Download Homework #5 was due April 3

CS/IS 190 Homework #5
Instructions: Answer all questions and put the answers on the excel spreadsheet which is available on
my web page. Note that some questions have multiple correct answers. Print out the answer sheet or
email it to me before the due deadline. Be sure to put your name on the answer sheet.
Chapter 15
Wireless Networking
1. Which standard is the common wireless networking standard?
A. IEEE 802.4
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.3
2. Which term represents the condition of whether a wireless device is connected?
A. Mode
B. Signal strength
C. Link state
D. Access
3. Which term represents a measurement of how well a wireless device is connecting to other devices?
A. Mode
B. Signal strength
C. Link state
D. Access
4. Which wireless network mode operates by allowing two or more PCs to communicate directly without
cabling or any other intermediary hardware?
A. Wireless B
B. Ad hoc
C. Filtered
D. Extended
5. What type of unit is formed by two or more wireless nodes communicating in ad hoc mode?
A. Basic Service Set (BSS)
B. Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)
C. Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)
D. Extended Service Set (ESS)
6. What type of unit is formed by a single WAP servicing a given area?
A. Basic Service Set (BSS)
B. Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)
C. Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)
D. Extended Service Set (ESS)
7. What type of unit is formed by a single wireless access point servicing a given area that has been
extended by adding more access points?
A. Basic Service Set (BSS)
B. Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)
C. Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)
D. Extended Service Set (ESS)
8. Which term defines the most basic infrastructure mode network – a BSS of one WAP and one or more
wireless nodes?
A. Basic Service Set (BSS)
B. Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)
C. Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)
D. Extended Service Set (ESS)
9. What is used as the Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID) for a Basic Service Set (BSS)?
A. The MAC address of the WAP
B. A user-supplied name
C. A randomly generated value
D. The name of the manufacturer
10. What do wireless nodes in an Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS) use in place of the Basic Service
Set Identifier (BSSID value in each frame?
A. The MAC address of the WAP
B. A user-supplied name
C. A randomly generated value
D. The name of the manufacturer
11. Which term did Wi-Fi people create to use as another level of naming to describe a standard name
applied to the BSS or IBSS to help the connection happen?
A. Link state
B. Service Set Identifier (SSID)
C. Supplicant
D. Mode
12. Which spread-spectrum broadcasting method sends data out on different frequencies at the same
time?
A. BSS
B. DSSS
C. FHSS
D. OFDM
13. Which term describes a portion of the available spectrum available for Wi-Fi network
communication?
A. Channel
B. Frequency
C. Frame
D. Interframe space
14. How many channels were defined by the 802.11 standard?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 14
D. 32
15. Which of the channels defined by the 802.11 standard may be used by a WAP using the 2.4-GHz
band in the United States?
A. 1 through 11
B. 2 through 32
C. 8 through 24
D. 16 through 32
16. __________ broadcasts data in small, discrete chunks over the different frequencies available within
a certain frequency range.
A. Transmit beamforming
B. Channel bonding
C. CSMA/CD
D. Spread-spectrum
17. Which 802.11 collision avoidance method is currently implemented?
A. CSMA/CA
B. Distributed Coordination Function (DCF)
C. Beamforming
D. CSMA/CD
18. What happens when frames are transmitted on the network from two different devices at the same
time, corrupting each other’s signals?
A. A channeling error occurs.
B. Transmit beamforming occurs.
C. A collision occurs.
D. Interframe space expands.
19. Which term describes the predetermined silence period that is added to the length of a packet to
determine the waiting period for a network device after it has detected traffic on the media?
A. Interframe gap
B. PCF
C. Wait time
D. Link state
20. Which Wi-Fi standard offers speeds of up to 54 Mbps, a range of up to about 300 feet, operates in
the 2.4 GHz frequency, and is backward-compatible with an earlier, popular Wi-Fi standard?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11a
21. Which Wi-Fi standard offers speeds of up to 100 Mbps (or higher), a range of up to about 300 feet,
and operates in the 2.4-GHz and 5.0-GHz frequencies?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11a
22. Which term describes a method that enables an administrator to limit access to a network based on
the physical addresses of wireless NICs?
A. 802.1X
B. MAC address filtering
C. WEP
D. WPA
23. Which standard includes secure authentication using a RADIUS server and password encryption
using EAP?
