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Transcript
Exam Tests by epidemiology
1.
Active immunity appears after introduction:
A.
immune serum
2.
Active immunity can be only:
A.
artificial
3.
An infection of Tetanus takes place:
B.
A.
During trauma
clothes
D.
B.
B.
immunoglobulin
natural
C.
C. antitoxin
D. vaccines
artificial and natural D.
At the bite of mosquito
C.
innate
At using somebody
At communication with a person sick on Tetanus
4.
Annually in the world there are about 2 million people with acute viral hepatitis. In what
% of all cases of acute hepatitis B will develop chronic form.
A.
100 %
B. 50-70 %
C. 25-30 % D. 5-10 %
5.
Antiepidemic measures at a Tetanus are directed on:
A.
Deletion of agent source
prophylaxis
B.
Treatment of source
D.
Chemoprophylaxis
6.
Antiepidemic measures conduct:
A.
At presence of case of infectious diseases
B.
Regardless of presence of case of infectious diseases
C.
At the outbreak of infectious diseases
D.
At noninfectious diseases
C.
Specific
7.
At a child with the clinical displays of ARVI a generilized lymphadenopathy, one-sided
conjunctivitis increase of liver and spleen, is marked. Most reliable diagnosis?
A.
Infectious mononucleosis
D.
Flu
8.
At anthroponosis the reservoir of agent is:
A.
man
B.
animal
C.
B.
Leptospirosis
environment D.
C.
Adenoviral infection
man and animal
9.
At patient with pediculosis rapidly rise temperature of body up to 41.2°C, headache,
euphoria appeared in 4 days from the beginning of illness. Red color rash on the lateral thorax
and back. Titer of Rickettsia antibodies 1:640, Ig M – 89 %. Wha t is diagnosis?
A. Flu
B. Enteroviral infection
C. Brill-Zinsser disease
10.
At zoonosis the reservoir of agent is:
A.
man
B. animal
C. environment
D. Epidemic typhus
D. man and animal
11.
Citizen B. traveling at the summer as a tourist to resort, wants to be protected against
malaria. How to prevent malaria infection?
A.
Follow the rules of personal hygiene
C.
Make vaccine
12.
Corynebacterium diphtheria:
A.
Contain only endotoxin
C.
No one toxins products
13.
Current disinfection is conduct
A.
after the place of treatment the patient or bacteriocarrier
B.
in the case of onset of infectious disease or at suspicion on it
C.
when the is the probability of existence of infectious disease
D.
out
for the prevention an infectious disease, when the source of causative agent is not found
14.
Disinsection is a complex of measures for a fight with:
A.
rodents
B. arthropods
C.
flies and cockroaches
D. ticks and mosquitoes
15.
Disinsection is divided on:
A.
current and final
C.
current and prophylactic
16.
Distinguish a deratization:
A.
continuous and planned
C.
focal and prophylactic
17.
Duration of isolation of patient with influenza complications?
A.
4 days
18.
Etiologic agent of meningitis is:
A.
Neisseria meningitis
B. 7 days
B.
D.
Do not drink raw water
Hold chemoprophylaxis
B.
Exotoxin products
D.
B.
D.
B.
An osteotoxin products
current, final and prophylactic
prophylactic and destructive
prophylactic and destructive
D. focal, moment, continuous
C.
10 days
B.
D.
17 days
Entamoeba histolytica
C.
Vibrio cholera
D.
Clostridium botulinum
19.
Final disinfection is conduct
A.
after the removal of causative agent source from a focus
B.
in the case of onset of infectious disease or at suspicion on it
C.
when the is the probability of existence of infectious disease
D.
out
for the prevention an infectious disease, when the source of causative agent is not found
20.
First link of epidprocess:
A.
susceptible organism
B.
causative agent of infectious disease
C.
source of causative agent of the infectious disease
transmission
D.
mechanism of
21.
Focal disinfection is conduct
A.
after the place of treatment the patient or bacteriocarrier
B.
in the case of onset of infectious disease or at suspicion on it
C.
when the is the probability of existence of infectious disease
D.
out
for the prevention an infectious disease, when the source of causative agent is not found
22.
How is the urgent prophylaxis of scarlet fever conducted?
A.
By vaccination
C.
Using of vaccination
B.
Isolation of children, who had contact with a patient
D. Disinfection
23.
How long has be the increasing of temperature for including the patient into the group of
the fever?
A.
2 days
B.
5 days
C. Week
D. Month
24.
In a child with the clinical display of acute respiratory viral infection observed
generalized lymphadenopathy, one-sided conjunctivitis, increase of liver and spleen. What will
be the most credible diagnosis?
A.
Infectious mononucleosis
C.
Adenoviral infection
B. Leptospirosis
D. Influenza
25.
In a patient of 16 years old, the disease began gradually, from the catarrhal syndrome. For
2-3 days the temperature of body increase till 38,5°C, cold, severe cough with the negligible
quantity of mucous sputum, «souring» eyes. Peripheral lymph nodes are soft, painless and some
enlarged. Mucous of pharynx is hyperemic, granules on posterior part of pharynx. General state
is satisfactory. What is the drug of choice?
A.
Ascorbic acid
C.
Desoxyribonucleasa
B. Aspirin
D. Remantadin
26.
In a patient with ARVI fever develops to 40,1°C, breathing frequency 40/min. What
measures are the most effective in treatment of such complication.
A.
Minimizing of body temperature
ventilation
C.
Oxygen inhalation
27.
In epidemiology determining is:
A.
mechanism of transmission of causative agent
causative agent
B.
Keep patient on artificial lung
D.
Infusion therapy
B.
biological properties of
C.
making of collective immunity to the causative agent
D.
contagiousness of the infected person
28.
In girl V., 1 year old, appeared the stuffiness in nose, dry cough, body temperature rose
till 37,5 °C. Next day cough become attack like with the excretion of small amount of viscid
sputum. Noisy breathing. Sharply expressed expiratory dyspnea, breathing rate 40 times/minute.
During examination: acrocyanosis and emphysematous thorax, at lungs dissipated dry and single
moist rales. Tear of frenulum of tongue. What will be the preliminary diagnosis?
A.
Parainfluenza
B.
