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Sample Exam Questions – Please Note that these do not include your Lab Experiments, Readings
or the Corkin text
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1. The primacy effect (from the serial position curve experiment) is associated with
a. LTM.
c. sensory memory.
b. STM.
d. implicit memory.
2. You’ve now learned about the serial position curve. The relevant research in your text describes this curve
using a free recall task (participants are free to recall words in any order they choose). Imagine that you
conducted a "remembering a list" experiment using a serial recall task (participants must recall words in the
same order they were presented). What would you predict for the results with the serial recall task?
a. The same serial position curve observed with free recall
b. A diminished recency effect, relative to free recall
c. A diminished primacy effect, relative to free recall
d. Diminished primacy and recency effects, relative to free recall
3. When investigating the serial position curve, presenting the word list at a slower pace
a. has no effect on the curve.
b. increases the primacy effect.
c. decreases the recency effect.
d. increases both the primacy and the recency effects.
4. Regarding free recall of a list of items, which of the following will most likely cause the recency effect to
disappear?
a. Inserting a 30-second delay before recall
b. Presenting the stimulus list at a slower pace
c. Counting backward for 30 seconds before recall
d. Using a very long list (greater than 30 items at one item per second)
5. The dramatic case of patient H.M. clearly illustrates that ____ is crucial for the formation of LTMs.
a. the hippocampus
c. vitamin B1
b. synaptic consolidation
d. deep processing
6. Which of the following is NOT a conclusion from the case of H.M., who had an operation to help alleviate his
epileptic seizures?
a. The hippocampus is necessary for forming new LTMs.
b. Working memory does not rely on the hippocampus.
c. LTMs can still be present after the hippocampus is removed.
d. LTMs are stored in the hippocampus.
7. A study participant is given a list of words to remember. One week later, he recalls the list. Let’s say that one
of the list words was PEAR. Which of the following, none of which actually appeared on the list, would be
most likely incorrectly recalled if the participant doesn’t remember PEAR?
a. REAR
c. APPLE
b. PAIR
d. BEAR
8. We are conscious of _____ memories.
a. implicit
c. declarative
b. procedural
d. all of the above
9. Explicit memory is to
as implicit memory is to
.
a. declarative; nondeclarative
c. semantic; episodic
b. nondeclarative; declarative
d. episodic; semantic
____ 10. Which of the following is NOT an example of an implicit memory?
a. Classical conditioning
c. Procedural memory
b. Priming
d. Semantic memory
____ 11. One of the defining properties of the experience of episodic memory is that
a. it involves mental time travel.
b. it always corresponds to events from our past that actually happened.
c. it accesses knowledge about the world that does not have to be tied to any specific
personal experience.
d. it involves all of these.
____ 12. The following statement represents what kind of memory? "The Beatles stopped making music together as a
group in the early 1970s."
a. Episodic
c. Procedural
b. Semantic
d. Implicit
____ 13. Which of the following is NOT an example of semantic memory?
a. I remember that more than 33% of U.S. drivers have admitted to using a cell phone when
driving.
b. I remember that experiments have shown that talking on cell phones can impair driving
ability.
c. I remember the day we learned about how talking on cell phones can impair driving
ability.
d. None of the above (a, b, and c are all examples of semantic memory)
____ 14. "I remember being really excited last year, when my college team won the national championship in
basketball." This statement is an example of _____ memory.
a. episodic
c. semantic
b. implicit
d. procedural
____ 15. K.C., who was injured in a motorcycle accident, remembers facts like the difference between a strike and a
spare in bowling, but he is unaware of experiencing things like hearing about the circumstances of his
brother's death, which occurred two years before the accident. His memory behavior suggests
a. intact semantic memory but defective episodic memory.
b. intact procedural memory but defective semantic memory.
c. intact episodic memory but defective semantic memory.
d. intact episodic memory but defective procedural memory.
____ 16. Your text describes an "Italian woman" who, after an attack of encephalitis, had difficulty remembering
people or facts she knew before. She could, however, remember her life events and daily tasks. Her memory
behavior reflects
a. intact semantic memory but defective episodic memory.
b. intact procedural memory but defective episodic memory.
c. intact episodic memory but defective semantic memory.
d. intact episodic memory but defective procedural memory.
____ 17. Imagine that the students described below are all taking a multiple choice test. Which student’s behavior best
describes an example of implicit memory?
a. One student comes to a question for which he is unsure of the answer, but choice b seems
familiar so he decides that it must be right.
b. One student remembers the correct answer to a question as well as where the information
could be found in his notebook.
c. One student has no idea what an answer was supposed to be, but she does not want to
leave a question blank. So, she guesses by first writing out items that she thought would
make sense.
d. One student is sure he does not know the answer for a question, so he leaves it blank.
____ 18. The defining characteristic of implicit memory is that
a. it always leads to episodic memory for events.
b. it is enhanced by the self-reference effect.
c. we are not conscious we are using it.
d. people use it strategically to enhance memory for events.
____ 19. Jocelyn is in an experiment where she is presented words representing categories. She is presented the word
"furniture" in an earlier trial, which makes it easier for her later to recall the word "chair" because of the
similarity of meaning. Jocelyn's memory enhancement for "chair" due to seeing the word "furniture"
illustrates
a. repetition priming.
c. reconsolidation.
b. conceptual priming.
d. mental time travel.
____ 20. Memory enhancement due to conceptual priming is a result of
a. the test stimulus being the same or resembling the priming stimulus.
b. the test stimulus being different from the priming stimulus.
c. the test stimulus being similar in meaning to the priming stimulus.
d. the test stimulus being different in meaning from the priming stimulus.
____ 21. Which task below would most likely be used to test for implicit memory?
a. Recognizing words that had been presented in an earlier list
b. Recalling the names of popular fairy tales
c. Matching Spanish vocabulary words with their English translations
d. Completing a word for which the first and last letter have been supplied
____ 22. Work with brain-injured patients reveals that ____ memory does not depend on conscious memory.
a. declarative and non-declarative
c. semantic and episodic
b. personal semantic and remote
d. implicit and procedural
____ 23. Which of the following involves procedural memory?
a. Knowing how it feels to be scared
b. Recalling a childhood memory
c. Knowing how an automobile engine works
d. Reading a sentence in a book
____ 24. The propaganda effect demonstrates that we evaluate familiar statements as being true
a. only when we are aware we’ve seen them before.
b. simply because we have been exposed to them before.
c. only when we agree with them.
d. unless we are told explicitly that the statements are false.
____ 25. Which of the following is most closely associated with implicit memory?
a. The self-reference effect
b. The propaganda effect
c. Release from proactive inhibition
d. Encoding specificity
____ 26. Why is classical conditioning considered a form of implicit memory?
a. Because you have to make an effort to learn the association between the neutral and
conditioned stimulus.
b. Because it is based on motor skills like procedural memory is.
c. Because it is involves learning an association without being aware of the reasons behind it.
d. Because it usually involves memory for the episode in which it occurred.
____ 27. According to your text, which of the following movies is LEAST accurate in its portrayal of a memory
problem?
a. The Bourne Identity
c. The Long Kiss Goodnight
b. Memento
d. 50 First Dates
____ 28. Acquiring information and transforming it into memory is
a. state-dependent learning.
c. memory consolidation.
b. encoding.
d. transfer-appropriate processing.
____ 29. Elaborative rehearsal of a word will LEAST likely be accomplished by
a. repeating it over and over.
b. linking the new word to a previously learned concept.
c. using it in a sentence.
d. thinking of its synonyms and antonyms.
____ 30. How would you describe the relationship between elaborative rehearsal and maintenance rehearsal in terms of
establishing long-term memories?
a. Elaborative is more effective than maintenance.
b. Maintenance is more effective than elaborative.
c. Both are equally effective in all learning circumstances.
d. Each one is sometimes more effective, depending on the learning circumstances.
____ 31. According to the levels of processing theory, memory durability depends on how information is
a. encoded.
c. retrieved.
b. stored.
d. all of the above
____ 32. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates how effective or ineffective maintenance rehearsal is in
transferring information into LTM?
a. Lilia recalls her grandmother’s house where she grew up, even though she hasn’t been
there for 22 years.
b. Ben learned his martial arts moves by making up "short stories" and mental images to
describe each movement.
c. Renee starred in the lead role of her high school play a few years ago. Although she
helped write the play and based her character on her own life, she cannot remember many
of the actual lines of dialogue anymore.
d. Serena’s keys were stolen from her purse. She cannot give a detailed description of her
keychain to the police, even though she used it every day for three years.