A. IEEE 802.1X
B. MAC address filtering
C. WEP
D. WPA
24. Which data encryption standard is the weakest of the wireless encryption standards?
A. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
B. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)
C. MAC address filtering
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)
25. Which encryption standard uses Advanced Encryption Standard (AES), a 128-bit block cipher that is
much tougher to crack than the 128-bit TKIP wrapper?
A. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
B. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)
C. MAC address filtering
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)
26. Which statement describes a weakness in WEP that allows it to be easily cracked?
A. The size of the encryption key
B. The use of 802.1X
C. The use of AES
D. The use of a 256-bit block cipher
27. Which key sizes does WEP use?
A. 64 bits and 128 bits
B. 40 bits and 104 bits
C. 64 bits and 256 bits
D. 128 bits and 256 bits
28. Which technology enables WAPs to receive their power from the same Ethernet cables that transfer
their data?
A. VLAN pooling
B. Power over Ethernet (PoE)
C. Mobile device management (MDM)
D. Near-Field communication (NFC)
29. Which term describes a graphical representation of the radio frequency (RF) sources on a site?
A. Unbounded media
B. Beamforming
C. Heat map
D. Distributed Coordination Function (DCF)
30. What is the gain of the typical WAP antenna?
A. 2 dB
B. 10 dB
C. 11 dB
D. 54 dB
31. Which settings should be modified when there are overlapping Wi-Fi signals?
A. MAC address and NIC address
B. Channel and frequency
C. Beacon and Interframe gap
D. Signal and link state
32. Which wireless bridge can talk to more than one other bridge at a time and can connect multiple
network segments?
A. Dipole
B. Point-to-multipoint
C. Omnidirectional
D. Point-to-point
33. Which wireless bridge can only communicate with a single other bridge and are used to connect two
wireless network segments?
A. Dipole
B. Point-to-multipoint
C. Omnidirectional
D. Point-to-point
34. One of the big challenges to larger enterprise networks are the large number of clients that might be
on a single __________ at any given moment.
A. MAC address
B. router
C. SSID
D. NIC
35. A(n) __________ access point is simply an unauthorized access point (AP).
A. hot
B. blind
C. rogue
D. channeled
--- END CHAPTER 15 ---
Chapter 16
Virtualization and Cloud Computing
1. Which term describes the creation of a complete environment in which a guest operating system can
function as though it were installed on its own computer?
A. Emulation
B. Virtualization
C. Translation
D. Polyinstantiation
2. Which term is another name for a virtual machine?
A. Host
B. Emulator
C. Guest
D. Environment
3. Which technology creates a simulation of a world or environment that appears to be real, even
though the person wearing the required headgear and gloves is located in a room that does not
resemble the simulated space?
A. Virtual reality
B. Hypervisor
C. Virtual machine
D. Sandbox
4. Which operating system, when added as a virtual machine, requires a separate, licensed copy?
A. Microsoft Windows
B. FreeDOS
C. Ubuntu Linux
D. OpenBSD
5. Which folder in the user’s Documents folder does VMware create and use upon installation?
A. VMware
B. Installation
C. Virtual Machines
D. VM
6. VMware Workstation replaces CTRL-ALT-DELETE with __________ by default.
A. CTRL-ALT-INSERT
B. CTRL-ALT-FN
C. CTRL-ALT-ESC
D. ALT-F4
7. A virtual machine that is shut down is no more than a(n) __________ or folder sitting on a hard drive.
A. image
B. file
C. process
D. snapshot
8. Which term refers to the most common limiting factor in a host’s ability to run virtual machine?
A. Hard disk space
B. CPU
C. Network bandwidth
D. RAM
9. Which advantage of virtualization provides substantial reduction in dollars spent and electricity used?
A. Hardware consolidation
B. System recovery
C. Power savings
D. System duplication
10. Which term refers to a technology that is great for doing risky (or even not-so-risky) maintenance
with a safety net?
A. Bare metal hypervisor
B. Snapshot
C. Cloud computing
D. Cluster
11. Which program is an example of bare-metal virtualization software?
A. VMware ESXi
B. VMware Workstation
C. Ubuntu Linux
D. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
12. Which type of hypervisor relies on an underlying operating system?
A. Type-1
B. Type-2
C. Type-3
D. Type-4
13. Which tool is an example of a Type 1 hypervisor?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. ISO
C. iSCSI
D. VMware ESXi
14. Which hypervisor serves as the foundation for massive cloud offerings by Amazon, IBM, and
RackSpace?
