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Some More Final Exam Review Questions
Figure 1
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1. Another way of writing 100 × 107 is A) 1 billion B) 100 million C) 1 million D) 10 thousand E) 10 billion
2. An arcsecond is a measure of
C) the time between oscillations of a standard clock.
A) length along a circle B) angle.
D) the time between successive orbital positions.
3. One arcsecond is equal to
A) 1/3600 degree. B) 1/60 of a full circle. C) 1/60 degree D) 1/3600 of a full circle. E) 3600 degrees
4. If you are on the equator at equinox, how many degrees does the Sun subtend during the daytime?
A) 180 arcseconds
B) 90 degrees C) 180 degrees
D) 1/3600 degrees
E) 270 degrees
5. The average distance from Earth to the Sun, 149,600,000 km, can be written in scientific notation as
A) 1.496 × 1012 m.
B) 1.496 × 106 m.
C) 1.496 × 1011 m. D) 1.496 × 107 m. E) 1.496 × 10-11 m
6. What is 200 billion divided by 20 million? A) 10 x 104 B) 10 x 103 C) 10 x 10-3 D) 1 x 10-2 E) 100
7. What is another way of writing 100 nm? A) 10 x 10-7 m B) 10 x 10-9 m C) 1 x 10-7 m D) 1 m E) 1 mm
8. One astronomical unit is defined as the
A) distance traveled by light in one year.
B) mean distance between the Sun and the Earth.
C) distance traveled by light in one parsec.
D) distance traveled by one astronaut at the speed of light.
E) distance from which Earth-Sun distance will subtend an angle of one arcsecond.
9. At what time of the year in the northern hemisphere will the Sun be closest to your zenith near noon?
A) Spring
B) Summer
C) Fall
D) Winter
E) All days of the year
10. At what time of year and where would you need to be so that the Sun never set?
A) December, near the north pole
B) March, near the south pole
C) June, near the north pole
D) June, near the south pole
E) March or September near Equator
12. What is a solar day?
A) The average time it takes for the Sun to repeat its position in the sky
B) The average time it takes for the Sun to rise and set as viewed from the Moon
C) The average time it takes for a constellation to repeat its position in the sky
D) The time it take the Sun to rotate on its axis
E) A day when there is an eclipse of the Sun
13. What is a sidereal day?
A) The average time it takes for the Sun to repeat its position in the sky
B) The average time it takes for the Sun to rise and set as viewed from the Moon
C) The average time it takes for a constellation to repeat its position in the sky
D) The time it takes the Sun to rotate on its axis
E) A day when there is an eclipse of the Sun
14. If the Earth spun on its axis much faster than its current rate, what would happen to the difference
between a sidereal day and a solar day?
A) it would not change
B) it would become very small
C) it would become very large
15. If the universal time is 11:00 in New York, what is the universal time in California?
A) 2:00
B) noon
C) 3:00
D) 8:00
E) 11:00
16. At what approximate time will you first be able to see the new moon?
A) midday B) sunset C) noon D) midnight E) sunrise
17. How long is the Moon visible during the daytime?
A) never
B) always
C) the answer depends on the phase of the Moon
D) 18 hours
E) 23 hours 56 minutes
18. How often does a person on the north pole see a full moon?
A) Never B) Once per month C) Twice per month D) The Moon is always full
E) At new moon
19. How often does a person on the equator see a full moon?
A) Never B) Once per month C) Twice per month D) The Moon is always full
E) At new moon
20. Which of the following best describes the Ptolemic model?
A) Sun-centered, with planets moving in circles around it.
B) Earth-centered, with epicyclic planetary orbits.
C) Sun-centered, with elliptical planetary orbits.
D) Sun-centered, with epicyclic planetary orbits.
E) Earth-centered, with Sun, Moon, and planets moving in ellipses in the sky.
21. What principle states that when two theories describe the same phenomena equally accurately, choose
the simpler theory? A) The law of least action
B) The theory of gravitation C) Kepler’s third law
D) Newton’s second law
E) Occam's Razor
22. What was Tycho Brahe attempting to determine using parallax?
A) He was attempting to show that planets executed retrograde motion.