____ 33. Shallow processing of a word is encouraged when attention is focused on
a. the number of vowels in a word.
c. the pleasantness of a word.
b. the meaning of a word.
d. the category of a word.
____ 34. Memory for a word will tend to be better if the word is used in a complex sentence (like "the bicycle was
blue, with high handlebars and a racing seat") rather than a simple sentence (like "he rode the bicycle"). This
probably occurs because the complex sentence
a. causes more rehearsal.
c. creates more connections.
b. takes longer to process.
d. is more interesting.
____ 35. According to your text, imagery enhances memory because
a. research shows people like pictures better than words, so there is an enhanced emotional
response.
b. the brain processes images more easily than the meanings of words.
c. imagery can be used to create connections between items to be remembered.
d. pictures fit better with our basic instincts because children learn pictures before reading
words.
____ 36. Jeannie loves to dance, having taken ballet for many years. She is now learning salsa dancing. Although the
movements are very different from the dances she is familiar with, she has found a successful memory
strategy of linking the new dance information to her previous experiences as a dancer and to her own
affection for dance. This strategy suggests reliance on
a. the self-reference effect.
b. a mass practice effect.
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c. the integrative experience effect.
d. semantic memory.
In Slameka and Graf's (1978) study, some participants read word pairs, while other participants had to fill in
the blank letters of the second word in a pair with a word related to the first word. The latter group performed
better on a later memory task, illustrating the
a. spacing effect.
c. cued recall effect.
b. generation effect.
d. multiple trace hypothesis.
_______ cues help us remember information that has been stored in memory.
a. Retrograde
c. Retrieval
b. Encoding
d. Processing
Jenkins and Russell presented a list of words like "chair, apple, dish, shoe, cherry, sofa" to participants. In a
test, participants recalled the words in a different order than the order in which they were originally presented.
This result occurred because of the
a. tendency of objects in the same category to become organized.
b. effect of proactive interference.
c. way objects like dishes and shoes are encoded visually.
d. way the phonological loop reorganizes information based on sound during rehearsal.
The story in the text about the balloons that were used to suspend a speaker in mid air was used to illustrate
the role of _____ in memory.
a. rehearsal
b. organization
c. depth of processing
d. forming connections with other information
Mantyla’s "banana / yellow, bunches, edible" experiment demonstrates that, for best memory performance,
retrieval cues should be created
a. by agreement among many people, thus providing proof they are effective.
b. by a memory expert who understands what makes cues effective.
c. using visual images.
d. by the person whose memory will be tested.
The principle that we learn information together with its context is known as
a. memory consolidation.
c. encoding specificity.
b. repetition priming.
d. a self-reference effect.
Transfer-appropriate processing is likely to occur if
a. the rememberer generates his own retrieval cues.
b. the type of encoding and type of retrieval match.
c. there is deep processing during acquisition of the new material.
d. imagery is used to create connections among items to be transferred into LTM.
Students, beware! Research shows that _____ does not improve reading comprehension because it does not
encourage elaborative processing of the material.
a. organization
b. highlighting
c. making up questions about the material
d. feedback
The author of your text makes a suggestion that students should study in a variety of places. This suggestion
is based on research showing that people remember material better if they learned it in a number of different
locations, compared to studying the same amount of time in one location. The suggestion solves a problem
raised by
a. the encoding specificity principle.
b. the spacing effect.
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c. levels of processing.
d. the distributed practice effect.
The memory mechanism Hebb proposed is associated with
a. changes at the synapse.
b. long-term potentiation.
c. changes in specialized areas of the brain.
d. both changes at the synapse and long-term potentiation.
Donald Hebb proposed that memory is represented in the brain by structural changes in all of the following
EXCEPT the
a. presynaptic neuron.
c. neurotransmitters.
b. postsynaptic neuron.
d. synapse.
Hebb's idea of long-term potentiation, which provides a physiological mechanism for the long-term storage of
memories, includes the idea of
a. an increase in the size of cell bodies of neurons.
b. enhanced firing in the neurons.
c. larger electrical impulses in the synapse.
d. the growth of new dendrites in neurons.
The medial temporal lobe (MTL), involved in memory consolidation, includes all of the following structures
EXCEPT the
a. perirhinal cortex.
c. parahippocampal cortex.
b. amygdala.
d. entorhinal cortex.
Retrograde amnesia is usually less severe for
memories.
a. remote
c. anterograde
b. recent
d. emotional
The standard model of consolidation proposes that the hippocampus is
a. strongly active for both new memories as they are being consolidated and memories for
events that occurred long ago and are already consolidated.
b. strongly active for long-ago memories that are already consolidated but becomes less
active when memories are first formed and being consolidated.
c. strongly active when memories are first formed and being consolidated but becomes less
active when retrieving older memories that are already consolidated.
d. uninvolved in memory consolidation.
Lourdes and Kim have been studying for two hours for their chemistry exam. Both girls are tired of studying.
Lourdes decides to watch a two-hour movie on DVD, while Kim decides to go to bed. What would you
predict about their performance on the chemistry exam?
a. Lourdes performs better because of reactivation.
b. Kim performs better because of reactivation.
c. Lourdes performs better because of encoding specificity.
d. Kim performs better because of encoding specificity.
When cleaning her closet, Nadia finds her 20-year-old wedding photo album. As she flips through the
pictures, she starts to cry joyful tears. Seeing the photos and rekindling the emotions of her wedding day most
likely activated her
a. thalamus.
c. amygdala.
b. prefrontal cortex.
d. medial temporal lobe.
Recent research on memory, based largely on fear conditioning in rats, indicates that
a. fear conditioning is the most effective kind of conditioning for forming durable memories.
b. memories are not susceptible to disruption once consolidation has occurred.
c. when a memory is reactivated, it becomes fragile, just as it was immediately after it was
formed.
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d. memory consolidation does not occur when animals are afraid of a stimulus.
Autobiographical memory research shows that a person's brain is more extensively activated when viewing
photos
a. the person has seen before.
b. of familiar places.
c. they took themselves.
d. the person has never seen before.
For most adults over age 40, the reminiscence bump describes enhanced memory for
a. childhood and adolescence.
b. adolescence and early adulthood.
c. early adulthood and middle age.
d. childhood and middle age.
Asking people to recall the most influential events that happened during their college careers show that ____
in people's lives appear to be particularly memorable.
a. peer-group experiences
c. the sophomore year
b. academic challenges
d. transition points
Schrauf and Rubin’s "two groups of immigrants" study found that the reminiscence bump coincided with
periods of rapid change, occurring at a normal age for people emigrating early in life but shifting to 15 years
later for those who emigrated later. These results support the
a. cognitive hypothesis.
c. narrative rehearsal hypothesis.
b. self-image hypothesis.
d. autobiographical hypothesis.
Your text argues that the proper procedure for measuring the accuracy of flashbulb memories is
a. source monitoring.
c. repeated recall.
b. scripting.
d. pre-cueing.
A lesson to be learned from the research on flashbulb memories is that
a. rehearsal cannot account for them.
b. people’s confidence in a memory predicts its accuracy (high confidence = high accuracy).
c. extreme vividness of a memory does not mean it is accurate.
d. they are permanent and resist forgetting.
The "telephone game" is often played by children. One child creates a story and whispers it to a second child,
who does the same to a third child, and so on. When the last child recites the story to the group, his or her
reproduction of the story is generally shorter than the original and contains many omissions and inaccuracies.
This game shows how memory is a ______ process.
a. life-narrative
c. consequentiality based
b. narrative-rehearsal
d. constructive
In the "War of the Ghosts" experiment, participants’ reproductions contained inaccuracies based on
a. narrative rehearsal.
c. cultural expectations.
b. source misattributions.
d. shallow processing.
The experiment for which people were asked to make fame judgments for both famous and non-famous
names (and for which Sebastian Weissdorf was one of the names to be remembered) illustrated the effect of
_____ on memory.
a. repeated rehearsal of distinctive names
b. source misattributions
c. encoding specificity
d. schemas
Arkes and Freedman’s "baseball game" experiment asked participants to indicate whether the following
sentence was present in a passage they had previously read about events in a game: "The batter was safe at
first." Their findings showed inaccurate memories involved
a. omissions of information that was presented.
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b. participants who did not understand baseball and assumed more information was presented
than actually was.
c. creations from inferences based on baseball knowledge.
d. confusions about presented information when it was ambiguous.
Your friend has been sick for several days, so you go over to her home to make her some chicken soup.
Searching for a spoon, you first reach in a top drawer beside the dishwasher. Then, you turn to the big
cupboard beside the stove to search for a pan. In your search, you have relied on a kitchen
a. source memory.
c. schema.
b. episodic memory.
d. scan technique.
