Download Exam tests for pediatrics diseases for the 3rd year Semester 6 1

Exam tests for pediatrics diseases for the
3rd year Semester 6
1. Syndrome at decreasing of maintenance
of Hb in unit blood of volume?
A) polycythemia
B) hyperglobulia
C) anemia
D) trombocytopenia
2. Which one of hemoglobin (g / l) is
characteristic of anemia of moderate
severity:
A) 120-130
B). 120-110
C)110-90
D). 90-70
3. The normal maintenance of RBC in
peripheral blood of healthy men:
A) 4,0 - 5,0 * 1012/l.
B) 3,9 - 4,7 * 1012/l.
C) 3,0 - 4,0 * 1012/l.
D) 5,0 - 6,0 * 1012/l.
4. Choose the normal maintenance of RBC
of healthy women:
A) 4,0 - 5,0 * 1012/l.
B) 3,9 - 4,7 * 1012/l.
C) 3,0 - 4,0 * 1012/l.
D) 5,0 - 6,0 * 1012/l.
5. The normal maintenance of Hb of men
contains:
A) 120 - 140 g/l
B) 130 - 160 g/l
C) 150 - 170 g/l
D) 170 – 190 g/l
6. Increasing of hematocrit’s number is
characteristic for:
A) a leucosis
B) anemia
C) compensatory erythrocytosis
D) hemophilia
7. At what type of anemia is there increase
of a color indicator more than 1,05?
A) aplastic anemia
B) hemolytic anemia
C) iron deficiency anemia
D) vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
8. At what type of anemia is there
decreasing of color indicator less then O,8?
A) aplastic anemia
B) hemolytic anemia
C) normochromic anemia
D) iron deficiency anemia
9. State normal minimum values of
eritrocyte osmotic resistance:
A). 0,42-0,38
C) 0,48-0,52
B) 0,48-0,44
D) 0,48-0,60
10. Grade 3 anemia puts with a decrease in
hemoglobin LESS:
A) 60 g / l
C)80 g / l
B) 70 g / l
D) 90 g / l
11. What symptoms are more characteristic
for chronic renal failure?
A) a polyuria
B) anemia
C) an azotemia
D) hyperkalemia
12. Symptom is less characteristic for an
amyloidosis of kidneys:
A) swelling B) massive proteinuria
C) a macro hematuria
D) hypoalbuminemia
13. Hemophilia B is with the lack of what
factor of blood:
A) - VII
B) – VIII
C) – IX
D) - XI
14. Choose the option where a chronic
glomerulonephritis which is shown by the
minim changes at urine (a proteinuria less
than 1 g/l, a hematuria, a small
leykotsituria):
A) latent
B) nephrotic
C) hematuric
D) hypertonic
15. What is the type of a chronic
glomerulonephritis characterized by the
expressed swelling, an oliguria, massive
proteinuria, high hypertension?
A) latent
B) nephrotic
C) hematuric
D) hypertonic
16. What types of a chronic
glomerulonephritis are characteristic a hypo
albuminemia
(to 30 g/l), the expressed proteinuria (more
than 3,5 g of protein a day):
A) latent
B) nephrotic
C) hematu
D) hypertonic
17. What types of a chronic
glomerulonephritis accur seldom,
characterized by a good current, rare
development of chronic renal failure:
A) latent
C)
hematuric
B) nephrotic
D)
hypertonic
18. Informative method of diagnostics of a
chronic glomerulonephritis:
A) research of urine
C) a biopsy of kidneys
B) ultrasound examination of the
kidneys
D) intravenous urography
19. The most reliable method of
differentiation of nephrite and amiloidoz of
kidneys:
A) research of a uric deposit
B) morphological research of a biopsy
of a mucous rectum or gum tissues
C) ultrasound examination of the
kidneys
D) urographia
20. A characteristic triad of symptoms for a
glomerulonephritis:
A) hypertension, swelling, changes in
urine
B) waist pains, fever, changes in urine
C) hypertension, dysuria, changes in
urine
D) fever, swelling, dysuria,
21.Appearence of a leucocyturia and
bacteriuria (more than 100000 bacteria in
1 ml of urine) assumes presence at a sick
disease:
A) glomerulonephritis
C)
renal amyloidosis
B) pyelonephritis
D)
multicystic kidney disease
22. What changes of urine are called as
display of a renal failure
A) a proteinuria more than 3,5 grams a
day
B) a macro hematuria
C) the maximum urine specific gravity
in test of Zimnitsky 1011
D) the expressed cylindruria
23. To engage the lower urinary tract is
characteristic of (1):
A) leucocyturia B) glycosuria
C) proteinuria
D) cylindruria
24. What disease of kidneys are leukocyte
cylinders?