A. Hyper-V
B. Citrix XenServer
C. ESXi
D. VMware
15. Which statement best describes the importance of virtualization?
A. It increases security as the scale of an operation decreases.
B. It increases flexibility as the scale of an operation decreases.
C. It increases flexibility as the scale of an operation increases.
D. It increases security as the scale of an operation increases.
16. Which hypervisor comes with Microsoft Server and Windows 8?
A. Citrix XenServer
B. ESXi
C. Hyper-V
D. KVM
17. Which hypervisor is considered to be the industry leader?
A. Citrix XenServer
B. Hyper-V
C. ESXi
D. KVM
18. Which tool is used to create, configure, and maintain virtual machines on the host from the comfort
of a client computer running the tool?
A. KVM
B. ESX
C. vSphere Client
D. iSCSI
19. Which hypervisor is closely integrated with Linux’s kernel?
A. Citrix XenServer
B. ESXi
C. Hyper-V
D. KVM
20. Jumbo frames are usually __________ bytes long—though technically, anything over 1500 counts—
and they reduce the total number of frames moving through the network.
A. 1000
B. 5000
C. 7000
D. 9000
21. Which technology refers to an infrastructure that can be utilized to support a SAN?
A. Cloud services
B. Virtual switch
C. UDP
D. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
22. An advantage of consolidating storage using a storage area network (SAN) is that it __________.
A. improves security
B. avoids performance costs of a file implementation system
C. reduces the cycles needed to access the data
D. reduces the data segment block size
23. Which technology allows multiple VMs to have access to the Internet?
A. Hypervisor
B. Virtual PBX
C. Virtual switch
D. Virtual Machine Manager
24. Which term refers to a software connection that passes traffic from the real NIC to a virtual one?
A. Bridge
B. NAT
C. Route
D. Switch
25. Software defined networking (SDN) allows a __________ controller to determine how network
components will move traffic through the network
A. master
B. slave
C. primary
D. secondary
26. Which cloud service model is used by Amazon Web Services (AWS)?
A. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
B. Software as a Service (SaaS)
C. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
D. Software defined networking (SDN)
27. Virtual servers and virtual network components can be created in the cloud using Infrastructure as a
Service (IaaS) providers, often at rates measured in __________ per hour.
A. seconds
B. cycles
C. pennies
D. dollars
28. Which cloud service is a set of tools and services designed to make coding and deploying
applications delivered over the web quick and efficient?
A. Network as a Service
B. Virtualization as a Service
C. Software as a Service
D. Platform as a Service
29. Which vendor was one of the earliest PaaS providers?
A. Amazon
B. VMware
C. Microsoft
D. Heroku
30. Community clouds are run by __________.
A. a city or state for citizens’ use
B. the military for citizens’ use
C. a group of organizations with similar goals or needs
D. Internet service providers (ISPs) for military use
--- END CHAPTER 16 ---
Chapter 17
Building a Real-World Network
1. When designing and building a network, which requirements define the network’s needs?
A. List of requirements
B. Equipment limitations
C. Environment limitations
D. Compatibility requirements
2. When designing and building a network, which requirements help in determining how to organize the
network?
A. List of requirements
B. Equipment limitations
C. Compatibility requirements
D. Device types/requirements
3. When designing and building a network, which requirements help in determining how to connect to
the Internet?
A. Security
B. Wired/wireless considerations
C. Compatibility requirements
D. Equipment limitations
4. By going __________ for some or all server resources, you can reduce your power usage and increase
uptime.
A. local
B. logical
C. physical
D. virtual
5. How do many small networks avoid using a full-blown file server?
A. Small networks format their hard drives using a large block size.
B. Small networks avoid large data sets.
C. Small networks take advantage of network attached storage (NAS).
D. Small networks eliminate distributed processing.
6. What type of conversion process occurs with power converters?
A. Volts to amps
B. AC to DC
C. Sine waves to cosine waves
D. Amps to watts
7. Which device is an example of a peripheral device?
A. Server rack
B. Cable box
C. WAP
D. Printer
8. Which device is an example of a serious enterprise WAP?
A. Adobe Creative Cloud
B. A Cisco Aironet device
C. Vyatta
D. A Cisco 2600 device
9. Before plugging in RJ 45 cables, what should you determine to save a lot of time and effort once the
system installation starts?
