Download Nursing Fundamentals Unit 3 and 4 Review Key

Nursing Fundamentals Unit 3 and 4 Review Key
1. Bad microorganisms that start infection, illness or disease in the body and make people sick
are called:
a. Pathogens
b. Organisms
c. Diseases
d. Infections
2. Infection is the third leading cause of death in the U.S. Which of the following statements is
true regarding infection?
a. It is the result of good microorganisms invading the body
b. It interferes with normal body function
c. The host is not used as a resource to multiply
d. You show no signs or symptoms when you have an infection
3. Lacey has pain, redness, swelling and foul smelling drainage coming from a bug bite. Which
of the following best describes Lacey’s symptoms?
a. Opportunistic infection
b. Systemic infection
c. Local infection
d. Everything’s normal
4. Sue has been confused, behaving differently and running a fever the past two days. What
might she have?
a. Opportunistic infection
b. Systemic infection
c. Local infection
d. Nothing
5. What do microorganisms need to survive?
a. Warm temperatures and moisture
b. Dark areas
c. Food
d. All of the above
6. John contracted malaria from a mosquito bite. In the chain of infection, malaria is the:
a. Reservoir
b. Susceptible host
c. Causative agent
d. Mode of transmission
7. Which if the following is not a reason elderly are at higher risk for infection?
a. Dehydration
b. Normal wound healing
c. Malnutrition
d. Decreased circulation
8. Which of the follow aseptic controls destroys pathogens that are already present and is not
effective against spores and viruses?
a. Hand washing
b. Sterilization
c. Standard precautions
d. Disinfection
9. When should hand washing be done?
a. Before and after gloving
b. When coming into the room
c. Before leaving the residents room at the end of the shift
d. When coming into contact with the resident’s medical chart
10. Rob is using hand rub when going into Mrs. Peterson’s room. Mrs. Peterson asks Rob how
he knows it is safe to proceed with his work once he has used hand rub. Rob replies:
a. After 5 seconds
b. Once I get exactly 3 ounces rubbed in
c. Once my hands are dry
d. As soon as I touch the hand rub bottle
11. When cleaning non-disposable equipment, what should be done first?
a. Sterilize or disinfect equipment
b. Scrub with a brush
c. Wash with soap and hot water
d. Rinse in cold water
12. Standard precautions are CDC procedures to control and prevent infections. Who are they
used on?
a. All patients
b. Tuberculosis patients only
c. HIV/AIDS patients only
d. Flu patients only
13. Lynn is helping a nurse irrigate and change a wound dressing. To comply with standard
precautions, Lynn should wear:
a. Gloves
b. Gown
c. Mask with face shield
d. All of the above
14. Needles and sharps should be disposed of in a:
a. Black trash bag
b. Red biohazard bag
c. Red biohazard puncture resistance container
d. Rubbermaid container
15. Bobby is cleaning a spill in the hallway. He has absorbed the spill and disposed of the
powder in the appropriate place. Now he must apply a disinfectant to the spill area and let it
stand for:
a. However long the disinfectant container says
b. A minimum of 10 minutes
c. A maximum of 15 minutes
d. However long it takes to dry
16. Used linen soiled with blood, body fluids, secretions or excretions should be handled,
transported and processed:
a. Immediately
b. By not touching your uniform
c. Close to your body
d. In boiling water
17. Which of the following is not a bloodborne pathogen?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. HIV
18. OSHA mandates that facilities have bloodborne pathogen exposure control plans. Which of
the following is not required to be included in this plan?
a. Post-exposure evaluation and follow up
b. Specific measures to decrease risk of exposure
c. A copy must be available at the facility’s headquarters
d. Identify employees at risk of exposure my tasks performed
19. When caring for a patient with tuberculosis, you need to place them on airborne precautions
and in a negative pressure room. What else should be done to maintain airborne precautions
every time you go into the room?
a. Wear a N-95/respirator mask
b. Wear gloves
c. Wear a gown
d. Wear a regular mask
20. Bella has the flu and has been coughing and sneezing for the past week. The doctor admits
her to the hospital and places her on:
a. Airborne precautions
b. Standard precautions
c. Contact precautions
d. Droplet precautions
21. Becky has MRSA and is on contact precautions. She needs to go to x-ray to see if she also
has pneumonia. How should Becky be transported to x-ray?
a. Wearing a gown
b. Wearing a mask
c. She shouldn’t be transported at all because she is too contagious
d. They should bring the portable x-ray to Becky’s room
22. Which of the following is not true regarding quality assurance and infection control in
nursing facilities?
a. They are not required to have an infection control program
b. They recommend policies and procedures to prevent infections
c. They review infections
d. They involve members from all disciplines
23. Joe cut his leg playing football and now has a staph infection in his dermis. Which of the
following human body’s defenses against microorganisms failed to prevent infection?
a. Fever
b. Cilia
c. Skin
d. Mucous membranes
24. Which of the following is not a type of exogenous infection?
a. Flu
b. Cancer
c. Rocky mountain spotted fever
d. Lyme disease
25. In the chain of infection, salmonella in food would be classified as which mode of
transportation?
a. Airborne
b. Contact
c. Common vehicle
d. Vector-borne
26. When transporting a person on airborne precautions, you should:
a. Leave them with other residents
b. Place a mask on the resident
c. Limit transport for essential purposes only
d. Both B and C
27. Which of the following is not a sign of having HIV?
a. Flu-like symptoms
b. Weight gain
c. Diarrhea
d. Fever
28. What does sterilization kill?
a. Spores, viruses, protozoa, fungi and bacteria
b. Spores and viruses only
c. Protozoa and fungi only
d. Bacteria only
29. What is the purpose of an infection control program?
a. Prevent infection
b. Prevent re-infection
c. Environmental control
d. All of the above
30. Which of the following is not part of standard precautions?
a. Handwashing
b. PPE
c. Environmental cleaning
d. Waste and linen disposal.
31. What is a pathogen?
a. A good organism
b. An organism that can make you sick
c. Normal organism in the body
d. Only bacteria
32. What is a bloodborne pathogen?
a. A good organism.
b. An organism that is normal in your body.
c. Can only be a virus
d. A disease causing microorganism that is in the blood
33. Which of the following is a bloodborne pathogen?
a. Hepatitis B Virus
b. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
c. Methcillin Resistant Staph Aureus
d. All the above
34. What is a fomite?
a. Any object contaminated with germs and able to transmit disease.
b.Airborne particles.
c. A bloodborne pathogen
d.A parasite
35. What are MDROs?
a. Methcillin Drug Resistant Organisms
b.Many Drug Resistant Microbes
c. Multi-Drug Resistant Micro-Organisms
d.Medical Drug Resistant Orders
36. Which resident would be in isolation?
a. A resident with C-diff
b.A resident with a cold
c. A resident with a bed sore
d.A resident with HIV
37. What is the best way to keep from transmitting infections from one resident to another?
a. Covering your cough.
b.Isolation of patients who are sick
c. Handwashing
d.Changing their linen often.
38. What do the initials HAI stand for?
a. Healthcare Associated Infection
b.Healthcare Associated Isolation
c. Healthcare Area Isolation
d.Healthcare Asepsis Infection
39. How long should you scrub your hands during handwashing?
a. 15 sec.
b.20 sec.
c. 30 sec.
d.10 sec.
40. Standard Precautions were designed to prevent the transmission of…
a. HIV, HCV and Herpes
b. HCV, HIV and MRSA
c. HIV, HBV and HCV
d. HCV, HBV and MRSA
41. Which of the following is a potentially infectious body fluids?
a. Perspiration
b.Aqueous Fluid
c. Pericardial Fluid
d.None of the above
42. For which situation below would you wear gloves?
a. Turning a resident
b.Changing a resident’s bed.
c. While doing catheter care.
d.While assisting a resident to the dining hall
43. When should you wash your hands?
a. Between care of resident’s.
b.After removing gloves.
c. When coming in contact with body fluids.
d.All the above.
44. What are some PPE’s you might use when caring for a resident?
a. Gloves, Gown and Mask
b.Stethoscope, Blood Pressure Cuff and Watch
c. Bedside Table, Bed Linen and Gloves
d.Gloves, Stethoscope and Thermometer
45. What can kill all microorganisms including spores?
a. Disinfection
b. Sterilization
c. Standard Precautions
d. Medical Asepsis
46. When would you use Medical Asepsis?
a. When transporting a resident to another room.
b.When using non-disposable equipment
c. When using disposable
equipment.
d.When giving a resident a bed bath.
