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Eksamen i Modul 5.2.
MedIS, AAU, 5. semester
11. januar 2011, 9:00 – 12:00
3 timers skriftlig eksamen uden hjælpemidler.
Besvarelserne skal fotokopieres, så skriv venligst tydeligt. Skriv studienummer på alle sider.
Besvarelser indskrives i de angivne rammer. Rammernes størrelse angiver samtidig den ønskede
maksimale længde på besvarelserne af essayspørgsmål. Der må således ikke skrives mere til det
enkelte spørgsmål, end det kan rummes inden for den relevante ramme. Den enkelte opgaves vægt
i point er angivet forneden. Rammen ”points achieved” er kun til brug ved censureringen.
Besvarelsen skal være på dansk og / eller engelsk; hvis du er usikker på, hvad et begreb hedder på
dansk, er det acceptabelt, at du skriver det på engelsk.
Ternet/linieret papir er kun til kladdebrug, men skal afleveres i mapperne.
Eksamen er en blanding af multiple choice questions, multiple option questions og short essay type
questions. Total antal af spørgsmål er 66 (33 MCQ).
Total antal af point for Blok 15: 117 point
1
Shoulder & the brachial plexus/Functional & clinical anatomy of the shoulder
1.
Which of the following is NOT located near the shoulder
A.
The coracoid process
B.
The long head of the biceps tendon
C.
The glenoid fossa
D.
The cubital fossa
E.
The acromion process
Max point :1
Achieved point
2.
A.
B.
During shoulder abduction, …
There is medial rotation (of the inferior angle) of the scapula.
The scapula muscles reposition the rotator cuff muscles to appropriately
stabilize the humeral head.
C.
The subclavius muscle is very important.
D.
The deltoid is a synergist muscle.
E.
The rotator cuff muscles are the prime movers.
Max point :1
Achieved point
3.
Choose the correct statement
A.
The shoulder joint is stable.
B.
The glenoid fossa is larger than the head of the humerus.
C.
The shoulder joint is a synovial joint.
D.
The shoulder joint is not a ball and socket joint.
E.
A Bankart lesion is a fracture of the head of the humerus.
Max point :1
Achieved point
4.
Of the following the most difficult to palpate would be the
A.
Upper Trapezius muscle
B.
Pectoralis Minor
C.
Acromion Process
D.
Anterior Deltoid
E.
Clavicle
Max point :1
Achieved point