B) He was attempting to determine if the solar system was geocentric or heliocentric.
C) He was attempting to measure the rotation rate of Venus.
D) He was attempting to determine the period of rotation of Jupiter’s moons.
E) He was attempting to measure the speed of light.
23. If the mass of the Earth was twice as large but its radius was the same, what would happen to your
mass and weight?
A) Your mass and weight would both increase.
B) Your mass and weight would both be unchanged.
C) Your mass would decrease and your weight would be the same.
D) Your mass would increase and your weight would be the same.
E) Your mass would be the same and your weight would increase.
24. If the mass of the Earth was twice as large and its radius was the same, what would its density be?
A) Its density would be the same
B) Its density would be one quarter of its current value
C) Its density would be one half of its current value
D) Its density would be one eighth of its current value
E) Its density would be twice its current value
25. If you drop an object near the Earth's surface it will have an acceleration of 9.8 m/s2. If you drop an
object that weighs twice as much, its acceleration will be
A) 4.9 m/s2.
B) zero
C) 19.6 m/s2
D) more than 19.6 m/s2.
E) 9.8 m/s2.
26. If a person is standing on a scale that reads 180 pounds, with what force is the scale pushing on the
person?
A) more than 180 pounds, provided the scale is heavier than 180 pounds
B) 9.8 pounds
C) less than 180 pounds, provided the scale is lighter than 180 pounds
D) zero
E) 180 pounds
27. In Newton's law of universal gravitation, F = GMm/R2, what does R represent?
A) The average radius of the two masses, M and m.
B) The average mass (M+m)/2
C) The radius of the larger mass
D) The radius of the smaller mass
E) The separation distance between the centers of the two masses, M and m
28. Suppose the Sun was twice as massive as it is now. The gravitational force of the Sun on Earth would be
A) Twice as much, according to Newton’s law of gravitation
B) Twice as much, according to Kepler’s law of gravitation
C) Half as much, according to Newton’s law of gravitation
D) Half as much, according to Kepler’s law of gravitation
E) The same, according to Newton’s second law
29. Which one of the following statements is true?
A) Visible light takes up only a very small part of the total range of wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum.
B) Visible light takes up most (but not all) of the total range of wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum.
C) Visible light takes up all of the electromagnetic spectrum.
D) Visible light is not part of the electromagnetic spectrum.
E) Visible light travels faster than electromagnetic radiation.
30. What is the frequency of electromagnetic radiation whose wavelength is 300 nanometers?
A) 300 cycles per second B) 300 nanoseconds C) 1015 Hz D) 10-15 Hz
E) 1015 seconds
31. Why is the Kelvin scale used?
A) It represents something physical: zero Kelvin represents the temperature when water freezes.
B) It represents something physical: zero Kelvin represents the temperature when atoms stop moving.
C) It is an arbitrary scale that remains in use for historical reasons.
D) It represents the mass a planet must have in order to remain heated as a result of tidal forces.
E) It represents an ideal scale that gives the same numerical value of mass and weight.
32. After passing through a lens, the frequency of a light beam is ___________ than what it was before it
passed through the lens? A) the same as B) higher C) lower D) twice as large E) half as much
33. From an observer on Earth, how much time elapses between successive Moonrises?
A) about 1 synodic month
B) about 1 day
C) about 1 sidereal month
D) 365.25 days
E) more than 365.25 days
34. If you lived near the equator of the Moon, how often would the Sun rise?
A) 365 times each year
B) once each year
C) never
D) about once per month
E) about four times per month
35. If the Earth orbited the Sun in a perfect circle with a radius of 1 AU, how would the seasons change?
A) The seasons would not change significantly
B) The seasons would last twice as long
C) The seasons would last half as long
D) Winter in the northern hemisphere would be warmer
E) Summer would occur at the same time in the northern and southern hemispheres
36. What is the terminator on Earth?
A) A line joining the north and south poles, passing through the international date line