Pneumonia
C.
Influenza
29.
Infections, guided mainly by immunoprophylaxis:
A.
anthroponosis with the aerosol mechanism of transmission
B.
anthroponosis with fecal-oral mechanism of transmission
C.
anthroponosis with the transmissive mechanism of transmission
D.
anthroponosis with the vertical mechanism of transmission
30.
Infections, guided mainly by sanitary-hygienic measures:
A.
anthroponosis with the aerosol mechanism of transmission
B.
anthroponosis with fecal-oral mechanism of transmission
C.
anthroponosis with the transmissive mechanism of transmission
D.
anthroponosis with the vertical mechanism of transmission
D. Respiratory-syncytial infection
31.
Measures of urgent prophylaxis of measles for people who had been ill with measles, but
never have been vaccinated
A.
Observations
B.
C.
Use of immunoglobulin
32.
Mechanism of transmission of causative agent at the bloody infections
A.
contact
33.
Multicomponent parasitogenic system is:
A.
host
parasite – host
C.
an intermediate host terminal host
34.
Passive immunity can be only:
A.
artificial
35.
Passive immunity is created after introduction:
A.
immune serum B.
B.
B.
Vaccination
D. Use of antibiotics
fecal-oral
C.
droplet
B.
natural
D.
C.
D. transmissive
parasite – intermediate host – terminal
a parasite an intermediate host
artificial and natural
immunoglobulin
C.
antitoxin
D.
D.
innate
vaccines
36.
Patient 22 years old, has increase temperature of body till 37,8 °C. Treated under the
supervision of district doctor with a diagnosis of influenza. On the 5th day of illness temperature
remained the same; began difficultness in opening eyes. On examination – edema on face,
expressed conjunctivitis. Mucous of pharynx is hyperemic. Lymph nodes are enlarged in neck.
The general state of patient is satisfactory. This disease is related to cold. What disease you
suspect?
A. Leptospirosis
C. Adenoviral infection
B.
Infectious mononucleosis
D. Allergic dermatitis
37.
Patient A., 28 years old, hospitalized with a previous diagnosis of flu. On the 5th day of
illness, rash appeared on the trunk and internal surfaces of extremities. Temperature 41.5 °C,
hyperemia of sclera, tremor of tongue, tachycardia, splenomegaly, excitation. What is the most
possible diagnosis?
A.
Measles
B. Meningococcal infection
C.
Leptospirosis
D. Epidemic typhus
38.
Patient B., 20 years old, complains about severe headache in temples and orbits, dull ache
in the trunk, dry cough. Temperature of the body 39.6°C. Inflammatory changes of mucous
membrane of oropharynx. Normal breathing in the lungs. What is the most credible diagnosis?
A.
Pneumonia
B.
Parainfluenza
C.
Respiratory mycoplasma
D.
Flu
39.
Patient M., 11 years old, complains on general weakness, cough, at night suddenly
temperature rose till 39,5 ?C, appeared restlessness, barking cough, noisy whistling breathing
with drowing in supra- and subclavicular cavities, intercostal spaces. He was in contact with the
patient acute respiratory viral infection. What should recommend him the first line?
A.
Prednisolon, hot foot-baths
C.
Euphylin, vitamin C
B. Seduxen, euphylin
D.
Antibiotics, dimedrol
40.
Patient P., 14 years old, is hospitalized in the infectious department in the severe
condition. Complains on expressed headache, mainly in frontal and temporal regions,
supercilliary arcs, origin of vomiting appear in condition of severe pain, pains by moving the
eyeballs, in muscles and joints. Objectively: patient is excited, body temperature-39°C. BP100/60 mmHg. Bradycardia was replaced by tachycardia. Appeared tonic cramps. Doubtful
meningeal signs. From anamnesis it is clear that his brother has flu at home. What will be your
diagnosis?
A.
Influenza, typical flow
B. Influenza with the phenomena of edema of brain
C.
Respiratory-syncytial infection
D.
Parainfluenza
41.
Patient R., 26 years old, became ill sharply: temperature 39,5 °C, severe headache,
mainly in frontal and temporal an area, pains in muscles and joints. Examined on the 2-th days of
illness: state of middle weight, skin clean, dry. Moderate hyperemia with cyanosis, pulse
120/min., rhythmic. Cardiac activity rhythmic, tones are muffled, in lights of the vesicular
breathing. Stomach is without peristalsis. What is the preparation of choice for treatment of this
patient?
A.
Aspirin
B.
Remalol
C.
Ampicillin
42.
Primary bacteriocarrier is:
A.
transient
C.
transient, inapparent, acute recovering and chronic D.
43.
Prophylactic disinfection is conduct
A.
after the place of treatment the patient or bacteriocarrier
B.
in the case of onset of infectious disease or at suspicion on it
C.
when the is the probability of existence of infectious disease
D.
out
for the prevention an infectious disease, when the source of causative agent is not found
44.
Y. pestis is transmitted more frequently by:
A.
Flea
D. Ascorbic acid
B. inapparent
B.
Water
C.
Tick
D.
transient and in apparent
Food storage
45.
Your must begin to treat patients with a plague:
A.
Immediately after hospitalization
B.
Immediately after hospitalization, taking out only material for research
C.
After putting the final diagnosis
D.
After laboratory and instrumental diagnostic
46.
Prophylactic measures conduct:
A.
After single case of infectious diseases B. Regardless of presence of case of infectious
diseases
C.
At the outbreak of infectious diseases
47.
Quality of disinfectant is determined
A.
by the term of their fitness
C.
multiplicity of quantity diminishing of viable microorganisms and speed of their death
D.
by packing integrity, transparency, absence of colour and sediment|
48.
Quantity of motive forces of epidemic process:
A.
2
49.
Reconvalences after malaria prescribed from clinic no earlier than:
A.
After 2 weeks to complete clinical recovery
B.
After 2 weeks of the conclusion of a radical course of therapy
C.
At the conclusion of a radical course of therapy with a negative result of parazitoscopy
D.
After 3 weeks with a negative blood culture results
50.
Rules of hospitalization of patients with malaria:
A.
In separate room
C.
In the Meltser's box
51.
Second link of epidprocess:
A.
susceptible organism
B.