47. Which of the following is NOT a virus?
a. Influenza
b.MRSA
c. HIV
d.HPV
48. Why is it important to wash or use the hand rub between care of resident’s?
a. To prevent the spread of infections.
b.To keep from contaminating equipment.
c. To be able to go on break.
d.None of the above.
49. What do the initials MRSA stand for?
a. Methicillin Resistant Streptococcus Aureus
b.Microorganism Resistant Streptococcus Aureus
c. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
d.Microbe Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
50. A resident has Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus. What are some of the symptoms you
might see?
a. Runny nose, coughing and fever.
b.Diahrrea, vomiting and coughing.
c. Runny nose, nausea and vomiting.
d.Diahrrea, vomiting and fever.
51. Which of the following is NOT a PIM?
a. Semen
b.Pleural Fluid
c. Skin
d.Saliva
52. What is the smallest microorganism seen under an electron microscope?
a. Bacteria
b.Parasite
c. Helminth
d.Virus
53. How are viruses treated/ cured?
a. With antibiotics
b.With anti-fungals
c. With vaccinations.
d.There is no cure- the disease has to run its course.
54. What should you do BEFORE serving a resident their food?
a. Wash the residents feet.
b.Wash your hands
c. Wash the resident’s hands.
d.Clean off their overbed table.
55. How would you clean up broken glass?
a. With your hands
b.With gloved hands
c. With a broom and dustpan
d.With a mop
56. How would you handle soiled linen?
a. Hold it close to your body to prevent dropping.
b.Hold it away from the body.
c. Fold it over your arms
d.None of the above.
57. What is a mode of transmission for bloodborne pathogens?
a. Nursing mother to baby.
b.Inhaled through the air.
c. Sitting on a public toilet seat.
d.Giving a backrub to a resident.
58. You are a nurse aide and have been exposed to blood or fluids containing blood. What is the
first thing you should do?
a. Complete a facility incident report.
b.Tell your supervisor.
c. Wipe it off with a towel
d.Wash the area exposed
59. Which of the following is an airborne viral disease?
a. Influenza
b.Chicken Pox
c. Measles
d.All the above
60. Which of the following situations would you wear gloves?
a. Washing a resident’s hands.
b.Changing a resident’s unsoiled bed.
c. While doing pericare
d.While serving lunch tray
61. Which of the following situations would you wear a mask?
a. When working within 3 feet of a patient who has C-Diff.
b.When working within 3 feet a resident who has Influenza.
c. When working within 3 feet of a patient who has a bedsore.
d.None of the above
62. What is equipment that you would use for more than one resident?
a. Dentures
b.Walkers
c. Wash basins
d.Blankets
63. How should you open the door when leaving an isolation room?
a. With your elbow
b.With your hand
c. With your foot
d.With a paper towel
64. Where should you grasp your glove when removing?
a. At the palm
b.Below the wrist
c. Inside the top
d.Pulling the fingers
65. When collecting a specimen, what is the most important thing to do?
a. Not touch the outside of the container
b.Assure the specimen container is labeled.
c. Place in a specimen bag
d.Place the lid face down on a flat surface
66. When doffing PPE which piece is first:
a. gloves
b. gown
c. goggles
d. mask
67. It is required for facilities to have a disaster plan, which of the following would NOT be a
part of that plan:
A. Remain calm
B. Know your disaster plan
C. Only nurses can help with evacuation
D. Think before you act; don’t waste
time
68. When reporting emergencies, accurately state the following EXCEPT:
A. Your name
B. They type of help you are giving
at the scene
C. Give a description of scene
that need help
D. The number of people
69. If help is not available during an emergency, you should contact:
A. Fire Department
B. 911
C. Local Hospital
D. Your closest family member
70. LTC facilities have national patient safety goals which include all EXCEPT:
A. Prevent infection and bed sores
B. Residents medicines should be checked
&used safely
C. Assist residents if falling
D. Correctly identify residents
71. You should always use how many ways to correctly identify residents:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
72. Choking occurs when:
A. You cannot get air into your nose
B. You swallow a large piece of bread & need
water
C. You continue to cough and can’t stop
D. Throat is blocked & air cannot get to the airway
73. To assist a patient that is choking you should:
A. Tilt head back & see if you can pull object
out
B. Slap victim in back to dislodge item
C. Encourage coughing to dislodge object
D. Have the person lean over & cough
74. In most cases fainting is caused by:
A. Temporary reduction of blood to brain
B. Temporary reduction of food, causing disorientation
C. Patient has gotten too cold & tired
D. Patient has gotten too hot and is nauseated
75. When a resident is using oxygen, you should be careful to note all the following EXCEPT:
A. “Oxygen in use” sign posted on door
B. Don’t let nasal cannula touch floor it will get
contaminated
C. Patients can smoke only in am when air is
lighter
D. Remove flammable liquids from area
76. Who is responsible for preventing fires:
A. Smokey the bear
B. Everyone
C. The residents
D. Fire Department
77. Fred has just moved into the Golden Pond nursing center and has brought several things for
his room from home. Fred wants to plug in his cell phone, his lamp, his radio and a few other
things, so the nurse calls for the maintenance man to assist him. Knowing about fire safety, he
explained to Fred that we must never:
A. Keep fire exits clear
B. Watch for overloading circuits
C. Use extension cords
D. Smoke only in designated places
78. A catastrophe would be:
A. Gas pump explosion at the Wilco on Hwy 52
B. Power going out on your street
C. Leaving the water on & flooding your basement
D. Telling your parents you wrecked their car
79. Leslie was taking a class on fire safety at Golden Pond nursing center during orientation.
She understands that RACE & PASS are very important and that the P stands for:
A. Push the water out of the extinguisher
B. Pull the extinguisher with you as you move
C. Press the handle down
D. Pull the safety pin
80. Leslie also learned that the “C” in RACE stands for all BUT:
A. Close all windows and doors
B. Choke off oxygen
C. Calm down all residents
D. Confine the fire
81. Sarah was walking past the dining room & thought she smelled smoke. What is the first
thing Sarah should do?
A. Pull the fire alarm
B. Report odors of smoke
C. Scream and tell the residents to get out
D. Check all the ashtrays
82. What should the water temperature be when bathing a patient?
A. 115’
B. 105’
C. 110’
D. 100’
83. Sam came into the hospital with a broken hip but has contracted a high fever, cough, and
feels lousy. Sam knows he wasn’t ‘sick’ when he came to the hospital – we know this to be what
kind of infection?
A. Nosocomial
B. Opportunistic
C. Exogenous
D. Endogenous
84. When dealing with a medically ill person this could be defined as all the following
EXCEPT:
A. Chronic/Acute Illness
B. Delirium secondary to medications or aging
C. Physical or Mental Illness
D. Broken fingernail or toenail
85. When working and outburst of anger are noted from a patient, family or visitor, always make
sure:
A. You have access to an exit
B. You tell them your personal information
C. Your tie & nametag are visible
D. Your stethoscope is visible around your neck
86. Many times when situations get ‘heated’ remember the following signs EXCEPT:
A. Voice getting louder
B. Increased smiling
C. Fidgeting, verbal sounds
D. Energy building
87. Mrs. Smith had abdominal surgery and is in room 402 recuperating nicely. When you come
in to bring her lunch you notice her bandages are soaked with blood. You immediately
recognize that Mrs. Smith is:
A. In Shock
B. Loss of Consciousness
C. Hemorrhaging
D. Having a Seizure
88. In the above scenario, what would you need to do for Mrs. Smith first:
A. Get help!
B. Keep her comfortable & warm
C. Locate bleeding site
D. Apply direct pressure
89. Suzanna recognized Mrs. Hoover was going into shock by noticing the following signs &
symptoms EXCEPT:
A. Thirst & Confusion
B. Confusion & low Blood pressure
C. Weak Pulse & rapid respirations
D. Warm, moist skin & increased Blood
pressure
90. When Mrs. Cline came to the nurses’ station, Rachel told the RN that she thought Mrs. Cline
may be having a heart
attack by noticing the following symptom:
A. Breathing normally
B. Nausea
C. Headache
D. Slight pain in her left hand
91. During your CPR training, you understand that for CPR to be effective it must be:
A. Performed by 2-people always
B. Administer by untrained people
C. Started immediately to be effective
D. Activate the facilities emergency response
by calling 919
92. Shirley had been working a double shift and hadn’t eaten all day. About 3:00 pm Rachel
noticed that Shirley was lying on the floor convulsing. What was wrong with Shirley?