B) A line between the near and far sides of Earth
C) A line between the solar-illuminated and dark hemispheres
D) A line separating the northern and southern hemispheres
E) A line that outlines the state governed by A. Schwarzenegger
37. In Figure 1, the Moon appears to block out the Sun. How often does this happen?
A) Once per month B) Once per year C) Twice per month D) less than once per month E) At new moon
38. Which of the following is an appropriate caption for Figure 1?
A) The top image is a total eclipse of the Sun and the bottom image is an annular eclipse of the Sun
B) The top image is a partial eclipse of the Sun and the bottom image is a total eclipse of the Sun
C) The top and bottom images show the Moon as it passes through Earth’s shadow
D) The top and bottom images show the Earth as it passes through the Sun’s shadow
E) The top image is from an observer at the equator looking toward the Sun and the bottom image is from an
observer at the north pole
39. In Figure 1, why does the Moon completely cover the Sun in the top image while only partially covering
the Sun in the bottom image?
A) The top image was taken during June while the bottom image was taken during December
B) The top image was taken during December while the bottom image was taken during June
C) The top image was taken when the Moon was closer to Earth
D) The top image was taken when the Moon was farther from Earth
E) The top image was taken from on top of a mountain
40. What are two features of Earth that shields us from the influence of the Sun?
A) Its atmosphere, which absorbs radiation, and its magnetic field, which absorbs the solar wind
B) Its atmosphere, which absorbs radiation, and its magnetic field, which deflects the solar wind
C) Its oceans, which serve as a reservoir of CO2, and its ozone layer which absorbs visible light
D) Its oceans, which serve as a reservoir of CO2, and its atmosphere, which traps greenhouse gasses
E) Its interior, which absorbs energy, and its atmosphere, which traps greenhouse gasses
41. About how many times will Mercury rotate with respect to the distant stars in two sidereal orbital
periods? (Mercury has an orbital period of 88 days and a rotation period of 58 days.)
A) 0.5 times B) 1.0 times C) 88 times D) 1.5 times E) 3.0 times
42. If a planet has an orbital period of 1,000 days and a rotational period of 0.01 days, about how many
times will it rotate on its axis over the course of its year?
A) 1,000 times
B) 10,000 times
C) 10 times
D) 100 times E) 100,000 times
43. What is a solar transit of Mercury?
A) The time it takes Mercury to orbit the Sun
C) The passing of Mercury in front of the Sun
E) The passing of Mercury in front of Venus
B) The time it takes Mercury to rotate on its axis
D) The passing of Mercury behind the Sun
44. How often does a solar transit of Jupiter occur?
A) Never
B) Once every time Jupiter orbits the Sun
C) Once per month
D) Once every 365.25 days
E) When a moon passes behind it as viewed from the Earth.
45. When viewed from Earth, the apparent angular diameter of the Moon varies over a month because
A) the Moon’s orbit around the Earth is not a perfect circle B) of the tidal influence of the Earth on the Moon
C) the Earth’s orbit is not a perfect circle around the Sun
D) the Moon sometimes passes into Earth’s shadow
E) The Moon’s orbital plane is in the same plane as the ecliptic
46. Why does Venus have a long solar day relative to its year?
A) It orbits the Sun very quickly
B) It orbits on its axis very rapidly
D) It orbits on its axis very slowly
E) It has a runaway greenhouse effect
C) It is closer to the Sun
47. What is special about CO2 that makes it a “greenhouse” gas?
A) It is effective at absorbing the radiation that the Earth emits B) It is effective at absorbing visible light
C) It is effective at absorbing ozone
D) It freezes at very low temperatures
E) It never freezes
48. What has the most influence on the runaway greenhouse effect on Venus?
A) Its retrograde motion
B) Its inability to remove CO2 from the atmosphere
C) Its slow rotation which makes the temperature more uniform
D) Its oceans which contribute H2O and CO2 to the atmosphere
E) Its magnetosphere
49. Saturn is thought to be warmer than Jupiter because Helium raindrops heated Saturn’s atmosphere.
Jupiter also has Helium in its atmosphere, so why didn’t Helium heat its atmosphere in the same way?