3
D.
B.by the concentration of remaining chlorine
C.
4
D.
B.
5
In the house for respiratory infections
D.
B.
Patients are not hospitalized
causative agent of infectious disease
C.
source of causative agent of the infectious disease
transmission
52.
Secondary bacteriocarrier is:
A.
transient
B.
At noninfectious diseases
inapparent
D.
mechanism of
C.
transient, inapparent, acute recovering and chronic
53.
Secondary forces of epidprocess are:
A.
natural and social phenomena
B.
C.
social phenomena
governmental politics
D.
D. acute recovering and chronic
natural phenomena
54.
Sick, 52 years old, with complaints about pain in lumbar region, headache edema of chin.
It is known from anamnesis that the sick suffers from obesity of ІІ degree. Recently carried
heavy neurological stress and had flu. He has chronic bronchitis for 5 years, chronic gastritis for
8 years. Objectively: Temperature of the body 38.2 °C, AP – 140/90 mm Hg. It is proposed the
diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. What transferred factors could be the reason of disease?
A.
Neuropsycologic stress
B.
Chronic bronchitis
C.
Chronic gastritis
D.
Flu
55.
Specific localization of causative agent at blood infection:
A.
blood plasma
56.
Specific localization of causative agent at intestinal infection:
A.
oropharynx
C.
colon
57.
Sterilization consists of such stages:
B.
leucocytes
C.
circulatory system
D.
blood
B. esophagus and stomach
D.
digestive channel
A.
disinsection, pre-sterilization cleanings and sterilizations
antiseptic
B.
aseptic and
C.
pre-sterilization cleanings and sterilizations
D.
disinfection, pre-sterilization cleanings and sterilizations
58.
Sterilization means:
A.
a partial release of matters or object from all microorganisms
B.
a complete release of matters or object from all microorganisms
C.
complete release of matters or object from pathogenic and opportunistic microorganisms
D.
a complete release of matters or object from pathogenic microorganisms
59.
Subjects for clinical supervision:
A.
Infectious patients at acute period of a disease B. Health persons that were in contact
with patient
C.
Convalescents after an infectious disease
consumption
D.
Workers of sphere of public food
60.
Term of contagious period of patient diagnosed with uncomplicated form of measles
A.
Until clinical recovery
B.
After rash starts disappearing
C.
Before appearance of rash
D.
4 days from the beginning of rash
61.
The duration of incubation period of plague is:
A.
3 to 8 days;
C.
2 to 10 days;
62.
The following methods of disinfection are distinguished:
A.
physical, biological
C.
physical, chemical
B.
2 to 12 days;
D.
2 to 6 days;
B.
biological, chemical, mechanical
D.
physical, biological, chemical
63.
The patient P., 14 years old, is suffering from flu. He is hospitalized in infectious dept.
due to worsening of his condition. He is conscious. A patient is suffocated. Pallor of skin covers
with cyanosis, breathing rate 50 times/minute. BP-80/55 mmHg, pulse 110 times /minute. Body
temperature-39,5 °C. Excretion of rose foamy sputum. On percussion of lungs there is tympanic
sound with dullness in lower part of lung .On auscultation there is moist rales in lower posterior
part of lungs. What complication of flu appeared in patient?
A.
Bronchitis
of lungs
B.
Edema of brain
C.
64.
The source of infection at diphtheria is:
A.
Sick person and bacteriocarriers
C.
Rodents
65.
The spores of Tetanus infective agent are saved:
Pneumonia
D.
Edema
B. Sick agricultural animals
D.
Mosquito
A.
Boiling during 1 hour
115°C
B. Under the influence of dry air at a temperature
C.
In soil during many years
D. In 1 % solution of formalin during 6 hour
66.
There are such methods of sterilization:
A.
physical and chemical
B. chemical and gas
C.
physical and gas
D.
67.
Third link of epidprocess:
A.
susceptible organism
B.
physical, chemical and gas
causative agent of infectious disease
C.
source of causative agent of the infectious disease
transmission
D.
mechanism of
68.
To the district doctor a patient, complaints on abundant excretions from a nose, moderate
headache, hearing loss, perversion of taste. On examination – dry of skin, nose excoriation, in a
pharynx – mild hyperemia. Temperature of body is subfebrile. Pathological changes of internal
organs are absent. Which acute respiratory viral infection carries the patient?
A.
Adenoviral infection
C.
Rhinoviral infection
B.
D.
Parainfluenza
РC-infection
69.
Urgent immunoprophylaxis of Tetanus in the case of trauma it is necessary to conduct in
a period:
A.
Do 25 days from the moment of receipt of trauma
B.
To 30 days from the moment of receipt of trauma
C.
In the first 10 days from the moment of trauma
70.
Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis:
A.
RSV
B.
Rhinovirus
D.
C.
Adenovirus
Right after the trauma
D. Rotavirus
71.
What are the antiepidemic measures regarding the persons that were in contact with
chicken-pox patient:
A.
Separation and limit of contacts with others
C.
Use of antibiotics
72.
What is duration of contagious period for a patient with epidemic parotitis (mumps)?
A.
21 days
B. First week of illness
C.
First 10 days from the beginning of disease
D. First 9 days of disease.
73.
What is duration period of supervision after ill with scarlet fever?
A.
7 days from time of contact
C.
Till patient's rash is present
establishment
74.
Vaccination
D.
B.
Disinfection
21 day
D. Till patient is discharged from permanent
What is the duration of contagious period of a patient diagnosed with scarlet fever?
A.
10 days from the beginning of illness
hospital
C.
Until rash is present
illness
75.
B.
B.
Until patient is discharged from the
D.
Till the 22d day from the beginning of
What is the duration of contagious period of a patient diagnosed with chicken pox?
A.
10 days from the beginning of illness
hospital
B. Until patient is discharged from the
C.
5 days after appearance the last rash
illness
76.
D.
Till the 21d day from the beginning of
What is the duration of quarantine in child's establishment in case of rubella?
A.
11 days
last child
B.
21 day
C.
10 days
D. 5 days after isolation of the
77.
What laboratory and instrumental examinations are needed for confirming the diagnosis
of flu?
A.
Complete analysis of blood
B.