A) glomerulonephritis
B) pyelonephritis
C) renal amyloidosis
D) tuberculosis of kidneys
25. For what disease of kidneys are
radiological symptoms characteristic:
blurred renal pelvis deformation of kidney
cups, narrowing and necks?
A) glomerulonephritis
B) pyelonephritis
C) renal amyloidosis
D) tuberculosis of kidneys
26. The undigested remains of food are
removed from an organism through…
A) a duodenum; B) an appendix; C) a
thick intestine; D) a rectum
27. In a stomach area…
A) alkalescent; B) neutral; C) alkaline;
D) the sour
28. Bile
A) splits carbohydrates; B) splits fats
C) facilitates digestion of fats; D) splits
proteins
29. Contents of a small intestine move
ahead in reason of…
A) reduction of a stomach; B) reduction
of muscles of intestines;
C) heart beating; D) to the respiratory
movements
30. The barrier role of a liver consists of
A) the glycogen is formed; B) toxic
agents are neutralized;
C) vitamin A is formed D) lymph
education
31. What type of anemia has clinical
features such as: lemon and pale of skin, the
bright varnished tongue, paresthesia, spastic
step, disruption of deep sensitivity, disorder
of function of a bladder and rectum?
A) aplastic
C) hemolytic
B) vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
D)
iron deficiency anemia
32. At what type of anemia in peripheral
blood is there macrocytosis, megalotsitoz, a
basophilic punctuation, Cabot's rings in
erythrocytes, Joly's little items, leukopenia
and thrombocytopenia.
A) aplastic
C) hemolytic
B) vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
D) iron deficiency anemia
33. Low maintenance of reticulocytes in
peripheral blood in:
A) aplastic anemia
B) post-hemorrhagic anemia
C) hemolytic anemia
D) iron deficiency anemia
1. For glomerular damage is
characteristic :
A) hematuria
B) leucocyturia
C) bacteriuria
D) glycosuria
34. To what type of anemia is good for the
blood count: RBC – 26*10¹²,
Hb - 60 g/l, a color indicator 07, leukocytes
- 6,5*109, expressed anisocytosis,
poikilocytosis?
A) vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
C) hemolytic
B) hypochromic anemia
D) aplastic
35. What anemia blood test has there
characteristics: RBC - 1,6*10¹², Hb- 60 g/l,
a color indicator 1,4, leukocytes - 3,5*109,
eosinophils-0, Band neutrophils -10%,
Segmented neutrophil -46%, %
lymphocytes-38, monocytes-6 of %, a norm
oblasts, a megaloblastic, reticulocytes 0,1%0, erythrocytes with Joly's little bodies
and Cabot's rings, a basophilic punktation?
A) vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
C) hemolytic
B) hypochromic anemia
D) aplastic
36. For upper urinary tract is characteristic:
A) hematuria B) leucocyturia C)
glycosuria D) cylindruria
37. At what type of anemia in a analysis of
marrow is found hyperplasia of an RBC
sprout, megaloblastic blood forming
(megaloblastic, megakaryocytes) found.
A) aplastic
C) hemolytic
B) vitamin B12 deficiency
D) iron deficiency
38. What type of anemia has bad
prediction?