A. Seizure
B. Choking
C. Fainted
D. Shock
93. When a resident has fainted, what were some obvious signs you could have noticed
beforehand:
A. Decreased pulse &Bp
B. Dizziness
C. Numbness & tingling of extremities
D. All of the above
94. What could Sara do for Mrs. Folger after she has fainted:
A. Have her rest for 1-2 minutes before getting
up
B. Sit down and put arms over head
C. Monitor pulse and respirations
D. Keep clothing tight to prevent getting cold
95. Signs that a patient is having internal hemorrhaging would be all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Shock
B. None can be seen
C. LOC
D. Pain
96. Never let a patient’s nasal cannula touch the floor because:
A. It could catch the sheets on fire
B. It will pick up pathogens that will
contaminate it
C. Bugs can crawl up and get in patient’s lungs
D. The patient won’t know where to find it
97. If a patient has decreased blood flowin the body which may cause death this could be
defined as:
a. Hemorrhage
b. Shock
c. Convulsion
d. Dementia
98. When a patient is losing a large amount of blood, that you may or may not be able to
visualize, this could be said that the person is:
a. Hemorrhaging
b. In shock
c. Having convulsions
d. Dementia
99. Mrs. Brown has fallen on the floor and is presenting with violent and sudden uncontrolled
contracting or tremors of muscles. We would yell for help & not leave her because from our
training we know that Mrs. Brown is having:
a. Fracture
b. Laceration
c. Contusion
d. Convulsion
100. A fire breaks out on 800 hall and the fire alarm sounds, doors close and you must assist
other employees to do what with the residents?
a. Disoriented
b. Evacuation
c. Hemorrhage
d. Puncture
31. Bad microorganisms that start infection, illness or disease in the body and make people sick
are called:
a. Pathogens
b. Organisms
c. Diseases
d. Infections
32. Infection is the third leading cause of death in the U.S. Which of the following statements is
true regarding infection?
a. It is the result of good microorganisms invading the body
b. It interferes with normal body function
c. The host is not used as a resource to multiply
d. You show no signs or symptoms when you have an infection
33. Lacey has pain, redness, swelling and foul smelling drainage coming from a bug bite. Which
of the following best describes Lacey’s symptoms?
a. Opportunistic infection
b. Systemic infection
c. Local infection
d. Everything’s normal
34. Sue has been confused, behaving differently and running a fever the past two days. What
might she have?
a. Opportunistic infection
b. Systemic infection
c. Local infection
d. Nothing
35. What do microorganisms need to survive?
a. Warm temperatures and moisture
b. Dark areas
c. Food
d. All of the above
36. John contracted malaria from a mosquito bite. In the chain of infection, malaria is the:
a. Reservoir
b. Susceptible host
c. Causative agent
d. Mode of transmission
37. Which if the following is not a reason elderly are at higher risk for infection?
a. Dehydration
b. Normal wound healing
c. Malnutrition
d. Decreased circulation
38. Which of the follow aseptic controls destroys pathogens that are already present and is not
effective against spores and viruses?
a. Hand washing
b. Sterilization
c. Standard precautions
d. Disinfection
39. When should hand washing be done?
a. Before and after gloving
b. When coming into the room
c. Before leaving the residents room at the end of the shift
d. When coming into contact with the resident’s medical chart
40. Rob is using hand rub when going into Mrs. Peterson’s room. Mrs. Peterson asks Rob how
he knows it is safe to proceed with his work once he has used hand rub. Rob replies:
a. After 5 seconds
b. Once I get exactly 3 ounces rubbed in
c. Once my hands are dry
d. As soon as I touch the hand rub bottle
41. When cleaning non-disposable equipment, what should be done first?
a. Sterilize or disinfect equipment
b. Scrub with a brush
c. Wash with soap and hot water
d. Rinse in cold water
42. Standard precautions are CDC procedures to control and prevent infections. Who are they
used on?
a. All patients
b. Tuberculosis patients only
c. HIV/AIDS patients only
d. Flu patients only
43. Lynn is helping a nurse irrigate and change a wound dressing. To comply with standard
precautions, Lynn should wear:
a. Gloves
b. Gown
c. Mask with face shield
d. All of the above
44. Needles and sharps should be disposed of in a:
a. Black trash bag
b. Red biohazard bag
c. Red biohazard puncture resistance container
d. Rubbermaid container
45. Bobby is cleaning a spill in the hallway. He has absorbed the spill and disposed of the
powder in the appropriate place. Now he must apply a disinfectant to the spill area and let it
stand for:
a. However long the disinfectant container says
b. A minimum of 10 minutes
c. A maximum of 15 minutes
d. However long it takes to dry
46. Used linen soiled with blood, body fluids, secretions or excretions should be handled,
transported and processed:
a. Immediately
b. By not touching your uniform
c. Close to your body
d. In boiling water
47. Which of the following is not a bloodborne pathogen?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. HIV
48. OSHA mandates that facilities have bloodborne pathogen exposure control plans. Which of
the following is not required to be included in this plan?
a. Post-exposure evaluation and follow up
b. Specific measures to decrease risk of exposure
c. A copy must be available at the facility’s headquarters
d. Identify employees at risk of exposure my tasks performed
49. When caring for a patient with tuberculosis, you need to place them on airborne precautions
and in a negative pressure room. What else should be done to maintain airborne precautions
every time you go into the room?
a. Wear a N-95/respirator mask
b. Wear gloves
c. Wear a gown
d. Wear a regular mask
50. Bella has the flu and has been coughing and sneezing for the past week. The doctor admits
her to the hospital and places her on:
a. Airborne precautions
b. Standard precautions
c. Contact precautions
d. Droplet precautions
51. Becky has MRSA and is on contact precautions. She needs to go to x-ray to see if she also
has pneumonia. How should Becky be transported to x-ray?
a. Wearing a gown
b. Wearing a mask
c. She shouldn’t be transported at all because she is too contagious
d. They should bring the portable x-ray to Becky’s room
52. Which of the following is not true regarding quality assurance and infection control in
nursing facilities?
a. They are not required to have an infection control program
b. They recommend policies and procedures to prevent infections
c. They review infections
d. They involve members from all disciplines
53. Joe cut his leg playing football and now has a staph infection in his dermis. Which of the
following human body’s defenses against microorganisms failed to prevent infection?
a. Fever
b. Cilia
c. Skin
d. Mucous membranes
54. Which of the following is not a type of exogenous infection?
a. Flu
b. Cancer
c. Rocky mountain spotted fever
d. Lyme disease
55. In the chain of infection, salmonella in food would be classified as which mode of
transportation?
a. Airborne
b. Contact
c. Common vehicle
d. Vectorborne
56. When transporting a person on airborne precautions, you should:
a. Leave them with other residents
b. Place a mask on the resident
c. Limit transport for essential purposes only
d. Both B and C
57. Which of the following is not a sign of having HIV?
a. Flu-like symptoms
b. Weight gain
c. Diarrhea
d. Fever
58. What does sterilization kill?
a. Spores, viruses, protozoa, fungi and bacteria
b. Spores and viruses only
c. Protozoa and fungi only
d. Bacteria only
59. What is the purpose of an infection control program?
a. Prevent infection
b. Prevent re-infection
c. Environmental control
d. All of the above
60. Which of the following is not part of standard precautions?
a. Handwashing
b. PPE
c. Environmental cleaning
d. Waste and linen disposal
61. Sophia works as a nurse aide at a nursing home and is responsible for the care of Ms.
McCallum. Ms. McCallum is very weak and spends most of her day resting in bed or sitting
in her wheelchair. What should Sophia make sure she does before leaving Ms. McCallum’s
room?