X-ray of organs of thoraxic cavity
C.
Biochemical blood test
D.
Determination of viruses by the method of immunofluorescence
78.
What laboratory and instrumental examination care needed for confirming the diagnosis
of viral hepatitis.
A.
Complete analysis of blood
abdominal region
B. Ultrasound investigation of
C.
Determination of activity of aminotransferase
viruses
D. Determination of antigen of
79.
What laboratory methods should be taken to confirm meningitis?
A.
Lumbar puncture
C.
Urine examination
80.
What level is necessary to reduce the temperature of patient’s body with hyperthermia?
A.
39 °C
81.
What mechanism of transmission at rabies?
A.
Transmissive
82.
What receptivity to rabies?
A.
45 %
83.
Which of these symptoms are often present in patients with meningitis?
A.
Chill, high temperature, headache
B.
Profuse watery diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, muscular cramps
C.
Abdominal pain, diarrhea, constipation, flatulence
B.
B.
B.
Serologic detection
D. Stool test
38 °C
B.
C. 37,5 °C
Fecal-oral
25 %
C.
C.
85 %
D.
Droplet
37 °C
D. Contact-wound
D. 100 %
D.
Prodromal respiratory illness or sore throat, fever, headache, stiff neck, vomiting,
confusion, irritability
84.
Y. pestis is transmitted more frequently by:
A.
Flea
85.
Your must begin to treat patients with a plague:
A.
Immediately after hospitalization
B.
Immediately after hospitalization, taking out only material for research
C.
After putting the final diagnosis
D.
After laboratory and instrumental diagnostics
B. Water
C.
Air
D.
Food storage
86.
A diagnosis is “diphtheria of oropharynx” put to the child, 3-years-old (not vaccinated in
connection with the refusal of parents). Family lives in a 3-room apartment, a mother does not
work, a father is the director of factory. Specify the method of isolation of child.
A.
Obligatory hospitalization
B.
Hospitalization after clinical examination
C.
Hospitalization after epidemiology examination
D.
Isolation at home conditions
87.
A recurrence is in a long-term dynamics – it:
A.
basic direction of development of epidemic process for the row of years
B.
appropriate getting up of morbidity in a certain period
C.
regular vibrations of morbidity for the row of years
D.
irregular vibrations of morbidity for the row of years
88.
After contact persons in the focus of salmonellosis conduct a medical supervision during:
A.
5 days.
89.
An epidemiologic analysis is:
A.
the preliminary stage of epidemiologic diagnostics
B.
the final stage of epidemiologic diagnostics
C.
the intermediate stage of epidemiologic diagnostics
D.
the preliminary and intermediate stage of epidemiologic diagnostics
90.
% of
Annually in the world there are about 2 million people with acute viral hepatitis. In what
B.
6 days.
C.
7 days.
all cases of acute hepatitis B will develop chronic form.
D.
14 days.
A.
100 %
B.
50-70 %
C.
25-30 %
D.
91.
Which of these symptoms are often present in patients with meningitis?
A.
Chill, high temperature, headache
B.
Profuse watery diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, muscular cramps
C.
Abdominal pain, diarrhea, constipation, flatulence
5-7 %
D.
Prodromal respiratory illness or sore throat, fever, headache, stiff neck, vomiting,
confusion, irritability
92.
At a child, 6 years with a diphtherial widespread croup the first dose of antidiphtherial
serum includes:
A.
40 AU
B.
15 AU
C.
20 AU
D. 80 AU
93.
At a patient the dense darkly-grey covers on tonsils are considerably megascopic and
spreads over their scopes. Mucus shell bloodshot accented cyanochroic, was considerably
swollen. Immediate medical measures:
A.
Antidiphtherial serum
B.
C.
Section of peritonsillar space
Punction of peritonsillar space
D.
Microscopic research of swab
94.
At sick L, 35 years old, a diagnosis is set diphtheria of pharynx, non form. What first
dose of antidiphtheria serum is it necessary to appoint?
A.
120 thousand of AU
C.
30 thousand of AU
95.
Before revaccination from diphtheria of adult persons, they are recommended:
A.
To check an immune titer
C.
To use antihistamines
96.
Contact persons in the focus of paratyphoid are observed during:
A.
6 days.
97.
Contact persons in the focus of typhoid fever are observed during:
A.
6 days.
B.
B.
B.
D.
80 thousand of AU
50 thousand of AU
B.
To use antibiotics
D. 5 years after last revaccination
14 days.
12 days.
C. 21 day.
C. 21 day.
D.
D.
25 days.
25 day.
98.
District pediatrician at call on a house put to the sick child, 5 years old, diagnosis “Acute
lacunar tonsillitis”. Specify, who must carry out the laboratory inspection of patient and in what
terms.
A.
Worker of SES by receipt report
B.
A district medical nurse once after determination of diagnosis
C.
Doctor pediatrician in 5 hours
D.
Doctor pediatrician once after determination of diagnosis
99. A patient Т., 45 years old, was hospitalized at the 2nd day of disease. One week ago got
back from India (sailor of the distant swimming). Complains of temperature 41.3 °C, great
headache, shortness of breathing; cough with foamy pink color sputum. Objectively: pale of
face, cyanosis of mucous, breath rate 24/min, tachycardia. Lungs: breathing is hyposthenic,
moist wheezes in both lungs, crepitation. What is possible diagnosis?
A. Flu
B. Miliary tuberculosis
C. Plaque, pulmonary form
D. Leptospirosis
100.
Epidemiology diagnostics – it:
A.
aggregate of the scientifically grounded recommendations
B.
system of looking after an epidemic process
C.
recognition of morbidity and epidemic state of population
D.
mass surveys of population for the receipt of complete information
101.
Especially high titer of antidiphtherial antitoxic antibodies testifies about:
A.
Recovering
C.
Bacteriocarrying
102.
What persons do belong to the group of patients with the prolonged fever?
B.
Acute period of diphtheria
D.
Forming of immunity to diphtheria
A.
With the temperature of body over 37°
37,5°
B.
D.
With the temperature of body over
C.
39°
With the temperature of body over 38°
With the temperature of body over
103.