5.
When it comes to critical appraisal, name 2 criteria used to assess
research quality.
- Subject randomization (0.5)
- Follow-up (0.5)
- Blinding (0.5)
Also: intention-to-treat (0.5)
Accept any similar answer reasonable. (0.5)
Max point: 1
Achieved point:
2
6.
Treatments may appear effective when they actually are not. Identify 4
reasons why this might occur.
- Natural recovery – A lot of patients recover from injuries naturally. (0.5)
- Placebo effect – The ritual of having treatment has an effect. (0.5)
- Hawthorne effect – Patients say they are better when they are not. (0.5)
- Statistical regression – Conditions vary over time (patients only go to clinician
when symptoms are really bad and therefore when they get better – as the
symptoms fluctuate – they believe that it is due to the treatment). (0.5)
- Recall bias – Clinicians remember extreme patients and remember the effective
treatment for these patients. (0.5)
Accept any similar answer reasonable. (0.5)
Max point: 2
Achieved point:
7.
What does the PRICE-model comprise of within the general treatment of
injuries?
- Prevention (0.5)
- Rest (0.5)
- Ice (reduced swelling) (0.5)
- Compression (reduced swelling) (0.5)
- Elevation (0.5)
Synonyms can be accepted BUT should not deviate too much from the list above.
Max point: 2,5
Achieved point:
8.
Name 7 possible complications of fractures.
General:
- Shock (0.5)
- Fat embolus (0.5)
- Deep vein thrombosis (0.5)
- Septicemia (0.5)
Local
- Infection (0.5)
- Nerve damage (0.5)
- Vascular injury (0.5)
- Associated soft tissue injury (0.5)
- Delayed union (0.5)
- Malunion (0.5)
- Non-union (0.5)
- Avascular necrosis (0.5)
- Joint stiffness (0.5)
Accept any other complications that are reasonable! (0.5)
Max point: 3,5
Achieved point:
3
9.
Define pain according to the IASP (International Association for the
Study of Pain)?
What are the components of pain (give 4 examples)
Which terms are typically described by the synonyms “pain inhibits pain”
and “touch inhibits pain” in pain modulation.
IASP/pain: “Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with
actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage” (1)
Components of pain (0.5 each):
- Sensory-discriminative
- Emotional-affective
- Autonomic
- Cognitive
- Motor
Synonyms:
- DNIC (diffuse noxious inhibitory control/”pain inhibits pain”) (0.5)
- GTC (gate control theory/touch inhibits pain) (0.5)
There should be no major deviation from the list above.
Max point: 4
Achieved point:
10.
Name 7 out of 8 carpal bones of the wrist.
Their surface exhibit a palmar concavity and dorsal convexity which is
termed ...
Distal:
- Trapezium bone/Os trapezium (0.5)
- Trapezoid bone/Os trapezoideum (0.5)
- Capitate bone/Os capitatum (0.5)
- Hamate bone/Os hamatum (0.5)
Proximal:
- Scaphoid bone/Os scaphoideum (0.5)
- Lunate bone/Os lunatum (0.5)
- Triquetrum bone/Os triquetrum (0.5)
- Pisiforme bone/Os pisiforme (0.5)
The Carpal Tunnel (0.5)
Both Latin and English terminology valid
Max point: 4
Achieved point:
11.
Name the 4 (types of) articulations in the wrist and hand.
- Articulatio radioulnaris distalis (0.5)
- Articulatio radiocarpalis (0.5)
- Articulatio carpometacarpales (CMP) (0.5)
- Articulatio metacarpophalangeales (MCP) (0.5)
- Articulatio interphalangeales proximales (PIP) (0.5)
- Articulatio interphalangeales distales (DIP) (0.5)
Max point: 4
Achieved point:
4
12.
Name the 4 missing muscles of the forearm.
- Extensor digiti minimi (0.5)
- Abductor pollicis longus (0.5)
- Extensor pollicis brevis (0.5)
- Extensor pollicis longus (0.5)
Max point: 2
Achieved point:
13. Clinical signs of nerve lesions
A. Distal ulnar nerve lesion
B. Proximal median nerve lesion
C. Proximal radial nerve lesion
D. Proximal ulnar nerve lesion
E. Distal median nerve lesion
Lead in: From the list above, select the appropriate option.
Within with case would you expect the clinical signs of a “hand of
benediction” and a positive “bottle sign”?
Within with case would you expect a “dropped wrist” and sensory
disturbances?
Max point: 2
Achieved point:
14.
B
C
The patient Gabriella Simonsen has injured her left arm after a fall during
netball. She has been diagnosed with a supracondylar fracture of the left
elbow with compression of the Arteria brachialis.
Cite 2 signs of a compressed artery which may be detected while
examining her forearm and hand.
absence of radial pulse, cold and pale hand.
Max point: 2
Achieved point:
5
15.
The term myotome refers to a group of muscles supplied by a single
nerve root. Fill the following sentences with the correct answer.
A. A lesion of a single nerve root is usually associated with a .....
B. A lesion to the peripheral nerve leads to
… complete paralysis of the muscle
… incomplete paralysis of the muscle
Max point: 2
Achieved point:
16.
B
A
Name the 5 nerves in the terminal branches of the brachial plexus.
- Musculocutaneous nerve/ N. musculocutaneus (1)
- Axillary nerve/N. axillaris (1)
- Radial nerve/N. radialis (1)
- Median nerve/N. medianus (1)
- Ulnar nerve/N. Ulnaris (1)
In descending order. Both Latin and English terminology valid.
Max point: 5
Achieved point:
6
17.
Choose the correct answer!
Osteoarthritis is a disease that involves the following factor(s):
A.
Low-grade inflammation
B.
Calcification of articular cartilage
C.
Genetics
D.
Metabolic disorders
E.
All of the above
Max point: 1
Achieved point:

18. Choose the correct statement in regard to gouty arthritis (GA)!
A.
The formation of Bouchard nodes is a prominent sign in GA.
B.
GA is accompanied by high levels of uric acid in body fluids.

