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Exam questions. 7-semester, 4-year.
1. How does bacteria affect the body:
a) Impairs motor skills
b) Impairs vision and hearing
c) Absorbs toxins
d) Release of toxins
2. Which infectious agent needs an intermediate host for development?
a) Protozoa
b) Bacteria
c) Prion
d) Virus
3. An organism that harbours or nourishes another organism
a) Pathogen
b) Host
c) Infection
d) Reservoir
4. Treatment designed to facilitate the process of recovery from injury, illness or disease to as
normal condition as possible:
a) General
b) Symptomatic
c) Rehabilitation
5. Choose the right definition of “Infectious Diseases”:
a) Pathology of body parts or tissues characterized by an identifiable group of signs and
symptoms
b) Pathology of body parts or tissues caused by an agent that can be passed on to others
c) Occurs when an infectious agent enters the body and begins to reproduce; may or may not
lead to disease
d) An organism infected by another organism
6. Opportunistic infection it is:
a) Severity and harmfulness of disease
b) Process of infecting or state of being infected
c) Infection that occur in people with weakened immune system
d) Infection that occur only among patients with HIV
7. Infectious agent that caused disease and may passed to others is:
a) Pathogen
b) Disease
c) Infection d) Virulence
8. Organism that is infected by pathogen is:
a) Host
b) Carrier
c) Reservoir
d) Vector
9. Pathological condition of body parts or tissues characterized by identifiable group of signs
and symptoms is:
a) Infection
b) Infectious disease
c) Disease
d) Syndrom
10. When an infectious agent enters the body and begins to reproduce and may lead to disease is:
a) Infectious disease
b) Disease
c) Virulence
d) Infection
11. Degree of pathogenicity of the infectious agent is: a) Virulence a) b) Pathogenicity b) c)
Toxicity c) d) Infection
12. Ability of microorganism to cause disease is:
a) Infection
b) Infectious agent
c) Virulence
d) Pathogenicity
13. Time between of the 1st symptoms of infection and the specific signs is:
a) Incubation period
b) Prodromal period
c) The period of the height of symptoms d) Recovery phase
14. Symptoms are disappear, tissues are healing and body is gaining strength
a) Prodromal period
b) Incubation period
c) The period of the height of symptoms
d) Recovery period
15. Development of acute systemic illness due to the virulent microorganism invasion to the
blood stream from foci:
a) Septicemia
b) Bacteremia c) Sepsis
d) Viremia
16. Increasing resistance of immune system due to injection of killed or live microbe:
a)Immunization
b)Vaccination
c)Immune sera
d)Globulins
17. An 18 years old freshman complained of a cough, runny nose, and conjunctivitis. The
physician in the campus health center noticed small white lesions inside the patient's mouth.
The next day, a confluent red rash covered his face and neck. What can be the diagnosis of
this patient:
Measles
18. A previously healthy 14-year-old female presents to the emergency department with three
days of progressive facial and neck swelling. The swelling started on the left side. Two days
ago she visited her primary care physician where she had negative monospot and mumps
IgM testing. She is fully vaccinated, but was exposed to a mumps outbreak at school.
Which is the most sensitive diagnostic test for confirmation of mumps:
RT-PCR from a buccal swab specimen
19. The patient was a 52-week-old male who was transferred to our institution with a 10-day
history of choking spells. The child's spells began with repetitive coughing and progressed to
his turning red and gasping for breath. In the prior 2 days, he also had three episodes of
vomiting in association with his choking spells. His physical examination was significant for
a pulse of 160 beats per min and respiratory rate of 72/min (both highly elevated). The child's
chest radiograph was 15,500/Fl with 7-% lymphocytes. What was the organism infecting this
child?
Bordetella pertussis
20. Ana is a 4-year-old female. Previously healthy girl presents with a 1 week history of cough,
runny nose, fever, sore throat and red eyes. She went to her pediatrician 2 days ago and was
prescribed Augmentin (amoxicillin and clavulanate) for presumed pharyngitis."Yesterday,
Ana developed a red rash which started on her face and has spread to her trunk. • Inspection
of Ana's mouth reveals, bluish-white dots on the mucosal surface. These are called Koplik
spots.what is the most likely diagnosis:
Measles
21. Kylie Hinkle is 24-year-old woman who presents to your dermatology clinic with a red rash.
She has been feeling unwell for the last 6 days with fever, myalgias, cough and sore throat.
She also reports some tender lymph nodes on her neck. She has taken ibuprofen for the
myalgias and fever, which has helped.A rash started on her face yesterday and is now
spreading to her neck and trunk. Upon further questioning you discover that Ms. Hinkle has
never received the MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) vaccine.Based on the history and skin
exam, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Rubella
22. A 4 year old girl was brought in onambulance with a high fever and rashes spreading from
face throughout the entire body. The throat showed the symptoms of soreness and pain.
Respiratory rate 26/min, Heart rate 96/min Reddened cheeks, Small, spotted blot like, red
rashes on the face, neck, trunk and extremities,Rashes were itchy,Crimson lips, Circumorial
pallor, Reddened tongue and tonsils,Coating on the tongue which disappeared after a day of
treatment. What is the most likely diagnosis:
Scarlet fever
23. Caleb is a 9-month-old boy who presents for evaluation of fever and rash. His mother noted a
fever of 40°C two days ago. He appeared well and was eating and playing normally, so his
mother was not alarmed. After the fever resolved, Caleb developed a red rash that progressed
rapidly over the past 24 hours. Based on Caleb's history and exam, what is the most likely
diagnosis?