Extensive indexes are utillized for a study:
A.
specific gravity of separate infectious diseases among all of infectious diseases
B.
level of death rate
104.
For how long a patient with complicated form of measles should be isolated:
A.
For 4 days from the beginning of rash
B.
For 7 days from the beginning of rash
C.
For 10 days from the beginning of rash
D.
For 17 days from the beginning
105.
For the annual dynamics of morbidity characteristic:
C. of lethality
D. to general morbidity
A.
recurrence
B.
long-term epidemic tendency
C.
seasonality
D.
irregular vibrations
106.
For the long-term dynamics of morbidity characteristic is:
A.
seasonality
C.
recurrence
B.
whole-year morbidity
D. epidemic flash
107. How long has be the increasing of temperature for including the patient into the group of
the prolonged fever?
A.
2 days
B.
5 days
C.
Week
D.
Month
108.
In a prophylaxis and fight against intestinal infections the basic measures are:
A.
the isolation of source of infection.
B.
measures, directed on the way of transmission.
C.
measures, directed on creation of immunity of population.
D.
deratization.
109.
What is the most common etiologic agent of acute tonsillitis?
A.
α hemolytic staphylococcus of group B
B.
γ hemolytic streptococcus
C.
α hemolytic streptococcus of group B
D.
β hemolytic streptococcus of group A
110. What laboratory examination is compulsory to do for the patient with diagnosis of
tonsillits?
A.
Isolation of hemolytic streptococcus from the throat mucosa
B.
Biochemical blood analysis
C.
Smear (for microscopic examination) from nose and pharynx for Corynebacterium
diphtheriae detection
D.
Hemoculture
111. In an epidemic focus rationally to organize verification of the state of immunity. The
using of RIHA allows to find out persons non immune to diphtheria during a few hours. What
minimum protective titer?
A.
1:10
B.
1:20
C.
1:40
112.
In case of occurring of hepatitis A in preschool:
D.
1:80
A.
conduct a medical supervision.
B.
conduct a laboratory inspection.
C.
inject an immune protein to the children which were not ill viral hepatitis A.
D.
conduct all of foregoing measures.
113. In preschool is case of disease on diphtheria. What prophylactic measures must be
conducted at first?
A.
Urgent hospitalization
B.
Urgent vaccination
C.
Quarantine measures
D.
Urgent chemical prophylactic by antibiotics
114.
What is the duration of quarantine in child's establishment in case of rubella?
A.
11 days
B.
21 day
C.
10 days
D.
5 days after isolation of the last child
115. In what daily interval should the dose of benzylpenicillin at meningococcal meningitis
administered.
A.
2 hrs
B.
4 hrs
C.
6 hrs
D.
116.
Methodical basis of epidemic surveillance is:
A.
retrospective epidemiologic analysis
B.
operative epidemiologic analysis
C.
retrospective and operative epidemiologic analysis
D.
prospective epidemiologic analysis
117.
Natural focus of infectious disease is:
A.
aggregate of biological objects.
B.
epizootic focus.
C.
territory which zoonotic infections are constantly registered on.
5 hrs
D.
area of territory of geographical landscape with inherent by it biocenosis, where the
disease agent circulates among a population and animals.
118.
Operative epidemical analysis:
A.
decides the tactical tasks of the present
B.
finds out the consequences of changes in an epidemic process
C.
provides liquidation of source of infectious diseases
D.
studies an epidemiologic situation for the certain interval of time
119.
Preparations for urgent prophylaxis of plague:
A.
Injection of human immunoglobulin
C.
Human immunoglobulin
120.
Retrospective epidemical analysis studies:
B.
Streptomycin or tetracycline
D.
Dry living vaccine.
A.
epidemiologic situation for the certain interval of time with the purpose of reception the
information for planning antiepidemic work in the future
B.
epidemic situation for acceptance of operative decisions in relation to epidemic process
control
C.
questions, necessary for the epidemic investigation of the site of concrete infectious
disease
D.
receptions of estimation and interpretation of results of laboratory investigations
121.
Rules of hospitalization of patients with malaria:
A.
In separate room
C.
In the Meltserovsky‘s box
122.
Source of meningitis is:
A.
Animals
123.
The aim of antiepidemic work is:
A.
warning of infectious diseases.
C.
liquidation of separate infections.
D.
warning, decline of infectious morbidity and liquidation of separate infections.
124.
The control level of ordinary morbidity is determined by a calculation:
B.
B. In the house for respiratory infections
Birds
D.
Patients are not hospitalized
C.
Fish
D.
Human
B. decline of infectious morbidity.
A.
high bound of confidence interval of middle number of diseases in the proper week for
previous years with correction coefficients
B.
attitude of amount of patients toward the amount of population with correction
coefficients
C.
relation of amount not diseased to the amount of population with correction coefficients
D.
receptions of estimation and interpretation of results of laboratory investigations
125.
The epidemiology inspection of focus conducts:
A.
infectious diseases doctor.
patient.
B. doctor which found out an infectious
C.
family doctor.
D.
126.
The measures of urgent prophylaxis of plague.
A.
Administration of human immunoglobulin
week
doctor-epidemiologist.
B. Chlorochin (delagil) 0,25 g 2 times in
C.
6-day’s prophylaxis with streptomycin or tetracycline
D.
In first 5 days intake antibiotics of penicillin or tetracycline origin
127.
The rules of hospitalization of patients with plague:
A.
To separate ward
C.
To box ward
128.
Time of actual existence of focus of infectious disease – it:
B.
To ward for respiratory infections
D. Patient’s are not hospitalized
A.
time from a moment a disease to the moment of isolation of patient and leadthrough of
final disinfection.
B.
time from a moment a disease to the moment of isolation of patient plus a maximal latent
period.
C.
time from a moment a disease to beginning of epidemiologic investigation of outbreak
focus.
D.
time from a moment the taking of material from a patient for laboratory research to the
discharging from permanent establishment.
E.
time from the first case of disease to the moment of the last case.
129.
To the antiepidemic measures, directed on a receptive organism, belong:
A.
planned immunoprophylaxis.
C.
urgent immunoprophylaxis.
directions.
B.
immunoprophylaxis by epid directions.
D. planned immunoprophylaxis, urgent and by epid
130.