a. Make sure she is comfortable
b. Lock the equipment she is in
c. Walk out and come back in about an hour
d. Both A and B
62. In healthcare facilities, what percentage of accidents do falls account for?
a. 20%
b. 50%
c. 70%
d. 0%, accidents and falls never occur
63. Which of the following is not the correct way to identify a resident?
a. Ask the resident their name
b. Check the resident’s mail
c. Use the resident’s DOB
d. As the resident for the last 4 digits of their social security number
64. Damariz is taking care of taking care of Ms. Pratt today and has gotten her dressed and ready.
Ms. Pratt wants to stay in her room and watch TV. Damariz places Ms. Pratt in front of the
TV with her call bell, Kleenex, makes sure she is comfortable and locks the wheelchair
wheels. When Damariz locked the wheels, she noticed the carpet was frayed but didn’t report
it. What did Damariz not do to prevent Ms. Pratt from falling?
a. Report the frayed carpet
b. Give her the call bell
c. Give her the Kleenex
d. Apply the wheelchair brakes
65. Which of the following people has the lowest risk for falling?
a. A teenager who wears glasses and is attending a new school
b. An elderly dementia resident with excellent balance living at a LTC for the past 2
years
c. A 40 year old who’s wheelchair-bound as the result of a stroke
d. A new college student who gets up to use the restroom at 2:00am after taking
sleeping pills
66. What is the second most common hazard to residents?
a. Falls
b. Burns
c. Tripping
d. Getting lost
67. To prevent burns, water temperature should be no hotter than:
a. 104 °F
b. 95 °F
c. 105 °F
d. 75 °F
68. When following general safety rules, broken or malfunctioning equipment, unsafe
conditions, and spilled liquids should be handled:
a. As soon as possible
b. Once the supervisor knows
c. When you find housekeeping
d. Immediately
69. When preparing water for a bath or soak, what should the nurse aide do before
bathing/soaking to prevent burns?
a. Use a thermometer to check the temperature
b. Ask the resident to feel the water
c. Have the resident verify that the water temperature is comfortable
d. All of the above
70. Which of the following residents is not at an increased risk of injury?
a. Amy who wears glasses and suffers from tremors
b. Bertha who was startled as the vacuum cleaner went by
c. Charlie who is healthy and takes no medication
d. Donald who has dementia and doesn’t remember to check his bath water
71. How far should a resident’s HOB be elevated if they are getting ready to eat or have a
feeding tube?
a. 60-90 degrees
b. 30-45 degrees
c. 10-20 degrees
d. None, it should remain flat
72. You are feeding Ms. Dumas and notice she still as peaches in her mouth. You should:
a. Make sure she swallows them before continuing to feed her
b. Tell her to spit them out
c. Put up her tray, she must be finished
d. Make her take a sip of drink
73. To prevent injuries, the nurse aide should make sure the residents wear shoes/slippers with:
a. Non-skid soles
b. Leather soles
c. No-grip soles
d. Any kind of sole
74. Which of the following is not a purpose for using good body mechanics?
a. Assure personal and resident safety
b. Minimize strength
c. Avoid muscle strain and injury
d. Minimize fatigue
75. A nurse aide is giving someone a bed bath. What should be done by the nurse aide to
maintain proper body mechanic technique?
a. Keep the bed as low as possible
b. Raise the HOB
c. Raise the bed to waist level
d. Keep the bed no higher than knee level
76. Which of the following elements is not necessary to start a fire?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Heat
Oxygen
Carbon dioxide
Fuel
77. Which of the following is not a major fire hazard?
a. Smoking
b. Clutter
c. Faulty electrical equipment
d. Properly grounded plugs
78. If oxygen is being used, what should you do?
a. Keep open flames and flammable liquids nearby
b. Don’t worry about it, there’s no danger
c. Tell everyone
d. Post an “Oxygen in Use” sign
79. If a disaster or catastrophe occurs, what should you do?
a. Act without thinking
b. Remain calm
c. Finish what you’re doing before evacuating
d. Panic
80. Which of the following should be done in the event of a fire to prevent it from spreading?
a. Close all windows and doors
b. Shut off the oxygen supply
c. Confine the fire
d. All of the above
81. Which of the following is not a sign of severe foreign body obstruction?
a. Coughing
b. Unable to speak
c. Grasping throat
d. No air movement
82. April is having a heart attack. Which of the following signs and symptoms would you not
except April to have?
a. Shortness of breath
b. Dry skin
c. Shoulder, neck, jaw and chest pain
d. Nausea
83. You are visiting your aunt at the hospital and notice a visitor in the hallway grasping his
chest and becoming pale. What should you do?
a. Use your aunt’s call light to signal for help
b. Provide first aid
c. Call 911
d. Carry on without doing anything
84. If you witness a resident having a seizure you should call for help, stay with the resident,
and:
a. Restrain the resident
b. Keep them awake and active after the seizure
c. Protect the resident from injury
d. Lay them on the floor flat on their back
85. Talitha is playing kickball in the summer heat and suddenly feels faint and dizzy. What other
symptom(s) might she have?
a. Flush face
b. Warm skin
c. Numbness in her extremities
d. Increased blood pressure
86. Which of the following is not a cause of shock?
a. Severe injury
b. Fever
c. Respiratory and/or cardiac arrest
d. Anxiety
87. Restlessness, low or falling blood pressure, rapid respirations, and a weak, rapid pulse are all
signs of:
a. External hemorrhage
b. Internal hemorrhage
c. Allergic reaction
d. Shock
88. Which of the following is not a sign of internal hemorrhage?
a. Visible blood
b. Pain
c. Vomiting blood
d. Loss of consciousness
89. When reporting emergencies you should never panic, remain calm and:
a. Give your name, location and information about injuries
b. Report emergencies accurately
c. Evaluated the situation: victim and surroundings
d. All of the above
90. To control external hemorrhage, you should:
a. Apply pressure near the bleeding site
b. Apply a tourniquet
c. Apply continuous, direct pressure over the bleeding site
d. Only call for help if the bleeding hasn’t stopped in 10 minutes
91. Which term is defined as any situation that might threaten the safety of an employee or have
an impact on their physical, emotional or psychological well being?
a. School violence
b. Workplace violence
c. Community violence
d. Medically ill person
92. Which of the following can be a cause of hostility and anger in
patients/residents/families/visitors?
a. Pain and fear
b. Grief and depression
c. Stress
d. All of the above
93. When diffusing a situation, you should:
a. Be proactive, not reactive
b. Call security before doing anything
c. Let the patient/resident/ family/visitor be in control
d. Focus on rules, not the patient
94. Which of the following could be a potential hazard in a hostile situation?
a. Ties tucked into a shirt
b. A stethoscope around your neck
c. Name badges on break away clips
d. A wedding ring
95. It is very stressful to deal with threatening, volatile or out of control patients. What might
staff need after such an incident?
a. Anti-anxiety medication
b. Counseling
c. Debriefing
d. A vacation
96. List a national patient safety goal that is greatly impacted by nurse aide work.
a. Identify residents correctly
b. Prevent infection
c. Prevent residents from falling
d. Prevent bed sores
97. When operating a fire extinguisher, what does the acronym P.A.S.S. stand for?
a. Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, Sweep side to side
1. Which type of fracture consists of a broken bone and fragments in tissue?
a. Simple
b. Compound
c. Comminuted
d. Greenstick
2. What are effects of aging in the skeletal system?
a. Joints are less flexible
b. Slow recovery
c. Bones are more porous
d. All of the above
3. Osteo and rheumatoid are two types of:
a. Bones
b. Arthritis
c. Joints
d. Ligaments
4. An observation that needs reporting is:
a. Complaint of pain with movement
b. Resident is out of toothpaste
c. Complaint of room being too cold
d. Resident’s nail polish is chipped
5. A NA is checking on a resident with a cast and is wanting to make sure:
a. They haven’t moved it
b. They are free of Cyanosis in fingers or toes
c. They are free of arthritis
d. Other residents aren’t writing on their cast
6. An important guideline for performing ROM is:
a. Follow directions on number of times each joint is to be exercised
b. Massage area briskly before beginning
c. Don’t be concerned if it hurts because it probably will
d. Make sure they have had a balanced meal first
7. When performing ROM on a resident, the NA needs to move them:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Slowly, smoothly, and gently
Fast, smooth, and only in the morning
With pressure against the joints
All of the above
8. When removing a hearing aid, the NA should:
a. Store on night stand
b. Use tissues to wipe off wax from the ear piece
c. Wash them in warm water
d. Never remove hearing aids
9. Which of the following should be washed under water with mild
detergent?