C.
Ulnar drift is one of the cardinal symptoms in GA.
D.
The formation of Heberden nodes is a prominent sign in GA.
E.
GA is highly correlated with chronic inflammation of bursal sacks.
Max point: 1
Achieved point:
19.
Which of the following statements is NOT true of the pelvis and coxal
joint?
A.
Hip flexion range of motion is approx. 140°.
B.
The coxal joint is a ball and socket type joint.
C.
The Acetabulum is positioned in a downward and outwardly direction.
D.
The Acetabulum is surrounded by a labrum which is thicker and more

substantial inferiorly than superiorly
E.
The Acetabulum is the fossa where the femoral head articulates.
Max point: 1
Achieved point:
20.
In two adult patients, their hip angles are 115° and 140°. Based on a
“normal” hip angle of 125°, which hip angles would be referred to as a
coxa valgus and a coxa varus.
Coxa valgus: hip angle 115°
Coxa varus: hip angle 140°
Max point: 1
21.
The pelvis is formed by two bones, each of which is comprised of the
following 3 major parts:
- Ilium/Os ilium (0.5)
- Ischium/Os ischii (0.5)
- Pubis/Os pubis (0.5)
Max point: 1.5
22.
Achieved point:
Achieved point:
What ligaments help stabilizing the femoral head in the hip?
- Ligamentum iliofemroale (0.5)
- Lig. pubofemorale (0.5)
- Lig. Ischiofemorale (0.5)
Max point: 1.5
Achieved point:
7
23.
The anterior thigh muscles are innervated by which nerve?
The posterior thigh muscles are innervated by which nerve?
The adductor thigh muscles are innervated by which nerve?
Anterior thigh muscles: N. femoralis (femoral nerve) (1)
Posterior thigh muscles: N. ischiadicus (sciatic nerve) (1)
Adductor thigh muscles: N. obturatorius (obturator nerve)(1)
Max point: 3
24.
Achieved point:
The bone density can vary depending on the case. With values of >833
mg/ccm, 833 – 648 mg/ccm and <648 ccm, when do you have osteopenia,
when Osteoporosis and when normal values?
Normal: > 833 mg/ccm (0.5)
Osteopenia: 833 – 648 mg/ccm (0.5)
Ostreoporosis: < 648 mg/ccm (0.5)
Max point: 1,5
Achieved point:
25.
Which of the following statements is not true?
Bone formation involves …
A.
… orchestrated osteoclast and osteoblast activity.
B.
… turnover of bone minerals, particularly nitrates.
C.
… action of a variety of cytokines.
D.
… action of PTH (parathyroid hormone).
E.
… action of calcitonine.
Max point: 1
Achieved point:
26.

Which of the following statements is true?
A.
The receptor activator of nuclear factor kβ ligand (RANKL) is
expressed by osteoclasts.
B.
RANK is expressed on osteoblasts.
C.
Binding of RANKL to the RANK receptor can be blocked by
osteoprotegerin.
D.
Osteoclast “digest” collagen by secretion of phosphatase enzymes.
E.
In osteoporosis, bone formation exceeds boneresorption.
Max point: 1
Achieved point:

27.
Which of the following classes are not typically used in osteoporosis
treatment?
A.
Prostaglandin
B.
Calcitriol
C.
Glucocorticoids

D.
Estrogens
E.
Bisphosphonates
Max point: 1
Achieved point:
8
28.
Which one of the following statements concerning spinal motor control is
true?
A.
Muscle spindles are supplied by group Ia and II muscle afferents.

B.
Recurrent inhibition strongly suppresses activity of antagonist muscles.
C.
Autogenic inhibition is mediated by Renshaw cells.
D.
Accommodation is clinically tested by the Snellen Chart.
E.
Flexor withdrawal reflexes are monosynaptic reflexes.
Max point: 1
Achieved point:
29.
Describe the complete reflex arc of a monosynaptic stretch reflex (e.g.
knee jerk).
Mean (neutral) position of the joint:
muscle stretch by a reflex hammer (1)
activation of muscle spindles, activation of Ia fibers (1)
synaptic transmission to synergistic motoneuron in ventral horn, muscle twitch (1)
Max point: 3
30.
Describe the functions of the medial and the lateral motor nucleus in the
spinal cord.
Medial motor nucleus: control of axial muscles of neck and back (1)
Lateral motor nucleus: control of limb muscles (1)
Max point: 2
31.
Achieved point:
Achieved point:
Which eye muscles are innervated by the cranial nerves III (N.
occulomotorius), IV (N. trochlearis) and VI (N. abducens)? Give the Latin
names.
N. occulomotorius:
- M. levator palpebrae superioris
- M. rectus superior
- M. rectus medialis
- M. rectus inferior
- M. obliquus inferior
N. trochlearis: M. obliquus superior
N. abducens: M. rectus lateralis
(0.5 points per muscle)
Max point: 3
32.
Achieved point:
What are the three branches of the cranial nerves V (N. trigeminus)? Give
them in ascending order (V1, V2, V3)
- N. ophthalmicus/V1 (1)
- N. maxillaris/V2(1)
- N. mandibularis/V3 (1)
Max point: 3
Achieved point:
9
33.
Which of the following cranial nerves has no primary sensory-motor
function?
A.
N. facialis
B.
N. glossophryngeus
C.
N. vagus
D.
N. accessorius