A script is a type of schema that also includes knowledge of
a. a sequence of actions.
b. what is involved in a particular experience.
c. information stored in both semantic and episodic memory.
d. items appropriate to a particular setting.
The misinformation effect does not occur when people are told explicitly that the postevent information may
be incorrect.
a. True
b. False
The memory-trace replacement hypothesis states that the misinformation effect occurs because
a. MPI impairs or replaces memories formed during the original experiencing of an event.
b. MPI cues the rememberer that an error in memory is occurring.
c. MPI fills in the gaps in the original memory where it lacked detail.
d. the original memory for an event decays over time, leaving room for MPI to infiltrate the
memory later.
In Lindsay's "misinformation effect" experiment, participants saw a sequence of slides showing a
maintenance man stealing money and a computer. This slide presentation included narration by a female
speaker who described what was happening in the slides as they were shown. Results showed that the
misinformation effect was greatest when MPI presentation was
a. visual.
b. auditory, regardless of the gender of the speaker.
c. auditory from a female speaker.
d. auditory from a male speaker.
Lindsay's misinformation effect experiment, in which participants were given a memory test about a sequence
of slides showing a maintenance man stealing money and a computer, showed that participants are influenced
by MPI
a. if they believe the postevent information is correct.
b. only if the MPI is presented immediately after viewing the event.
c. even if they are told to ignore the postevent information.
d. if the MPI is consistent with social stereotypes.
Lindsay and coworkers "slime in the first-grade teacher's desk" experiment showed that presenting
a. accounts of actual childhood events supplied by a participant's parent increased the
likelihood of false memories.
b. accounts of actual childhood events supplied by a participant's parent decreased the
likelihood of false memories.
c. a photograph of the participant's first-grade class increased the likelihood of false
memories.
d. a photograph of the participant's first-grade class decreased the likelihood of false
memories.
Which statement below is NOT true, based on the results of memory research?
a. Suggestion can create false memories for events that occurred when a person was a young
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child.
b. Suggestion can create false memories for an event that a person has experienced just
recently.
c. Although eyewitness testimony is often faulty, people who have just viewed a videotape
of a crime are quite accurate at picking the "perpetrator" from a lineup.
d. Many miscarriages of justice have occurred based on faulty eyewitness testimony.
Stany and Johnson’s "weapons focus" experiment, investigating memory for crime scenes, found that
a. the presence of a weapon enhances memory for all parts of the event.
b. the presence of a weapon has no effect on memory for the event.
c. the threat of a weapon causes people to focus their attention away from the weapon itself.
d. the presence of a weapon hinders memory for other parts of the event.
Critics of eyewitness testimony could point to the ______ hypothesis to highlight the dangers of repeated
questioning of eyewitnesses.
a. narrative-rehearsal
c. memory-trace replacement
b. cognitive
d. confabulation
Much research has been dedicated to improving the reliability of eyewitness testimony. One finding reveals
that when constructing a lineup, ____ similarity between the "fillers" and the suspect does result in missed
identification of some guilty suspects but also substantially reduces erroneous identification of many innocent
people.
a. decreasing
b. increasing
When presenting lineups to eyewitnesses, it has been found that a ____ lineup is much more likely to result in
an innocent person being falsely identified.
a. sequential
b. simultaneous
Which of the following statements is true of police lineups?
a. A sequential lineup increases the chance that the witness compares people in the lineup to
each other.
b. A simultaneous lineup decreases the chance of falsely identifying an innocent person as
the perpetrator.
c. A sequential lineup increases the chance that the witness will make a relative judgment
about all the suspects they saw.
d. A sequential lineup increases the chance that the witness compares each person in the
lineup to his or her memory of the event.
Which of the following statements is true of the cognitive interview technique?
a. Police ask witnesses questions and have them rate their confidence level in their
recollections.
b. Police offer positive reinforcement to witnesses (e.g., "Good, that makes sense.") when the
witnesses give information consistent with what is in the police file.
c. Police allow witnesses to talk with a minimum of interruption from the officer.
d. Police start their interview with simple filler questions to make the witnesses feel
comfortable.
The definitional approach to categorization
a. is not well suited for geometrical objects but works for familiar everyday objects.
b. sets definite criteria called family resemblances that all category members must have.
c. doesn’t work well for most natural objects like birds, trees, and plants.
d. was proposed to replace the prototype approach.
______ is an average representation of a category.
a. A prototype
c. A unit
b. An exemplar
d. A component
____ 81. Which approach to categorization involves forming a representation based on an average of category
members that a person has encountered in the past?
a. Exemplar
c. Typicality
b. Network
d. Prototype
____ 82. Olin and Bob are neighbors. Olin loves birds and his father works for the zoo. He has been to a dozen bird
sanctuaries, and he and his dad go on bird watching hikes once a month. In contrast, Bob doesn’t think much
about birds. His only contact with them is in his backyard. It would be correct to say that Olin's standard
probably involves
a. more prototypes than Bob’s.
b. more exemplars than Bob’s.
c. more prototypes and more exemplars than Bob’s.
d. the same prototypes and exemplars as Bob’s.
____ 83. A task for determining how prototypical an object is would be
a. a fill-in-the-blank task where participants generate paired members within a category.
b. a task where participants rate the extent to which each member represents the category
title.
c. a task where participants rate the extent to which category members resemble one another.
d. a fill-in-the-blank task where participants generate the category classification for a list of
members.
____ 84. Which of the following is an example of the sentence verification technique?
a. Indicate whether the following statement was previously presented:
An apple is a fruit. YES NO
b. Indicate whether the following statement is true:
An apple is a fruit. YES NO
c. Fill in the blank in the following sentence:
An apple is a(n) ______.
d. Fill in the blank in the following sentence:
A(n) ______ is a fruit.
____ 85. Which of the following reaction time data sets illustrate the typicality effect for the bird category, given the
following three trials?
(NOTE: Read data sets as RTs for Trial 1: Trial 2: Trial 3)
Trial 1: An owl is a bird.
Trial 2: A penguin is a bird.
Trial 3: A sparrow is a bird.
a. 583: 518: 653 msec
c. 583: 653: 518 msec
b. 518: 583: 653 msec
d. 653: 583: 518 msec
____ 86. According to the typicality effect,
a. objects in a category have a family resemblance to one another.
b. objects that are not typical stand out and so are more easily remembered.
c. items that are high in prototypicality are judged more rapidly as being in a group.
d. we remember typical objects better than non-typical objects.
____ 87. When a participant is asked to list examples of the category vegetables, it is most likely that
a. a carrot would be named before eggplant.
b. an eggplant would be named before carrot.
c. a carrot and eggplant would have an equal likelihood of being named first.
d. the order of examples is completely random, varying from participant to participant.
____ 88. Priming occurs when presentation of one stimulus
a. disrupts the processing of another stimulus.
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b. acts as a cue that tells the participant when his or her response was correct.
c. facilitates the response to another stimulus.
d. relates to a prototype.
Rosch found that participants respond more rapidly in a same-different task when presented with "good"
examples of colors such as "red" and "green" than when they are presented with "poor" examples such as
"pink" or "light green." The result of this experiment was interpreted as supporting the _____ approach to
categorization.
a. exemplar
c. network
b. prototype
d. parallel processing
_______ are actual members of a category that a person has encountered in the past.
a. Icons
c. Units
b. Prototypes
d. Exemplars
An advantage of the prototype approach over the exemplar approach is that the prototype approach provides a
better explanation of the typicality effect.
a. True
b. False
Which approach to categorization can more easily take into account atypical cases such as flightless birds?
a. Exemplar
c. Definitional
b. Prototype
d. Network
Imagine that a young child is just learning about the category "dog." Thus far, she has experienced only two
dogs, one a small poodle and the other a large German shepherd. On her third encounter with a dog, she will
be LEAST likely to correctly categorize the animal as a dog if that animal
a. matches the size of the poodle but is of a different breed.
b. is a dog that does not bark.
c. matches an exemplar of one of the dogs she has experienced.
d. is similar to an "average" for the dogs she has encountered.