Roseola
24. A 9 year od girl is brought to the clinic because she is suffering from a headache, fever,
chills, and a rash. The rash covers her neck, chest, and under her armpits. The parents explain
that the rash appeared today, and that for the past two days the patient had been complaining of a
sore throat. The child has no allergies, her immunizations are all up to date, and she has no other
past medical history. Her blood pressure is 115/70 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, respirations are
22/min, and temperature is 101.2°F. A physicalexam reveals a generalized erythematous rash
that has asandpaper-like texture, and it will also blanch when pressure is applied. The patient
also hassubmandibular lymphadenopathy, and the throat is covered in grey-white exudates. What
is the likely diagnosis? SCARLET FEVER
25. A mother comes to your clinic with her child who is 1 year old. The child had complains of
interstitial pneumonitis that has been associated with perinatal acquired CMV infection. The
child has poor weight gain, adenopathy, rash, atypical lymphocytosis. What is the most sensitive
diagnostic method for this case: THE MOST SENSITIVE WAY TO DETECT CMV IN
BLOOD OR OTHER FLUID MAY BE BY AMPLIFYING CMV DNA BY
POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION (PCR)
26. A patient 13 years of age comes with complain of malaise, cough, coryza, conjunctivitis with
lacrimation. After few days he developed rashes. Just before the onset of rash blue white spots
of 1-2 mm developed on buccal mucosa. The spots disappear after the onset of rash. What is the
diagnosis of this case MEASELS
27.A 60 years old lady comes to you with complains of fever, rashes, irritability and neck
stiffness. On laboratory findings you find that the lady had meningitis. What can be the causative
agent for this case: NESSERIA MENINGITIS
28. A patient 22 years old male comes to you with enlarged cervical lymph nodes, anorexia and
malaise. Later he develops fever. What is the most common complication that he could develop:
29. A patient comes to you and complains that he has difficulty in swallowing for past 4 days.
And he also has fever and enlarged salivary gland. On diagnosis you found that the patient is
suffering from mumps. What could be the prophylaxis for this case : ans- MMR VACCINE
30. A 12 year old cones to you who has been previously diagnosed for measles. Which of the
below mentioned are not complications of measles:
31. A child presenting with paroxysmal cough, posttussivevomiting, and whoop is likely to have
an infection caused by B. pertussis or B. parapertussis; lymphocytosis increases the likelihood of
a B. pertussis etiology. Viruses such as respiratory syncytial virus and adenovirus have been
isolated from patients with clinical pertussis but probably represent co infection. What are the
drugs that could mimic the etiology of pertussis ans- angiotensin converting (ace) inhibitor
32. A person cones to you with complaints of episodic fever, rash and arthralgia that usually lasts
for weeks to months. The rash is maculopapular and is occasionally petechial. You suspect of
meningococcal infection. What is the definitive diagnosis you will go for:
33. A 4 year old child presents with fever, runningnose,conjunctivitis, Cervical adenopathy,
coryza, Gray Lesion with surrounding erythema on the buccal mucosa, A generalised blanching
erythematous rash is also noted on day of fever, when rash appear fever rises, which of the
following is most likely diagnosis:
34. A person cones to you with symptoms of meningococcal disease with Thayer-Martin stain.
What treatment you will advise for the patient:
35. A 6 years old boy present with fever,rashes,which is maculopapular cough and having
conjunctivitis also with koplik spot ,what will be the dignosis?
Measles
36. A 7 years old boy having the symptoms fever,cough,maculopapular rashes conjunctivitis
having koplik spots whe will be the post exposure vaccine should be given to the patient?
37. Measels virus are transmitted through airborn droplets and is one of the leading cause of
respiratory infections mostly seen in children of developing countries . Which of the following
statements is NOT corrects about the epidemiology features of measels?
38. A red itchy rash is well known characterestics of rubella virus ,which of the following
describe the progression of rash?
39.What laboratory test is used to assist the diagnosis of a current rubella infections?
40. A 7 year old boy present with fever,sore throat,enlarged lymphnodes in the neck and
tiredness.which virus infects this boy?
Mononucleosis
41. A 9 years old girl is brought to the clinic she has headache ,fever,chill,rashes in neck ,chest
and armpit past 2 days she is having sore throat her bp is 115/70 mm of hg RR 22/min physical
examination reveals generalised erythromatous rash that has a sandpaper like texture . What is
the likely diagnosis?
scarlet fever
42. Most common complication of pertusis?
Bronchopneumonia
43. A neonate present with mild cough, apnea,runny nose,low grade fever,later on after 1,2
weeks disease progress to fits,vomiting,exhaustation,what will be the diagnosis?
Whooping cough (Pertussis)
44.A child is present with fever chill fatugue cynosis sore throat hoarseness headache difficulty
in breathing swollen bull neck and having croup. what is the likely diagnosis?
Diphtheria
45. Classical symptoms of meningitis usuallu include/
fever, headache, and a stiff neck
46. Babies who develop meningitis may show different signs and symptoms of infection then
adults these symptoms are:

fever

jaundice

body or neck stiffness

high-pitched crying

inconsolable behaviors

sleepy and difficulty waking

irritable and grumpy

doesn’t feel well and has a weak suck during breastfeeding
47. Deficits in rhe complement membrane attack complex C5-8 are associated with infection of
what variety?
48. The following is correct for Rubella :
49. An 8-year-old boy was admitted to a hospital with torrential rice water diarrhea. He was from
a rural area where there had been a recent outbreak of cholera associated with contaminated
drinking water supply. What is the mechanism of action of the cholera toxin?
A. ADP ribosylation of Elongation Factor 2
B. ADP ribosylation of inhibitory G proteins
C. ADP ribosylation of stimulatory G proteins
D. Formation of cation-selective pores in cell membranes
E. Zinc-dependent hydrolysis of phosphatidylcholine
50. Specific complications of typhoid fever:
Intestinal bleeding or holes in the intestine
51.The most reliable method of laboratory diagnosis of
typhoid fever in the first week of the disease is:
52.Ingestion of Vibrio cholerae latest: The response options:
53.The treatment of patients with severe cholera is based on: ORAL OR INTRAVENOUS
HYDRATION
54. A woman D., 41 years, complains on diarrhea, headache, severe weakness, insomnia, dull
pain in a right iliac area. It is a 8th day of illness. At a review: Т-39,8 °C, Рs – 86/min., AP –
90/60 mm Hg. It is dictoric pulse. Skin is pale. Single roseollas are on the abdomen. Tongue is
dry, assessed by the coverings, with the imprints of teeth on a lateral surface. Soft, dulling of
percutory sound is determined in a illeocaecal area of abdomen. Hepatosplenomegaly, positive
Blumberg’s symptom, neutrophilic leukocytosis. What diagnosis is most reliable? TYPHOID
FEVER
55. A persons 28 y.o., became ill sharply, when a chill, feeling of heat, increase body temperature
to 38,5 °C, spastic pain in a left hypogastria area, frequent liquid stool. The excrements have the
appearance of bloody-mucous mass (lumps of mucus with the blood). At palpation: abdomen is
painful in its left half, a spastic sigmoid colon. What is the previous diagnosis? SHIGELLOSIS
56. Mother with a child hospitalized with the diagnosis of shigellosis, typical form, moderate
severity. Other family members are healthy. What measures are conducted to contact persons?