A. Internal IP addressing scheme
B. Company Web site ISP
C. Call center phone numbers
D. Security product for the workstations
10. Which company is leading the cutting edge of the unified communication (UC) field?
A. Oracle
B. Adobe
C. Microsoft
D. Cisco
11. Which TCP/IP ports does the Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP) use for VoIP systems?
A. 2427 and 2727
B. 5004 and 5005
C. 5030 and 5031
D. 5060 and 5061
12. Which TCP/IP ports does the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) use for VoIP systems?
A. 2427 and 2727
B. 5004 and 5005
C. 5030 and 5031
D. 5060 and 5061
13. Unified communication leans heavily on ___________ for transmission.
A. UDP and TCP
B. SIP and RTP
C. STP and RIP
D. RIP and OSPF
14. Which TCP/IP port does H.323 use for unified communication?
A. 1720
B. 2427
C. 5004
D. 5061
15. Which TCP/IP ports does MGCP use?
A. 1720 and 1721
B. 2427 and 2727
C. 5004 and 5005
D. 5060 and 5061
16. What bandwidth does ISDN offer?
A. 128 Kbps
B. 128 GB
C. 1024 Kbps
D. 10 GB
17. When talking about QoS for medianets, an administrator needs to develop the concept of
__________.
A. industrial control systems (ICS)
B. differentiated Services (DiffServ)
C. distributed control systems (DCS)
D. human machine interfaces (HMI)
18. Which value of the ECN field is the default, indicating “not QoS aware”?
A. 00
B. 01
C. 10
D. 11
19. Which value of the ECN field indicates “QoS aware, congestion encountered”?
A. 00
B. 01
C. 10
D. 11
20. Which value of the ECN field indicates “QoS aware, no congestion”?
A. 00
B. 10
C. 11
D. 20
21. Within the Differentiated Services (DiffServ) architecture, how many classes of service (CoS) are
there?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Six
D. Eight
22. In most QoS setups using differentiated services code point (DSCP) there are only __________ levels
of priority.
A. two
B. four
C. six
D. eight
23. In the early days of automation, you might have a single person, known as a(n) __________,
monitoring a machine that produced something.
A. leader
B. technician
C. operator
D. server
24. Which industrial control system (ICS) device monitors characteristics like temperature?
A. Actuator
B. Sensor
C. Controller
D. Interface
25. Which industrial control system (ICS) device knows enough to manage a process?
A. Actuator
B. Sensor
C. Controller
D. Interface
26. In a modern DCS each of the local controllers connects (eventually) to a centralized controller—what
CompTIA calls the __________—where global changes can be made managed.
A. ICS loader
B. ICS interface
C. ICS workstation
D. ICS server
27. Which industrial control system (ICS) device makes changes that modify a characteristic such as
temperature?
A. Actuator
B. Sensor
C. Controller
D. Interface
28. A supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system is a subset of the __________.
A. industrial control system (ICS)
B. distributed control system (DCS)
C. remote terminal unit (RTU)
D. programmable logic controller (PLC)
29. ICS/DCS/SCADA and other networks are traditionally good candidates for network __________.
A. segmentation
B. consolidation
C. interference
D. expansion
30. Which term refers to the physical separation of your network from every other network?
A. Secure Web
B. Isolation
C. Black hole
D. Air gap
--- END CHAPTER 17 ---
Chapter 18
Managing Risk
1. Which document is arguably the most famous of all security policies as this is one document that
pretty much everyone who works for any organization is required to read, and in many cases sign,
before they can start work?
A. Material safeties data sheet (MSDS)
B. Forensics report
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Exit plan
2. Which written document defines how an organization will protect its IT infrastructure?
A. Memorandum of understanding (MOU)
B. Service level agreement (SLA)
C. Statement of work (SOW)
D. Security policy
3. Network policies are really __________ that define who can access the network, how it can be
accessed and what resources of the network can be accessed.
A. service level agreements (SLAs)
B. network access policies
C. statements of work (SOW)
D. multi-source agreements (MSAs)
4. What type of patch adds new functionality to a system?
A. driver updates
B. feature changes/updates
C. security vulnerability patch
D. OS updates
5. Educating users to recognize social-engineering tactics assists in __________.
A. forensics management
B. disaster management
C. change management
D. risk management
6. The secret to dealing with failures is to avoid a __________.
A. vulnerability test
B. single point of failure
C. fail open
D. fail close
7. Who is responsible for the process of determining critical assets?
A. Senior management
B. End users
C. IT managers
D. Vendors and suppliers
8. Which document defines the commitment parties perform for each other and a time frame for the
commitment?