People playing the parlor game "20 Questions" often use hierarchical organization strategies. One player asks
up to 20 yes/no questions to determine the identity of an object another player has selected. The player’s
questions usually start as general and get more specific as the player approaches a likely guess. Initial
questions asked by a player are often one of three questions: "Is it an animal?" "Is it a vegetable?" and "Is it a
mineral?" Each of these three questions describes which level of categorization?
a. Typical
c. Subordinate
b. Basic
d. Superordinate
Which of the following would be in a basic level category?
a. Truck
c. Pickup truck
b. Vehicle
d. Transportation
According to the text, jumping from _______ categories results in the largest gain in information.
a. superordinate level to basic level
b. basic level to subordinate level
c. subordinate level to basic level
d. basic level to superordinate level
Which of the following represents a basic level item?
a. Musical instrument
c. Rock guitar
b. Guitar
d. Paul McCartney’s bass guitar
Your text describes cross-cultural studies of categorization with U.S. and Itza participants. Given the results
of these studies, we know that if asked to name basic level objects for a category, U.S. participants would
answer ____ and Itza participants would answer ____.
a. bird; bird
c. sparrow; bird
b. bird; sparrow
d. sparrow; sparrow
____ 99. If we were conducting an experiment on the effect knowledge has on categorization, we might compare the
results of expert and non-expert groups. Suppose we compare horticulturalists to people with little knowledge
about plants. If we asked the groups to name, as specifically as possible, five different plants seen around
campus, we would predict that the expert group would primarily label plants on the _____ level, while the
non-expert group would primarily label plants on the _____ level.
a. superordinate; subordinate
c. subordinate; basic
b. superordinate; basic
d. basic; subordinate
____ 100. The _____ model includes associations between concepts and the property of spreading activation.
a. parallel distributed processing
c. neural network
b. connectionist network
d. semantic network
____ 101. How is cognitive economy represented in the following example? The property _____ is stored at the _____
node.
a. can fly; bird
c. has feathers; ostrich
b. can fly; canary
d. bird; penguin
____ 102. In evaluating retrieval rates for category information for a concept, Collins and Quillian’s semantic network
approach would predict the slowest reaction times for which of the following statements using a sentence
verification technique?
a. A field sparrow is a bird.
b. A field sparrow is a sparrow.
c. A field sparrow is an animal.
d. A field sparrow is a field sparrow.
____ 103. Which of the following is NOT associated with the semantic network model?
a. Family resemblance
c. Cognitive economy
b. Hierarchical organization
d. Spreading activation
____ 104. According to Collins and Quillian’s semantic network model, it should take longest to verify which statement
below?
a. Pigs are pigs.
c. A pig is a pig.
b. A pig is an animal.
d. A pig is a mammal.
____ 105. In a lexical decision task, participants have to decide whether
a. a statement is true.
c. a stimulus is presented.
b. a letter string is a word.
d. two stimuli are associated.
____ 106. Collins and Quillian’s semantic network model predicts that the reaction time to verify "a canary is a bird" is
_____ the reaction time to verify "an ostrich is a bird."
a. slower than
c. the same as
b. faster than
____ 107. Collins and Loftus modified the original semantic network theory of Collins and Quillian to satisfy some of
the criticisms of the original model. People consider this to be a strong theory because it is powerful enough
to explain just about any result.
a. True
b. False
____ 108. Which of the following is most closely modeled on the way the nervous system operates?
a. Semantic network theory
b. The prototype approach
c. Parallel distributed processing theory
d. Enhancement due to priming
____ 109. Connectionist theory states that a particular object (like a canary) is identified by activity in the specific
"canary" output unit of the network.
a. True
b. False
____ 110. Connectionist networks are modeled after neural networks in the nervous system and incorporate all of the
following features of the nervous system EXCEPT
____ 111.
____ 112.
____ 113.
____ 114.
____ 115.
____ 116.
____ 117.
____ 118.
____ 119.
a. excitatory and inhibitory connections.
b. strength of firing patterns determined by the number and type (excitatory/inhibitory) of
inputs.
c. concepts represented by activity in individual nodes.
d. distributed coding.
One of the key properties of the _____ approach is that a specific concept is represented by activity that is
distributed over many units in the network.
a. semantic network
c. spreading activation
b. hierarchical
d. connectionist
Which of the following is NOT a property of the connectionist approach?
a. It proposes a slow learning process that eventually creates a network capable of handling a
wide range of inputs.
b. Connectionist networks respond to being damaged in ways similar to the response that
occurs in actual cases of brain damage in humans.
c. Before any learning has occurred in the network, the weights in the network all equal zero.
d. The connectionist system learns to generalize by recognizing that properties of one
concept provide information about other, related concepts.
The connectionist network has learned the correct pattern for a concept when
a. the connection weights add up to exactly +1.00.
b. the output pattern matches the initial input pattern.
c. the back propagated error signal is zero.
d. the output unit response is greater than zero.
One beneficial property of connectionist networks is graceful degradation, which refers to the property that
a. these networks learn by a process that is analogous to the way a child learns about the
world by making mistakes and being corrected.
b. learning a new concept does not interfere with remembering a previously learned concept.
c. damage to the system does not completely disrupt its operation.
d. learning can be generalized between similar concepts to facilitate future learning.
If a system has the property of graceful degradation, this means that
a. it loses information at a very slow rate.
b. damage to the system doesn’t completely disrupt its operation.
c. it is either functioning at 100 percent, or it is not functioning at all.
d. it can be set to operate at "low efficiency" or "high efficiency" depending on the demand
of the current task.
Research on the physiology of semantic memory has shown that the representation of different categories in
the brain (like living and non-living things) is best described as being
a. specific.
c. graded.
b. subordinate.
d. distributed.
At what age do infants begin forming basic level categories?
a. 2 months
c. 6-7 months
b. 3-4 months
d. 1 year
Language consists of smaller components, like words, that can be combined to form larger ones, like phrases,
to create sentences, which themselves can be components of a larger story. This property is known as
a. hierarchical structure.
c. parallel organization.
b. relational organization.
d. propositional representation.
Evidence that language is a social process that must be learned comes from the fact that when deaf children
find themselves in an environment where there are no people who speak or use sign language, they are unable
to develop any formal language skills.
a. True
b. False
____ 120. B.F. Skinner, the modern champion of behaviorism, proposed that language is learned through
a. parsing.
c. syntactic framing.
b. genetic coding.
d. reinforcement.
____ 121. Noam Chomsky proposed that
a. humans are genetically programmed to acquire and use language.
b. language is learned through the mechanism of reinforcement.
c. as children learn language, they produce only sentences they have heard before.
d. the underlying basis of language is different across cultures.
____ 122. One of Chomsky's most persuasive arguments for refuting Skinner's theory of language acquisition was his
observation that children
a. produce sentences they have never heard.
b. show similar language development across cultures.
c. are rewarded for using correct language.
d. learn to follow complex language rules, even though they are not aware of doing so.
____ 123. Ron is an avid reader. He has a large vocabulary because every time he comes across a word he doesn’t know,
he looks it up in the dictionary. Ron encounters "wanderlust" in a novel, reaches for the dictionary, and finds
out this word means "desire to travel." The process of looking up unfamiliar words increases Ron’s
a. lexicon.
c. syntactical capacity.
b. parser.
d. mental set.
____ 124. A phoneme refers to
a. the property of combining words into unique sentences.
b. the first word produced by infants, usually during their second year.
c. a mental grouping of words being heard during "inner audition."
d. the shortest segment of speech that, if changed, changes the meaning of a word.
____ 125. The word "bad" has ____ phoneme(s).
a. one
c. three
b. two
d. four
____ 126. The word frequency effect refers to the fact that we respond more
a. slowly to low-frequency words than high-frequency words.
b. slowly to letters appearing in non-words than letters appearing in words.
c. quickly to letters that appear multiple times in a word than just once in a word.
d. quickly to phonemes that appear multiple times in a word than just once in a word.
____ 127. In an eye movement study, Rayner and coworkers had participants read sentences that contained either a highor low- frequency target word. For example, the sentence "Sam wore the horrid coat though his ____
girlfriend complained," contained either the target word "pretty" or "demure." Results showed the
participants’ _____ was shorter for the target word _____.
a. eye movement; pretty
c. fixation; pretty
b. eye movement; demure
d. fixation; demure
____ 128. Within the realm of conversational speech, context refers to
a. the meaning of a conversation.
b. the rules for combining spoken words into sentences.
c. the tendency to respond in a certain manner based on past experience.
d. the mental process of grouping words together that occurs as a person creates speech
appropriate for the conversation.
____ 129. In a study, participants listened to the following tape recording:
Rumor had it that, for years, the government building had been plagued with
problems. The man was not surprised when he found several spiders, roaches, and
other bugs in the corner of the room.
____ 130.
____ 131.
____ 132.
____ 133.
____ 134.
____ 135.
____ 136.
____ 137.
As participants heard the word "bugs," they completed a lexical decision task to a test stimulus flashed on a
screen. Results showed that the participants responded most slowly to the test stimulus
a. ANT.
b. SPY.
c. SKY.
d. All of these would have similar response times.