SUPERVISION 7 Days. Non permanent bacteriological investigation of feces on a dysenteric
group
57. Nosocomial salmonellosis is caused by? Salmonella Typhi
58. The clinical forms of salmonellosis does not apply:
59.The nature of the stool in salmonellosis: Diarrhoea is often watery and non bloody but my
be mucoid and blooy
60. Generalized forms of salmonellosis are more common:
61. In case of chronic Salmonella bacterial carrier, the following options are prescribed:
62. The most characteristic of defecation in acute dysentery: The large volume of liquid feces
ejected, and the presence of blood mucus or pus depends
63. In acute dysentery the pain is most often localized in the: abdomen
64. Acute colitis syndrome is characterized by: inflammation of the inner lining of the colon
65. After the bacteria is ingested, enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC) attaches to the mucosal cells
of the small intestine which results in malabsorption and diarrhea. Symptoms include watery
diarrhea, vomiting, non-bloody stools which lasts for a short duration mostly 1-3 days. What are
the two important factors of pathogenesis?
a) The chromosomal locus of enterocyte effacement (LEE)
b) The bundle-forming pilus encoded by a plasmid adherence factor (EAF)
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
66. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC) are nonmotile, non-lactose, or late lactose fermenters which
are predominantly found in developing countries infecting children and travelers. Which of the
following infection is similar to EIEC infection? Shigellosis
SALMONELLOSIS (NON-TYPHOID)
67. The antigenic structure of Salmonella is represented by:
represented by:
a) O-,H-,K -antigens;
b) only O-antigen;
c) only H-antigen;
d) only k-antigen;
e) only Vi -antigen.
68. The generalized forms of Salmonellosis (non-typhoid) include:
a) Meningitides
b) Dehydration
c) Typhoid, septicopyemia
d) Encephalitis
69. Treatment of mild or moderate cases of Salmonellosis includes the following:
a) Gastric lavage
b) Rehydration
c) Glucoso-saline solution d) Antibiotic
e) Sorbent
70. In which cases of Salmonellosis the patients do NOT need to receive antimicrobial
therapy?
a)Infants
b) Elderly person
C)With gastroenteritis signs
D)Immunocompromised
71. To treat Salmonellosis select the first line antibiotic
a) Ciproflaxacin
b) Penicillin
c) Amoxicillin
d) Gentamycin
72. Which of the laboratory tests can confirm the diagnosis of Salmonellosis?
a) Microscopy
b) Serological test
c) Culture of Stool
d) Allergic test
73. A man of 24 years old after eating dried pickle in few hours he had nausea, vomiting,
severe abdominal pain with diarrhea and sub febrile temperature. By physical
examination were noticed the pain around the umbilical. In blood were noticed increase
neutrophil count and ESR. The stool had greenish color. Primary diagnosis?
a) Salmonellosis
b) Typhoid fever
c) Shigella
d) E.coli
74. The 18 students were admitted to the infectious hospital during 1 day. All patients had
similar symptoms: nausea, vomiting, pain in stomach with frequent watery diarrhea. 10
patients had low BP and convulsions of the legs. All patients had curds and sour cream in
café for breakfast.
a) Cholera
b) Shigellosis
c) Salmonellosis
d) Botulism
75. Which complications do occur in Salmonellosis?
a) Respiratory failure
b) Reactive arthritis
c) Meningitis
d) Hepatitis
76. Duration of the incubation period in Salmonellosis is:
a) 5-10 days
b) 1-2 months.
c) 6-72 hours.
d) 1-2 days
TYPHOID FEVER
77. This infectious disease is contracted when people eat or drink water that is contaminated
by the feces or urine of an infected person. There is a sudden onset of fever, a severe
headache, nausea, anorexia, and a slow heart rate. It may also be accompanied by a
hoarse cough and constipation or diarrhea. What is it?
a) Food poisoning
b) Salmonellosis
c) Pseudotuberculosis
d) Dysentery
e) Typhoid fever
78. The reason for the formation of bacteria carrier in typhoid fever is:
a)Virulence of the pathogen
b)Relapses of the disease
c)Reduced immunity response
d)Reduction of the duration of antibiotic therapy
e)Weak reparation processes in the intestine
79. The rash in typhoid is characterized by:
a) Petechial, general on the upper and lower extremities
b) Vesiculare, diffuse on the face
c) Small red spots, unit on the abdomen and chest
d) Large-sized all over the body
80. When in typhoid fever the rash does occur?
a) between the first and second week of illness
b) between the second and fourth week of illness
c) in incubation period
d) between the fourth and fifth week of illness
81. A patient during a week had risen gradually temperature, appeared headache, general
weakness, appetite decreased. He appealed to the doctor on the 8th day of disease.
Physical examination: temperature 39,5°С, he gave short answers to the questions, skin
pale, coated tongue and fuliginosus, BP is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse rates 74 in min.
Meteorism, there are few rose spots on the skin of abdomen. Hepatosplenomegaly.
Constipation. What is it?
a) Typhoid fever
b) Salmonellosis
c) E.coli
d) Malaria
82. The patient of 32 years appealed to the district internist on the 5th day of disease with
complaints for severe headache, general weakness, absence of appetite, sleeplessness,
temperature increase to 39,0°С in the day of appeal for medical help. Physical
examination: pale of skin. A tongue is coated by a greyish-white raid, imprints of teeth on
sides. Pulse rate 78 min, PB 110/60 mm of Hg. Meteorism, painless. Liver enlarge on a
1,5-2 cm. Tenderness of muscles in the ileocecal area on palpation. Constipation during 2
days. Which tests of laboratory diagnostics do you use for the confirm Typhoid fever on
this day?
a) Widal test
b) Blood culture
c) Stool culture
d) Bile culture
e) Urine culture
83. A patient 36 years had disease during 3 weeks: gradual increase of temperature, from the
2th week of disease temperature purchased undulating character, decline of activity,
headache and insomnia. He treated at home him-self from "Cold", but treatment was
ineffective, and he was directed to the hospital. Physical examination: skin pale,
adynamic, temperature 400С, fuliginous tongue, meteorism, tenderness of muscles in the
ileocecal area on palpation. Liver enlarge on 2-3 cm. Spleen was palpated. In 2 days
dizziness, sonitus, melena appeared after hospitalization. BP 70/40 mm Hg, pulse rate
120 in min, temperature sudden was decreased to norm. Which complication of Typhoid
fever developed?
