Download Spring 03

Systemic Anatomy Exam I
Prepared especially for the trimester one class, Spring 2003
Please place the single best answer in the space provided (unless designated by the letters MACA, which in this
case mark all correct answers that apply) on your scantron sheet. The faculty will not answer any of your
questions (unless you find a typo) once the exam begins, as interpretation of the question is a part of the
examination. Good luck.
FORM A
1) Choose the INCORRECT match of suffix to definition.
a) -algia – pain
b) –cide – to kill
c) –dyne – to take away
d) –malacia – softening
e) –oid – to resemble
2) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) –penia – decreased
b) –rrhea – discharge or flow
c) ante – both sides
d) contra – against
e) brady – slow
3) Choose the INCORRECT match of prefix to definition.
a) dys – painful or abnormal
b) peri – around
c) syn – above or beyond
d) tachy – fast
e) cyano – blue
4) A ____ plane divides the body into unequal right and left sections.
a) coronal
b) transverse
c) parasagittal
d) horizontal
e) two of the above
5) Choose the INCORRECT match of word to definition.
a) proximal – away from the trunk or origin
b) plantar – the ventral surface of the foot
c) afferent – to conduct toward a central structure
d) ipsilateral – on the same side
e) supine – to lie down on your back face up
6) Choose the INCORRECT match of action to its definition.
a) inversion of the foot – turning the sole of the foot medially
b) pronation of the forearm – rotation of the forearm so that the palmar surface is rotated in a medial and
posterior direction
c) depression of the mandible – opening of the mouth
d) retraction – moving a body part in a posterior direction
e) flexion – increase of a joint angle
page 1, SA Exam I, Q. # 1-6
7) Choose the INCORRECT statement.
a) during a physical exam the subjective findings are the patient’s symptoms
b) the cytoplasm of a cell is an example of intercellular fluid
c) the etiology of a disease is the cause of that disease
d) eponyms are the use of people’s names to describe anatomic parts
e) 1 tsp. = 5 cc
8) Choose the INCORRECT match of word to its definition.
a) alveolus – a deep pit or socket
b) foramen – a hole
c) meatus – a canal
d) fossa – a flatten or shallow surface
e) facet – a rounded process of knob
9) Which one of the following bones DOES NOT contribute to the formation of the calvaria?
a) frontal
b) occipital
c) temporal
d) parietal
10) Which of the following fontanels is the last to close in the developing infant?
a) anterior
b) sphenoidal
c) posterior
d) mastoid
11) The intersection of the sagittal suture and the coronal suture in the adult is known as the ______.
a) lambda
b) pterion
c) asterion
d) bregma
12) Which of the following structures is NOT found in the sphenoid bone?
a) jugum
b) chiasmatic groove
c) groove for the transverse sinus
d) anterior clinoid process
e) groove for the middle meningeal artery
13) Which of the following bones DO NOT touch the sphenoid bone? (MACA)
a) lacrimal bone
b) nasal bone
c) occipital bone
d) maxillary bone
e) mandible
14) Which of the following components is NOT part of the sella turcica?
a) hypophyseal fossa
b) posterior clinoid process
c) dorsum sella
d) jugum
e) tubeculum sella
page 2, SA Exam I, Q.# 7-14
15) Choose the INCORRECT match of a hole in the skull and what structures run through it.
a) superior orbital fissure – CN III, IV, VI and the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
b) stylomastoid foramen – facial nerve
c) internal acoustic meatus – CN VII and CN VIII
d) foramen ovale – sensory and motor branches of the trigeminal nerve
e) jugular foramen – CN IX, X and XII
16) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) temporomandibular joint – temporal fossa of the mandible and the mandibular process of the temporal
bone
b) glenohumeral joint – head of the humerus and the glenoid fossa of the scapula
c) auditory ossicles – malleus, stapes, incus
d) foramen magnum – spinal cord, meninges, spinal accessory nerve, vertebral arteries
e) maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve – sensory to skin of roof of mouth and upper lip
17) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the vertebral column.
a) kyphotic curves of the vertebral column are present at birth.
b) lordotic curves of the vertebral column begin to develop at 3 months of age
c) the first pair of intervertebral foramina are present between the epistropheus and C3
d) the intervertebral foramen boundaries are the posterior aspect of the vertebral body and the neural
arch
e) there are 23 total intervertebral discs, they form the anterior wall of the IVF and they form the
secondary curves of the vertebral column
18) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning vertebral ossification centers.
a) a typical vertebra has 5 ossification centers that develop during puberty
b) typical vertebra have three initial ossification centers
c) the three ossification centers of a typical vertebra are the spinous process and the centrum
d) fusion of the vertebral arch is complete by age 6 in the lumbar vertebrae
e) secondary ossification centers unite with the vertebra by age 25
19) In which of the following list are all the vertebra listed considered atypical?
a) C1, T1, L1, S1
b) C1, C2, T10, T12, L5
c) C2, C7, T2, T8, L2, S5
d) C1, C2, C7, T1, T12, L3
e) C1, C7, T8, T9, T10, L2, L5, S3
20) How many ribs articulate with a typical thoracic vertebra?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
21) Ribs 11 and 12 have no tubercles therefore thoracic vertebra 11 and 12 have no _____.
a) transverse processes
b) superior costal facet
c) anterior longitudinal ligament
d) transverse costal facets
e) attachments to the manubrium
page 3, SA Exam I, Q.# 15-21
22) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning vertebra.
a) the inferior articular surfaces of T12 face in an posterior and medial direction
b) the surfaces of the superior articular facets of a typical thoracic lie in a coronal plane
c) mammillary process are found on the superior articular facets of the lumbar vertebra
d) the spinous process of C2 is palpable 2 inches inferior to the external occipital protuberance
e) transverse lines of the sacrum represent the remnants of the intervertebral discs
23) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the ligaments of the spine.