Swinney's lexical priming studies using ambiguous words as stimuli show that context
a. immediately affects the activation of word meanings so that only the meaning fitting the
sentence is ever activated.
b. causes the meaning fitting the sentence to be activated first, followed by later activation of
the other meaning.
c. exerts its influence after all meanings of the word have been briefly accessed.
d. has no effect on the activation of the word meanings.
The idea that the grammatical structure of a sentence is the primary determinant of the way a sentence is
parsed is part of the _____ approach to parsing.
a. semantic
c. syntax-first
b. temporary ambiguity
d. interactionist
Consider the sentence, "Because he always jogs a mile seems like a short distance to him."
The principle of late closure states that this sentence would first be parsed into which of the following
phrases?
a. "Because he always jogs"
b. "Because he always jogs a mile"
c. "he always jogs"
d. "a mile seems"
The principle of late closure can be described as a(n) _____ since it provides a best guess about the unfolding
meaning of a sentence.
a. analogy
c. heuristic
b. algorithm
d. insight
The interactionist approach to parsing states that
a. semantics is activated only at the end of a sentence.
b. semantics is activated as a sentence is being read.
c. the grammatical structure of a sentence determines the initial parsing.
d. semantics is only activated to clear up ambiguity.
Coherence refers to the
a. mental process by which readers create information during reading that is not explicitly
stated in the text.
b. principle that we process information in isolation before we link it to its context.
c. mental process whereby ambiguity is resolved online during sentence reading.
d. representation of the text in a reader’s mind, so that information in one part of the text is
related to information in another part of the text.
Consider the following sentences: "Captain Ahab wanted to kill the whale. He cursed at it." These two
sentences taken together provide an example of a(n)
a. instrument inference.
c. global connection.
b. garden path sequence.
d. anaphoric inference.
Boxing champion George Foreman recently described his family vacations with the statement, "At our ranch
in Marshall, Texas, there are lots of ponds and I take the kids out and we fish. And then of course, we grill
them." That a reader understands "them" appropriately (George grills fish, not his kids!) is the result of a(n)
_____ inference.
____ 138.
____ 139.
____ 140.
____ 141.
____ 142.
____ 143.
____ 144.
____ 145.
____ 146.
____ 147.
a. narrative
c. analogic
b. instrument
d. anaphoric
Chaz is listening to his grandma reminisce about the first time she danced with his grandpa 60 years ago.
When his grandma says, "It seemed like the song would play forever," Chaz understands that it is more likely
his grandma was listening to a radio playing and not a CD. This understanding requires Chaz use a(n)
a. garden path model.
c. instrument inference.
b. given-new contract.
d. age-appropriate principle.
According to the idea of _____, when we read a sentence like, "Carmelo grabbed his coat from his bedroom
and his backpack from the living room, walked downstairs, and called his friend Gerry," we create a map of
Carmelo's apartment and keep track of his location as he moves throughout the apartment.
a. global connections
c. causal inference
b. situation models
d. speech continuity
The given-new contract is a method for creating
a. coherence in people's conversations.
b. children's mastery of syntax.
c. resolution of a lexically ambiguous sentence.
d. anaphoric inferences between consecutive sentences.
The ____ states that the nature of a culture's language can affect the way people think.
a. interactionist approach
c. given-new contract
b. Sapir-Whorf hypothesis
d. cooperative principle
Ill-defined problems are so named because it is difficult to specify _____ for the problems.
a. analogies
c. a single correct answer
b. initial states
d. schemas
Gestalt psychologists consider problem solving as a process involving
a. restructuring.
c. sensory operators.
b. multiple goal states.
d. continuity and form.
The circle problem, in which the task is to determine the length of a line inside a circle, was proposed to
illustrate
a. how analogies can be used to solve problems.
b. means-end analysis.
c. representation and restructuring.
d. the problem space.
____ identified people's tendency to focus on a specific characteristic of a problem that keeps them from
arriving at a solution as a major obstacle to successful problem solving.
a. Newell and Simon's logic theorist computer problem
b. Gestalt psychologists
c. The physicist Richard Feynman
d. The analogical problem solving approach
The water-jug problem demonstrates that one consequence of having a procedure that does provide a solution
to a problem is that, if well-learned, it may prevent us from
a. seeing more efficient solutions to the problem.
b. being able to solve other problems at all.
c. understanding why the procedure works successfully.
d. discriminating between well- and ill-defined problems.
Amber lives in a housing development between two parallel streets that both connect to a freeway. She
usually takes the street to the south when heading southbound on the freeway to work, but that street is closed
for repairs for three months. Amber takes the street to the north during that time. After the street to the south
is re-opened, she continues to take the street to the north, even though it is a slightly longer route. Continuing
to take the street to the north represents
____ 148.
____ 149.
____ 150.
____ 151.
____ 152.
____ 153.
____ 154.
____ 155.
____ 156.
____ 157.
a. a single dissociation.
c. a mental set.
b. a source problem.
d. convergent thinking.
The Tower of Hanoi problem is an example of a(n) ____ problem that has been analyzed using the ____
approach.
a. ill-defined; Gestalt
b. ill-defined; information processing
c. well-defined; Gestalt
d. well-defined; information processing
The elements of the problem space include all of the following EXCEPT
a. initial state.
c. goal state.
b. operators.
d. intermediate states.
The typical purpose of subgoals is to
a. solve insight problems.
b. move the solver directly from the initial state to the goal state.
c. bring the problem solver closer and closer to the goal state.
d. avoid the need to perform means-end analysis.
Intermediate states can be created by
a. restructuring initial states.
c. creating operators.
b. restructuring goal states.
d. creating subgoals.
In Kaplan and Simon's experiment, they presented different versions of the mutilated checkerboard problem.
Participants in the ____ group had the fastest response time.
a. blank
c. black and pink
b. color
d. bread and butter
The best description of the purpose of think-aloud protocols is that they are used to determine
a. what information a person is attending to while solving a problem.
b. which people can be considered more creative in ability to solve problems.
c. how to develop computer programs that best mimic human problem solving.
d. how a person's expertise increases his or her likelihood of solving a problem, relative to a
beginner.
Dr. Curious is doing a follow-up study to the mutilated checkerboard problem experiment. In this new study,
participants solve the following shoe problem before tackling the checkerboard problem. By doing this, Dr.
Curious is studying the effect of _____ on problem solving.
The shoe problem: A first-grade class is using a trampoline in gym class, so all the children have removed
their shoes, which are all jumbled in a large pile. One of the students, Miguel, is leaving early, so the teacher
tells him to grab his shoes and report to the lobby. In his hurry, Miguel grabs two identical left-footed, size 6
red sneakers and runs to his mother still sock-footed. Will the remaining students be able to shoe-up with the
remaining shoes without getting a foot-ache?
a. analogies
c. perceptual segregation
b. anaphoric interference
d. divergent thinking
The radiation problem can be solved using
a. representation and restructuring.
c. warmth judgments.
b. means-end analysis.
d. mental set.
Considering the fortress and the radiation problems together, the fortress problem represents the _____
problem.
a. source
c. exemplar
b. target
d. prototype
Gick and Holyoak consider which of the following to be the most difficult step to achieve in the process of
analogical problem solving?
a. Noticing that there is an analogous relationship between problems because most
____ 158.
____ 159.
____ 160.
____ 161.
____ 162.
____ 163.
____ 164.
____ 165.
participants need prompting before they notice a connection
b. Mapping corresponding parts between the problems because the elements are difficult to
identify
c. Applying the mapping to generate a parallel solution because of the difficulty in
generalizing from one problem to another
d. Solving the problem through reorganization because past experience can make it more
difficult to reorganize a problem
Gick and Holyoak proposed that analogical problem solving involves the following three steps:
a. restructuring, searching, and simulating.
b. noticing, mapping, and applying.
c. surfacing, structuring, and generalizing.
d. well-defining, insighting, and means-end analysis.
Holyoak and Koh presented different versions of the lightbulb problem to assist in solving the radiation
problem. They found the ____ version to be more effective, because it had ____ features in common with the
radiation problem.
a. insufficient-intensity; surface
c. fragile-glass; surface
b. insufficient-intensity; structural
d. fragile-glass; structural
Gentner and coworkers' studies show that analogical encoding causes problem solvers to pay attention to
____ features that ____ their ability to solve other problems.
a. surface; diminish
c. structural; diminish
b. surface; enhance
d. structural; enhance
The analogical paradox refers to problem-solving differences between
a. experts and novices.
b. laboratory and real-world settings.
c. experimental groups and control groups.
d. well- and ill-defined problems.
