Download Chapter 19- The Cardiovascular System: The Blood

Chapter 19- The Cardiovascular System: The Blood
Choose the single best answer to each question.
1) Which of the following is NOT function of blood?
A) transports nutrients, wastes and gases
B) regulates pH
C) defends against infection
D) promote blood loss
E) distribute heat
2) Which of the following is correct?
A) A 100 lb (45 Kg) woman will have about 8 lb (3.6 Kg) of blood.
B) Most adult humans have between 4 and 6 L of blood, depending on their size.
C) Normal blood is less viscous than water and has a neutral pH.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
3) Each of the following is a constituent of plasma EXCEPT
A) water
B) proteins
C) formed elements
D) nutrients
E) gases
4) Which of the following are plasma proteins made by the liver?
A) albumins
B) fibrinogens
C) globulins
D) immunoglobulins
E) All except D are correct.
5) Which of the following are cells found in the blood?
A) erythrocytes
B) leukocytes
C) platelets
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
6) Which of the following hematocrit values indicates that a patient has polycythemia?
A) 62%
B) 47%
C) 42%
D) 37%
E) 25%
7) Which of the following is correct?
A) Most formed elements survive for years.
B) Pluripotent cells become myeloid stem cells or lymphoid stem cells.
C) All of newborn’s bone marrow is yellow marrow.
D) Red marrow can be converted to yellow marrow if the body needs to make more blood cells.
E) Blood cells are formed in the adult liver, spleen, thymus, and lymph nodes.
8) At which stage do developing blood cells lose their ability to reproduce themselves?
A) hemocytoblast
B) myeloid stem cell
C) progenitor cell
D) precursor (-blast) cell
E) mature blood cell
9) Which of the following does not arise from a myeloid stem cell?
A) lymphocyte
B) monocyte
C) eosinophil
D) platelet
E) red blood cell
10) A patient suffering from systemic lupus erythematosus has renal and hepatic damage. How might that
damage affect her blood?
A) Her kidneys may not make enough EPO, causing her to be anemic.
B) Her liver may not make enough TPO, causing her to bleed more profusely.
C) Her kidneys may not make enough cytokines, causing her to be more prone to infection.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
11) Which of the following is NOT correct?
A) Mature red blood cells are called erythrocytes.
B) RBCs have a spheroidal shape.
C) The average life span of an erythrocyte is 120 days.
D) Most adults have around 5 million RBCs/µL of blood.
E) The body produces about 2 million erythrocytes per second.
12) Hemoglobin
A) constitutes 90% of an erythrocyte’s mass.
B) consists of one alpha and one beta chain of protein.
C) has a central protein called heme.
D) has an Fe2+ at the center of it’s heme group.
E) binds CO2 to the Fe2+ at the center of it’s heme group.
13) Hemoglobin
A) transports most of the O2 and about 23% of the CO2 between the tissues and the lungs.
B) abnormalities seldom affect RBC shape or durability.
C) has no effect on blood pressure and blood distribution.
D) A1c levels can be used to monitor the blood Na+ levels.
E) contributes no color to erythrocytes.
14) When hemoglobin is recycled, what happens to the heme group?
A) It is digested into amino acids, which are used by cells to build new proteins.
B) It is transported back to the bone marrow by ferritin or transferrin.
C) It is converted to biliverdin and then to bilirubin.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
15) Erythropoiesis
A) increases in response to elevated levels of O2.
B) increases in response to depressed levels of EPO.
C) requires amino acids, vitamin B6, and iron ions.
D) normally keeps pace with RBC destruction.
E) occurs more slowly at higher altitudes.
16) White blood cells, which are also known as leukocytes,
A) include the granulocytes: neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils.
B) include the agranulocytes: monocytes and lymphocytes.
C) include cells containing hemoglobin but not nuclei.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
17) A medical technology student is learning to count blood cells the low-tech way: using a microscope and a
special slide called a hemocytometer. She has just found a round, darkly-stained white blood cell that contains
large granules. She cannot see the cell’s nucleus. The student is probably looking at a
A) basophil
B) eosinophil
C) monocyte
D) lymphocyte
E) neutrophil
18) Two doctors, trained in different decades and different parts of the country, call the critical care nurses’ station
and ask for a report on a patient’s blood work. One doctor is particularly interested in the patient’s “segs” and the
other in the patient’s “PMNs”. Both want to know about “bands”. The experienced, well-educated R.N. answering
the calls knows that
A) “segs” are white blood cells with segmented nuclei, also known as mature neutrophils.