A) Jupiter is closer to the Sun
B) Jupiter is further from the Sun
C) Jupiter is rotating more quickly
D) Jupiter is rotating more slowly
E) Jupiter has a great red spot
50. When looking at the sky with the naked eye, how can you distinguish a planet from a star?
A) Planets are much larger
B) Planets do not move with respect to the stars
C) Planets move with respect to the stars
D) A star will never be in the ecliptic plane
E) A star will exhibit retrograde motion
51. Why are the seasons on Mars about twice as long as those on Earth?
A) Mars has a much thinner atmosphere
B) Mars takes about twice as long to orbit the Sun
C) Mars takes about half as long to orbit the Sun
D) Both A) and B)
E) Mars has a tilt with respect to its orbital plane that is twice as large
52. What causes the seasons on Mars?
A) its elliptical orbit.
C) its day being about 24 hours in length.
E) its distance from the Sun varies in its orbit.
B) its spin axis being tilted with respect to its orbital plane.
D) its year being about 700 days in length.
53. If a block of CO2 ice and a block of frozen water were placed next to each other on the surface of Mars,
which will evaporate faster?
A) The block of CO2 ice
B) The block of frozen water
C) The block of frozen water, but only if the blocks are near the poles
D) The block of CO2 ice, but only if the blocks are near the poles
E) They will melt and evaporate at the same rate
54. Saturn is less massive than Jupiter but is almost the same size. Why is this?
A) Saturn's interior is hotter than that of Jupiter.
B) Saturn is composed of lighter material than is Jupiter.
C) Saturn is rotating faster than Jupiter, and the increased centrifugal force results in a larger size.
D) Saturn’s smaller mass exerts less gravitational force on its atmosphere
E) Saturn has an extensive system of rings.
55. The reason for the slightly flattened or oblate shape of Saturn is
A) its rapid rotation rate.
B) its cloud cover, more clouds forming over the equator on average.
C) it was formed that way in the beginning and has maintained this shape.
D) the gravitational pull of the Sun and the other planets in the ecliptic.
E) its ring system.
56. Boulder-sized moonlets orbit within the Roche limit in Saturn's rings without breaking apart because
A) billions of years of alternate freezing and thawing as they pass from sunlight into Saturn's shadow and out
again has given them an iron-hard crust of ice.
B) the gravitational forces between the different parts of the Moonlet are greater than the tidal forces pulling them
apart.
C) they are too small for tidal forces to operate on them effectively.
D) the chemical bonds between their atoms and molecules are greater than the tidal forces pulling them apart.
E) the chemical bonds between their atoms and molecules are weaker than the tidal forces pulling them apart.
57. In describing the observations of the movements of the Moons of Jupiter, what is the difference between
an occultation and an eclipse?
A) An occultation is the passage of the Moon into Jupiter's shadow, whereas an eclipse is the disappearance of the
Moon behind the planet.
B) There is no difference—these terms both describe the disappearance of the Moon behind the planet.
C) An occultation is the passage of the Moon in front of the planet, whereas an eclipse is the disappearance of the
Moon behind the planet.
D) An occultation is the disappearance of the Moon behind the planet, whereas an eclipse is the passage of the
Moon into Jupiter's shadow.
58. Compared to earthquakes on Earth, moonquakes are
A) far more frequent but far weaker in intensity.
B) much less frequent but much more destructive.
C) much less frequent and far less intense.
D) much more frequent and far more destructive.
E) None of the above; an object without tectonic activity cannot have quakes
59. Why are moonquakes more frequent when the Moon is closest to Earth?
A) The tidal forces are strongest then
B) The tidal forces are weakest then
C) The Moon is moving most quickly then
D) The Moon is moving most slowly then
E) The Moon is exposed to more sunlight then
60. Which one of the following four theories about the origin of the Moon is now believed to be correct?
A) An object about the size of Mars crashed into Earth and debris from the collision formed the Moon.
B) Earth and the Moon formed together, already orbiting each other.
C) The Moon formed separately in a different part of the solar nebula and was later captured by Earth.
D) Earth was spinning so rapidly while still molten that a piece "spun off" to form the Moon.