A researcher records a brainstorming session in an industrial research and development department. Later, she
analyzes the recorded discussions, identifying certain problem-solving techniques. This research is an
example of ____ research.
a. think-aloud protocol
b. situationally-produced mental set
c. environmental functional fixedness
d. in vivo problem-solving
The text's discussion of the research on in vivo problem solving highlighted that ____ play(s) an important
role in solving scientific problems.
a. analogies
c. flexibility
b. insight
d. subgoals
Experts _____ than novices.
a. spend less time analyzing problems
b. are better at reasoning in general
c. are more likely to be open to new ways of looking at problems
d. take a more effective approach to a problem
Divergent thinking is most closely associated with ____ problems.
a. ill-defined
c. source
b. well-defined
d. target
____ 166. Ali works for Citrus Squeeze, a company that makes orange juice. Sales of their calcium-enhanced OJ have
been poor, and the product was cancelled. His factory still had three cases of cartons, and Ali was told he
could take them if he wanted them. With the cartons, Ali made several birdfeeders for his backyard and also
planted tree seedlings in some of them; he used the remaining ones to build a "fort" for his four-year-old son.
Ali’s use of the cartons represents
a. convergent thinking.
c. insight.
b. divergent thinking.
d. hierarchical organization.
____ 167. The creative cognition approach that Finke used to get people to "invent" useful objects, is an example of
a. convergent thinking.
c. divergent thinking.
b. the role of insight in creativity.
d. the means-end analysis.
____ 168. To reduce the likelihood of design fixation when completing a creative design task, you should
a. not present a sample design.
b. present one sample design for a brief period.
c. present one sample design throughout the task.
d. present multiple sample designs.
____ 169. Phoenix Decorating Company is responsible for designing and building many of the floral floats seen in the
Tournament of Roses Parade every New Year’s Day. Phoenix's designers start preparing the floats for the
next year’s parade soon after the first of the year. For each corporate sponsor, Phoenix submits a variety of
sketches as possible designs. In each design, it describes the concept as well as the floral materials that will be
involved. This design process represents
a. creative cognition.
c. convergent thinking.
b. a well-defined problem.
d. design fixation.
____ 170. Making probable conclusions based on evidence involves _____ reasoning.
a. deductive
c. inductive
b. syllogistic
d. connective
____ 171. An experiment measures participants’ performance in judging syllogisms. Two premises and a conclusion are
presented as stimuli, and participants are asked to indicate (yes or no) if the conclusion logically follows from
the premises. Error rates are then calculated for each syllogism. This experiment studies _____ reasoning.
a. deductive
c. falsification
b. intuitive
d. inductive
____ 172. Consider the following syllogism:
If p then q.
p
q
This syllogism is a(n) ____ syllogism.
a. abstract conditional
b. concrete conditional
____ 173. Consider the following syllogism:
c. abstract categorical
d. concrete categorical
If it's a robin then it is a bird.
It is a bird.
Therefore, it is a robin.
In the example above, "Therefore, it is a robin" is a ____ of a ____ syllogism.
a. premise; categorical
c. premise; conditional
b. conclusion; categorical
d. conclusion; conditional
____ 174. Consider the following syllogism:
All cats are birds.
All birds have wings.
All cats have wings.
This syllogism is
a. valid.
c. true.
b. invalid.
d. both valid and true.
____ 175. The validity of a syllogism depends on
a. the truth of its premises.
b. the truth of its conclusion.
c. its form.
d. both the truth of its premises and the truth of its conclusion.
____ 176. For which type of syllogism do people exhibit the best performance in judging validity?
a. Denying the antecedent
c. Affirming the antecedent
b. Denying the consequent
d. Affirming the consequent
____ 177. If it is raining, then I will take my umbrella. It is not raining. Therefore, I didn’t take my umbrella.
This syllogism is an example of
a. denying the antecedent.
c. affirming the antecedent.
b. denying the consequent.
d. affirming the consequent.
____ 178. Consider the following conditional syllogism:
Premise 1: If I study, then I’ll get a good grade.
Premise 2: I didn’t study.
Conclusion: Therefore, I didn’t get a good grade.
This syllogism is an example of
a. affirming the antecedent.
c. denying the antecedent.
b. denying the consequent.
d. affirming the consequent.
____ 179. Consider the following conditional syllogism:
Premise 1: If I don't eat lunch today, I will be hungry tonight.
Premise 2: I ate lunch today.
Conclusion: Therefore, I wasn't hungry tonight.
This syllogism is an example of
a. affirming the consequent.
c. affirming the consequent.
b. denying the antecedent.
d. denying the antecedent.
____ 180. According to your text, the key to solving the Wason four-card problem is
a. a mental model.
c. the law of large numbers.
b. a categorical syllogism.
d. the falsification principle.
____ 181. One reason that most people do not easily solve the original (abstract) version of the Wason four-card
problem is that they
a. ignore the falsification principle.
b. are influenced by the atmosphere effect.
c. confuse the ideas of validity and truth.
d. incorrectly apply the permission schema.
____ 182. The rule of the Wason four-card problem is, "If there is a vowel on one side, then there is an even number on
the other side." Let's say you are presented with A, 8, M, and 13, each showing on one of four cards. To see if
the rule is valid, you would have to turn over the cards showing
a. 8 and M.
c. A and 13.
b. A and M.
d. 8 and 13.
____ 183. The permission schema is an example of a(n)
a. pragmatic reasoning schema.
c. opt-in procedure.
b. subjective utility.
d. illusory correlation.
____ 184. The evolutionary approach proposes that the Wason problem can be understood in terms of people's
a. innate language abilities.
b. ability to work well with a group of others.
c. innate reasoning abilities.
d. ability to detect cheaters.
____ 185. At a lunch meeting with a client, the CEO of Gossip Polls, Inc., was asked to determine America’s favorite
day of the week. Hundreds of Gossip employees across the U.S. started collecting data immediately, calling
people at their residences. One hour later, the attitudes from 10,000 Americans, across all 50 states, were
collected. A staff member called the CEO, still at her lunch meeting, to tell her the results of the poll:
America’s favorite day of the week is Monday. Given your text’s discussion of inductive reasoning in
science, we might suspect that the observations in this poll are not representative because
a. the participants were only asked one question for this poll.
b. the participants were not sufficiently geographically diverse.
c. the people who are home to answer the phone in the early afternoon are not an appropriate
cross-section of the U.S. population.
d. everyone in America was not asked their opinion.
____ 186. Wally and Sharon are out on a date. When Sharon asks Wally where they should go for dinner, Wally says
"My coworkers keep telling me about that new Japanese place downtown, so it must be a great place to eat."
Wally’s response illustrates the use of a(n)
a. availability heuristic.
c. conjunction rule.
b. confirmation bias.
d. permission schema.
____ 187. Mia has lived in New York City all her life. She has noticed that people from upper Manhattan walk really
fast, but people from lower Manhattan tend to walk slowly. Mia’s observations are likely influenced from a
judgment error based on her using
a. the law of large numbers.
c. an illusory correlation.
b. an atmosphere effect.
d. the falsification principle.
____ 188. Of the following real-world phenomena, the confirmation bias best explains the observation that people
a. do not always make decisions that maximize their monetary outcome.
b. are more likely to purchase meat advertised as 80% fat free than 20% fat.
c. misjudge homicide as more prevalent in the U.S. than suicide.
d. can cite several reasons for their position on a controversial issue but none for the
opposing side.
____ 189. Donovan volunteers his time to campaign for Joel Goodman. He spent all afternoon putting up "Goodman for
Congress" signs around his town and arrived back at Goodman headquarters just in time to watch the
Goodman-Hernandez debate on TV. Donovan was eager to watch the candidates debate each other, even
though he was 100% sure he was going to vote for Goodman. Donovan’s first response to the debate will
most likely be
a. "I noticed that Goodman and Hernandez agreed on the new environmental policy."
b. "Did you hear how well Goodman answered that question on job creation?"
c. "I wonder why Goodman was so vague on the school tax issue when I know he has a clear
idea about that."
____ 190.
____ 191.
____ 192.
____ 193.
____ 194.
____ 195.
____ 196.
____ 197.
____ 198.
d. "Hernandez is really going to make this a tight race."
The similarity-coverage model demonstrates the influence of _____ on the strength of inductive arguments.
a. utility
c. categorization
b. self-referencing
d. none of these
Given its definition, expected utility theory is most applicable to deciding whether to
a. break up or stay involved with a current girlfriend.
b. go out for junior varsity hockey or junior varsity basketball.
c. buy first class or coach tickets for a spring break trip.
d. take astronomy or geology as a physical science elective course.