B) “PMNs” are polymorphonuclear cells, also known as mature neutrophils.
C) “bands” are immature neutrophils.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
19) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A) All macrophages arise from monocytes.
B) All leukocytes are lymphocytes.
C) All lymphocytes have large nuclei.
D) Some monocytes become fixed macrophages, remaining in one tissue.
E) Some monocytes become wandering macrophages, patrolling the body.
20) How do white blood cells (WBCs) differ from red blood cells (RBCs)?
A) WBCs have nuclei: RBCs do not.
B) WBCs have MHC antigens: RBCs do not.
C) WBCs can leave the blood vessels; RBCs cannot.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
21) Which WBCs are never phagocytic?
A) neutrophils
B) macrophages
C) lymphocytes
D) eosinophils
E) Both C and D are correct.
22) The differential count of a person suffering from both allergies and parasitic worms would probably reveal
elevated numbers of
A) eosinophils
B) basophils
C) neutrophils
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
23) Which of the following is NOT correct?
A) Emigration, or diapedesis, is the process by which phagocytic cells leave blood vessels.
B) Chemotaxis refers to the intracellular destruction of pathogens by phagocytic cells.
C) WBCs use lysozyme, defensins, and certain anions to destroy pathogens.
D) Neutrophils are usually the first and most numerous responders to an infection.
E) Macrophages react more slowly to an infection than neutrophils do.
24) Place the following in the order in which they develop:
1. myeloid stem cells
2. megakaryocyte colony forming cells
3. megakaryoblasts
4. megakaryocytes
5. platelet lymphoid stem cells
A) 1, 6, 4, 3, 5 but never 2
B) 1, 4, 6, 3, 5 but never 2
C) 2, 6, 4, 3, 5 but never 1
D) 2, 4, 6, 3, 5 but never 1
E) 2, 6, 4, 5, 3 but never 1
25) Platelets
A) stop bleeding by plugging holes in blood vessels.
B) release chemicals that make blood clot.
C) are cell fragments rather than intact cells.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
26) Stem cells for blood formation may be harvested from
A) the patient’s on marrow if his or her cancer is in remission.
B) the marrow from the iliac crest of a closely matched donor.
C) umbilical cord blood from a newborn whose parents have agreed to the donation.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
27) Which of the following is NOT a risk associated with bone marrow transplantation?
A) reduced risk of infection in the two weeks immediately following the procedure
B) lymphocytes from the donated marrow may attack the recepient’s tissues
C) surviving recipient lymphcytes may attacke the donated marrow
D) required anti-rejection medications increase risk of infection
E) required anti-rejection medications may damage the kidneys or liver
28) Advantages of harvesting stem cells from cord-blood include
A) more numerous stem cells in cord-blood than bone marrow
B) reduced chance of rejection of donated cord-blood stem cells than bone marrow stem cells
C) reduced difficulty of harvesting cord-blood stem cells than bone marrow stem cells
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
29) Three year old Juanita has a rare form of leukemia. The doctors have recommended, and her family has
agreed, that her best chance of survival is to destroy her bone marrow and then replace it with stem cells from a
donor. Which of the following sources of stem cells would probably be best?
A) bone marrow from the iliac crest of her mother
B) bone marrow from the iliac crest of her older half-brother
C) stored cord-blood from her baby sister
D) stored cord-blood of her own
E) bone marrow from the iliac crest of her mother’s friend
30) Hemostasis
A) is a sequence of events that prevents the loss of blood from blood vessels.
B) must be rapid, localized and carefully controlled.
C) involves vascular spasm, platelet plug formation and coagulation.
D) can prevent hemorrhage if the damaged blood vessels are small.
E) All of the above are correct.
31) Which of the following is NOT true of vascular spasm in hemostasis?
A) It reduces blood loss for minutes or hours.
B) It usually occurs when smooth muscles in the walls of veins contract.
C) It is triggered by substances released from damaged vascular smooth muscle.
D) It is promoted by substances released from platelets.
E) It is linked to reflexes initiated by pain receptors.
32) Which of the following is NOT normally found inside platelets?
A) fibrinogen
B) ADP
C) thromboxane A2
D) serotonin
E) platelet-derived growth factor
33) Which of the following events occurs first?