a) Spleen rupture
b) Intestinal bleeding
c) Infectious-toxic shock
d) Perforation of the intestinal wall e) Recurrence of disease
SHYGELLOSIS
84. Causative pathogen of Shigellosis belongs to a family:
a) spirochaetacae
b)campylobacteriacae
c)Neisseriacear
D)Enterobacteriaceae
E)vibrionacae
85. Shigella is transmitted through the following factors:
a) foods, articles of life
b)Poor hygiene
C)Unwashed fruit
d)All mentioned
e)Milk products
86. Duration of Incubation period of acute dysentery is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2 weeks
from 1 to 7 days
all answers are correct
2-3 hours
6-24 hours, continuation is possible to 10 days
87. In which part of gastrointestinal tract is localized the lesions of dysentery:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Stomach
Small intestine
Proximal parts of large intestine
Distal parts of small intestine
88. The first line antibiotics for the therapy of shigellosis include?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Penicillini
Gentamicin
Tetracyclini
Chloromphenical
Ciprofloxacin
89. The most characteristic symptoms of colitis in acute dysentery
a)
b)
c)
d)
Nausea, multiple vomiting
Abdominal pain, watery diarrhea
Tenesmus, stool with a trace of blood
Dehydration
90. What laboratory method is used to confirm the diagnosis of "Dysentery"?
a) Microscopy
b) Culture of stool
c) Serology
d) Allergic test
91. Possible complications from Shigella infections include:
a)Post-infectious arthritis
b) Blood stream infections
c) Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
d)Post-infectious meningitis
e) Relapse
92. Which of the following statement is true about shigellosis?
a) Hemolytic-uremic syndrome is a complication
b) Greenish watery diarrhea
c) Neutrophiles are decreased
d) ALT and AST increesed
93. Exclude from the following symptoms not suitable for the “Acute dysentery”:
a) Acute onset, fever
b) Tenesmus
c) Spasm and painfuiness of the sigmoid colon on palpation
d) Respiratory-catarrhal syndrome.
e) Stool as "rectal spitting"
94. Choose symptoms of asymptomatic form of acute dysentery:
a) Acute onset with chills and fever.
b) Abdominal pain without clear localization.
c) The stool is porous without pathological
impurities
d) Sigmoid colon is densified and sensitive to palpation.
e) Detection of Shigella in feces
95. Choose a symptom that does not refer to the signs of severe Shigellosis:
a) Severe intoxication and fever (more than 38 "C).
b) Frequent, thin stool with pathological impurities.
c) Severe dehydration (loss of fluid more than 7- 9%).
d) Disorder of hemodynamics, tachycardia and decreased blood pressure
e) Neurotoxicosis, headache, delirium, convulsions
BOTULISM
96. What toxins are distinguished by the Clostridium botulinum?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Endotoxin
Exotoxin
Anatoxin;
Is not distinguished;
Exotoxin + endotoxin.
97. Factors of transmission at botulism:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Home canning products
Poor quality vegetables
Unwashed fruit
All mentioned
Dairy products
98. Toxin of Clostridium botulinum has selectively affects on:
a) Sensory neurons
b) motor neurons
c) Intercalated neurons
d) Nerve fiber
e) Central nervous system
99. All of the follow eye symptoms are appear at botulism:
a) Ptosis
b) Mydriasis, nystagmus
c) Low reaction of pupils to light, disruption of convergence and accommodation
d)Increase of the corneal reflex
e)The movement of eyeballs are restrict
100.
For the treatment of botulism should be administered as soon as possible:
a) Antibiotic
b) Globulin
c)Antitoxin
d)Vaccine
e)Rehydration
101.
The patient Н. 22 years was delivered to the hospital by an ambulance. His
condition was severe, adynamic, drooping eyelids. Skin pale with a cyanotic tint, tonus of
skeletal muscles was decreased, sounds hearts were muffled, extrasystolie, pulse rate 130
in min, rate of breath 28 in min, breathing superficial. The day before he eat the canned
cucumbers in food. Other family members have clinic of the food poisoning, disorders of
sight. What it is?
a) Salmonellosis
b) Dysentery
c) Botulism
d) Meningitis
e) Encephalitis
102.
The patient К. 38 years, was admitted to the hospital with complaints on
headache, dizziness, general weakness, double vision. Later joined difficulty swallowing,
dryness in mouth. On the eve patient eat the canned fungi in food. By physical
examination were found: mydriasis, anisocoria, hoarse voice, slurred speech, dyspnoea
and cyanosis. During breathing, the intercostals muscles were retracted. What emergency
treatment is required for the patient?
a) Detoxification
b) Artificial ventilation
c) Antibiotics
d) Spinal puncture e) Blood transfusion
ESCHERICHIA COLI INFECTION
103.
E. coli and other species of bacteria found in human intestines help him body do
what?
a)Break down fats
b)Make vitamin K and B-complex vitamins
c) Absorb oxygen
d) Move waste material through the intestines
104.
E.coli and other intestinal bacteria have what kind of relationship with human?
a) Parasitic
d) Paratyphoid fever B
b) Symbiotic
c) Nosotropic d) Synergistic
105.
Which infectious agent often associated with chronic pyelonephritis?
a) Proteus vulgaris
b) Klebsiella pneumonia
c)Escherichia coli
d) Staphylococcus aureus
106.
Choose the correct statement about Enterotoxigenic E.coli
a) Is a common cause of traveler’s diarrhoea and hemolytic-uremic syndrome
b) Do cause the disease like Shigellosis
c) Pathogen spreads from animals
d) Often cause urinary tract infection
e) For development disease requires production of both toxins and pilin adhesions.
107.
A woman had eaten the piece of cake, which stood on a table during few hours.
The common condition became worse in 4 hours. Spastic stomach pain, nausea with a
single vomiting appeared. Skin is pale, tongue was white covered. Temperature of body
did not rise, diarrhea has not been observed.
a) Typhoid fever
b) Salmonella infection
c) Food poisoning
d) Paratyphoid fever B
108.
