Mumps
4. Write about Rubella
5. How will you report the result of the Respiratory infections
Section-C
Answer all the questions
1. Discuss in detail about Mumps, Measles
2. Write an account on Rubella
3. Write an account on infections and effect of TB
UNIT II
1 .________________ is a disease present at birth in one out of every 125 children.
(1) Cardiovascular disease (2) Arteriosclerosis (3) Inflammatory Disease (4) Congenital heart
disease
3.A soft, fatty, waxy substance found in the bloodstream and in your body cells is called
(1) homocysteine (2) cholesterol. (3) sodium. (4) carcinogen.
4.Cardiovascular diseases are diseases of the
(1) heart and blood vessels. (2) heart and lungs. (3) heart and chest muscles. (4) All of the above
5.Which of the following claims more lives each year than any other?
(1) Cardiovascular disease (2) Chronic lower respiratory disease(3) Cancer (4) Diabetes
6.A newer method of measuring heart activity which produces three dimensional images of the
heart as blood flows through it is called
(1) an electrocardiogram. (2) an angiography. (3) positron emission tomography. (4) magnetic
resonance imaging (MRI).
7.Men and women have the same risk for CVD at age
(1) 40 (2) 50 (3) 60 (4) 70
8.Severe chest pain occurring as a result of reduced oxygen flow to the heart is called
(1) angina pectoris. (2) an arrhythmia. (3) myocardial infarction. (4) congestive heart failure.
9.When the pancreas fails to produce enough insulin to regulate sugar metabolism, or when the
body fails to use insulin effectively, the disease that occurs is called
(1) coronary heart disease. (2) rheumatic heart disease. (3)inflammatory disease. (4) diabetes.
10.The blood pressure value that refers to the pressure being applied to the walls of the arteries
when the heart contracts is called
(1) diastolic pressure. (2) contraction pressure. (3) systolic pressure. (4) normal pressure.
11.The diagnostic technique in which a needle-thin catheter is threaded through blocked heart
arteries, a dye injected, and an X-ray is taken to find the blocked areas, is called
(1) angiography. (2) Positron Emission Tomography. (3)angioplasty. (4) electrocardiogram.
12.The most serious risk factors that may lead to a heart attack are
(1) high cholesterol, high blood pressure, and cigarette smoking. (2) All of the above. (3)
stressful situations and too much aspirin. (4) high sugar foods and a sedentary lifestyle.
13.Which hormone is produced by the pancreas to allow the body to use or store glucose?
(1) Oncogenes (2) Homocysteine (3) C-reactive protein (4)Insulin
14.What is a contributing factor to heart disease in women?
(1) An increase in progesterone after 40 (2) A decrease in estrogen production after menopause
(3) Hormone replacement therapy (4) The tendency toward low cholesterol
15.What levels of cholesterol are desired for reducing the risk of CVD?
(1) Between 200 and 250 milligrams per 100 milliliters of blood(2) Between 180 and 200
milligrams per 100 milliliters of blood (3) Between 225 and 275 milligrams per 100 milliliters of
blood (4) Between 200 and 300 milligrams per 100 milliliters of blood
16.When a section of the heart is damaged by a blockage of the normal blood supply, this is
known as
(1) a cerebrovascular accident. (2) a myocardial infarction. (3)angina pectoris. (4) a coronary
thrombosis.
17.Risk factors that appear to increase the risk of prostate cancer include
(1) age. (2) race. (3) nationality. (4) All of the above
18.Hypertension is caused by all of the following EXCEPT ________.
(1) hardened arteries (2) periodic elevated blood pressure levels(3) narrowed blood vessels (4)
high salt intake in the diet
19.In which blood vessels does most of the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the blood
and body tissues occur?
(1) arteries (2) veins (3) capillaries (4) coronary arteries
20.The cardiac conduction system initiates and delivers an electrical impulse that begins in the
________.
(1) Purkinje fibers (2) sinoatrial node (3) atrioventricular node(4) atrioventricular bundle
21.Which of the following statements describing hypertension is FALSE?
(1) Hypertension is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease. (2) Hypertension is easily
diagnosed because of its many observable symptoms. (3) In hypertensive people, blood vessels
become less able to stretch during cardiac systole. (4) The heart experiences greater strain in
hypertensive individuals.
22.Homeostatic regulation of the cardiovascular system is designed to maintain ________.