61. In what way was methane, CH4, first discovered on Titan?
A) by chemical "sniffers" carried by Voyager 2 when it passed very close to Titan
B) spectroscopically, by noting specific absorptions in reflected sunlight
C) by detecting the light of burning methane spectroscopically, similar to that seen from oil or gas-well flares
D) by noting the formation on its surface of colored "ice," characteristic of methane ice
62. The Moon’s surface most resembles that of
A) the Earth B) Mercury C) Venus D) Mars E) Pluto
63. Suppose Mercury had 5-to-3 spin-orbit coupling and that its sidereal period remained 88 days, as it is
now. What would be the time from noon to noon on Mercury, in days?
A) 88 B) 147 C) 264 D) 440
E) 44
64. At what point did the greenhouse effect cease to raise the temperature of Venus?
A) when all the greenhouse gases evaporated
B) when the radiation from Venus balanced the radiation absorbed by Venus
C) when the CO2 was dissolved in the early Venusian oceans
D) when the greenhouse gases combined with other chemicals
65. Why is the year on Venus longer than that on Mercury?
A) Venus has retrograde motion.
B) Venus takes longer to orbit the Sun than Mercury.
C) Mercury takes longer to orbit the Sun than Venus.
D) Venus has an atmosphere while Mercury does not.
E) Venus has an orbital period that is almost the same as its rotational period.
66. One interesting feature of the motions of the giant planets that distinguishes them from the terrestrial
planets is the fact that
A) they rotate rapidly.
B) their orbital planes are strongly inclined to the Earth's orbital or ecliptic plane.
C) they orbit the Sun in a retrograde direction, compared to the terrestrial planets.
D) they have a magnetosphere
C) they have Moons
67. As viewed from Earth, why do the rings of Saturn appear to vary from being very distinct to being
almost invisible over a period of a few years?
A) The Earth is much closer to Saturn at opposition than at conjunction.
B) The ring structure is very thin and is tilted to the ecliptic plane, making it appear almost edge-on.
C) The ice particles of which the rings are composed melt when the planet is closest to the Sun and refreeze when
the planet is farthest from the Sun.
D) The rings are distorted by Jupiter’s gravity
E) The rings are strongly influenced by Saturn’s shepherd moons
68. At distances inside the Roche limit of a planet,
A) the intensity of radiation emitted from the planet is greater than that from the Sun.
B) the magnetic field of the planet is sufficiently strong to repulse the solar wind.
C) the chemical bonds that hold a planet together suddenly break.
D) the magnetic field of the planet is not strong enough to repulse the solar wind.
E) the difference in the planet’s gravitational force on two nearby particles will be larger than the gravitational
attraction forces between the two particles.
69. The source of excess heat emitted by Jupiter is thought to be
A) heat generated in the interior by the same electrical currents that generate the planet's aurora.
B) heat caused by friction between oppositely directed winds at mid-latitudes.
C) energy caused by the collisions and compression of the material that makes up Jupiter’s core and atmosphere.
D) chemical reactions between methane, ammonia, and water in the planet's atmosphere and clouds.
E) heat caused by evaporating Helium
70. Why does Saturn's atmosphere not show the same colorful contrast that we see in Jupiter's?
A) Saturn's clouds and circulation pattern resemble those of Earth rather than those of Jupiter.
B) Saturn's features are obscured by an upper cloud deck of methane ice crystals, whereas Jupiter has too high a
temperature for methane ice.
C) Saturn has a similar circulation pattern to Jupiter, but it is obscured by a much deeper atmosphere.
D) Saturn has counterflowing winds like Jupiter but lacks the three differently colored cloud levels.
71. What are the two most important factors in determining if a planet will have an aurora?
A) A magnetic field and atmosphere
B) A magnetic field and lithosphere
C) A lithosphere and atmosphere
D) A magnetic field and liquid water on its surface
72. In Figure 2, what does “p” represent?
A) parallax angle caused by the change in the apparent position of the nearby star with respect to the distant stars
B) parallax angle caused by the change in the actual position of the nearby star with respect to the distant stars
C) the partial angle between the line connecting the Sun to the Earth in January and June
D) the period of time it takes the Earth to orbit the Sun
E) the distance of the nearby star from the Sun
73. The most geologically active object in the planetary system at the present time is
A) Io.
B) the Earth's Moon.
C) the Earth.
D) Mars.
E) Pluto.