Patient A.30 years old came to the hospital due to acute illness. His complaints
were for chills, fever to 38.5°C, nausea, vomiting, stinking stool 7 times, without any
impurities, pain in epigastrium and in the large intestine. For 10 hours before the illness
he had eaten the duck meat, which was stay in 12 hours at room temperature.
a) Typhoid fever
b) Salmonella infection
c) Botulism
d) Cholera
CHOLERA
109.
Causative pathogen of Cholera belongs to a family:
a)Spirochaetaceae
b) Campylobacteraceae
c) Clostridiaceae
d) Vibrionaceae
e) Enterobacteriaceae
110.
This is an acute intestinal infection caused by a bacterium. Its incubation period is
typically 1-5 days. Symptoms include an excessive, painless watery diarrhea and usually
vomiting. There may also be leg cramps. Severe dehydration and death can occur if not
treated promptly. What is it?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Food poisoning
Shigellosis
Cholera
Salmonella infection
Typhoid fever
111.
A female, 22 years old, was hospitalized because violent diarrhea and profuse
vomiting, no fever, no abdominal pain, the diarrhea is more than 10 times with a large
amount of watery stool. The diagnosis may be:
a) Bacillary dysentery b) Poisoning of food c) Acute gastroenteritis d) Cholera
112.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
113.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Cholera vaccines provide immunity:
Life-long
Short-term
Medium
Don't provide
114.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Treatment may be sufficient to treat a person with mild degree of cholera:
Salt solutions intravenous
Treatment with sorbents
Oral rehydration solution
5 % solution of glucose intravenous
Fresh-frozen plasma intravenous
People at risk of developing cholera include:
People with low immunity
People with blood group A
Young adults
students
115.
Duration of the Incubation period at cholera:
a) 2 weeks
b) 1 month
c) 2-3 hours - 5 days;
d) 6-24 hours, continuation is possible to 10 days.
116.
What research is basic for diagnostics of Cholera:
a)
b)
c)
d)
analysis for the exposure of toxin
for the exposure of toxin
for the exposure of vibrio
culture
Blood
Urine
Foods
Stool
117.
a)
b)
c)
d)
What does severity of cholera depends on?
Degree of dehydration
Dose of toxin
Condition of the nervous system
All mentioned
118.
Sick P., 25 years old, presents with frequent vomitting. Objectively: dryness of
skin and mucous membranes, brief cramps in gastrocnemius muscles, the temperature of
body is normal, voice is hoarsed, moderate tachycardia and hypotension. The
compensated metabolic acidosis is marked. About what degree of dehydration is it
possible to think?
a) IV
b) II
c) III
d) I
e) There is no dehydration
AMEBIASIS
119.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Amebiasis belongs to following group infection:
Bacterial diarrheal disease
Viral diarrheal disease
Food poisoning
Nonspecific ulcerative colitis
Protozoan infection
120.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
121.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Source of infection at Amebiasis:
Food
Sick man, cystocarrier;
Water;
Greeze animals
Canned foods
Duration of the Incubation period of Amebiasis:
from 1-2 weeks to 3 months
from 1 to 7 days
2-3 hours
6-24 hours, continuation is possible to 10 days
122.
Amebiasis infection is caused by the microorganism Entamoeba histolytica, an
amoeboid-protist. Upon ingestion, E.histolytica multiplies in what part of the body?
a) Lungs
b) Heart
c) Gastrointestinal tract
d) Liver
123.
Amebiasis, or Amebic Dysentery, is caused by exposure to which of the
following?
a) Feces infected by E. histolytica
b) Radiation
c) H. pylori
d) Chemical toxins
124.
Student, 22 years old fell ill within a month after return from Ethiopia.Dull
stomach-ache appeared and liquid emptying. Emptying is abundant up to 10 times a day,
as “raspberry jelly” excrement, stomach-ache that increase during defecation. In times of
illness lost 6 kg of body weight. Your diagnosis will be?
a) Intestinal amoebiosis
b) Shigellosis
c) Salmonellosis
d) Tumor of intestine e) Intestinal echeriosis
125.
A 24 years old engineer from Bishkek, has spent one month in India where he
drunk unboiled water. After arriving home he has become ill. He appeared to the doctor
with complaints of fever, weakness, pain in stomach, diarrhea - 12-15 times a day with
mucous and blood (like raspberry jelly stool). Physical examination: the state is relatively
satisfactory, appetite became worse, tongue is coated with white patches. On deep
palpation of abdomen patient complaints of pain especially in his right half and
hypochodrium area. Liver and spleen are not changed. No change was found in blood
analysis. On rectoscopy clear mucous and hyperemia of mucous membrane in rectum
with ulceration in sigmoid colon were found. The stool test gave the growth of
pathogenic flora. What most probable pathology which predetermines such picture?
a) Strongyloidosis
b) Amebiasis
c) Ulcerative colitis
d) Balantidiasis
e) Food poisoning
VIRAL INFECTIONS OF THE RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
126.
Human RSV virus belongs to which of the following genera of family paramoxyo
viridae:
a) Respirovirus
b) Rubulavirus
c) Pneumo
d) Metapneumo
127.
Envelope of which virus lack both haemagglutinin and neuraminidase but contain
s a fusion protein:
a) Measles
b) Mumps virus
c) RSV
d) Newcastle disease virus
128.
Following are Arboviral disease:
a) KFD
b) West Nile fever
c) RSV
d) None one of the listed
129.
Medication for treatment of RSV:
a) Penicillin
b) Amoxicillin
c) Ribavirin
d) Acyclovir
130.
A patient 14 years old, hospitalized in the infectious department in severe
condition with considerable headache mainly in frontal and temporal area, pain in
eyeballs, in muscles and joints. Objectively: patient is excited, temperature of the body is
39оC. Bradycardia changed by tachycardia. Muscles tonic and clonic cramps. Positive
meningeal signs. It is found in epidemic anamnesis, his brother is also sick. What is your
diagnosis?
a) Flu with pneumonia and edema of brain
b) Flu, typical course
c) Parainfluenza, false croupe
d) Respiratory-sencytial infection
e) Adenoviral infection, pneumonia
131.
A patient A., 30 years old, on the 4th day of illness a district doctor marked such
subjective and objective data: insignificant indisposition, mild headache, hoarseness of
voice, itching in throat, breakingdry cough, temperature of the body 37,4°C. Pulse
86/min., difficult nasal breathing, insignificant serous excretions from nose. Which acute
respiratory infection does the patient carry?
a) Influenza
b) PC-viral infection
c) Parainfluenza
d) Adenoviral infection
e) Enteroviral infection
132.