a. Eyeglasses
b. Hearing aids
c. Inhalers
d. Disposable briefs
10. Replace batteries in a hearing aid when:
a. There is no whistle
b. There is a whistle
c. Volume is high
d. They are special batteries that need not be changed
11. While you are walking with a resident, you should:
a. Not talk to them because it will distract them
b. Tell them when they fail to walk as far as they are suppose to
c. Encourage them to walk
d. Walk ahead of them to encourage them more
12. How long should you wait for the Plaster of Paris to dry?
a. 36-40 hours
b. 24-48 hours
c. 12-20 hours
d. 30 minutes
13. It is important to do what with cast care?
a. Maintain good body alignment
b. Keep cast dry
c. Observe cast for rough edges and report
d. All of the above
14. What are all the possible and reasonable ways to measure height?
a. Meters, nanometers, inches
b. Centimeters, inches, kilogram
c. Inches, milligrams, centimeters
d. Feet, inches, centimeters
15. Which of the following is NOT a type of scale?
a. Bathroom scale
b. Walker scale
c. Bed scale
d. Scale attached to hydraulic lifts
16. Residents who have contractures or cannot stand:
a. Must be measured using a tape measure
b. Get measured upon arrival to the facility, but never again
c. The NA can make an educated guess how tall they are
d. Can tell NA what their height was when they could stand
17. All of the following are reasons for obtaining height and weight EXCEPT:
a. Indicator of last BM
b. Indicator of nutritional status
c. Indicator of change in medical condition
d. Used by doctor to order medications
18. When weighing a resident, you would:
a. Measure them with all their clothes on
b. You don’t weight the resident
c. Use the same scale each time
d. Do it at different times each day
19. For residents who lose balance easily, the safest transfer aid would be:
a. Crutches
b. Walker
c. Wheelchair
d. Gait belt
20. Why must the correct ambulation aids be used?
a. The resident shopped for them
b. They are individually fitted
c. They dietician ordered it
d. The NA thinks they need it
21. You use a gait belt when…
a. There is an emergency situation
b. Residents cannot walk
c. Residents are unsteady on their feet
d. One or both legs are weak
22. When taking a resident into an elevator while on a stretcher or in a
wheelchair:
a. Take them out of it and hold them
b. Don’t take them into an elevator
c. Put them in feet first
d. Back them in head first
23. When using wheelchairs for residents:
a. Seats should sag a little in the center
b. Seats should not reach the back of the resident’s bent knees
c. Be guided forward when going downhill
d. Should be pulled forward over indented or raised areas
24. Which of the following circulatory disorders is known as chest pain?
a. Hypertension
b. Arteriosclerosis
c. Angina pectoris
d. Peripheral vascular disease
25. Which is an example of a circulatory system change due to aging?
a. Heart muscle is less efficient
b. Capillaries become more fragile
c. Blood pressure increases
d. All of the above
26. Which pulse site is located on the inner aspect of the elbow?
a. Femoral
b. Radial
c. Brachial
d. Carotid
27. Which of the following circulatory disorders is known as a moving blood
clot?
a. Embolus
b. Thrombus
c. Phlebitis
d. Atherosclerosis
28. Which is a factor affecting pulse?
a. Age
b. Illness
c. Physical training
d. All of the above
29. Which is NOT a function of the Sensory system?
a. Vision
b. Taste
c. Sleeping
d. Hearing
30. Which is the common disease of the sensory system that is inflammation
of the eyelid lining?
a. Glaucoma
b. Conjunctivitis
c. Cataract
d. Phlebitis
31. The sensory organs are part of which body system?
a. Urinary system
b. Reproduction system
c. Integumentary system
d. Nervous system
32. Which is an effect of aging in the sensory organs?
a. Sense of smell increases
b. Sense of taste decreases
c. Lens become thinner and clearer
d. Color blindness
33. Which is the sensory organ disease that involves infection of the middle
ear:
a. Otitis media
b. Sty
c. Deafness
d. Glaucoma
34. What is the medical term for a CVA?
a. Cerebrovascular accident
b. Cerebellum venous artery
c. Claudic Ventral Anurysm
d. Central Vascular Arteriosclerosis
35. Which is common nervous system disorder?
a. Parkinson’s
b. Cancer
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. A and C
36. Which is an effect of aging on the nervous system?
a. Reduced sense of touch and sensitivity to pain
b. Increased blood flow to brain
c. Forgetfulness
d. Both A and C
37. Which is an observation to report?
a. Tremors
b. Onyching
c. Lacrimal
d. Bilivesic
38. Which is an observation NOT to report?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Confusion
Onyching
Paralysis
Seizures
39. Measuring the pulse is one way of checking on the _____ system.
a. Skeletal
b. Circulatory
c. Muscle
d. Sensory
40. Circulation is the continuous movement of ___ throughout the body.
a. Blood
b. Mucous
c. Food
d. Cilli
41. Blood consists of ___% water.
a. 50
b. 70
c. 80
d. 90
42. Arteries carry blood ___ from the heart and veins carry blood ___ the
heart.
a. To; away
b. Away; to
c. To; to
d. Away; away
43. How many heart valves are there?
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 0
44. Nerve cells reproduce once they are destroyed.
a. True
b. False
45. What is the largest part of the brain?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cerebellum
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Cerebrum
46. How long is the spinal cord?
a. 18 inches
b. 16 inches
c. 8 inches
d. 2 feet
47. The Nervous system enables you to ___.
a. Speak
b. Hear
c. Learn
d. All of the above
48. The Nervous system is divided into how many parts?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 10
49. The NA should report which of the following when caring for a resident
with a cast?
a. Odors
b. Drainage
c. Swelling
d. All of the above
50. Two major complications that will come up if the patients doesn’t practice
deep breathing and coughing are:
a. Pneumonia
b. Atelectasis
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
51. What should you give a resident if they have pain while coughing?
a. Pillow
b. A blanket
c. Crayons
d. A smiley-face sticker
52. What is the abbreviation used for vital signs?
a. TPR + BP
b. VS
c. PR + BP
d. TPRC + BP
53. When using an electronic thermometer if taking a rectal temperature the
probe should be what color?
a. Blue
b. Green
c. Red
d. Yellow
54. Where is the aural temperature taken?
a. Ear
b. Axillary
c. Rectal
d. Oral
55. Respiration means to breath in ______ and breath out ______
a. Carbon dioxide, oxygen
b. Oxygen, oxygen
c. Oxygen, carbon dioxide
d. CO2, C02
56. The process in which oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between
the lungs and blood is called:
a. Internal Respiration
b. External Respiration
c. Hypo-respiration
d. All of the above
57. Which is not a part of the Respiratory System Structure?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Oral Cavity
Heart
Bronchi
Alveoli
58. What structure of the respiratory system is lined with a mucous
membrane and warms and moistens the air?
a. Nose
b. Alveoli
c. Diaphragm
d. Pleura
59. What is the membrane that encloses the lungs?
a. Nose
b. Alveoli
c. Diaphragm
d. Pleura
60. Which type of care follows rehabilitation? The goal is to keep the resident
at the level achieved by rehabilitation services.
a. Restorative
b. Rehabilitation
c. Respite
d. Palliative
61. Which is a goal of rehabilitation/restoration?
a. Learning new skills
b. Prevention of complications
c. Retraining lost skills
d. All of the above
62. Which is something you should report/record about
Rehabilitation/Restorative care?
a. Any increase or decrease in abilities
b. Any change in attitude or motivation
c. Signs of depression/mood changes
d. All of the above should be reported/recorded
63. Which of the following is a way a Nurse Aid can make a resident feel safe
and secure?
a. Being impatient
b. Being supportive
c. Being crude
d. Being negative
64. Which type of care is managed by professionals to help restore a person to
the highest level of function?
a. Restorative
b. Rehabilitation
c. Respite
d. Palliative
65. When a patient has an Upper Respiratory Infection, what parts of the body
are infected?