74. The heating of the interior of the large Galilean moon Io of Jupiter, which produces volcanic activity, is
probably caused by
A) its original heat of formation.
B) radioactive elements on its surface.
C) nuclear fission within its interior.
D) tidal distortion by Jupiter and its other moons.
75. If the orbital period of Uranus is 84 years and its rotational period is about 17 hours, how often will the
Sun shine vertically on its North Pole?
A) never, because of the extreme tilt of its spin axis to the ecliptic plane
B) once every 42 years
C) once every 17 hours
D) once every 84 years
76. Uranus and Neptune are similar in size and have similar atmospheres, but Neptune is significantly
farther away from the Sun than is Uranus, by a ratio of about 30/19. What conclusion can be reached,
therefore, from the fact that Neptune's temperature is about the same as Uranus's?
A) Neptune's atmosphere must contain a more effective greenhouse gas to maintain more solar energy.
B) Neptune must have a significant source of internal energy or heat.
C) The solar wind penetrates Neptune's clouds and deposits energy, while Uranus's magnetic field deflects it.
D) Neptune is being distorted, and is therefore heated more than Uranus by tidal forces from Jupiter and Saturn.
77. How many meters are in a ly? (The speed of light is 3x105 km/s)
A) The number of seconds in a year divided by 3 x 108 B) The number of seconds in a year times 3 x 105
C) 3 x 108 x 365.25 x 24 x 60
D) 3 x 108 x 365.25 x 24 x 60 x 60
E) None of the above
78. What is an example of energy transfer by convection?
A) The heating of air in a cold room by blowing hot air into it
B) Tidal heating
C) The conversion of photon energy to electrical energy in a solar panel D) heating of Earth by the Sun’s rays
79. Which rings orbit Saturn faster? A) The inner rings
C) They all orbit at the same rate
D) Those inside the Roche limit
B) The outer rings
E) Those outside of the Roche limit
80. Most of the asteroids of our solar system move around the Sun between the orbits of
A) Earth and Mars. B) Mars and Jupiter. C) Jupiter and Saturn. D) Venus and Earth. E) Mercury and Venus
81. Are space probes to the outer planets protected from collisions as they pass through the asteroid belt?
A) No—we lose only one out of every four spacecraft to collisions with asteroids.
B) Yes—the spacecraft are equipped with cameras to detect asteroids, so they can be directed safely around them.
C) No—asteroids are so far apart that the spacecraft just sail safely on through.
D) Yes—the spacecraft are sent in an inclined orbit that arcs them above or below the asteroid belt
82. The Kirkwood Gaps are primarily caused by
A) the gravitational tug of Jupiter nudging asteroids into new orbits.
B) shepherd satellites controlling the orbits of ring particles.
C) orbits of material being disturbed because Jupiter's gravitational field balances the Sun’s at this distance.
D) large asteroids sweeping parts of the asteroid belt clear of smaller asteroids.
83. A piece of rock from outer space that reaches the Earth's surface after surviving a fiery passage
through the Earth's atmosphere is known as
A) a meteoroid. B) a meteor. C) a meteorite. D) an asteroid.
E) an aurora
84. A small piece of rock orbiting the Sun would be called
A) a meteor. B) a meteorite. C) a micrometer. D) a meteoroid. E) a planet
85. A shooting star is
A) a violently erupting star that ejects matter rapidly away from it into interstellar space.
B) a small particle of interplanetary dust that burns up and glows as it enters the Earth's atmosphere.
C) the leading scorer on a basketball team.
D) a near-neighbor star, moving rapidly across our field of view.
E) the result of imperfections in the lens of a camera or telescope.
86. A comet's gas and ion tail
A) always lies in the ecliptic plane, because a comet is a part of the solar system.
B) lies between the comet and the Sun, because of gravitational attraction.
C) always trails along the orbital path, because of the comet's motion.
D) is always blown away from the comet in the anti-Sunward direction by the solar wind.
87. What is the Kuiper belt?
A) A band of dust in the plane of the ecliptic, extending from near the orbit of Mars to beyond the orbit of Pluto.
B) The broadest band of asteroids in the asteroid belt, separated from other bands by Kirkwood Gaps.