A) aplastic
C) hemolytic
B) vitamin B12 deficiency
D) iron deficiency
39. Increasing of number of leukocytes at
infectious diseases more often is connected
with increasing:
A) eosinophils
C) neutrophils
B) lymphocytes
D) monocytes
40. The swelling is typical for losses:
A) glomerular B) tubules C) upper
urinary tract
D) of the lower urinary
tract
41. Monocytosis can appear at:
A) tuberculosis
B) syphilis
D) protozoan and viral diseases
C) malaria
E) at everything listed above
42. The swelling is typical for losses:
1) glomerula 2) tubules 3) upper
urinary tract 4) of the lower urinary tr
43. What disease is possible if there is
extensive, deep, painful hematoma in the
area
hip of the patient after a little hart:
A) hemorrhagic vasculitis
C) hemophilia
B) Werlhof's disease
D) Randyu-Osler's illness
44. In what disease there is nasal, gum,
uterine bleedings, a bruise (blue and black
spot), thrombocytopenia:
A) hemolytic anemia
C) hemophilia
B) Werlhof's disease
D) Shenleyna-Genokh's illness
45. NORMAL palpable lower edge of the
liver in children up to 3 years in the
midclavicular line on the right:
A) on the costal arch
B) 23 cm below the costal arch
C) at 1-2 cm below the costal arch D)
the lower edge is not palpable
46. Criteria of diagnosis of an acute leucosis
is:
A) transformation of blood formation with
the help of the low-differentiated cells
predecessors of II, III and IY classes
B) transformation of blood formation by
the ripening and mature cells
C) metaplasia of normal hematopoietic
cells by leucosis
D) anemic hemorrhagic septic necrosis
syndrome
47. Osmotic resistance of erythrocytes
decreases with anemia:
A) iron deficit B) hemolytic C)
hypoplastic D) post-hemorrhagic
48. Correct order of digestive system:
A) a mouth – a gullet – a throat – a
stomach – intestines; B) a mouth - a throat –
a gullet – a
stomach – intestines
C) a mouth – a throat – a stomach – a
gullet – intestines; D) a mouth – a stomach –
a gullet – intestines – a throat
49. Canals of a pancreas open in
A) a stomach; B) a gullet; C) a
duodenum; D) a large intestine
50. Bile is formed in…
A) pancreas; B) liver; C) glands of a
stomach; D) intestines glands
51. The undigested remains collect in…
A) a thick intestine; B) a stomach; C)
a small intestine; D) a pancreas
52. The undigested remains of food are
removed from an organism through…
A) a duodenum; B) an appendix; C)
a thick intestine; D) a rectum
53. NORMAL palpable lower edge of the
liver in children of 4-7 years in the
midclavicular line on the right :
1) on the costal arch
2) at 1-2 cm below the costal arch
3) 2-3 cm below the costal arch
4) the lower edge is not palpable
54. NORMAL palpable lower edge of the
liver in children after 7 years at the
midclavicular line on the right:
1) on the costal arch
2) at 1-2 cm below the costal arch
3) 2-3 cm below the costal arch
4) the lower edge is not palpable
55. In newborn meconium usually waste:
1) in the first 12 hours
2) in the first day
3) after 48 hours
4) 60 hours
56. IN CHILDREN upper border of liver in
the midclavicular line is determined by:
1) The edge (rib) 4
2) 5 edge
3) 4 intercostal space
4) 6 edge
57. fragmented feces observed when:
1) lesions of the stomach and duodenum
2) small bowel lesions
3) spastic constipation
4) atonic constipation
58. Painfulness on palpation of point
MAYO-ROBSON typical for losses:
1) gallbladder
2) the head of the pancreas
3) the tail of the pancreas
4) 12 duodenal ulcer
59. What syndrome develops as a result of
the progressing and irreversible destruction
of nephron despite of the reason which has
caused it:
A) an acute renal failure
B) chronic renal failure
C) a nephrotic syndrome
D) eclampsia
60. What syndrome is the sudden, fast, but
potentially reversible dysfunction of kidneys
and sufficient to lead to accumulation of
nitrogenous wasted in organism liquids:
A) an acute renal failure
B) chronic renal failure
C) a nephrotic syndrome
D) eclampsia