a. Lungs, heart, throat, nose
b. Bronchi, throat, nose, larynx
c. Nose, throat, larynx, trachea
d. Throat, lungs, bronchi, alveoli
66. Carl has spasms of the bronchial tube walls, which cause narrowing of air
passages due to him eating certain foods. Which common disorder of the
respiratory system does Carl have?
a. COPD
b. Bronchitis
c. Asthma
d. URI
67. What is a highly contagious URI?
a. Pleurisy
b. Influenza
c. Bronchitis
d. Asthma
68. What are the symptoms of the Respiratory System due to aging?
a. Number of alveoli decrease
b. Respirations increase
c. Chest walls become more rigid
d. All of the above
69. What are normal respirations per minute for adults?
a. 5 -10
b. 6-11
c. 12-20
d. 15-21
70. What is a role of the NA assisting with rehabilitation of a resident?
a. Provide encouragement
b. Praise accomplishments
c. Look at their failures
d. Both A and B
71. Why do you encourage a resident to do as much as they can?
a. So they can rest better
b. To promote pride and independence for the resident
c. To promote group activities
d. To keep them hydrated
72. Why do you allow residents to choose their clothing?
a. So you don’t have to
b. To make them feel like a child
c. You don’t
d. To give them a choice
73. What does a NA consider for the resident’s ADL?
a. Assist to exercise
b. Provide resting periods
c. Encourage use of adaptive devices
d. All of the above
74. Who initiates treatment for residents?
a. PT
b. NA
c. DON
d. OSHA
75. What body mechanics do you use?
a. Keep back straight
b. Use both hands to move objects
c. Don’t twist your body
d. All of the above
76. Why do you allow a resident to dangle?
a. It give NA more time to get clothes out
b. Prevent resident injury and falls
c. Give them a choice of whether to get up or not
d. Residents should never dangle
77. When using crutches the weight is supported on the handle bars not the
_______?
a. Knee
b. Foot
c. Axilla
d. Tarsal
78. How many fingers should fit between the arm rest and axilla to fit
properly?
a. 1 finger
b. 2 fingers
c. 4 fingers
d. It doesn’t matter as long as it is not touching
79. What is the purpose for TED stockings?
a. Support
b. Circulation
c. Prevent blood clots
d. All of the above
80. Systolic pressure has a greater force and is when the heart is:
a. Relaxing
b. At rest
c. Contracting
d. Superior
81. Diastolic pressure is the least force exerted as the heart ______
a. Relaxes
b. Is medial
c. Contracts
d. Fails
82. To take a person’s blood pressure what equipment does the NA need?
a. Sphygomanometer
b. Stethoscope
c. No equipment, you use palpation
d. Both A and B
83. When recording blood pressure you record it in what order?
a. Systolic over Diastolic
b. Diastolic over Systolic
c. Side by side
d. In numerical order
84. What factors can influence blood pressure?
a. Age
b. Sleep
c. Weight
d. All of the above
85. When a resident is using a walker which leg should they lead with?
a. Weaker
b. Stronger
c. Longer
d. Shorter
86. What should canes be level with when used?
a. Head of Pelvis
b. Head of Femur
c. Below the knee
d. Just above the knee
87. When aging your muscles decrease in size, atrophy. This causes:
a. Difficulty walking
b. Loss of muscle strength
c. Inability to move a body part
d. All of the above
88. Braces are used for:
a. Support a weak part of the body
b. Prevent movement of joint
c. Correct deformities
d. All of the above
89. What is the most common prosthetic?
a. Arm
b. Below the knee
c. Leg
d. Thigh
90. An NA understands the range of function in rehabilitative/restorative and
maintenance care because they:
a. Help the patient attain the highest level of functioning
b. Make the patient worn out
c. Talk about what happened to them
d. Have a degree in therapy
91. What are three functions of the skeletal system?
a. Circulate, protect, movement
b. Support, movement, protect
c. Blood cell production, circulation, protect
d. Protect, support, circulate
92. What are some types of joint movements?
a. Ball in socket, freely movable, immovable
b. Movement, ball in socket, immovable
c. Immovable, slightly movable, freely moveable
d. None of the above
93. What is a ligament?
a. Connects bone to bone
b. Connects muscle to muscle
c. Connects muscle to bone
d. Connects tendon to muscle
94. What is a tendon?
a. connects bone to bone
b. connects bone to tendon
c. connects muscle to bone
d. connects tendon to muscle
95. To work a mechanical lift you must:
a. 18 or older
b. Know how to use one
c. Must demonstrate competence in a classroom
d. All of the above
96. The two types of ROM are:
a. Active, passive
b. Transport, active
c. Inactive, passive
d. Passive, transport
97. The purpose of ROM is:
a. Decrease circulation
b. Maintain muscle tone
c. Increases deformities
d. All of the above
98. Mechanical lifts are used to:
a. Transfer residents
b. Help residents work out
c. Help them walk
d. Help maintenance make repairs
99. Before you use a lift you should:
a. Look around the room
b. Circle the bed for safety
c. Ask the resident if their ready
d. Ask the nurse for help
1. A resident’s weight, compared with the height, gives information about their _____ status
and changes in their medical condition. They can also be used by doctors to order
medications.
a. Mental
b. Nutritional
c. Elimination
d. Circulatory
2. Which of the following is not a reasonable and common measurement used for height?
a. Meters
b. Feet
3.
4.
5.
6.
c. Centimeters
d. Inches
How would you obtain someone’s height with contractures or cannot stand?
a. Guess
b. Lay them flat on a ruler
c. Prop them up so they are standing
d. Use a tape measure
When weighing a patient, you should not:
a. Have them void before weighing
b. Weigh at the same time every day
c. Use the closest scale to your current location
d. Have them remove excessive clothing and shoes
Which of the following is not a common and reasonable measurement for weight?
a. Grams
b. Pounds
c. Kilograms
d. Ounces
Which scale would be most appropriate for someone who is bed-bound?
a. Bathroom/standing scale
b. A scale attached to a hydraulic lift
c. Bed scale
d. Wheelchair scale
7. You need to take a tympanic temperature on a two year old. How would you position the ear?
a. Pull the pinna straight back and up
b. Pull the pinna straight back and down
c. Pull the pinna straight back
d. None of the above
8. You have taken Caroline’s axillary temperature. Which of the following temperatures would
need to be reported?
a. 97.6 °F
b. 98.6 °F
c. 99.6 °F
d. 96.6 °F
9. Which disorder is defined as a temperature above 104 °F?
a. No disorder, this is a normal temperature
b. Hypothermia
c. Hyperthermia
d. Fever
10. Bryson’s radial pulse is taken by NA Donna. Which of the following should she report
immediately?
a. 99 bpm
b. 70 bpm, strong, regular
c. 110 bpm, strong, irregular
d. 63 bpm, regular
11. Arteries carry blood _____ the heart and veins carry blood _____ the heart.
a. To; away from
b. Away from; away from
c. To; to
d. Away from; to
12. Respirations means to breathe in _____ and breathe out _____.
a. Oxygen; carbon dioxide
b. Hydrogen; nitrogen
c. Carbon dioxide; oxygen
d. Nitrogen; hydrogen
13. External respiration means that oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the:
a. Blood stream and cells
b. Lungs and blood
c. Lungs and environment
d. Cell and lungs
14. Internal respiration refers to oxygen and carbon dioxide being exchanged between the:
a. Lungs and blood
b. Cells and lungs
c. Blood stream and cells
d. Lungs and environment
15. Which of the following is not a quality of normal respirations?
a. Effortless
b. Quiet
c. Rate 12-20 per minute
d. Irregular
16. When the diaphragm contracts, what happens?
a. Air is drawn into the lungs
b. Air is forced out of the lungs
c. The heart beats
d. You exhale
17. Which lung has 2 lobes and why?
a. Right, it’s displaced by the heart
b. Left, it’s displaced by the heart
c. Right, it’s displaced by the liver
d. Left, it’s displaced y the liver
18. Which of the following respiratory observations doesn’t have to be reported immediately?
a. Noisy respirations
b. Gasping for breath
c. Regular respirations
d. Difficulty breathing
19. Which of the following is a change in the respiratory system that you would not expect to see
in a seventy year old male?