People tend to overestimate
a. what negative feelings will occur following a decision more so than positive feelings.
b. what positive feelings will occur following a decision more so than negative feelings.
c. what positive and negative feelings will occur following a decision to the same degree.
d. subjective utility values following a decision.
By using a(n) _____, a country could increase the percentage of individuals agreeing to be organ donors
dramatically.
a. opt-out procedure
c. pragmatic reasoning schema
b. opt-in procedure
d. permission schema
Juanita is in a convenience store considering which soda to buy. She recalls a commercial for BigFizz she saw
on TV last night. BigFizz is running a promotion where you look under the bottle cap, and one in five bottles
has a voucher for a free soda. If Juanita decides to purchase a BigFizz based on this promotion, which is
framed in terms of _____, she will use a _____ strategy.
a. losses; risk-taking
c. losses; risk-aversion
b. gains; risk-taking
d. gains; risk-aversion
Cecile has dreamed of owning her own home for years, and she can finally afford a small cottage in an older
neighborhood. She notices that she feels more positive about her home when she drives home by the
abandoned shacks, but she hates her home when driving past the fancy mansions with their large lawns.
Cecile's emotions are influenced by
a. the principle of diversity.
c. framing.
b. confirmation bias.
d. the law of large numbers.
In a study by Tversky and Shafir, college students were asked to read a scenario and make a decision
regarding the purchase of a vacation package following a difficult end-of-semester exam. The independent
variable was whether or not students were told the results of the exam (some were told "pass," others "fail") or
that the final scores were not yet known. This study found that participants were more likely to purchase the
vacation package if they were
a. told they passed the exam.
b. told they failed the exam.
c. did not know the results of the exam.
d. if they were told the results of the exam, regardless of passing or failing.
The study by Tversky and Shafir, in which college students decided whether or not to purchase a vacation
package after taking a difficult end-of-semester exam, showed the influence of ____ in decision making.
a. positive vs. negative outcomes
c. justification
b. opt-in vs. opt-out procedures
d. utility
Physiological research on problem solving has concluded that the prefrontal cortex (PFC) is important in
problem solving because damage to this area causes
a. difficulty in people developing expertise in a certain area of knowledge.
b. people to lose their memory for facts that might aid in finding a solution.
c. an increase in perseveration.
d. an inability to recognize analogies.
____ 199. Let's say you are testing a patient with damage to the prefrontal cortex. You present the patient with
relationships such as the following:
Relationship #1: Alia is taller than Ian, who is taller than Mandy.
Relationship #2: Margy is taller than Michelle. Lisa is taller than Margy.
The patient's task is to arrange the names in order of the people's heights. The patient will perform
a. well with Relationship #1 only.
c. well with both relationships.
b. well with Relationship #2 only.
d. poorly with both relationships.
____ 200. In an experiment that combined both physiological and behavioral approaches to the study of decision
making, PFC activity was recorded while participants accepted or rejected proposals to split a sum of money
($10). PFC activation was
a. greatest for accepted offers.
b. greatest for rejected offers.
c. the same for accepted and rejected offers.
d. dependent on how much money the responder was offered.
Essay
201. Describe the serial position curve. Draw a graph (labeling each axis) to illustrate the curve, making sure you
explain each "section" of the curve. Explain the structural features of memory responsible for the shape of the
curve.
202. Explain how psychologists distinguish between episodic and semantic memory, and also how these two types
of memories are connected.
203. Explain how research on brain-damaged individuals informs our understanding of priming in implicit
memory.
204. Describe and compare maintenance and elaborative rehearsal, including a discussion of the "procedures"
associated with each type. Indicate separate examples for which each type of rehearsal is best suited. Also,
describe experimental results that illustrate how effective each type of rehearsal is at establishing durable
long-term memories.
205. Compare and contrast levels-of-processing theory with transfer-appropriate processing. Describe
experimental results for both and highlight their significance to our understanding of memory.
206. Define state-dependent learning and encoding specificity. Then, explain three ways a student might apply
these principles to enhance her learning in college courses. Using the results of experimental research, state
why these suggestions for learning are likely to be successful.
207. Your text explains what memory research tells us about studying. Name and describe the five techniques for
improving learning and memory given in the text's discussion, and what experimental result supports each
technique.
208. Describe memory over the lifespan by describing the relationship between the ability to remember events in
one’s life and age at the time of the event. For example, what would a plot of "events remembered" vs. "age"
look like for a 40-year-old person? How would it differ for a 70-year-old person? Additionally, describe two
competing hypotheses for the reminiscence bump.
209. Explain how familiarity can lead to memory errors. Describe experimental evidence to show how familiarity
can lead to memory errors. Also, describe an eyewitness testimony example of this phenomenon. Finally,
explain how familiarity can lead students to commit errors on a multiple choice exam.
210. Explain priming in terms of spreading activation. Using a description of a lexical decision task, give an
example of a prime-stimulus pair that would produce priming and another pair that would not. What do these
priming effects tell us about categorization?
211. Explain how learning occurs in a connectionist network. Describe the process of back propagation. How is the
pattern of output activity in a network adjusted so that the output signal matches the correct signal for a given
stimulus?
212. Describe the evidence from both physiological research and patient data to explain how categories are
represented in the brain.
213. Define the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis and describe the experiments on color perception that support it.
214. Describe the Gestalt approach to problem solving and provide an example.
215. Compare and contrast insight vs. non-insight problems, including a description of the kinds of problems
representing each type. What is the evidence that insight does occur, and how does insight influence problem
solving behavior?
216. Describe the approach to problem solving involving search. Describe the elements of a problem space. Define
the problem solving strategy known as means-end analysis.
217. Describe the four types of conditional syllogisms. For each type, identify which are valid and how well
people judge the validity of each.
218. Describe the Wason four-card problem. Explain what the results of experiments that have used abstract and
concrete versions of the problem illustrate about how solving this problem is influenced by concreteness,
knowledge of regulations, permission schemas, and an evolutionary perspective on cognition.
219. Discuss how a person’s judgments are affected by the way choices are framed. Give an example of a choice
framed in terms of gains. Give another example of a choice framed in terms of losses. Which decision-making
strategy is likely used in each case? Why?
220. Explain the evidence from neuropsychology and brain imaging studies showing how the prefrontal cortex is
involved in problem solving and reasoning.