To the infections with the global natural habitat of distribution belongs:
A.
tick encephalitis
B.
leptospirosis
C. rabbit-fever
D. malaria
131. Urgent document about the exposure of infectious patient must be directed in the sanitary
epidemiology station:
A.
urgently
B. not later than in 2 hours.
C.
not later than in 6 hours.
D. not later than in 12 hours.
132. Urgent immunoprophylaxis of Tetanus in the case of trauma it is necessary to conduct in
a period:
A.
Do 25 days from the moment of receipt of trauma
B.
To 30 days from the moment of receipt of trauma
C.
In the first 10 days from the moment of trauma
D.
Right after the trauma
133. Weakness appeared in a patient, decrease in an appetite, began pains in the joints of
extremities, felling of weight in right subcostal region, vomiting. Urine became dark in 2 days,
and in a day – sclera and skin turned yellow. At immunoenzyme analyse: IgG -HAV (+), HBsAg
(+), IgМ-НBcorAg (+),IgМ-НCV (–), anti-НDV (–). To the patient 3 months back was extracted
a tooth. Most probable diagnosis?
A.
Acute viral hepatitis B
C.
Acute viral hepatitis C
B.
Viral hepatitis A
D. Viral hepatitis D
134. What are the antiepidemic measures regarding the persons that were in contact with
chicken-pox patient:
A.
Separation and limit of contacts with others
C.
Use of antibiotics
B.
Vaccination
D. Disinfection
135. What are the rules at taking of smear material on the investigation of meningococal
infection?
A.
The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only mucus shell of cheeks and
tongue
B.
The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only teeth and tongue
C.
The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only teeth, mucus shell of cheeks
D.
The taken away material at drawing out must not touch teeth, mucus shell of cheeks and
tongue
136. What from the food products can be a nourishing environment for a maintenance and
reproduction of causative agents of intestinal infections?
A.
tomatoes.
cream.
137.
B. vegetable salads.
C.
milk.
D.
pastries with
What is the duration of contagious period of a patient diagnosed with scarlet fever?
A.
10 days from the beginning of illness
hospital
B.
Until patient is discharged from the
C.
Until rash is present
illness
138.
D.
Till the 22d day from the beginning of
What is the duration of quarantine in child's establishment in case of rubella?
A.
11 days
last child
B.
21 day
C.
10 days
D. 5 days after isolation of the
139. What is used as specific prophylaxis in the period of epidemic spreading of
meningococcal infection.
A.
Immunoglobulin
B.
Serum
C.
Vaccine
D.
Antitoxin
140. What laboratory and instrumental examinations are needed for confirming the diagnosis
of viral hepatitis.
A.
Complete analysis of blood
B.
Ultrasound investigation of abdominal region
C.
Determination of activity of aminotransferase
viruses
D.
Determination of antigen of
141.
What is the duration of contagious period of a patient diagnosed with chicken pox?
A.
10 days from the beginning of illness
B.
Until patient is discharged from the hospital
C.
5 days after appearance the last rash
D.
Till the 21d day from the beginning of illness
142.
What measures are conducted in the place of meningococcal infection?
A.
Supervision during 2 weeks
B. Phagoprophylaxis
C.
Immunization
persons
D.
143.
What susceptibility of humans to the Tetanus?
A.
Unsusceptible
B.
50 %
C.
Bacteriological inspection of contact
Almost 100 %
D.
10 %
144. What temperature terms is it needed for cultivation of meningococcal on artificial
mediums?
A.
23-40 °C
B. 35-43 °C
C.
35-37 °C
D. 23-35 °C
145.
Which of these symptoms are often present in patients with meningitis?
A.
Chill, high temperature, headache
B.
Profuse watery diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, muscular cramps
C.
Abdominal pain, diarrhea, constipation, flatulence
D. Prodromal respiratory illness or sore throat, fever, headache, stiff neck, vomiting, confusion,
irritability
146. Which preparation has a bacteriostatic action, and is more expedient to begin etiotropic
therapy in the case of infectious toxic shock.
A.
From benzylpenicillin and its derivatives
B. From macrolides
C.
From gentamycin
D. From chloramphenicol
147.
Your must begin to treat patients with a plague:
A.
Immediately after hospitalization
B.
Immediately after hospitalization, taking out only material for research
C.
After putting the final diagnosis
D.
After laboratory and instrumental diagnostics
148.
A concept «disinfection» includes such sections:
A.
actually disinfection, sterilization, disinsection
B.
actually disinfection, sterilization, disinsection, deratization
C.
sterilization, disinsection, deratization
D.
sterilization, disinsection, defumigation
149.
A deratization is a complex of measures for a fight with:
A.
rodents
C.
flies and cockroaches
150.
A deratization is directed on:
A.
first link of epidprocess
C.
third link of epidprocess
B. an arthropods
D.
ticks and mosquitoes
B. second link of epidprocess
D. first and second links of epidprocess
151. A patient has herpetic meningitis. What preparation of specific therapy for viral neuro
infection should be given?
A.
Acyclovir
B. Cefataxime
C.
Ceftriaxone
152.
Active immunity appears after introduction:
A.
immune serum
B.
immunoglobulin
C.
antitoxin
D.
vaccines
D.
Gentamycin
153.
Artificial immunity is created after:
A.
introduction of antibiotic
C.
disease
B.
introduction of vaccine
D.
birth of child
154. At junior nurse, who works in child’s infectious department, herpes simplex was found.
What should manager of department must do?
A.
Create a quarantine in the department
B.
To appoint an immunoprotein to the children
C.
Discharge all children from the department
D.
To appoint immunomodulators with a prophylactic purpose
155.
Specific localization of causative agent at respiratory infection:
A.
oropharynx and nasopharynx
B.
respiratory tract
C.
trachea and bronchial tubes
D.
lungs
156. What ways of agent transmission are peculiar for infectious diseases with droplet
mechanism:
A.
droplet and dusty
B. obligatory and facultative
C.
water, food, contact-domestic
D. contact-domestic, direct and indirect
157. What ways of agent transmission are peculiar for infectious diseases with contact
mechanism:
A.
droplet and dusty
B. obligatory and facultative
C.
water, food, contact-domestic
158.