In which of the following viruses, there are segmentation of genome:
a) Influenza
b) Parainfluenza
c) Mumps d) Measles
133.
H5N1Influenza virus may be best describes as a:
a) Bird flu virus
b) Vaccine for HIV
c) Agent for Japanese encephalitis d) New strain of plasmodium
134.
In which orthomyxoviruses annual vaccination is necessary because of antigenic
drift and shift:
a) Measles
b) RSV
c) Influenza
d) Parainfluenza
135.
Influenza pandemic is due to:
a) Antigenic drift
b) Antigenic shift
c) Different strains
d) H1N1serotypes
136.
Influenza A virus contains the following antigens:
a) Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
b) Neuraminidase and hemolysin
c) Properdin and hemagglutinin
d) Hemolysin and precipitin
137.
A patient H., 22 years old, with flu was hospitalized into infectious department
with the acute worsening of the common state. Consiousness is stored. The patient
strangles. Pallor of skin with cynosis. Respiratory rate 50 per min, BP 80/55 mmHg,
pulse 110 per a min, temperature 39.8оC. During percussion of lungs tympanic sound
with dullness in lower quadrant was found. Crackles in the lower-back parts of lungs.
What complication of influenza has developed in that patient?
a) Pneumonia
b) Edema of lungs
c) Edema of brain
d) Infectious-toxic shock e) Meningoencephalitis
138.
A sick woman, 42 years old, complaints about temperature 39.3°C, headache in
the frontal area, pain in the eyeballs, photophobia, pain in muscles, dry cough. Became ill
suddenly one day before. Objectively: state is severe. Hyperemia of the face, eyes shinny,
injection of scleras. Pulse 96/min., rhythmic. Tones of heart are hypotonic. Both lungs
are dissipated. Dry wheezes. Mucosa of epiglottis is hyperemic, grainy, vessels are
extended. Meningeal symptoms are not present. Analysis of blood: leuk – 3x109/l, еos –
1%, band – 6%, seg – 51%, lymp – 35%, mono – 7%. What is the most possible
diagnosis?
a) Flu
b) Measles
c) Meningococcal infection d) Pneumonia
e) Epidemic typhus
139.
Patient B., 20 years old, complains about severe headache in temples and orbits,
dull ache in the trunk, dry cough. Temperature of the body 39.6°C. Inflammatory changes
of mucous membrane of oropharynx. Normal breathing in the lungs. What is the most
credible diagnosis?
a) Pneumonia
b) Parainfluenza
c) Respiratory micoplasma
d) Flu
e) Meningococcal infection
140.
Which one of the following virus cause hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and
conjunctivitis:
a) Adenovirus
b) Rotavirus
c) RSV
d) Rhinovirus
141.
Which virus cause hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea, conjunctivitis:
a) Rotavirus
b) Herpes virus
c) Adenovirus
d) HIV
142.
Which of the following regarding about adenovirus is false?
a) Viral nucleic acid is DNA
b) Non enveloped
c) Infects only dividing cell
d) Causes conjunctivitis
143.
Patient L., 18 years old is sick with fever till 38 °C which proceeds 5 days. He has
moderate dry cough, common cold, badly opens eyes. On examination: edema on face,
expressed conjunctivitis with film raids. Mucous of pharynx is hyperemic, posterior wall
of pharynx is grainy. Internal organs are without pathology. What form of disease does
the described picture correspond to?
a) Viral conjunctivitis
b) Allergic dermatitis
c) Adenoviral infection
d) Influenza
e) Rhinoviral infection
144.
Patient P., 14 years old, is hospitalized in the infectious department in the severe
condition. Complains on expressed headache, mainly in frontal and temporal regions,
supercilliary arcs, origin of vomiting appear in condition of severe pain, pains by moving
the eyeballs, in muscles and joints. Objectively: patient is excited, body temperature –
39ºC, BP-100/60 mmHg. Bradycardia was replaced by tachycardia. Appeared tonic
cramps. Doubtful meningeal signs. From anamnesis it is clear that his brother has flu at
home. What will be your diagnosis?
a) Influenza, typical flow
b) Influenza with the phenomena of edema of brain
c) Respiratory-syncytial infection
d) Parainfluenza
e) Adenoviral infection
145.
A 23 years old person, became ill sharply: fever 38.2 °C, moderate diffuse
pharyngalgia at swallowing, pain and itching in the right eye. Objectively: tonsillitis,
pharyngitis, conjunctivitis. What is previous diagnosis?
a) Adenoviral infection
b) Enteroviral infection
c) Parainfluenza
d) Flu
e) Acute respiratory infection
146.
A patient 17 years, were a lot of cases of acute respiratory infection have
happened, appealed to a doctor in clinic at 3rd day of disease with complaints of chills,
general weakness, a moderate sore throat, running nose, swelling of face, watering from
eyes Objective examination: minor palatal hyperemia brackets and tonsillitis, on a
background of moderate edema of tissues. Conjunctivitis. During palpation not painful
enlarged inframaxillary lymph nodes, and enlarged neck lymph nodes were found.
Crepitation can’t be find. Liver and spleen moderately increased. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
a) Diphtheria
b) Adenoviral infection
c) Meningococcal nasopharyngitis
d) Influenza
e) Infectious mononucleosis
147.
Which of the following antiviral effective at Rhinovirus infections intranasally:
a) Pleconaril
b) Interferon - alpha
c) Desloratadine
d) Ioratadine
148.
Primary infection of Rhinovirus occurs in:
a) Conjunctiva
b) Nasopharynx
c) Nasal mucosa
d) Mouth
149.
Where did the drug binds in VP1 for stabilizing protein capsid:
a) Amphipathic compound
b) Hydrophilic pocket
c) Hydrophobic pocket d) Lipophilic
150.
Severe lower respiratory tract illness is seen in Rhinovirus as:
a) Bronchiolitis, pneumonia
b) Pneumonia, TB
c) Bronchiolitis, back pain d) Asthma and pneumonia
151.
Most common complication of pertussisis:
A.Encephalopathy B.Seizures C.Epistaxis D.Bronchopneumonia
152.