a. Respiratory muscles weaken
b. Chest wall and structures become more rigid
c. Number of alveoli and respirations decreases
d. Voice pitch is higher
20. Which statement is not true regarding measuring blood pressure?
a. Have the correct size cuff
b. Measure above the brachial artery
c. Identify the brachial artery for correct placement of the stethoscope
d. Measure on the upper arm
21. Which vital signs measure the circulatory system?
a. Pulse and blood pressure
b. Temperature and pulse
c. Blood pressure and respirations
d. Temperature and blood pressure
22. Pulse is the expansion and contraction of the:
a. Vein
b. Artery
c. Capillary
d. Heart
23. Your resident is experiencing chest pain. This is known as:
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Atherosclerosis
c. Angina pectoris
d. Hypertension
24. Which of the following pulse sites requires the use of a stethoscope when measuring pulse?
a. Radial
b. Carotid
c. Brachial
d. Apical
25. Which of the following is not a factor that affects both pulse and respiratory rate?
a. Physical training
b. Activity level
c. Temperature
d. Emotions
26. Which of the following is not a piece of equipment needed to measure blood pressure?
a. Sphygmomanometer with pressure control bulb
b. Pressure gauge, either mercury or aneroid
c. Watch with a second hand
d. Stethoscope
27. When reading a blood pressure gauge, you take the reading at the closest line. The long lines
are in increments of 10 mmHg and the shorter lines are in increments of:
a. 8 mmHg
b. 6 mmHg
c. 4 mmHg
d. 2mmHg
28. The first sound you hear when taking a blood pressure is the force of the heart muscle
squeezing and should be recorded on top. This reading is the:
a. Pulse pressure
b. Systolic pressure
c. Diastolic pressure
d. Arterial pressure
29. When taking a blood pressure which of the following guidelines should be followed?
a. Have the resident in a relaxed position, either sitting or lying
b. Take it in the arm opposite IVs, A-V shunts, casts, wounds, or sores
c. Apply the cuff over their bare arm
d. All of the above
30. A stethoscope has a diaphragm and does what to sound?
a. Magnifies it
b. Dims it
c. Adds sound effects
d. Blinks when there is sound
31. What is the most common site for taking a temperature?
a. Axillary
b. Aural/tympanic
c. Oral
d. Rectal
32. How do you measure someone’s respirations without being obvious?
a. Listen with a stethoscope
b. Keep your hand at their radial pulse site
c. Stare at them from the doorway
d. Stand behind them
33. What is the most common pulse site?
a. Radial
b. Apical
c. Brachial
d. Carotid
34. Where is the tip of the thermometer placed when taking an oral temperature?
a. Under the tongue at the front
b. On the left side above their tongue
c. In the “hot pocket” under the tongue
d. In their cheek
35. Which temperature is taken in the ear?
a. Oral
b. Rectal
c. Axillary
d. Aural/tympanic
36. What is the abbreviation used for vital signs?
a. TPR + BP
b. PR + BP
c. TPRC + BP
d. TP + BP
37. Vital signs provide information about changes in normal body function and the resident’s
response to treatment. They are often the first sign that there is:
a. An illness
b. A problem
c. Dehydration
d. No reason to worry
38. Which vital sign is the balance between heat production and heat loss in the body?
a. Respirations
b. Blood pressure
c. Temperature
d. Pulse
39. What is the most accurate site for taking a temperature?
a. Oral because it is in the mouth
b. Axillary because you sweat and it’s warm
c. Aural because it’s inside the ear canal
d. Rectal because it’s an internal measurement
40. Which of the following is not an observation of the circulatory system in regards to aging?
a. Blood is pumped with less force
b. Blood pressure decreases
c. Arteries lose elasticity
d. Capillaries become more fragile
41. Which vital sign is the force of blood pushing against the arteries as the heart contracts and
relaxes?
a. Temperature
b. Pulse
c. Respiration
d. Blood pressure
42. Where is blood pressure measured?
a. Brachial artery
b. Popliteal artery
c. Femoral artery
d. Carotid artery
43. Which of the following is a measurement of the least amount of force exerted as the heart
relaxes?
a. Pulse pressure
b. Diastolic pressure
c. Systolic pressure
d. Tidal volume
44. Which of the following blood pressure measurements is normal for a thirty year old female?
a. 134/88
b. 150/97
c. 118/78
d. 185/110
45. You need to take a rectal temperature on your resident. Which of the following thermometers
would you use?
a. A non-mercury glass thermometer with a red end
b. An electronic thermometer with a blue probe
c. A plastic thermometer
d. A non-mercury glass thermometer with a blue end
46. Which condition is defined as porous bone that breaks easily?
a. Fracture
b. Osteoporosis
c. Arthritis
d. Sprain
47. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
a. Antibody production
b. Movement
c. Support and protect
d. Mineral storage
48. Someone with a prosthetic limb has had a previous:
a. Cold
b. Sprain
c. Amputation
d. Fracture
49. You would expect to see osteoarthritis in which of the following joints?
a. Elbow
b. Shoulder
c. Wrist
d. Vertebrae
50. Which of the following observations needs to be reported?
a. The room being too warm
b. Ability to move all joints without complications
c. Pain with movement
d. Slow and steady body movement
51. Your resident has a leg cast. Which of the following should be reported?
a. Toes are warm and dry
b. Toes have full ROM
c. Toes look really skinny
d. Toes are pale and swollen
52. Someone who has been in an arm cast for six weeks might experience:
a. Atrophy
b. Paralysis
c. Contractures
d. Muscle strain
53. Which of the following are effects of aging on the muscular system?
a. Less active with loss of muscle strength and tone
b. Slower muscle-nerve interaction
c. Difficulty walking, holding, or lifting objects
d. All of the above
54. What is the most complex cell in the body and does not reproduce?
a. Osteocyte
b. Neuron
c. Erythrocyte
d. Leukocyte
55. The nervous system enables you to:
a. Speak, hear, taste, see and smell
b. Think, learn, remember, and respond/move
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
56. Which portion of the brain is the largest and is responsible for judgment, memory,
association and discrimination?
a. Cerebrum
b. Brain stem
c. Cerebellum
d. Hypothalamus
57. Which part of the brain is responsible for coordination of muscles, balance, posture, and
muscle tone?
a. Cerebrum
b. Cerebellum
c. Thalamus
d. Medulla oblongata
58. Which part of the brain regulates the heartbeat, respirations, swallowing, coughing and blood
pressure?
a. Pons
b. Medulla oblongata
c. Cerebrum
d. Thalamus
59. Which of the following is not true regarding the spinal cord?
a. 18 inches long from brain to mid-back
b. Carries messages to and from the brain
c. Controls reflexes
d. Relays messages via spinal nerves
60. The peripheral nervous system consists of nerves leaving the _____ and going throughout the
_____.
a. Brain, spinal cord
b. Brain, body
c. Spinal cord, body
d. Body, spinal cord
61. CVA’s occur because blood supply is cut off to the brain. What are they caused by?
a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Hemorrhage
c. Blood clot
d. Both B and C
62. Which of the following nervous system changes would you not expect in a 90 year old?
a. Increase in reaction time
b. Changes in memory and forgetfulness
c. Loss of nerve/brain cells and decreased blood flow to the brain
d. Increased sense of touch and sensitivity to pain
63. Which of the following observations does not have to be reported?
a. Complaints of numbness, dizziness or nausea
b. Jerking motions, tremors, muscular rigidity
c. Clear mind and urinary continence
d. Speech and/or vision changes and confusion
64. Which is not a sensory organ?
a. Taste buds
b. Teeth
c. Skin
d. Eyes
65. Which common sensory disorder is known as an ear infection?
a. Otitis media
b. Sty
c. Glaucoma
d. Cataract
66. As we age our sensory organs change. Which of the following changes would you not expect
to see as you age?
a. Peripheral vision and night vision decrease
b. Awareness of hot and cold decreases
c. Progressive hearing loss of high-pitched sounds
d. None of the above
67. What type of care has a goal of helping restore a person to the highest level of function?
a. Restorative
b. Cast
c. Rehabilitative
d. Geriatric
68. NA’s performing rehabilitative/restorative care need to help residents feel safe and secure by
being kind, patient, sensitive to residents needs and
a. Positive
b. Supportive
c. Helpful
d. All of the above
69. In rehabilitative/restorative care, the NA should not report which of the following?
a. Any change in general health
b. The same attitude or level of motivation as yesterday
c. Any change in abilities
d. Progress or additional teaching needs
70. All of the following are true about rehabilitation/restoration except:
a. Emphasis is placed on new abilities
b. Encourages independence and promotes a productive lifestyle
c. Includes a goal of retraining in lost skills and learning new skills
d. Prevent complications
71. The nurse aid is working with Bob on the rehabilitation/restoration unit. Which of the
following is not part of the NA’s role in Bob’s care?