(1) constant arterial blood pressure (2) constant cardiac output(3) constant venous blood pressure
(4) constant blood volume
Section-B
Answer all the questions
1. What is Intestinal infections?
2. Explain briefly about Cholera infection
3. Explain briefly about Food poisoning
4. Draw a neat diagram of Ascariasis.
5. What is Amoebiasis explain
Section-C
Answer all the questions
1. Discuss in detail about Typhoid
2. Discuss in detail about Tapeworm
3. write detail about prevention and control of Acute diarrhea diseases and Food poisoning
UNIT III
1. The following statements regarding HIV are true EXCEPT ONE
(1) It belongs to the family reteroviridae (2) It is an oncovirus (3) It is associated with the
enzyme reverse transcriptase (4) The virus is present in all body fluids
2. AIDS is caused by
(1) Retrovirus (2) Prion (3) Rhabdovirus (4) Retroprison
3. ELISA test is used for the identification of
(1) Janudice (2) AIDS (3) Cancer (4) Diabetis
4. The human diploid cell vaccine is used for prevention of
(1) Rabies (2) Varicella (3) Hepatitis A (4) Yellow fever
5.The positive strand of certain viruses does not act as a message but becomes converted into
DNA and integrated into the host cellular DNA. These viruses are
(1) Rhinoviruses (2) Enteroviruses (3) Retroviruses (4)Reoviruses
6. One of the following viruses produce eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies called
Negri bodies
(1) Herpes simplex virus (2) Small pox virus (3) Adenovirus (4)Rabies virus
7. Genital herpes are associated with
(1) HSV 1 (2) Hepatitis B (3) HSV 2 (4) HPV
8. Which is the causative agent of smallpox
(1) Ebola virus (2) Herpes virus (3) Vaccinia virus (4) Variola virus
9. Integrase is a necessary enzyme for_____
(1) HAV (2) HIV (3) HCV (4) Flavi virus
10. whatis an antiviral drug which inactivate reverse transcriptase
(1) Ribavirin (2) Vidarabin (3) Azidothymidin (4) Gancyclovir
11. Attenuated oral poliomyelitis vaccine is
(1) BCG (2) Measles vaccine (3) Sabin vaccine (4) TAB vaccine
12. Killed polio vaccine is
(1) Sabin vaccine (2) Salk (3) BCG (4) TAB
13. Which one of the following is about Herpes viruses
(1) Icosahedral, with envelope, ds DNA (2) Polyhedral with envelope, ds DNA (3) ds DNA,
brick shape (4) None of these
14. Rabies virus is
(1) Naked RNA virus (2) Naked DNA virus (3) Enveloped RNA virus (4) Enveloped DNA virus
15. Which of the following was a non-neural vaccine for rabies
(1) HDCV (2) Card vaccine (3) BPL (4) Simple
16. Nergibodies produced by rabies virus show characteristic _____ inner granues
(1) Basophilic (2) Eosinophilic (3) Neutrophilic (4) Acidophilic
17. Inclusion bodies of vaccinia are known as
(1) Guarnieri bodies (2) Negri bodies (3) Asteroid bodies (4)Schuffner dots
18. Which is the causative agent of smallpox?
(1) Ebola virus (2) Herpes virus (3) Vaccinia virus (4) Variola virus
19. Conservation in HIV infection takes place in
(1) 3 weeks (2) 6 weeks (3) 9 weeks (4) 12 weeks
20. The interval period between HIV infection and appearance of antibodies in serum is called
(1) Intrinsic period (2) Incubation period (3) Window period (4)None of these
21. In medicine, specifically urology, dysuria refers to
(1) Increase amount of Urea (2) Blood in urine (3) painful urination (4) None of these
22. A lesion on a finger or thumb caused by the herpes simplex virus
(1) Otitis (2) Cystitis (3) herpetic whitlow (4) None of these
23.
______________ is a common infection of the mouth and gums
(1) Otitis (2) Gingivostomatitis (3) Mayalgia (4) None of these
24. ______ is an infection of a bone
(1) Cystitis (2) Osteomyelitis (3) Endocarditis (4) None of these
25. ________ is a general term for inflammation or infection of the ear
(1) Endocarditis (2) Cystitis (3) Otitis (4) None of these
Section-B
Answer all the questions
1. Write about Diagnostic Techniques
2. Write about the mode of infection of AIDS
3. What is Vector borne disease.
4. Discuss about malarial parasites with illustration
5. Comment on HIV with examples
Section-C
Answer all the questions
1. How will you Diagnostic Leprosy
2. Discuss in detail about STD.
3. Write an account on AIDS
UNIT IV
1. Which of the following could be used to grow viruses in the laboratory
(1) Chicken eggs (2) Cell culture (3) Bacteria (4) White blood cells
2. The following are direct detection methods
(1) Detection of rotavirus antigen in faecal specimens (2) Western Blot (3) CMV DEAFF test (4)
Electron Microscopy
3. What is the agglutinogen in a viral hemagglutination test
(1) Antibodies (2) Antigens (3) Patient serum (4) Red blood cells
4. "TEM" refers to a photomicrograph taken by a ______.