To the district doctor a patient, complaints on abundant excretions from a nose,
moderate headache, hearing loss, perversion of taste. On examination – dry of skin, nose
excoriation, in a pharynx – mild hyperemia. Temperature of body is subfebrile.
Pathological changes of internal organs are absent. Which acute respiratory viral
infection carries the patient?
a) Adenoviral infection
b) Parainfluenza
c) Rhinoviral infection
d) pc -infection
e) Influenza
153.
To the district doctor a patient, complaints on abundant excretions from a
nose, moderate headache, hearing loss, perversion of taste. On examination – dry of skin,
nose excoriation, in a pharynx – mild hyperemia. Temperature of body is subfebrile.
Pathological changes of internal organs are absent. Which acute respiratory viral
infection carries the patient?
a) Adenoviral infection
b) Parainfluenza
c) Rhinoviral infection
d) pc-infection
e) Influenza
154.
A 27 years old women at 19 weeks gestation developed fever to 38°C, headache,
nausea, abdominal pain one week after a camping trip with her husband, she developed
erythematous macular rash on wrists ankles progressing to trunk and face become
petechial. Lab test CBS and CSF normal. Which of the following is more appropriate
treatment:
a) Chloramphenicol b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Doxycycline
d) Tazobactam
155.
Most common organism which can contaminate crowded army camps:
a) Kleibsella
b) E.coli
c) Neisseria meningitides d) Staphylococcus
156.
Which antibody is most common produced in secondary immune response:
a) Ig G
b) IgA
c) IgD d) IgM
157.
If during Parainfluenza season a patient starts to get better after 3 or 4days of flu
like symptoms and then on the day 5 or 6 starts to feel worse, the most likely diagnosis is:
a) Viral influenza pneumonia
b) Bacterial pneumonia
c) Relapsing parainfluenza
d) Reinfection of parainfluenza
158.
Which radiographic sign is seen in Parainfluenza:
a) Air resent sign
b) Halo sign
c) Silhouette sign
d) Steeple sign
159.
Complications of Parainfluenza virus include:
a) Bacterial tracheitis
b) Brochilitis
c) Pneumonia
d) Laryngitis
160.
Which condition does not include in surgical infections:
a) Long prolonged surgical procedure
b) Anemia
c) Hypoxia
d) Local tissue necrosis
MENINGOCOCCAL INFECTION
161.
Hemorrhagic rash at meningococcemia is:
a) Typical
b) Atypical
c) Normal
d) None of these
162.
Meningococcemia is usually diagnosed by:
a) Urine test b) Biopsy
c) Stool test d) Blood test
163.
Place of attach Meningococci is:
a) Lower respiratory tract
b) Upper respiratory tract
c) Bronchi
d) Bronchioles
164.
Meningococcemia is treated with:
a) Intravenous antibiotics
b) Topical antibiotics c) Oral antibiotics
d) None of these
165.
Which of the following is true related to endotoxins:
a) Endotoxins are secreted from cells
b) Can be linked to meningococcemia
c) Produced by gram +ve organism
d) can’t cause fever
166.
A 30years old man bought to emergency room with a 10hr history of a fever
headache and lethargy. Physical examination reveals very sick man, temp 39.5°C and
petechial rash. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Urinary tract infection
b) Upper respiratory tract infection
c) Meningococcemia
d) Pneumonia
e) Migraine
167.
Incubation period of Meningococcal infection is:
a) 10-15 days
b) 3-4 days
c) 1-2 days d) 1 week
168.
Patients with a rash consistent with Meningococcemia should immediately take:
a) Intravenosis antibiotics
b) Corticosteroids c) Diuretics
d) Bronchodilatitis
169.
Antibiotics for treatment of meningococcemia:
a) Cefotaxime
b) Azythromycin
c) Clindamycin d) Doxycycline
170.
Patients with meningococcal who are allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics, a choice
can be the following drug:
a) Metronidazole
b) Clindamycin
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Trimethoprim
171.
Complication seen in meningococcemia:
a) Hypertension
b) Hypotension
c) Multiple organs failure
d) Mental illness
172.
Vaccine for meningococcal is recommended at the age of:
a) 12 years
b) 11 years
c) 10 years d) 13 years
173.
Meningococcal infection is caused by main four serogroups:
a) A, B, C, Y
b) B, C, X, W 135
c) A, C, X, W 137
d) A, C, Y, W 135
174.
For prevention of meningococcemia booster dose of vaccination is given at the
age of:
a) 13 years
b) 15 years
c) 16 years
d) 18 years
175.
Meningococcal infection is transmitted from person to person by:
a) Respiratory secretions
b) Faecal-oral route
c) Blood transfusion d) sexual
176.
Meningococcemia disease outbreaks commonly occur in the world as:
a) Epidemic
b) Endemic
c) Pandemic d) Sporadic
177.
The characteristic petechial skin rash of meningococcemia is usually located on:
a) Arms and chest
b) Trunk and legs
c) Back and feet
d) Neck and palms
178.
In case of fulminant meningococcal infection is develops:
a) Brown Sequard syndrome
b) Wolf Parkinson White syndrome
c) Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome
d) Lambert Eaton syndrome
179.
Meningococcemia is caused by Neisseria meningitides, which is:
a) Gram +ve bacteria
b) Gram -ve bacteria
c) Gram +ve diplococci bacteria
d) Gram -ve diplococci bacteria
180.
What the deferens between Neisseria gonococcus and Neisseria meningitides:
a) Lactose fermentation
b) Maltose fermentation
c) Mennitol fermentation d) Sucrose fermentation
181.
In physical examination does not reveal:
a) Motor and sensory deficits
b) Nuchal rigidity and hemiparesis
c) Abdominal tenderness
d) Cranial nerve palsy
182.
Meningoencephalitis often cause by:
a) Measles
b) HIV
c) Cholera d) Dysentery
183.
Neurological findings in meningoencephalitis:
a) Cerebellar ataxia and dementia
b) Cranial nerve abnormalities and Myorhythmia
c) a and b
d) none of above
184.
The gold standard of Meningoencephalitis diagnostics:
a) CSF culture
b) Sputum microscopy
c) Nasopharyngeal and throat swab d) ELIZA
185.
Which main complication does not occur in Meningoencephalitis:
a) Hearing loss
b) Epilepsy
c) Loss of limbs amputation&vision loss
d) Left heart failure
186.