a. Allow Bob to do as much as he can and offer help when needed
b. Encourage and praise Bob for his independence and accomplishments
c. Teach Bob new skills
d. Be realistic but never give false hope
72. Which of the following is important to consider for a resident’s ADL’s?
a. Be blunt in making the resident aware of hygiene needs
b. Allow resident to control when activities are carried out, as much as possible
c. Always keep them moving, not resting
d. Keep them on your schedule, not theirs
73. You need to help Sue walk to the bathroom. Which of the following adaptive devices would
be most appropriate?
a. Her cane
b. Her roommate’s wheelchair
c. A long handled brush
d. A prosthetic arm
74. A walker should be picked up and put down, not
a. Carried
b. Rolled
c. Slid
d. Scooted
75. Canes and walkers are fitted properly when:
a. The top is level with the femur
b. Elbows are flexed 15-30 degrees
c. Rubber grips are in place
d. The resident can pick it up properly
76. When using a cane, the resident should use it on:
a. The side with the strongest leg
b. The side with the weakest leg
c. The side opposite the injury
d. Both A and C
77. Crutches are measured to fit properly by a physical therapist. They are being used correctly
when all of the following are true except:
a. Armrest fit snugly in axilla
b. Two fingers fit between armrest and axilla
c. Elbows are flexed 20-30 degrees when hands are on hand grips
d. Weight is supported in handle bars not axilla
78. Which of the following is true regarding wheelchairs?
a. Seat should sag towards the center and reach the back of the seated resident’s knees
b. They are guided forwards over indented or raised areas and when going downhill
c. Resident’s feet should rest flat on floor when chair is not moving and on footrest
when transported
d. Cleaned with harsh disinfectants
79. Which of the following should not be done prior to transporting someone on a
stretcher/gurney?
a. Secure safety belts
b. Raise both side rails
c. Position it so they will be pushed feet first
d. Leave the residents alone on the stretcher
80. You use a gait belt when…
a. A resident is non-weight bearing
b. Both legs are weak
c. A resident is unsteady on their feet
d. A resident is transferred on a stretcher
81. Which of the following is not true when operating a mechanical lift?
a. Position the lower end of the sling at mid-calf on the resident
b. Make sure enough assistance is available for a safe transfer
c. Circle the bed for safety
d. Hooks are turned away from the resident’s body
82. Range of motion:
a. Maintains muscle tone and prevents deformities
b. Increases circulation
c. Encourages mobility
d. All of the above
83. Which type of ROM requires another person to move body parts for the resident?
a. Resistive
b. Passive
c. Active
d. Active assistive
84. Sarah is performing ROM on Joe’s shoulder when he starts to complain of pain, what should
Sarah do?
a. Continue, being gentler
b. Stop, report to supervisor
c. Continue then report to supervisor
d. Stop, continuing on to the next joint
85. With contact lenses, which of the following observations should not be reported?
a. Clear sclera
b. Swelling
c. Itching
d. Scratching sensations/pain
86. Where should eyeglasses be stored when not in use?
a. On top of the dresser
b. At the bathroom sink
c. In the top drawer in the nightstand
d. In their protective case
87. How should you remove a hearing aid?
a. Turn volume to semi-low setting
b. Lift earpiece up and out of the ear
c. Turn volume to high setting
d. Lift earpiece down and out of the ear
88. Braces are used to:
a. Support a weak part of the body
b. Correct and prevent deformities
c. Prevent movement of a joint
d. All of the above
89. Which type of amputation is most common?
a. Below the elbow
b. Above the elbow
c. Below the knee
d. Above the knee
90. Which device would not be used on someone with an amputation?
a. Artificial knee
b. Artificial hand
c. Artificial leg
d. Artificial arm
91. When caring for artificial limbs, the NA does not need to:
a. Observe and report irritation, swelling, or skin changes
b. Check all parts for damage
c. Polish the prosthetic device
d. Pad area of prosthesis touching resident
92. Breast forms should be sent to the laundry.
a. True
b. False
93. Which body mechanics rule should Amy follow when picking up a heavy box off the floor?
a. Bend using hips and knees
b. Do not twist the body to reach an object
c. Use one hand to lift or move objects
d. Stand far away from objects being handled
94. What can occur if a resident is not dangled before standing up?
a. Dizziness and nausea
b. Dizziness and fainting
c. Dizziness and hypertension
d. Dizziness and fatigue
95. When standing a resident, your hands should be under the resident’s arms with hands around
their:
a. Elbows
b. Upper arms
c. Shoulder blades
d. Middle to lower back
96. Walking has all of the following effects on the body except:
a. Stimulates circulation and strengthens muscles
b. Relieves pressure on body parts and increases joint mobility
c. Leads to more positive self-image and provides sense of accomplishment
d. Improves digestive and neuro functions
97. When walking a resident, you should not:
a. Discourage the use of handrails for support
b. Ease the resident to the floor if they start to fall
c. Use a gait belt and allow adequate time for walking
d. Encourage them to ambulate as much as possible but assist if needed
98. What is used to immobilize a body part, providing time for the part to heal?
a. Cast
b. Splint
c. Brace
d. Prosthesis
99. Which of the following is not true regarding plaster of paris?
a. Dries in 24-48 hours
b. Gives off heat while drying
c. Lightweight
d. Expands when drying
100. Which of the following is not part of cast care?
a. Support cast with palms of hands and pillows
b. Keep cast covered and dry
c. Inspect and report any rough edges
d. Maintain good body alignment while not putting pressure on the cast
101. You are performing cast care on David’s leg and notice the following things. Which
finding does not need reporting?
a. Cyanosis and skin irritation at edge of cast
b. A foul odor
c. Itching and swelling to toes
d. Normal temperature and thirst
102. What does coughing and deep breathing help prevent?
a. Pneumonia
b. Atelectasis
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
103. What removes mucous from airways and lungs but may cause pain and be difficult to
perform for some patients?
a. Sneezing
b. Coughing
c. Deep breathing
d. Hiccupping
104. What provides support and comfort, promotes circulation by providing pressure and
reduces the risk of thrombus formation?
a. Pantyhose
b. Knee high stockings
c. Knee socks
d. TED hose
105. Which resident would most likely have anti-embolitic stockings/hose ordered?
a. Sally who is 2 days post-op for hip surgery
b. Molly who has CHF
c. Tammy who is on bed rest for 2 days
d. All of the above
106. Elastic stockings exert pressure on _____, promoting blood flow to the heart.
a. Arteries
b. Capillaries
c. Veins
d. Lymph vessels
107. What length do TED hose come in?
a. Thigh and knee
b. Thigh only
c. Knee only
d. Thigh and ankle
108.
109.
110.
Which nervous system structure controls your sleep and emotional state?
a. Spinal cord
b. Hypothalamus
c. Pons
d. Cerebrum
What type of fracture results in bone fragments imbedded in tissue?
a. Comminuted
b. Greenstick
c. Simple
d. Compound
Which condition is the collapse of a portion of the lung?
a. Pneumonia
b. Influenza
c. Atelectasis
d. Cystic fibrosis
111. According to ROM guidelines, each movement is repeated _____ times unless otherwise
ordered.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10
112. Regardless of the classification of the resident, should they be treated differently?
a. Yes, because they’re bad
b. No, because the NA is there to help everyone
c. Yes, so they won’t have to deal with the resident
d. None of the above
113. When working with elderly and/or disabled residents, you should act with:
a. Discomfort
b. Anxiety
c. Patience
d. Melancholy
114. What is a sty?
a. A tiny abscess at the base of any eyelash
b. Partial or complete hearing loss
c. When the lens of the eye losses its transparency
d. Inflammation of the eyelid lining
115. Which of the following is not a material used on braces?
a. Metal
b. Leather
c. Wood
d. Plastic