(1) Light Microscope (2) Triple Emission Microscope (3) Scanning Electron Microscope (4)
Transmission Electron Microscope
5. The following may be useful for prognostic purposes in HIV-infected individuals
(1) HIV envelope antibody (2) HIV-p24 antigen (3) CD4 count(4) CD8 count
6. A standard Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) consists of
(1) Denaturation, annealing, and ligation steps (2) Denaturation, annealing, and extension steps
(3) Annealing, Denaturation and ligation steps (4) None of these
7. A serological diagnosis of a primary viral infection may be made
(1) Detection of viral-specific IgA (2) Detection of viral-specific IgD (3) Detection of viralspecific IgM (4) None of these
8. __________may be used for serological diagnosis
(1) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) (2) Western blot (3) CMV DEAFF test (4) None of these
9. Rapid diagnosis of CMV disease include
(1) DEAFF test (2) CMV pp65 antigenaemia (3) Both 1 and 2 (4)None of these
10. Laboratory diagnosis of viral respiratory tract infections can be established by all of the
following tests except
(1) Detection of virus specific IgM antibodies in single serum specimen (2) Demonstration of
viral antigens by indirect immunofluorescence assay in nasopharyngeal washings (3) Isolation of
viruses using centrifugation enchanced culture (4) Detection of viral heamagglutination
inhibiting (HAI) antibodies in a single serum specimen
11. In Cell culture media growth media refers
(1) high in serum content (2) low in serum content (3) Without serum (4) None of these
12. To promote rapid cell growth_____ will be added to viral media
(1) Antibiotics (2) Human Serum (3) Fetal calf serum (4) None of these
13. ____________ is a technique that enables an individual to keep cells alive and growing under
cultured conditions for extended periods of time
(1) Cloning (2) passaging (3) Preservation (4) None of these
14. _____ are used for washing tissues and cells
(1) Phosphate Buffer Saline (2) Saline (3) Hanks' balanced salt solution (4) None of these
15. Example for Continuous cell line
(1) Hep2 (2) Primary Monkey Kidney cells (3) MRC-5 (4) None of these
16. _______are derived from human fetal tissue and can be subcultured 20 to 50 time
(1) Continuous cells (2) Primary cells (3) Semi-continuous diploid cells (4) None of these
17. Cytopathic effects of enterovirus 71, HSV, and CMV in cell culture will be ____
(1) formation of syncytia (2) ballooning of cells (3) Foamy degeneration (4) None of these
18. ________possess haemagglutinins and thus the ability to absorb guinea pig RBCs
(1) Influenza and parainfluenza viruses (2) Adenovirus (3)Rabies (4) HSV
19. ________ is routinely used for the detection of rubella-specific IgG
(1) ELISA (2) Single radial haemolysis (SRH) (3) PCR (4)None of these
20. _______ are Molecular Techniques
(1) Nucleic Acid Probes (2) Polymerase Chain Reaction (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) None of these
21. Poliovirus can be typed by
(1) Haemagglutination inhibition test (HAI) (2) Neutralization test (3) Hybridization with
specific nucleic acid probes (4) DEAFF test
22. Examples of virus isolation techniques
(1) Differential centrifugation (2) Density gradient centrifugation (3) Rate zonal gradient
centrifugation (4) All the above
23. Techniques for Enumeration of viruses
(1) Hemagglutination assay (2) Plaque assay (3) Endpoint method (4) All the above
24. In egg inoculation method the infection may produce a local tissue lesion known as
(1) pock (2) Plaque (3) Necrosis (4) None of these
25. ____represent clearing the areas of bacterial growth due to lysis by a bacteriophage