Subjects for clinical supervision:
A.
Infectious patients at acute period of a disease
B.
Health persons that were in contact with patient
C.
Convalescents after an infectious disease
D.
Workers of sphere of public food consumption
159.
Term of contagious period of patient diagnosed with uncomplicated form of measles
A.
Until clinical recovery
B.
After rash starts disappearing
C.
Before appearance of rash
D. contact-domestic, direct and indirect
D.
4 days from the beginning of rash
160.
The acquired immunity can be:
A.
specific
B.
collective
C.
individual
D.
specific and collective
161.
The measures of urgent prophylaxis of plague.
A.
Administration of human immunoglobulin
B.
Chlorochin (delagil) 0,25 g 2 times in week
C.
6-day’s prophylaxis with streptomycin or tetracycline
D.
In first 5 days intake antibiotics of penicillin or tetracycline origin
162.
At sapronosis the reservoir of agent is:
A.
man
163.
Duration of latent period at a Tetanus:
A.
1-6 hour
164.
Focal disinfection is:
A.
current and final
C.
current and prophylactic
165.
The rules of hospitalization of patients with plague:
A.
To separate ward
B.
To ward for respiratory infections
C.
To box ward
D.
Patient’s are not hospitalized
166.
The source of causative agent in an epidemic focus is:
A.
animal
B.
people
C.
people and animal
D.
pathogenic bacteria, viruses and fungus
B.
animal
C. fleа, tick, mosquite
B.1-4 days
D.
man and animal
C.
5-14 days
D. 1-6 weeks
B.
current, final and prophylactic
D. final and prophylactic
167.
The source of causative agent in an epizootic focus is:
A.
animal
B.
people
C.
people and animal
D.
environment
168. A patient C., 25 years old, fell suddenly ill. Every morning severe headache, frequent
vomiting, temperature of the body is 39.9 °C. Adopted fatigue, then state got much worse. In the
evening lost of consciousness. Expressed muscles pains of back and head. Positive Кеrning’s
symptom. Leukocytes – 18,0x109. What is the most reliable diagnosis?
A. Epidemic typhus, typhus state
B. Viral menigoencephalitis
toxic shock
D. Bacterial menigoencephalitis
C. Sepsis, infectious-
169. Urgent immunoprophylaxis of Tetanus in the case of trauma it is necessary to conduct in
a period:
A.
Do 25 days from the moment of receipt of trauma
B.
To 30 days from the moment of receipt of trauma
C.
In the first 10 days from the moment of trauma
D.
Right after the trauma
170. In a patient of 16 years old, the disease began gradually, from the catarrhal syndrome. For
2-3 days the temperature of body increase till 38,5°C, cold, severe cough with the negligible
quantity of mucous sputum, «souring» eyes. Peripheral lymph nodes are soft, painless and some
enlarged. Mucous of pharynx is hyperemic, granules on posterior part of pharynx. General state
is satisfactory. What is the drug of choice?
A.
Aspirin
B. Desoxyribonucleasa
C.
Remantadin
D. Aminocapronic acid
171. Patient A., 28 years old, hospitalized with a previous diagnosis of flu. On the 5th day of
illness,
rash appeared on the trunk and internal surfaces of extremities. Temperature 41.5 °C,
hyperemia of sclera, tremor of tongue, tachycardia, splenomegaly, excitation. What is the
most
possible diagnosis?
A.
Meningococcal infection
B. Leptospirosis
C.
Epidemic typhus
D. Typhoid
172.
What is duration period of supervision after ill with scarlet fever?
A.
7 days from time of contact
B.
21 day
C.
Till patient’s rash is present
D.
Till patient is discharged from permanent establishment
173.
For how long a patient with complicated form of measles should be isolated:
A.
For 4 days from the beginning of rash
B.
For 7 days from the beginning of rash
C.
For 10 days from the beginning of rash
D.
For 17 days from the beginning
174. A sick 15 years old, 3rd day of illness. On the background the catarrhal pneumonia,
weakness
in hands appeared, double vision, cross-eye. Voice is weak. Palatoplegia and extended
extremities. Pulse 90/min. AP 130/90 mm Hg .What is your previous diagnosis? A.
Diphtheria
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Botulism
D. Epidemic
encephalitis
175.
What is the duration of contagious period of a patient diagnosed with scarlet fever?
A.
10 days from the beginning of illness
B.
Until patient is discharged from the hospital
C.
Until rash is present
D.
Till the 22d day from the beginning of illness
176.
In what dose should benzylpenicillin be administered at meningococcal meningitis?
A.
From a calculation 100-300 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
B.
From a calculation 200-500 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
C.
From a calculation 500-700 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
D.
From a calculation 700-900 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body per day
177.
Innate immunity can be:
A.
specific
B.
collective
C.
individual
D.
specific and collective
178.
Measures of malaria prevention for those, who have returned from disadvantaged areas:
A.
Introduction of human immunoglobulin
B. Interferon
C.
6-day-prevention streptomycin or tetracycline
D.
Primaquine to 0027 g 14 days
179. Measures of urgent prophylaxis for unvaccinated children who have never been ill with
measles in case of contact with a measles patient
A.
Separation from the source
C.
Administration of antibiotics
B. Vaccination in first 72 hours after contact
D.
Disinfection
180. Measures of urgent prophylaxis for unvaccinated children who have never been ill with
measles in case of exposure to an ill with measles
A.
Separation from the source
C.
Administration of antibiotics
B.
Vaccination
D.
Disinfection
181. A patient, 20 years old, during few days complains about pharyngalgia. After
supercooling the state became worse: sudden chills, increase of temperature to 40.6 °C,
headache. On the skin of low extremities, trunk and buttocks there are a lot of different sizes
hemorrhagic spots, acrocyanosis. Consciousness is preserved. Meningeal signs are absent. What
is the previous diagnosis?
A.
Meningococcal infection
Leptospirosis
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Hemorrhagic fever
D.
182. Patient C., 60 years old during one year has 4th relapse of Herpes zoster. Recommended
treatment and relapses prophylaxis?
A.
Valcyclovir
B.
Acyclovir
C.
Herpevir
D.