E.
N. trigeminus
Max point: 1
Achieved point:
34.
Which of the following statements is not true?
A.
The intraocular pressure is considered normal in the range of 12 to 21
mm/Hg.
B.
The vitreous humor fills the space between the lens and the retina.
C.
The aqueous humor fills the space in front of the lens.
D.
The aqueous humor is actively secreted by epithelial cells.
E.
The vitreous humor enters the Canal of Schlemm that delivers the
humor to veins in the sclera.
Max point: 1
Achieved point:

35.
A complete lesion of the right N. oculomotorius induces which one of the
following clinical signs?
A.
Ptosis

B.
Anosmia
C.
Miosis
D.
Medial deviation of the eyeball
E.
Hemianopia
Max point: 1
Achieved point:
36.
A complete lesion of the right Tractus opticus induces which one of the
following clinical signs?
A.
Left-sided hemianopia

B.
Monocular blindness
C.
Miosis
D.
Bitemporal hemianopia
E.
Bilateral blindness
Max point: 1
Achieved point:
10
37.
Fill in the appropriate names
From left to right:
- Tympanic membrane
- Malleus
- Incus
- Stapes
- Oval window
- Round window
- Cochlear nerve
- Cochlea
(0.5 per correct answer)
Max point: 4
38.
Achieved point:
Clinical testing of hearing impairment includes the Weber test.
A - Describe the performance of the clinical test.
B - Give the results of the test in a patient with a conductive hearing loss
on the right side.
A. In the Weber test, a tuning fork (either 256 or 512 Hz) is struck and the stem of
the fork is placed on the top of the patient's skull - equal distance from the
patient's ears, in the middle of the forehead - equal distance from the patient's
ears or above the upper lip over the teeth. The patient is asked to report in
which ear the sound is heard louder. (2)
B. Weber: Lateralization of sound in the affected right ear. (1)
Max point: 3
Achieved point:
11
39.
Clinical testing of hearing impairment includes the Rinne test.
A - Describe the performance of the clinical test and the normal
outcome.
B - Give the results of the test in a patient with a conductive hearing loss.
C - Give the results of the test in a patient with a sensorineural hearing
loss.
A - The Rinne test is performed by placing a vibrating tuning fork (256 or 512 Hz)
initially on the processus mastoideus until the sound is no longer heard. The fork is
the immediately placed just outside the ear. Normally, the sound is audible at the ear.
In a normal ear, air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC): AC>BC
(positive Rinne test). (2)
B - Conductive hearing loss: AC<BC/negative Rinne (1)
C - Sensorineural hearing loss: AC>BC/positive Rinne, AC and BC are both equally
depreciated maintaining the relative difference (1)
Max point: 4
Achieved point:
40.
When it comes to the transmission of sound waves from the inner ear,
what are the sound amplification mechanisms that involves the 3 ossicles?
The 3 ossicle are a series of levers:
Movement of the malleolus causes a greater movement of the incus which in turn
causes an even greater movement of the stapes.
Max point: 1
Achieved point:
41.
Which one of the following statements concerning the
Sound Pressure Level (SPL) is true?
A.
The SPL of a jackhammer is 40 dB SPL.
B.
A tenfold increase of the sound pressure corresponds to an increase of
SPL by 20 dB SPL.
C.
The auditory pain threshold is approx. 80 dB SPL.
D.
The physical unit of SPL is phon.
E.
The reference pressure is 0.02 Pa.
Max point: 1
Achieved point:

42.
Name 4 early clinical signs of neurological deterioration within raised
intracranial pressure.
- Vomiting
- Headache
- Abnormal respiration
- Seizures
- Change in pupil size or reactivity
- Posturing
- Altered level of consciousness (restlessness, agitation, somnolence, lethargy, …)
(0.5 per item)
Max point: 2
Achieved point:
12
43.
Describe the 4 stages of raised intracranial pressure.
- Stage 1: altered cerebral blood flow
- Stage 2: compromised neuronal oxygenation, systemic arterial vasoconstriction
- Stage 3: loss of autoregulation, compensatory alteration in diameter of intracranial
blood vessels accompanied by severe hypoxia and acidosis
- Stage 4: herniation (shift) of brain tissue
(0.5 per item)
Max point: 2
Achieved point:
44.
Which one of the following vessels does NOT belong to the
Circulus arteriosus cerebri?
A.
Arteria subclavia
B.
Arteria basilaris
C.
Arteria cerebri posterior
D.
Arteria cerebri anterior
E.
Arteria cerebri media
Max point: 1
Achieved point:

45.
Which one of the following statements concerning Liquor cerebrospinalis
is true?
A.
The rate of formation in adults is approx. 5 l/day.
B.
Has a total volume of approx. 500 ml.
C.
Is absorbed by Plexus choroideus in the 4th ventricle.
D.
Is secreted by Granulationes arachnoidales (Pacchioni).
E.
Flows from 4th ventricle to Cavitas subarachnoidalis via Apertura

lateralis and via Apertura mediana.
Max point: 1
Achieved point:
46.
Which one of the following statements concerning seizures applies the
most? Seizures …
A.
… are predictable.
B.
… are a result of arhythmical charges in the brain.
C.
… time-limited paroxysomal events.

D.
… are typically preceded by long postictal phases.
E.
… are typically followed by short prodromal phase.
Max point: 1
Achieved point:
47.
Describe the 3 main mechanisms of antiepileptic drugs.
- Enhancing GABA-mediated synaptic inhibition by pre-or post-synaptic action
- promoting inactivated state of voltage-gated Na+-channels in order to limit
sustained, repetitive firing of neurons
- limiting activation of voltage-gated T-type Ca2+-channels (T-current)
(0.5 per item)
Max point: 1,5
Achieved point:
13
48.
Which one of the following drugs is a so-called unconventional
antiepileptic drug?
A.
Carbamazepine
B.
Gabapentin
C.
Clonazepam
D.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
E.
Topiramate
Max point :1
Achieved point:
49.

What are the main structures providing for anterior stability of the knee?
- Tendons of the M. quadriceps femoris (0.5)
- Ligamentum patellae (0.5)
- Retinacula patellae longitudinalia (lateral, medial) (1)
(0.5 per item)
Max point: 2
Achieved point:
50.
Which one of the following statements regarding the locking/unlocking
mechanism of the knee is not true?
A.
During the locking phase, collateral and crucial ligaments are tightened.
B.
For the unlocking mechanisms, medial rotation of the tibia on the femur
and lateral rotation of the femur is enabled due to M. popliteus action.
C.
The articular surfaces of the medial and lateral femoral condyle are of
different size. This enables anterior tibial glide on the medial condyle
providing for lateral rotation
D.
Contraction of the M. popliteus increases the tension of the ligaments

in and around the knee.
E.
During the last 20° of knee extension, the tibia rotates externally and
the femur medially.
Max point :1
Achieved point:
14
51.
Fill in the missing names of the anterior thigh muscle. By which nerve(s)
are they innervated?
Which nerve innervates the posterior thigh muscles (Hamstring)?
Quadriceps femoris (descending order):
- M. rectus femoris
- M. vastus medialis
- M. vastus lateralis
- M. vastus intermedialis
Anterior: N. femoralis (femoral nerve)
Posterior: N. ischiadicus (sciatic nerve)
(0.5 per item)
Max point: 3
52.
Achieved point:
Describe the contents of the popliteal fossa (give 4 examples).
Quadriceps femoris (descending order):
- N. tibialis (and their branches)
- N. fibularis (and their branches)
- Arteria poplitea
- Vena poplitea
- Popliteal lymph nodes
- Fatty tissue
(0.5 per item)
Max point: 2
53.
Achieved point:
Give 2 examples of a test for the anterior cruciate ligament.
- Anterior drawer test
- Pivot-shift test
- Lachman’s test
(0.5 per item)
Max point: 1
Achieved point:
15
54.
Fill in the missing names of the bones in the ankle and the foot.
In descending order:
Left:
- Os cuneiforme mediale
- Os cuneiforme intermedium
- Os naviculare
Right:
- Os cuneiforme laterale
- Os cuboideum
- Os calcaneus
(0.5 per item)
Max point: 3
Achieved point:
55.
The Ligamentum deltoideum consists of the following ligaments
EXCEPT:
A.
Ligamentum tibiofibulare posterius