(1) Pock (2) zone of clearance (3) Plaque (4) None of these
Section-B
Answer all the questions
1. Explain briefly about Superficial mycoses
2. Write about the Diagnostics Techniques and Treatment for fungi.
3. What fungal antibiotic and fungal sensitivity test
4. Write about Dermatophytoses
5. How will you report the result of fungi infection.
Section-C
Answer all the questions
1. Write about the Diagnostics Techniques and Treatment for Opportunistic fungal infections
2. Write about the Diagnostics Techniques and Treatment for Candidiasis
3. Write about the Diagnostics Techniques and Treatment for Superficial mycoses
UNIT V
1. The following statements regarding HIV are true EXCEPT ONE
(1) It belongs to the family reteroviridae (2) It is an oncovirus (3) It is associated with the
enzyme reverse transcriptase (4) The virus is present in all body fluids
2. AIDS is caused by
(1) Retrovirus (2) Prion (3) Rhabdovirus (4) Retroprison
3. ELISA test is used for the identification of
(1) Janudice (2) AIDS (3) Cancer (4) Diabetis
4. The human diploid cell vaccine is used for prevention of
(1) Rabies (2) Varicella (3) Hepatitis A (4) Yellow fever
5. The positive strand of certain viruses does not act as a message but becomes converted into
DNA and integrated into the host cellular DNA. These viruses are
(1) Rhinoviruses (2) Enteroviruses (3) Retroviruses (4)Reoviruses
6. One of the following viruses produce eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies called
Negri bodies
(1) Herpes simplex virus (2) Small pox virus (3) Adenovirus (4)Rabies virus
7. Genital herpes are associated with
(1) HSV 1 (2) Hepatitis B (3) HSV 2 (4) HPV
8. Which is the causative agent of smallpox
(1) Ebola virus (2) Herpes virus (3) Vaccinia virus (4) Variola virus
9. Integrase is a necessary enzyme for_____
(1) HAV (2) HIV (3) HCV (4) Flavi virus
10. what is an antiviral drug which inactivate reverse transcriptase
(1) Ribavirin (2) Vidarabin (3) Azidothymidin (4) Gancyclovir
11.Attenuated oral poliomyelitis vaccine is
(1) BCG (2) Measles vaccine (3) Sabin vaccine (4) TAB vaccine
12. Killed polio vaccine is
(1) Sabin vaccine (2) Salk (3) BCG (4) TAB
13. Which one of the following is about Herpes viruses
(1) Icosahedral, with envelope, ds DNA (2) Polyhedral with envelope, ds DNA (3) ds DNA,
brick shape (4) None of these
14. Rabies virus is
(1) Naked RNA virus (2) Naked DNA virus (3) Enveloped RNA virus (4) Enveloped DNA virus
15. Which of the following was a non-neural vaccine for rabies
(1) HDCV (2) Card vaccine (3) BPL (4) Simple
16. Nergibodies produced by rabies virus show characteristic _____ inner granues
(1) Basophilic (2) Eosinophilic (3) Neutrophilic (4) Acidophilic
17. Inclusion bodies of vaccinia are known as
(1) Guarnieri bodies (2) Negri bodies (3) Asteroid bodies (4)Schuffner dots
18. Which is the causative agent of smallpox?
(1) Ebola virus (2) Herpes virus (3) Vaccinia virus (4) Variola virus
19. Sero conservation in HIV infection takes place in
(1) 3 weeks (2) 6 weeks (3) 9 weeks (4) 12 weeks
20. The interval period between HIV infection and appearance of antibodies in serum is called
(1) Intrinsic period (2) Incubation period (3) Window period (4)None of these
21. In medicine, specifically urology, dysuria refers to
(1) Increase amount of Urea (2) Blood in urine (3) painful urination (4) None of these
22. A lesion on a finger or thumb caused by the herpes simplex virus
(1) Otitis (2) Cystitis (3) herpetic whitlow (4) None of these
23. ______________ is a common infection of the mouth and gums
(1) Otitis (2) Gingivostomatitis (3) Mayalgia (4) None of these
24. ______ is an infection of a bone
(1) Cystitis (2) Osteomyelitis (3) Endocarditis (4) None of these
25. ________ is a general term for inflammation or infection of the ear
(1) Endocarditis (2) Cystitis (3) Otitis (4) None of these
Section-B
Answer all the questions
1. Explain briefly about Non-communicable diseases
2. Write about Hyper Tension
3. What is Obesity?
4. Write the method for Non-communicable diseases Preventive measures
5. How Cancer caused
Section-C
Answer all the questions
1. Discuss in detail about Coronary Heart diseases
2. Discuss in detail about Hyper Tension
3. Discuss in detail about Hyper Cancer