61. Ways of infection in kidney pelvis and
interstation:
A) hematogenic distribution
B) limfogenetic distribution
C) the ascending way
D) all listed above
62. MOYNINGAMOVSKY RHYTHM
PAIN observed when:
1), gastric ulcer
2) duodenal ulcer
3) gastritis
4) cholecystitis
63. DEVELOPMENT of Celiac disease of
INFANT children is RELATED TO:
1) intolerance to cow's milk
2) animal protein intolerances
3) intolerance of vegetable protein
4) intolerance obligate allergens
64. celiac disease begins to manifest itself in
age:
1) Birth
2) the introduction of complementary foods
Kashevogo
3) the introduction of the yolk
4) The introduction of cow's milk
65. In the intestine of celiac disease develop
a syndrome:
1) malabsorption syndrome
2) pyloric stenosis syndrome
3) biliary dyskinesia syndrome
4) colitis syndrome
66. To differentiate acute
glomerulonephritis from acute nephritic
syndrome at an aggravation of a chronic
glomerulonephritis helps:
A) ultrasonography of kidneys
B) intravenous urography
C) biopsy of kidneys
D) venal scintigraphy
67. What symptom are characteristic or
pathology of the glomerular apparatus:
A) hematuria
C) cylindruria
B) bacteriuria
D) proteinuria
68. Hemophilia A is with the lack of what
factor of blood:
A) - VII
C) - IX
B) – VIII
D) - XI
69. Hemophilia B is with the lack of what
factor of blood:
A) - VII
C) - IX
B) – VIII
D) - XI
70. Hemophilia C is with the lack of what
factor of blood:
A) - VII
C) - IX
B) – VIII
D) - XI
71. What disease is characterized by
violation of a trombotsit link of hemostasis:
A) hemophilia
B) Sheynleyn-Genokh's illness
C) Verlgof's illness
D)Randyu-Osler's illness
72. What disease is characterized by
violation of a vascular link of hemostasis:
A) hemophiliaC) Verlgof's illness
B) Sheynleyn-Genokh's illness D) RandyuOsler's illness
73. What disease is caused by violation of a
coagulative link of hemostasis:
A) hemophilia
B) Sheynleyn-Genokh's illness
C) Verlgof's illness
D) Randyu-Osler's illness
74. At a stomach ulcer the most informative
method of research is:
1) pH monitoring
2) endoscopy
3) X-ray with barium suspension
4) hromogastroskopiya
75. Positive symptom Pasternatskogo typical
for losses:
1) glomerular
2) tubules
3) upper urinary tract
4) of the lower urinary tract
76. The swelling is typical for losses:
1) glomerular
2) tubules
3) upper urinary tract
4) of the lower urinary tract
77. SAMPLE Rehberg 60 ml / min in a child
4 years show:
1) normal renal function
2) glomerular lesions syndrome
3) syndrome of defeat tubules
4) syndrome lesions of the urinary tract
78. The hormone primarily responsible
for setting the basal metabolic rate and
for promoting the maturation of the brain
is:
A. cortisol
B. ACTH
C. TSH
D. thyroxine
79. Many nonsteroid hormones act upon
their target cells by causing:
A. cyclic AMP to become ATP
B. the inactivation of adenylate cyclase
C. cyclic AMP to become protein kineses
D. the activation of adenylate cyclase
80. Which of the following would result
from a thyroidectomy (removal of the
thyroid gland)?
A. decreased TSH secretion
B. increased T3 and thyroxine secretion
C. increased calcitonin secretion
D. increased TSH secretion
81. Steroid hormones are secreted by:
A. pituitary
B. the gonads
C. the thyroid
D. the adrenal cortex
82. The secretion of which hormone
would be increased in a person with
endemic goiter?
A. TSH.
B. thyroxine
C. triiodothyronine;
D. all of the preceding apply
83. Oxytocin:
A. allows milk secretion or "milk let-down"
B. is stored in the pars nervosa (posterior
pituitary)
C. is produced by cells in the diencephalon
(hypothalamus)
D. exerts important effects during childbirth
84. A tumor of the beta cells of the
pancreatic islets would probably affect
the body's ability to:
A. lower blood glucose level
B. lower blood calcium level
C. raise blood calcium level
D. raise blood sodium level.
85. Which hormone stimulated the
production of erythrocytes in myeloid
tissues?