B.
Pars tibiocalcanea
C.
Pars tibionavicularis
D.
Pars tibiotalaris posterior
E.
Pars tibiotalaris anterior
Max point :1
Achieved point:
16
56.
A.
Choose the incorrect statement:
The Ligamentum metatarseum transversum profundum is a passive
stabilizer of the transverse arch.
B.
The medial longitudinal arch is composed of the calcaneus, talus,
naviculare and the first 3 metatarsals.
C.
The M. quadratus plantae is an active stabilizer of the longitudinal arch.
D.
The posterior leg muscles are innervated by the N. tibialis.
E.
The Ligamentum plantare longum is a passive stabilizer of the transverse
arch.
Max point :1
Achieved point:
Which one of the following statements concerning brain imaging
techniques is NOT true?
A.
Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) utilizes divergent
magnetic properties of oxygenated and deoxygenated haemoglobin.
B.
A T2-weighed MRI is constructed based to changes in the horizontal
magnetization.
C.
Electroencephalography (EEG) has a high temporal but poor spatial
resolution.
D.
Magnetoencephalography (MEG) measures magnetic field changes
particularly good over gyri.
E.
In Positron Emission Tomography (PET), radionuclides such as
fluorodeoxyglucose are i.v. administered in order to “image” highglucose-using tissue.
Max point :1
Achieved point:

57.

58.
What is a “BOLD”-signal?
Give a short definition of this abbreviation. Why can it be used to
“image” neuronal activity?
BOLD: Blood Oxygen Level Detection
The higher the degree of neuronal activity, the higher is the demand for oxygenated
blood. (positive correlation between neuronal activity and blood oxygen levels)
(0.5 per item)
Max point: 1
Achieved point:
59. Stroke. Affection of the Arteria cerebri media is mainly accompanied by
problems in …
A … in movement of upper extremity

B … in vision
C … in controlling facial muscles
D … in swallowing
E … movement of lower extremity
Max point 1
Achieved point:
17
60. The symptomatology of a haemorrhagic stroke mainly differs from that of
an ischemic stroke in that …
A Babinski’s reflex is present on the contral-lateral side within minutes.
B The haemorrhagic stroke is frequently accompanied by severe headache.

C The ischemic stroke is accompanied by severe headache.
D Symptoms occur within minutes.
E The haemorrhagic stroke leads to central facial palsy.
Max point 1
Achieved point:
61.
A minor head injury often causes a bump or bruise on the exterior of the
head. Give 3 other typical symptoms.
nausea, mild headache, mild dizziness, tender bruising or mild swelling of the scalp
Max point: 3
Achieved point:
62.
Which of the following does NOT represent a direct risk factor for a
cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
A.
Diabetes mellitus
B.
Arterial hypertension
C.
Impaired cardiac function
D.
Smoking
E.
Obesity

Max point: 1
Achieved point:
63. Inhalation anaesthesia
Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is defined as …
A … the concentration of an inhaled anaesthetic that leads to
bronchoconstricition.
B … the amount of anaesthetics needed to reduce ventilation by 50%.
C … 50% of the amount of an anaesthetic for reaching the equilibrium.
D … the equilibration of partial pressure of oxygen and the inhaled
anaesthetic.
E … the concentration of an inhaled anaesthetic, at which the response to
surgical incision is abolished in 50% of subjects.
Max point 1
Achieved point:
64. Mechanism of actions. Local anaesthetics work via …
A … blocking of anionic channels.
B … binding of calcium channels.
C … blocking of sodium channels.
D … blocking of chloride channels.
E … binding of potassium channels.
Max point 1
Achieved point:


18
65. Dementia. Which neurological disorder does NOT lead to dementia?
A Myasthenia gravis

B Multiple sclerosis
C Alzheimer’s disease
D Huntington’s chorea
E Parkinson’s disease
Max point 1
Achieved point:
66.
A
B
C
D
E
Dementia. The typical morphological feature of dementia is NOT:
Neuronal loss
Brain atrophy
Inflammation around white matter tracts
Loss of cholinergic neurons
Inflammatory cells dispersed in grey and white matter of the
telencephalon
Max point 1
Achieved point:

19