A) coagulation
B) platelet adhesion
C) platelet plug formation
D) platelet aggregation
E) platelet release reaction
34) Which of the following is associated with the extrinsic pathway of blood clotting?
A) Damaged cells release a combination of phospholipids and lipoproteins called tissue factor.
B) Tissue factor leaks into the blood from outside of the blood vessel.
C) Requires factor XII initially.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
35) The intrinsic pathway
A) originates outside of the blood vessel.
B) takes longer to complete than the extrinsic pathway.
C) does not involve platelet phospholipids.
D) does not involve Ca2+.
E) requires tissue plasminogen activator.
36) What is the end result of the first stage in the common pathway of blood coagulation?
A) formation of prothrombinase
B) formation of fibrinogen
C) formation of prothrombin
D) formation of thrombin
E) formation of fibrin
37) Which of the following does NOT correctly describe a mechanism that prevents excessive blood clotting?
A) Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin dissolves fibrin.
B) Presence of vitamin K blocks platelet adhesion and release.
C) Dilution and removal of coagulation factors by blood flow.
D) Antithrombin blocks the actions of vactors XII, X and II.
E) Activated protein C enhances activities of plasminogen activators.
38) Intravascular blood clotting
A) is called fibrinolysis.
B) occurs when the linings of blood vessels are smooth and intact.
C) results in formation of a thrombus.
D) most frequently occurs in arteries with rapid blood flow.
E) is inhibited by thromboxane A2.
39) Blood groups are based on
A) the presence of inherited antigens on the surfaces of leukocytes and other nucleated cells.
B) the presence of inherited antigens on the surfaces of erythrocytes.
C) the presence of inherited circulating antibodies.
D) the presence of induced circulating antibodies.
E) All of these are correct.
40) The ABO blood group is based on the presence of
A) type A and type B glycolipids on the surfaces of erythrocytes.
B) type A and type B glycolipids on the surfaces of leukocytes.
C) type A and type B glycoproteins on the surfaces of nucleated cells.
D) type A and type B glycoproteins circulating in the plasma.
E) type A and type B glycolipids circulating in the plasma.
41) Jason has circulating anti-B, but not anti-A, antibodies. Which blood type does he have?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
E) There is not enough information to determine the answer.
42) Xochitl has no anti-D antibodies. What can be inferred from this information?
A) She is probably Rh positive.
B) She may be Rh negative, but if so has never been exposed to Rh positive blood.
C) She should not conceive children with an Rh negative man in order to prevent HDN.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
43) Ban has no circulating anti-A, anti-B or anti-D antibodies. What is his blood type?
A) A positive
B) AB negative
C) B negative
D) O negative
E) Either A or B is correct.
44) Deandray has circulating anti-A, anti-B and anti-D antibodies. Which of the following blood types may safely
receive blood from him?
A) O negative
B) A positive
C) B negative
D) None of these types may safely receive blood from him.
E) All of these types may safely receive blood from him.
45) A descendent of which U.S. population group is most likely to include an individual with type AB negative
blood?
A) European-American
B) African-American
C) Asian-American
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
46) If a type A negative patient is accidentally given type B positive blood, what will happen?
A) Nothing will happen because this is a safe match.
B) The patient’s agglutinins will begin to attack the donated erythrocytes.
C) The patient’s agglutinogens will begin to attack the donated erythrocytes.
D) The donor’s agglutinogens will begin to attack the patient’s agglutinins.
E) Either B or C may occur.
47) Anemia
A) is a condition in which the ability of the blood to carry oxygen decreases.
B) may be caused by deficient amounts of iron in the diet.
C) is associated with excessive numbers of erythrocytes.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
48) Which of type of anemia is inherited?
A) pernicious anemia
B) sickle cell anemia
C) megaloblastic anemia
D) aplastic anemia
E) hemorrhagic anemia
49) Which of the following is NOT associated with hemophilia?
A) simultaneous, unregulated blood clotting and hemorrhage throughout the body
B) inherited deficiency of blood clotting
C) more prevalent in males
D) spontaneous hemorrhages
E) treatment with plasma, DDAVP, or clotting factors
50) Leukemia
A) is a cancer of the yellow bone marrow.
B) produces large numbers of abnormal leukocytes.
C) is usually observed in a chronic form in children.
D) produces greater resistance to infectious disease.
E) is always caused by environmental rather than genetic factors.