Proteflazid
183. Patient T., drives in a country unhappy on a plague. Conduct measures on a specific
prophylaxis.
A.
Human immunoglobulin
C.
Bacteriophage
B.
Interferon
D. Dry living vaccine
184. A sick 15 years old, 3rd day of illness. On the background the catarrhal pneumonia,
weakness in hands appeared, double vision, cross-eye. Voice is weak. Palatoplegia and extended
extremities. Pulse 90/min. AP 130/90 mm Hg .What is your previous diagnosis? A.
Diphtheria
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Botulism
D. Epidemic
encephalitis
185.
Preparations for urgent prophylaxis of plague:
A.
Injection of human immunoglobulin
C.
Human immunoglobulin
B.
D.
Streptomycin or tetracycline
Dry living vaccine.
186. A sick 19 years old, fell ill rapidly, when a temperature rose to 39,2 °C, coughing
appeared, closed nose. Pains in muscles and joints. On the 3rd day of disease, shallow spots on
the trunk appeared, extremities with hyperemia and edematous feet. Generalized
lymphadenopathy, hyperemia of cheeks, enlargement of the liver were found out. What is
previous diagnosis?
A.
Pseudotuberculosis
Epidemic typhus
B. Infectious mononucleosis C. Herpetic infection
187.
Properly disinfection is divided on:
A.
current and final
B.
current, final and prophylactic
C.
current and prophylactic
D.
prophylactic and medical
188.
Prophylactic disinfection conduct:
A.
In a focus, where there is an infectious patient
C.
In an infectious hospital
people
B.
At the home of chronic carrier
D. In the places of great accumulation of
189.
Specific localization of causative agent at external covers infection:
A.
skin
C.
external coverings
B.
D.
mucous of external part of gynaecologic organs
D.
conjunctiva
190. A sick 70 years old, became ill sharply, the temperature of body rose to 39.2 °C, excited,
euphoric, hyperemia of face, Rozenberg’s exanthema appears. Ricketsia titer is 1:160, IgG – 87
%. What is diagnosis?
A.
Epidemic typhus B. Meningococcal infection
Parainfluenza
C. Epidemic spotted fever
D.
191. A sick explorer of train, 39 years old is hospitalized on the 4th day of illness with
complaints about headache, weakness, dizziness, chills, insomnia, fever. The person is
hyperemic, conjunctivitis. On the transitional fold of conjunctiva there is a single rash. On the
skin of trunk, thorax, stomach, extremities there are abundant red colored rashes. Tachycardia.
AP 100/60 mm of Hg. Tremor of tongue. Liver and spleen were enlarged. Stool fistula is
detained. What is the most reliable diagnosis?
A.
Typhoid
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Меnigococcemia
D. Leptospirosis
192. Patient L., 38 years old, complains of recurrent attacks of fever with severe chills.
Epidemiologically is found that he had recently returned from India. At parazitoscopy of blood
are found out erythrocytic schizonts. Agent of transmission of the disease is:
A. Fly
193.
B. Mosquitoes
C. Flea
D. Ticks
To the infections with the global natural habitat of distribution belongs:
A.
tick encephalitis
B. rabbit-fever
C. leptospirosis
d. viral hepatitis B
194. A patient with flu complicated by pneumonia, during some days there are the displays of
infectious-toxic shock of ІІ degree. In biochemical blood analyze the level of urea and creatinine
are increased. What from these preparations is not recommended to enter in such situation?
A.
Adrenalin
B. Prednisolone
C. Dofaminum
D. Heparin
195. A patient 52 years old, hospitalized with the severe form of viral hepatitis B. The signs of
flu appeared in the department. The indexes of bilirubin rose up and transaminase falls down.
What complication can arise in that patient?
A.
Acute hepatic insufficiency
B. Infectious-toxic shock
C.
Gastric bleeding
D. Neurotoxicosis
196. A patient 56 years old, workwomen of pig farm, on a background chills appeared, the
temperature rose to 39,9 °C, headache, nausea. The next day marked pains in the muscles of
lower extremities appeared, the nose bleeding began. At the receipt, on the 3rd day common
state deteriorated. Hyperemic spots, subicteric color appeared. Liver +3 cm. Daily – diuresis 700
ml. What is the previous diagnosis?
A.
Flu
Hemorrhagic fever with a kidney syndrome B. Leptospirosis
C. Hepatitis A
D.
197. A patient C., 25 years old, fell suddenly ill. Every morning severe headache, frequent
vomiting, temperature of the body is 39.9 °C. Adopted fatigue, then state got much worse. In the
evening lost of consciousness. Expressed muscles pains of back and head. Positive Кеrning’s
symptom. Leukocytes – 18,0x109. What is the most reliable diagnosis?
A.
Epidemic typhus, typhus state
B. Viral menigoencephalitis
C.
Sepsis, infectious-toxic shock
D. Bacterial menigoencephalitis
198. A patient H., 22 years old, with flu was hospitalized into infectious department with the
acute worsening of the common state. Consciousness is present. The patient strangles. Pallor of
skin with cyanosis. Respiratory rate 50 per min, AP 80/55 mmHg, pulse 110 per a min,
temperature 39.8°C. During percussion of lungs tympanic sound with dullness in lower quadrant
was found. Crackles in the lower-back parts of lungs. What complication of influenza has
developed in that patient?
A.
Pneumonia
B. Edema of lungs C. Infectious-toxic shock
D. Meningoencephalitis
199. A patient K., 23 years old, with 3 days of moderate illness, with high temperature of
body to 40.0 °C, headache and petechial rash on skin, is hospitalized. After introduction of
penicillin in 2 hours, the BP fell down to 40/10 mm of Hg. Peripheral pulse and meningeal signs
does not detect. What is the diagnosis of the patient?
A. Меningococcemia, infectious-toxic shock
B. ARVI, anaphylactic shock
C.
Measles, severe course
D. Epidemic typhus, severe course
200. A patient of 5 years old, which treated at home on an occasion of flu by aspirin, calcium
gluconatis, on the second day from the beginning of disease “coffee grounds” vomiting
appeared, melena. What complication arises?
A. Neurotoxicosis
B. Pneumonia
C. Hemorrhagic syndrome D. Infectious-toxic