A. GH
B. progesterone
C. ICSH
D. none of the preceding.
86- The endocrine system:
A. releases chemicals into the bloodstream
for distribution throughout the body
B. releases hormones that alter the metabolic
activities of many different tissues and
organs
C. produces effects that can last for hours,
days, or even longer
D. all of the above
87-When adenyl cyclase is activated:
A.cAMP is formed
B.cAMP is broken
C. G-proteins bind to cAMP
D. steroid hormones enter the cell
88-This hypophyseal structure receives
signals from the hypothalamus via the
hypophyseal portal vein:
A. follicles
B. adenohypophysis
C. neurohypophysis
D. pars intermedia
89-The action of glucocorticoids involves
many functions, but only one of the
following is a correct one:
A. increases inflammatory responses
B. decreases lipid hydrolysis (lipolysis)
C. increases glucose levels
D. retention of electrolytes by the kidneys
90-This hormone acts on the intestines
and causes increased calcium absorption:
A. calcitonin
B. calcitriol
C. thyroxine
D. pancreatic polypeptide
91-The pancreatic cells that secrete
insulin are the:
A. F-cells
B. principal cells
C. alpha cells
D. beta cells
92-The general adaptation syndrome
(GAS) is activated by the:
A. hypothalamus
B. adrenal gland
C. pituitary gland
D. thyroid gland
93-Somatostatin is secreted by the:
A. pancreatic F-cells
B. pancreatic delta cells
C. zona fasciculata
D.parafollicular cells
94-Hyposecretion of cortisol can cause:
A. cretinism
B. diabetes mellitus
C. diabetes insipidus
D. Addison’s disease
95-Oxytocin is secreted by the:
A. adenohypophysis
B. neurohypophysis
C. zona glomerulosa
D. pars intermedia
96-A lack of or decrease in insulin
hormone receptors on cells can result in:
A. diabetes insipidus
B. type I diabetes mellitus
C. type II diabetes mellitus
D. insulin-dependant diabetes mellitus
(IDDM)
E. juvenile diabetes
97-Vasopressin is the same hormone as:
A. cortisol
B. epinephrine
C. ADH
D.hGH
98-The general adaptation syndrome
(GAS):
A. is a mechanism to maintain homeostasis
under stress
B. resets the levels of controlled conditions
in the body in response to stress
C. is a part of the sympathetic (fight or
flight) response
D. none of the above
99-Which of the following characteristics
is the same for the nervous and endocrine
systems:
A. target cells affected
B. time to onset of actions
C. duration of actions
D. mechanism of signalling and
communication
100- Hyposecretion of cortisol can cause:
A.Cretinism
B.Diabetes mellitus
C.Diabetes insipidus
D.Addison's disease
D. TSH
101-When adenyl cyclase is activated:
A. cAMP is formed
B. cAMP is degraded
C. G proteins are replicated in a
semiconservative fashion
D. Steroid hormones enter the cell via
receptor-mediated endocytosis
102-Which of the following hormones
does not act via a second messenger
system?
A. Glucagon
B. Epinephrine
C. GH
D. Testosterone
103-What hypophyseal structure receives
signals from the hypothalamus via the
hypophyseal portal
system?
A. Follicular medulla
B. Adenohypophysis
C. Neurohypophysis
D. Pars intermedia
104-Which of the following is a function
of glucocorticoids?
A. Increased inflammatory response
B. Increased blood [glucose]
C. Decreased lipolysis
D. Increased creatinine hydrolysis by
osteocytes
105-What hormone increases intestinal
calcium absorption?
A. Calcitriol
B. Calcitonin
C. Parathormone
D. Pancreatic polypeptide
106-Which of the following is a function
of TSH?
A. Activation of thyroid follicular cells
B. Increase of iodine trapping in
follicular cells
C. Increased thyroglobulin synthesis
D. All of the above
107-- The ______ cells of the pancreas
secrete insulin.
A. F
B. Chief
C. Principal
D. Beta
108-The general adaptation syndrome is
activated by the:
A. Hypothalamus
B. Adrenal gland
C. Pituitary gland
D.
109-Say you ate 25 sugar cubes and then
drank a liter of Mountain Dew, which
hormone might be secreted in large
amounts as a result?
