Download 2016 State Exam

Arkansas FFA Veterinary Science CDE
2016 State Exam
1. In a private veterinary practice, _________ animals make up the largest percentage of patients.
a. Food
b. Service
c. Exotic
d. Companion
2. Brucellosis, tuberculosis and equine infectious anemia control are just a few of the programs in
which __________ veterinarians participate.
a. Education
b. Industry
c. Regulatory
d. Service
3. The concept of __________ is based on the philosophy that all living creatures, human and animal,
have equal rights.
a. Animal welfare
b. Animal rights
c. Animal wellbeing
d. Animal control
4. Once the patient visit is complete, the _________ should be filed promptly so that the office area is
kept neat and to allow for quick easy access to records should the client call or return with
additional questions.
a. Invoices
b. Patient records
c. Prescriptions
d. Payments
5. An example of a disease agent in dogs is __________ .
a. Parvo virus
b. Pasteurella bacteria
c. Salmonella bacteria
d. Feline immunodeficiency virus
6. In terms of sanitation, the term _________ is a broader term referring to cleaning, disinfection,
antisepsis and sterilization.
a. Quarantine
b. Regulation
c. Determination
d. Decontamination
7. Disinfection methods involving metabolites of microorganisms are considered _________ methods.
a. Contagious
b. Physical
c. Chemical
d. Biological
8. Pain in animals is divided into two classifications, __________ or __________ .
a. Nociceptive, neuropathic
b. Inner pain, outer pain
c. Indoceptive, exoceptive
d. Immediate, secondary
9. Which of the following is a behavioral sign that indicates pain?
a. Elevated blood sugar
b. Vocalization
c. Increased heart rate
d. Dilated pupils
10. In handling animals, __________ restraint is probably the most common form of restraint which
involves manual force and artificial devices such as fencing, ropes, chutes or cages.
a. Chemical
b. Physical
c. Personal
d. Biological
11. The type of physical restraint primarily used in cattle is a __________ .
a. Rope
b. Cage
c. Chute
d. Anesthetic
12. The __________ method for restraining a cat requires the handler to grasp the scruff of the neck in
one hand and the back legs with the other.
a. Stretch
b. Spread
c. Jugular
d. Venipuncture
13. The best angle to approach a horse is at __________ degrees so they can see you clearly.
a. 30
b. 45
c. 60
d. 90
14. When restraining hogs, the __________ is often used to catch and hold older, heavier hogs which is
made up of a cable or rope noose that runs through a rigid pipe.
a. Hog trap
b. Hog snare
c. Hog rope
d. Hog hobbles
15. Placing a __________ over a rabbit’s back allows the assistant to protect themselves from the strong
back feet of the rabbit.
a. Hobble
b. Towel
c. Muzzle
d. Cast
16. The physical exam of an animal should begin with __________ of the animal which allows the vet to
learn several important things such as attitude, mental state, character and general appearance.
a. Restraint
b. Sedation
c. Observation
d. Quarantine
17. A veterinarian will examine the oral cavity of an animal to determine the condition of the teeth.
The gums will be checked for color and gingivitis. What color should the gums be on a normal
animal?
a. Pale blue
b. Pink
c. Dark red
d. White
18. The initial treatment for colic in a horse is to __________ .
a. Walk the horse with intermittent jogging
b. Keep the horse still at all times
c. Try to keep the horse from standing up or sitting up
d. Force the horse to run at a rapid pace to release pressure
19. Drugs that may be purchased directly by the user without a prescription from a veterinarian are
known as __________ .
a. Prescription
b. Over-the-counter
c. Monitored drugs
d. Free-use drugs
20. An instrument used to orally administer a bolus to ruminants is called a __________ .
a. Syringe and needle
b. Multidose syringe
c. Drench gun
d. Balling gun
21. The administering of medicine injected in the bone joint cavity is known as __________ .
a. Subcutaneously (SQ)
b. Intraarticular (IA)
c. Epidural (ED)
d. Intrauterine (IU)
22. In a broad sense, animal __________ is repair of an injured animal and treatment for disabilities
caused by a physical impairment.
a. Disposal
b. Rehabilitation
c. Therapy
d. Control
23. When an animal loses a limb, _________ are used which are internal or external devices to replace
missing limbs.
a. Splints
b. Ambulation carts
c. Cold pack
d. Prostheses
24. Examining the __________ samples for the presence of worm eggs and larvae and protozoa
trophozoites and cysts is a common practice in most veterinary clinics.
a. Feces
b. Eyes
c. Hair tissue
d. Skin color
25. The __________ method of fecal examination involves mixing a very small amount of feces with a
water or saline solution and placing it on a slide overlaid with a cover glass.
a. Flotation
b. Direct smear
c. Gross examination
d. Blood
26. Which of the following is NOT a general method of bacteriological diagnosis procedures?
a. Direct physical examination of animal
b. Culture
c. Direct microscopic examination
d. Serologic tests
27. During an examination, if a veterinarian finds that an animal has udder inflammation, it could be a
diagnosis for __________ .