sAMPLE eXAM 2
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS:
REF:
2. ANS:
3. ANS:
REF:
4. ANS:
REF:
5. ANS:
REF:
6. ANS:
7. ANS:
8. ANS:
REF:
9. ANS:
REF:
10. ANS:
REF:
11. ANS:
12. ANS:
REF:
13. ANS:
14. ANS:
REF:
15. ANS:
REF:
16. ANS:
REF:
17. ANS:
18. ANS:
KEY:
19. ANS:
REF:
20. ANS:
21. ANS:
REF:
22. ANS:
23. ANS:
REF:
24. ANS:
REF:
25. ANS:
REF:
A
page 151-153
B
B
page 153
C
page 153
A
page 155
D
C
C
page 156
A
page 156
D
page 156-157
A
B
page 156
C
A
page 156
A
page 158
C
page 158
A
C
WWW
B
page 161
C
D
page 161-162
D
D
page 164
B
page 163
B
page 163
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF:
KEY:
DIF:
DIF:
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 165
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 154
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF:
KEY:
DIF:
DIF:
PTS:
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
WWW
1
1
MODERATE
WWW
DIFFICULT REF: page 152-153
MODERATE
MODERATE
WWW
EASY
REF: page 158
MODERATE
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 156
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 156
DIF: EASY
REF: page 156
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF:
DIF:
KEY:
DIF:
DIF:
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
EASY
REF: page 161
MODERATE
WWW
DIFFICULT REF: page 164
MODERATE
26. ANS:
REF:
27. ANS:
REF:
28. ANS:
29. ANS:
KEY:
30. ANS:
REF:
31. ANS:
KEY:
32. ANS:
33. ANS:
34. ANS:
35. ANS:
REF:
36. ANS:
REF:
37. ANS:
38. ANS:
39. ANS:
REF:
40. ANS:
REF:
41. ANS:
REF:
42. ANS:
43. ANS:
44. ANS:
REF:
45. ANS:
REF:
46. ANS:
47. ANS:
KEY:
48. ANS:
REF:
49. ANS:
50. ANS:
51. ANS:
REF:
52. ANS:
53. ANS:
REF:
54. ANS:
55. ANS:
REF:
56. ANS:
C
page 165
D
page 167
B
A
WWW
A
page 173
A
WWW
D
A
C
C
page 177
A
page 177
B
C
A
page 178
B
page 179-180
D
page 183
C
B
B
page 189
A
page 189
D
C
WWW
B
page 191
B
A
C
page 194
B
C
page 197
C
C
page 205-206
B
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
PTS:
1
WWW
1
WWW
1
1
DIF: MODERATE
DIF: MODERATE
DIF: EASY
DIF: EASY
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
1
1
1
1
REF: page 173
REF: page 173
REF: page 174
DIFFICULT REF: page 173-174
EASY
REF: page 174-175
EASY
REF: page 176-177
MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 178
DIF: EASY
REF: page 178
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
KEY: WWW
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 184
DIF: EASY
REF: page 185
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 190-191
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 190-191
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 191-192
DIF: EASY
REF: page 193
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 194
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 196-197
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
REF:
57. ANS:
REF:
58. ANS:
REF:
59. ANS:
REF:
60. ANS:
REF:
61. ANS:
REF:
62. ANS:
REF:
63. ANS:
REF:
64. ANS:
REF:
65. ANS:
REF:
66. ANS:
67. ANS:
REF:
68. ANS:
KEY:
69. ANS:
KEY:
70. ANS:
71. ANS:
REF:
72. ANS:
REF:
73. ANS:
REF:
74. ANS:
75. ANS:
76. ANS:
77. ANS:
KEY:
78. ANS:
REF:
79. ANS:
REF:
80. ANS:
81. ANS:
KEY:
82. ANS:
83. ANS:
KEY:
page 206
D
page 207
A
page 207
C
page 209
C
page 210
D
page 214
C
page 214
B
page 215-216
C
page 219
C
page 219
A
B
page 222-223
A
WWW
C
WWW
C
C
page 226
C
page 226-227
D
page 227
C
B
B
D
WWW
C
page 232
C
page 241-242
A
D
WWW
B
B
WWW
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
KEY: WWW
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
PTS:
1
WWW
1
1
DIF: MODERATE
DIF: EASY
REF: page 219
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 224
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 224
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
DIF: MODERATE
1
WWW
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIFFICULT
EASY
EASY
DIFFICULT
REF: page 224
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
page 224
page 232
page 232
page 232
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
DIF: EASY
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 246
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 243
REF: page 243
REF: page 243
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
KEY:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
KEY:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
KEY:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
B
C
C
A
C
page 244
B
page 244-246
D
B
page 246-247
A
B
D
WWW
A
page 247-248
A
B
page 248
B
page 249
C
WWW
D
page 250-251
A
WWW
C
page 251
A
page 250-252
B
page 250-252
B
page 252
C
page 251
B
page 254-255
C
page 255-256
B
C
page 255-256
D
page 256
C
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
1
1
1
1
1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIFFICULT
DIFFICULT
EASY
EASY
MODERATE
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
page 244
page 244
page 244
page 244
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 246
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 246-247
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 246-247
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 247
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 248
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 249
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 250
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF:
KEY:
DIF:
DIF:
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 255-259
MODERATE
WWW
EASY
REF: page 256
MODERATE
113. ANS: C
114. ANS: C
115. ANS: B
REF: page 259
116. ANS: D
REF: page 260
117. ANS: B
REF: page 263
118. ANS: A
119. ANS: B
REF: page 295
120. ANS: D
121. ANS: A
REF: page 296
122. ANS: A
REF: page 296
123. ANS: A
124. ANS: D
125. ANS: C
REF: page 297
126. ANS: A
REF: page 301
127. ANS: C
REF: page 301
128. ANS: A
129. ANS: C
REF: page 302-303
130. ANS: C
KEY: WWW
131. ANS: C
REF: page 305
132. ANS: B
REF: page 305
133. ANS: C
REF: page 305
134. ANS: B
135. ANS: D
136. ANS: D
REF: page 310
137. ANS: D
KEY: WWW
138. ANS: C
REF: page 310
139. ANS: B
REF: page 311
140. ANS: A
141. ANS: B
142. ANS: C
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
1
1
1
WWW
1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 259
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 259
DIF: MODERATE
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
PTS:
1
WWW
1
1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS:
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
1
1
WWW
1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 296
DIF: MODERATE
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
1
1
1
WWW
1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 297
DIF: EASY
REF: page 297
DIF: MODERATE
DIF: MODERATE
DIF: EASY
REF: page 295
DIF: MODERATE
DIF: MODERATE
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF:
DIF:
KEY:
DIF:
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 306
DIF: EASY
REF: page 310
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 315
DIF: EASY
REF: page 317
DIF: MODERATE
EASY
REF: page 302
MODERATE
WWW
DIFFICULT REF: page 302-303
DIF: MODERATE
REF: page 310
REF: page 326
143. ANS: A
144. ANS: C
REF: page 327
145. ANS: B
REF: page 329
146. ANS: A
147. ANS: C
REF: page 330
148. ANS: D
REF: page 332
149. ANS: B
150. ANS: C
REF: page 333
151. ANS: D
REF: page 333
152. ANS: D
REF: page 337-338
153. ANS: A
154. ANS: A
REF: page 339
155. ANS: A
156. ANS: A
REF: page 340-342
157. ANS: A
REF: page 342-343
158. ANS: B
159. ANS: D
160. ANS: D
REF: page 345
161. ANS: B
REF: page 345
162. ANS: D
163. ANS: A
REF: page 345-346
164. ANS: D
REF: page 346-348
165. ANS: A
REF: page 349
166. ANS: B
REF: page 348
167. ANS: C
REF: page 350
168. ANS: A
169. ANS: A
REF: page 350
170. ANS: C
171. ANS: A
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 327
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 330-331
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS:
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
DIF: EASY
REF: page 333
DIF: MODERATE
1
1
WWW
1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS:
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
PTS:
DIF: EASY
REF: page 338
DIF: MODERATE
1
1
WWW
1
1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 341
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF:
KEY:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 345-346
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
PTS:
DIF: MODERATE
1
WWW
1
1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
MODERATE
WWW
DIFFICULT REF: page 342
DIFFICULT REF: page 344
MODERATE
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 349
DIF: MODERATE
DIF: EASY
REF: page 360
DIF: MODERATE
REF: page 360
172. ANS: A
173. ANS: D
174. ANS: A
REF: page 361
175. ANS: C
REF: page 361
176. ANS: C
REF: page 363
177. ANS: A
REF: page 363
178. ANS: C
REF: page 363
179. ANS: D
REF: page 363
180. ANS: D
REF: page 364
181. ANS: A
REF: page 364
182. ANS: C
183. ANS: A
KEY: WWW
184. ANS: D
185. ANS: C
REF: page 368-369
186. ANS: A
REF: page 369-370
187. ANS: C
REF: page 371
188. ANS: D
KEY: WWW
189. ANS: B
REF: page 374
190. ANS: C
191. ANS: C
192. ANS: A
REF: page 377
193. ANS: A
REF: page 379
194. ANS: D
REF: page 380
195. ANS: C
196. ANS: D
REF: page 381-382
197. ANS: C
REF: page 381-382
198. ANS: C
199. ANS: A
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 362-363
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 362-363
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 364
DIF: EASY
REF: page 365
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 366
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
KEY: WWW
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 374
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS:
PTS:
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
1
1
1
WWW
1
DIF: EASY
REF: page 464
DIF: EASY
REF: page 375
DIF: MODERATE
PTS:
KEY:
PTS:
PTS:
1
WWW
1
1
DIF: MODERATE
DIF: MODERATE
DIF: MODERATE
DIF: MODERATE
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 380
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
DIF: MODERATE
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 383
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 383
200. ANS: C
PTS: 1
DIF: DIFFICULT REF: page 384
ESSAY
201. ANS:
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 151-153
202. ANS:
Answer not provided
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
REF: page 157-160
203. ANS:
Answer not provided
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
REF: page 162-163
204. ANS:
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 173-176
205. ANS:
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 173-176|page 185
206. ANS:
Answer not provided
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
REF: page 184-185
207. ANS:
Answer not provided
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
REF: page 187-189
208. ANS:
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 206
209. ANS:
Answer not provided
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
REF: page 215|page 228
210. ANS:
Answer not provided
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
REF: page 251-252
211. ANS:
Answer not provided
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
212. ANS:
KEY: WWW
REF: page 257-259
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 260-263
213. ANS:
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 317-319
214. ANS:
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 327-331
215. ANS:
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 327-329
216. ANS:
Answer not provided
KEY: WWW
PTS: 1
REF: page 331-333
217. ANS:
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 362-363
218. ANS:
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 364-367
219. ANS:
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 379-381
220. ANS:
Answer not provided
PTS: 1
REF: page 382-383
KEY: WWW