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Prolactin
D. GnRH
110- Somatostatin is secreted by the:
A. Pancreatic F cells
B. Pancreatic delta cells
C. Zona fasciculata
D. Parafollicular cells
111- A tumor in the adrenal zona
glomerulosa may cause hypersecretion of
the hormones in that region. Which of the
following might you expect to find in a
patient with such a tumor?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increased blood sodium levels
Increased blood glucose levels
Decreased blood calcium levels
Increased dehydration
112- Oxytocin is secreted by the:
A. Adenohypophysis
B. Neurohypophysis
C. Zona glomerulosa
D. Pars intermedia
113- A lack or decrease in insulin
hormone receptors on cells can result in:
A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Type I diabetes mellitus
C. Type II diabetes mellitus
D. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
114-The general adaptation syndrome:
A. Is a mechanism to maintain
homeostasis when under stress
B. Resets the levels of controlled
conditions in the body in response to
stress
C. Is part of the sympathetic response
D. Reduces the amount of stress
encountered
115- Which of the following
characteristics is the same for the nervous
and the endocrine systems
A. Target cells affected
B. Latent period for onset of actions
C. Duration of actions
D. None of the above
116- Hyposecretion of cortisol can cause:
A.Cretinism
B.Diabetes mellitus
C.Diabetes insipidus
D.Addison's disease
117. The most scientific method to
identify which triggers may be causing
my nasal allergies is to:
A. Track the time of year when my
symptoms occur
B. Have an allergist perform a skin test
C. Have an allergist run a blood test
D. There is no good way to know what I'm
allergic to
118. Which is the most effective treatment
for nasal allergies?
A. Over-the-counter antihistamines
B. Prescription antihistamines
C. Antihistamine decongestant combination
pills
D. Nasal corticosteroid sprays
119. Which one of the following is least
likely to trigger asthma?
A. Strenuous exercise
B. A common cold
C. Reading the newspaper
D. Cat dander
120. Hypersensitivity of which system of
your body creates an allergic response?
A. Skin
B. Immune System
C. Circulatory System
D. Pulmonary System
E. Digestive System
121. Which of the following treatments
can be used to reduce allergic reactions to
unavoidable substances?
A. Milk thistle three times daily
B. Mist inhalation therapy
C. Regularly wearing a face mask
D. Desensitization (Allergy shots)
122. Which of the following is the most
commonly prescribed treatment for
hives?
A. Oral antihistamines
B. Oral corticosteroids such as prednisone
C. Epinephrine (adrenaline)
D. Aspirin
123. Which of these body systems causes
allergic reactions?
A. Lymph
B. Immune
C. Nervous
D. Autonomic
124. Pattern recognition receptors
(PRR) include:
A.
Lectin-like molecules.
B.
Lipoteichoic acid.
C.
LPS.
D.
PAMPs.
125.
The mononuclear phagocyte
system does not include:
A. Endothelial cells.
B.
Kidney mesangial cells.
C.
Kupffer cells.
D.
Lymph node medullary macrophages.
126.
A polymorphonuclear neutrophil
(PMN):
A.
Is a bone marrow stem cell.
B.
Is closely similar to a mast cell.
C. Contains microbicidal cytoplasmic
granules.
D.
Is not a professional phagocytic cell.
127.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lysozyme:
Is a cytoplasmic organelle.
Activates complement.
Is a proteolytic enzyme.
Splits peptidoglycan.
128.
Which of the following is not an
acute phase protein:
A.
Chondroitin sulfate.
B.
C-reactive protein.
C.
Fibrinogen.
D.
Mannose binding lectin.
129.
A.
B.
C.
D.
cell.
Interferons:
Are divided into 5 main families.
Are found only in mammalian species.
Are specific for individual viruses.
Induce enzyme synthesis in the target
130.
Natural killer (NK) cells do not:
A.
Contain perforin.
B.
Contain serine proteases.
C.
Contain tumor necrosis factor (TNF).
D.
Kill only by damaging the target cell
outer membrane.
131. Clonal selection occurs when
antigen is encountered by:
A.
Basophils
B.
Eosinophils
C.
Mast cells
D.
T-cells
132. After the contact with foreign
antigens, body produces specific antibody.
These specific antibodies are readily
detectable in serum following primary
contact with antigen after:
A.
10 min
B.
1h
C. 5–7 days
D.
3–5 weeks
133. Adoptive transfer of acquired
immune responsiveness involves the
transfer of:
A.
Antibody
B. Complement
C.
Phagocytes
D.
Lymphocytes
134. Naturally acquired active immunity
would be most likely acquired through
which of the following processes?
a. vaccination
b. Drinking colostrum
c. Natural birth
d. infection with disease causing organism
followed by recovery.
135. Which of the following convey the
longest lasting immunity to an infectious
agent?
a. Naturally acquired passive immunity
b. Artificially acquired passive immunity
c. Naturally acquired active immunity
d.
136.Which of the following substances
will not stimulate an immune response
unless they are bound to a larger
molecule?
a. Antigen
b. Virus
c. Hapten
d.