a. Abcess
b. Emphysema
c. Mastitis
d. Nephritis
28. In veterinary medicine, __________ is a clinical diagnostic tool that uses x-ray emissions to produce
cross-sectional images of animal body parts.
a. Ultrasonography
b. X-ray
c. Thermography
d. Computerized axial tomography
29. The internal, visual examination of tissues, bone joints and hollow organs is known as __________ .
a. Cytology
b. Endoscopy
c. Thermography
d. Ultrasonography
30. Which of the following is NOT a method of sterilization?
a. Steam
b. Ionizing radiation
c. Restraint
d. Chemical (gas)
31. In veterinary practice, __________ scissors are used to cut soft tissue and come in different sizes with
different cutting blades.
a. Utility
b. Operating
c. Dissecting
d. Forceps
32. In veterinary practice, __________ scissors are used to separate and differentiate tissues because
they are more precise than operating scissors.
a. Utility
b. Surgical
c. Dissecting
d. Forceps
33. In veterinary practice, thumb __________ are surgical pincers used for grasping, compressing, cutting
and pulling tissues.
a. Scissors
b. Needles
c. Scalpels
d. Forceps
34. In veterinary practice, __________ , or hemostats are used to control blood flow during surgery and
come in different sizes with locking handles to tightly clamp the cut ends of bleeding arteries and
veins.
a. Clamping forceps
b. Thumb forceps
c. Dissecting scissors
d. Utility scissors
35. A surgical cut made into a tissue or organ is called an incision, which are made using __________ .
a. Clamping forceps
b. Surgical scalpel
c. Thumb forceps
d. Utility scissors
36. A common practice in veterinary medicine known as __________ , is a controlled, reversible
intoxication of the nervous system.
a. Restraint
b. Handling
c. Anesthesia
d. Thermography
37. The process of anesthesia starts in Stage 1 with Voluntary Movement and then transitions in to
Stage 2 which is __________ .
a. Surgical anesthesia
b. Paralysis
c. Involuntary movement
d. Voluntary paralysis
38. Stage 3 of Anesthesia is Surgical Anesthesia which is followed by __________ .
a. Paralysis
b. Voluntary movement
c. Involuntary movement
d. Voluntary anesthesia
39. Which of the following observations of the patient would help indicate that the animal is in Stage 1
of Anesthesia?
a. Opposition by patient to flexing and extending the legs
b. Decrease and loss of reflexes
c. Respiration rate and depth and muscle tone
d. Color of blood in the surgical site
40. When livestock and poultry are shipped out of state, they must meet requirements set by the
__________ .
a. State of destination
b. State of origination
c. National standards
d. Breed association
41. To carry out disease and pest preventive measures, each state agency requires livestock and
poultry entering the state to have a certificate of veterinary inspection, usually called a(n)
__________ by producers.
a. Permit
b. Entry permit
c. Inspection document
d. Health paper
42. The infectious viral disease known as __________ is characterized by encephalitis, an inflammation of
the brain. All warm blooded animals, including humans, are susceptible.
a. Anthrax
b. Brucellosis
c. Rabies
d. Mastitis
43. Rabies is transmitted by the __________ of a rabid animal, and can also occur if the saliva of a rabid
animal is introduced into an open cut or wound.
a. Hair
b. Bite
c. Skin contact
d. Feces
44. A highly contagious disease in swine known as __________ , is caused by a herpes-type virus usually
passed when an infected pig has direct contact with another pig. Infected pigs can die within 3-7
days.
a. Pseuodorabies
b. Pullorum-typhoid
c. Exotic Newcastle
d. Brucellosis
45. The natural reservoir for Avian Influenza is __________ .
a. Wild deer
b. Feral hogs
c. Domesticated livestock
d. Migratory waterfowl
46. A veneral disease in cattle with no visible symptoms is known as __________ .
a. Exotic Newcastle disease
b. Milk fever
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Vesicular stomatitis
47. Which of the following is NOT a proper method of carcass disposal?
a. Burning
b. Dumping
c. Burial
d. Composting
48. The Animal Welfare Act that allows the U.S. Secretary of Agriculture to promulgate standards and
other requirements governing the humane handling, housing, care and treatment of warm
blooded animals was passed in which decade?
a. 1960
b. 1970
c. 1980
d. 1990
49. The type of license required for employees to use pesticides on animals of clients is known as
__________ .
a. Pesticide dealer license
b. Pesticide commercial applicator license
c. Pesticide noncommercial applicator license
d. Pesticide private applicator license
50. The type of license required to purchase and use pesticides on animals of clients is known as
__________.
a. Pesticide dealer license
b. Pesticide commercial applicator license
c. Pesticide noncommercial applicator license
d. Pesticide private applicator license
Arkansas FFA Veterinary Science CDE
2016 State Exam
KEY
1. D
2. C
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. D
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. B
16. C
17. B
18. A
19. B
20. D
21. B
22. B
23. D
24. A
25. B
26. A
27. C
28. D
29. B
30. C
31. B
32. C
33. D
34. A
35. B
36. C
37. C
38. A
39. A
40. A
41. D
42. C
43. B
44. A
45. D
46. C
47. B
48. A
49. C
50. B