C) A relatively flat distribution of comets in the plane of the ecliptic, extending from around the orbit of Pluto out
to about 500 AU from the Sun.
D) An approximately spherical distribution of comets centered on the Sun that extends out to about 50,000 AU.
88. What did Galileo note in his observation logbook that astronomers now believe was an early prediscovery observation of Neptune?
A) An observation of a "star" near Jupiter that moved from night to night with respect to the background stars.
B) A dark spot moving across the face of the Sun that he noted was probably an unknown planet, now known to
have been Neptune.
C) Periodic changes in the motion of Uranus, which he had been observing routinely night-by-night, which is now
known to be caused by the gravitational influence of Neptune.
D) A shooting star that lasted an unusually long period of time.
89. Some astronomers do not classify Pluto as a planet. What is their reasoning?
A) Pluto has essentially no atmosphere making it really an asteroid or escaped satellite, not a planet.
B) Pluto is too small to be a true planet.
C) Pluto has no moons.
D) Pluto seems to be just one of a large number of icy worlds orbiting at the outer edge of the planetary system.
90. Which of the following statements is a CORRECT description of the planet Pluto?
A) The planet is composed mostly of ice, with only a small fraction of rock.
B) The planet has a satellite whose diameter is about half its own diameter.
C) The planet has a circular orbit well beyond the orbit of Neptune.
D) The planet will eventually break apart due to tidal forces from the Sun.
91. Uranus, with its spin axis lying almost in the plane of its orbit, experiences
A) extreme seasonal changes.
B) no seasons at all.
C) similar seasons to all other planets because the seasons are governed by orbital motion and relative distance
from the Sun, not by the tilt of the spin axis.
D) similar seasons to all other planets because it orbits in about the same plane as all of the other planets except
Pluto.
92. Which of the following statements correctly describes a currently proposed picture for the formation of
Uranus and Neptune?
A) Uranus and Neptune formed closer to the Sun than they are now and were pushed outward to their present
orbits.
B) Uranus and Neptune formed farther from the Sun than they are now and gradually spiraled inward to their
present orbits.
C) Uranus and Neptune formed where they are now with the mass and composition we see today.
D) Uranus is a result of the collision of a Mars-sized object with Neptune.
93. Why do we think Uranus and Neptune did not form at their present distance from the Sun?
A) If they did, they would be expected to have interiors more like Saturn
B) If they did, they would be expected to have more greenhouse gasses
C) If they did, they would be expected to have less greenhouse gasses
D) If they did, they would be expected to have more geologic activity
E) If they did, they would have a magnetic field that is aligned with their spin axis
94. If Earth’s tilt were to increase to 45 degrees from its current value of 23.5 degrees, which of the
following would be expected?
A) Longer seasons
B) More extreme seasons
C) A longer mean solar day
D) A shorter mean solar day
E) More eclipses
95. In Figure 2, what would happen to the apparent amount of movement of the nearby star with respect to
the distant stars between January and June if Earth orbited the Sun at 2 AU?
A) It would increase
B) It would decrease
C) It would stay the same
96. In Figure 2, what would the angle “p” be in September?
A) It would be about the same
B) It would be zero
C) It would be larger by at least a factor of two
D) It would be smaller by at least a factor of two
97. Suppose you hold your finger in front of you at arm’s length and close your left eye such that your
finger just covers the Moon. When you open your left eye and close your right eye, you can now see the
Moon. This is a result of
A) the wave nature of light
B) the Doppler effect
C) light from distant objects being nearly parallel
D) Chromatic aberration
E) Parallax
98. What is an example of energy transfer by radiation?
A) The heating of air in a cold room by blowing hot air into it
B) Tidal heating
C) The transfer of photon energy to electrical energy in a solar panel
D) The heating of Earth by the Sun’s rays
99. Figure 3 shows
A) The phases of Venus
B) The phases Mercury
C) A time elapsed photo of the Moon over the course of a night
D) The Moon as viewed over the course of a year
E) The Moon as viewed over the course of a month
100. What are the large dark spots on the object shown in Figure 3?
A) Scarps
B) Craters
C) Female horses
D) Elected officials
E) Mare