A. Statement of work (SOW)
B. Memorandum of understanding (MOU)
C. Service level agreement (SLA)
D. Multi-source agreement (MSA)
9. Which document defines the services and products the vendor agrees to supply and the time frames
in which to supply them?
A. Statement of work (SOW)
B. Memorandum of understanding (MOU)
C. Multi-source agreement (MSA)
D. Service level agreement (SLA)
10. Which tool is a port scanner?
A. Nessus
B. Nmap
C. OpenVAS
D. Aircrack-ng
11. Which individual will examine an infrastructure to find existing vulnerabilities and, instead of hurting
the infrastructure, report findings so that an administrator can further harden the network?
A. Forensic analyst
B. Black hat hacker
C. White hat hacker
D. First responder
12. Which two tools dominate the vulnerability testing arena?
A. Nmap and Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
B. Kali Linux and Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
C. Nessus and OpenVAS
D. Aircrack-ng and Metasploit
13. What is another name for penetration testing?
A. Pentest
B. Vulnerability testing
C. Hacking
D. War-chalking
14. An incident is an event in which the integrity of a(n) __________ is compromised.
A. service level agreement (SLA)
B. IT infrastructure
C. forensic report
D. vulnerability scan
15. Which tool is an open-source tool for penetration testing pretty much every aspect of wireless
networks?
A. Aircrack-ng
B. Armitage
C. Kali Linux
D. OpenVAS
16. Which team develops, tests, manages, and executes the incident response plan?
A. Incident response team
B. Disaster recovery team
C. Business continuity team
D. Change management team
17. Which team is responsible for re-establishing operations at the primary business site?
A. Incident response team
B. Disaster recovery team
C. Business continuity team
D. Computer forensics team
18. If an incident is so vast that the incident response team cannot stop, contain, or remediate it,
__________ comes into play.
A. disaster recovery
B. contingency planning
C. security preparedness
D. succession planning
19. Most backups have some amount of lost data based on when the last backup took place, except for
__________ backups which are really just redundant servers.
A. logical
B. physical
C. warm site
D. real-time
20. Disaster recovery starts with a plan and includes __________.
A. full replication of all data
B. real-time patch management
C. change management
D. data backups
21. Which secondary location is a complete duplicate of the primary site?
A. Cold
B. Hot
C. Local
D. Physical
22. Which secondary location lacks proper data and networking links?
A. Distant
B. Local
C. Hot
D. Warm
23. Which secondary location will generally take more than a few days to bring online?
A. Hot
B. Cold
C. Warm
D. Local
24. A first responder’s main way to secure an area is __________.
A. setting off the fire alarm to evacuate the building
B. turning off all computer equipment
C. contacting local police for crowd control
D. being physically present at the scene
25. Who is often a first responder or a supporter of first responders to a security incident and should
follow good forensic practices?
A. Technician
B. End user at the affected workstation
C. Human resources manager
D. Chief executive officer
26. What is another name for electronic discovery?
A. Legal hold
B. E-discovery
C. Chain of custody
D. Snapshot
27. Which safety issue is considered to be a data safety issue?
A. An improperly grounded circuit
B. Cable “kludge”
C. A fail open issue
D. A technician lifting equipment
28. Which safety issue is considered to be a physical safety issue?
A. A fail close issue
B. A power surge
C. An improperly grounded circuit
D. A technician lifting equipment
29. The placement of a rack should optimize the __________ in a server area.
A. accessibility
B. airflow
C. voltage level
D. security
30. What approximate humidity level is considered to be ideal for a server room?
A. 25% humidity
B. 40% humidity
C. 50% humidity
D. 70% humidity
31. What temperature is considered to be ideal for a server room?
A. 62 degrees Fahrenheit
B. 68 degrees Fahrenheit
C. 70 degrees Fahrenheit
D. 72 degrees Fahrenheit
32. Which guideline applies to racks and network components?
A. Material Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
B. Material safeties data sheet (MSDS)
C. Memorandum of understanding (MOA)
D. Statement of work (SOW)
33. Which term refers to doors that default to open in case of emergency?
A. Success open
B. Success close
C. Fail open
D. Fail close
34. Which term refers to a safety mechanism in which doors lock in case of emergency?
A. Success open
B. Success close
C. Fail open
D. Fail closed
35. __________ need to cover building layout, fire escape plans, and the locations of emergency exits.
A. Fail opens
B. Forensics reports
C. Exit plans
D. Material safeties data sheets (MSDSs)
--- END CHAPTER 18 ---