a) the anterior longitudinal ligament runs from the axis to the sacrum
b) the ligamentum nuchae attaches on the EOP, the median nuchal crest, the posterior tubercle of the
atlas and the spinous process of C2 to C7
c) the ligamentum flavum connects adjacent spinous processes
d) the posterior longitudinal ligament is located within the confines of the neural canal
e) the ligamentum nuchae is the superior continuation of the supraspinous ligament
24) How many costal notches are located on the manubrium?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
e) none
25) The deltoid tuberosity is actually located superior to the ________.
a) greater tubercle of the humerus
b) lesser tubercle of the humerus
c) surgical neck of the humerus
d) musculospiral groove of the humerus
e) anatomic neck of the humerus
26) The capitulum is ___ to the trochlea of the humerus.
a) medial
b) lateral
27) The semilunar notch is located on the ___ aspect of the ulna.
a) proximal and anterior
b) proximal and posterior
c) distal and anterior
d) distal and posterior
e) it is not located on the ulna
28) The _____ of the radius is broken off in a type of fracture called Colle’s fracture.
a) head
b) styloid process
c) radial tuberosity
d) ulnar notch
29) The distal anterior surface of the radius is ___ as compared to the distal posterior surface.
a) concave and smooth
b) convex and smooth
c) concave and rough
d) convex and rough
page 4, SA Exam I, Q.# 22-29
30) Which of the following carpal bones DO NOT articulate with the radius bone? (MACA)
a) triquetral bone
b) lunate bone
c) hamate bone
d) scaphoid bone
e) trapezium bone
31) The greater sciatic notch is located on the ____.
a) ileum
b) ischium
c) pubis
d) femur
e) none of the above
32) The roughened portion of the pelvis which is the primary weight bearing portion when you are sitting on a
chair is called the ______?
a) pubic symphysis
b) obturator groove
c) ischial tuberosity
d) gluteal lines
e) acetabulum
33) The adductor tubercle is located on the ______.
a) pectin pubis
b) lateral aspect of the linea aspera of the femur
c) gluteal tuberosity
d) medial epicondyle of the femur
d) lateral epicondyle of the femur
34) When the articular surface of a patella is placed on a table top, if it is a right patella the ____ lateral surface
of the patella will be closest to the table surface.
a) right
b) left
35) Gerdy’s tubercle is located on the ___ aspect of the tibia.
a) proximal, anterior, lateral
b) proximal, anterior, medial
c) proximal, posterior, lateral
d) proximal, posterior, medial
36) The fossa of the lateral malleolus of a right fibula would be located on the _____ of that fibula.
a) distal, posterior, medial
b) distal, posterior, lateral
c) proximal, anterior, medial
d) proximal, anterior, lateral
37) The fibular notch is located on what aspect of the fibula?
a) distal, posterior, medial
b) distal, posterior, lateral
c) proximal, anterior, medial
d) proximal, anterior, lateral
e) it is not located on the fibula
page 5, SA Exam I, Q.# 30-37
38) The sustentaculum tali is located on the _____ aspect of the calcaneus bone.
a) medial
b) lateral
c) it is not located on the calcaneus bone
39) The navicular bone of the foot is located anterior to the ___ bone and posterior to the ___ bone.
a) cuboid, talus
b) talus, cuneiform
c) cuneiform, calcaneus
d) talus, cuboid
e) cuneiform, talus
40) _____ membranes line body cavities that have external openings.
a) mucous
b) serous
41) There are ______ vertebrae in the adult vertebral column.
a) 23
b) 26
c) 31
d) 32
e) none of the above
42) The shaft of a long bone is called the ______.
a) epiphysis
b) metaphysic
c) diaphysis
d) medullary cavity
e) periosteum
43) Choose the INCORRECT statement.
a) lamellae are concentric rings of compact bone
b) the central canal and Volkmann’s canal are names for the same structure
c) canaliculi are small canals within compact bone that connect adjacent lacunae with the Haversian
canal
d) osteocytes reside within the confines of lacunae
e) osteoblasts deposit osteoid and osteoclasts dissolve existing bone
44) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) iatrogenic – caused by a doctor
b) idiopathic – of unknown cause
c) diaphoresis – to sweat
d) pruritus – abnormal accumulation of fluid in a cavity
e) hypoxemia – decrease oxygen levels in the blood
45) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) enuresis – bed wetting
b) gynecomastia – abnormal development of enlarged breast in the male
c) dyspnea – abnormal development of the lungs
d) lumen – the inside of a hollow or tubular organ
e) alopecia - baldness
page 6, SA Exam I, Q.# 38-45
46) The groove for the vertebral artery is located on the ________ of the posterior arch of the atlas.
a) superior
b) inferior
47) Thought plus action = _________.
a) innate
b) your destiny
c) feelings
d) FCB
e) none of the above
48) Choose the INCORRECT match of articular surfaces to vertebra they are on.
a) C2 – 7
b) C6 – 6
c) T3 – 12
d) T12 – 10
e) L2 – 6
49) The subscapular fossa is located on the ___ aspect of the scapula.
a) anterior
b) posterior
50) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning Dr. Giggleman.
a) his oldest daughter is named Kristin and is a senior at the University of North Texas
b) his wife’s name is Kathy and they have been married since 1975
c) he drives a 2003 Chevy crew cab pickup truck
d) he has worked at Parker College since 1983
e) he graduated from the University of Texas in 1981
page 7, SA Exam I, Q.# 46-50
The end of exam one. Your grades will be emailed to you by the end of the day, today. If you have questions
concerning your exam, we will go over them in class. Thanks for all your hard work and efforts. Dr. G.