141. B cells that produce and release large
amounts of antibody are called:
a. Memory cells
b. Basophils
c. Plasma cells
d. Killer cells
142. The specificity of an antibody is due
to
a. its valence
b. The heavy chains
c. The Fc portion of the molecule
d. The variable portion of the heavy and
light chain
143. In agglutination reactions, the
antigen is a………
in precipitation reactions, the antigen is
a……………
a. whole cell/soluble molecule
b. Soluble molecule/whole cell
c. Bacterium/virus
d. Protein/carbohydrates
137.B and T cells are produced by stem
cells that are formed in:
a. Bone marrow
b. The liver
c. The circulatory system
d. The spleen
144. hormones that separates the milk
from the breast women in the baby's
suckling:
1) Oxytocin
2) prolactin
3) Follicle
4) luteinizing
138. B cells mature in the……….. while T
cells mature in the
a. Thymus/bone marrow and gut associated
lymphoid tissue (GALT)
b. Spleen/bone marrow and GALT
c. Bone marrow and GALT/Thymus
d. Liver/Kidneys
145. hormones that prepare TO THE
FOLLOWING BREAST MILK suckingfeeding mothers:
1) Oxytocin
2) prolactin
3) Follicle
4) luteinizing
139. Which of the following immune
cells/molecules are most effective at
destroying intracellular pathogens?
a. T helper cells
b. T cytolytic cells
c. Antibodies
d. B cells
146. The sharp pain radiating to the back
after errors in diet typical for:
1) biliary dyskinesia
2) cholecystitis
3) ulcer disease
4) pancreatitis
140. A living microbe with reduced
virulence that is used for vaccination is
considered:
a. A toxoid
b. Dormant
c. Virulent
d. Attenuated
147. LIQUID, watery feces are observed
when:
1) lesions of the stomach and duodenum 12
2) small bowel lesions
3) spastic constipation
4) atonic constipation
148. The existence of mucus and blood in
the feces SHOWS:
1) lesions of the stomach and duodenum 12
2) small bowel lesions
3) lesion of the proximal large intestine
4) lesion of the distal colon sections
149. The attacks of pain in the right
upper quadrant REVEAL:
1) biliary dyskinesia on hypokinetic type
2) biliary dyskinesia on hyperkinetic
3) acute gastritis
4) acute pancreatitis
150. Drawing pain in the right upper
quadrant REVEAL:
1) biliary dyskinesia on hypokinetic type
2) biliary dyskinesia on hyperkinetic
3) acute gastritis
4) acute pancreatitis
151. The pain in the right upper quadrant
concurrent with symptoms of intoxication
is most characteristic of:
1) biliary dyskinesia
2) acute cholecystitis
3) acute gastritis
4) acute pancreatitis
152. The increase in the level of
cholesterol and bilirubin in portions with
Duodenal intubation is typical for:
1) duodenitis
2) pancreatitis
3) biliary dyskinesia on hypokinetic type
4), biliary dyskinesia on hyperkinetic
153. FOR biliary dyskinesia on
hyperkinetic type DURING
ULTRASOUND holetsistografii
CHARACTERISTIC contraction of the
gallbladder:
1) more than 1/5 of the original level
2) more than 1/3 of the original level
3) More than half of the initial level
4) more than 2/3 of the original level
155. The PH antrum is NORMAL:
1) is 1.5-2 times higher than in the stomach
2) 1.5-2 times lower than in the stomach
3) is 5-6 times higher than in the stomach
4) 5-6 times lower than in the stomach
156. FOR biliary dyskinesia of
hypertensive type according to duodenal
intubation:
1) to reduce the time from the introduction
of the stimulus until holedohovoy bile
2) to reduce the time from the opening of the
sphincter of Oddi until the gallbladder bile
3) continuous outflow of gallbladder bile
4) a small amount of the gallbladder bile
157. INCREASE IN ALL ELEMENTS IN
coprogram EVIDENCES OF INJURY:
1) stomach
2) small intestine
3) The colon
4) pancreas
158. The development of the disease
known as "kwashiorkor" is connected
with:
1) lack of quantitative protein
2) lack of quantitative fat
3) lack of high-quality protein
4) lack of high-quality fat
159. Painfulness urination are
characteristic of the disease:
1) glomerular
2) tubules
3) upper urinary tract
4) of the lower urinary tract