Which general physical findings does not occur in Meningoencephalitis:
a) Exanthemas
b) Enanthemas
c) Symptoms of pericarditis, myocarditis or conjunctivitis
d) Symptoms of pleurodynia, herpangina, hand-food mouth disease
187.
Pathways that does not include in Meningoencephalitis:
a) Invasion of blood stream
b) A retrograde neuronal pathway
c) Indirect contiguous spread
d) Direct contiguous spread
188.
Meningitis with increased intracranial pressure does not include this complication:
a) Cytotoxic edema
b) Peripheral edema
c) Interstial edema d) Vasogenic edema
189.
Meningoencephalitis with secondary infection leads to:
a) Meningitis
b) Meningococcemia
c) Meningocele d) Meningeal cyst
190.
Differential diagnosis of meningitis with neck stiffness:
a) Epilepsy
b) Tonsillitis
c) Tetanus
d) Alveolar abscess
191.
A patient is sick with meningococcal meningitis. He takes a massive dose of
penicillin. 4 days temperature of body 36,6-36,8°C. Meningeal signs are negative. When
is it possible to stop the antibiotic therapy?
a) At a cytosis in a CSF 100 and less, lymphocytes prevail
b) After 10 days from the beginning antibiotic therapy
c) After 7 days from the beginning antibiotic therapy
d) At a cytosis 100 and less, neutrophil prevail e) From 6 days from the beginning antibiotic
192.
A 17 years old boy, got ill suddenly: the temperature rose up-to 40,3°С, extremely
sharp headache, makes him to yell. The patient is agitated and vomits frequently. Tremor
of fingers of extremities is observed. The star like hemorrhagic rash of different form and
sizes appeared, mainly on buttocks, thighs, shins, and trunk. Meningeal signs are
positive. What is the most credible diagnosis?
a) Encephalitis
b) Flu with a hemorrhagic syndrome
c) Meningococcalinfection
d) Measles
e) Leptospirosis
193.
A patient became ill sharply. Severe pain of head, frequent vomits appeared in the
morning. Temperature of body rose to 39,9°C. Adopted febrifuge, however much the
state got worse. Till the evening patient lost consciousness. Excited, sharply expressed
meningeal signs. What is most reliable diagnosis?
a) Status typhosus in typhoid fever
b) Viral meningoencephalitis
c) Sepsis, infectious-toxic shock
d) Meningococcal infection, meningitis
e) Status typhosus in epidemic typhus
194.
A patient C., 25 years old, fell suddenly ill. Every morning severe headache,
frequent vomiting, temperature of the body is 39,9°C. Adopted fatigue, then state got
much worse. In the evening lost of consciousness. Expressed muscles pains of back and
head. Positive Кеrning’s symptom. Leukocytes – 18,0x109/l. What is the most reliable
diagnosis?
a) Flu
b) Epidemic typhus, typhus state
c) Viral menigoencephalitis
d) Sepsis, infectious-toxic shock
e) Bacterial menigoencephalitis
195.
A patient sharply had a chill, head pain, vomits, temperature of body rose up to
38,5 °C. Till evening rigidity of muscles, Kernig symptom appeared. Herpetic blisters are
marked on mucouse of lips and nose. Neurological symptoms is not found out expressed.
What disease will you suspect?
a) Subarachnoiditis hemorrhage
b) Herpetic encephalitis
c) Abscess of brain
d) Hemorrhage in a brain
e) Meningococcal meningitis
196.
A patient, 20 years old, during few days complains about pharyngalgias. After
supercooling the state became worse: sudden chills, increase of temperature to 40,6 °C,
headache. On skin of lower extremities trunk and buttocks there are a lot of different
sizes of hemorragic spots, acrocyanosis. Consiouness is preserved. Meningeal signs are
absent. What is the previous diagnosis?
a) Meningococcal infection
b) Flu
c) Epidemic typhus d) Hemorrhagic fever e) Leptospirosis
197.
Among the students of PTU 2 cases of generalized form of meningococcal
infection are registered. What preparation does it follow to enter to the contact persons
with the purpose of urgent prophylaxis?
a) Normal immunoglobulin
b) Leukocytic interferon
c) Meningococcal vaccine
d) Meningococcal anatoxin
e) Bacteriophage
VIRAL HEPATITIS
198.
Cytolysis of liver cells reflects the following biochemical tests for viral hepatitis:
a) Cholesterol
b) The level of total protein and protein fractions
of blood
c) The level of alanine aminotransferase and asparaginaminotransferazy
d)Thymol test
199.
What are enzymes reflect cholestasis in viral hepatitis?
a) AlT
b) AsT
c) Cyclic amine phosphates
d) Alkaline phosphatase
200.
What are serological markers characteristic of hepatitis A in the acute period of
the disease?
a) HbsAg;
b) anti-HB cor IgM;
c) anti-HAV IgM
d) anti-HCV IgM.
201.
Which symptom is not typical for acute liver failure?
a) Increasing the size of the liver
b) Tachycardia
c) Reducing the size of the liver d) Encephalopathy
e) Hemorrhage
202.
Specify the typical changes in bilirubin and its fractions in viral hepatitis:
a) Direct bilirubin increase
b) Direct and indirect bilirubin increase
c) Indirect bilirubin increase
d) Direct bilirubin increase at moderately elevated indirect bilirubin
203.
Specify the biochemical test for early diagnosis of viral hepatitis:
a)Blood protein fraction
B)Prothrombin index
C)ALT
d)Cholesterol
204.
Which viral hepatitis is often accompanied by chronicity with the outcome of
cirrhosis due to the high incidence of asymptomatic forms?
a) Viral hepatitis A
b) Viral hepatitis B
c) Viral hepatitis C
d) Viral hepatitis E
205.
The cases when a person can get infected with viral hepatitis A:
a) Contact with a sick person
b) With blood transfusion
c) When biting insects
d) During medical procedures e) During hemodialysis
206.
What is the duration of the incubation period for viral hepatitis A:
a) 2-7 days
b) 7 -17 days
c) 14-60days
d) 1 - 21 days
e) 2-6 months
207.
Which of the listed variants of the pre-icteric period is not characteristic for viral
hepatitis A:
a) Arthralgic
b) Dyspeptic c) Catarrhal
d) Asthenic-vegetative e) Mixed
208.
What changes in biochemical parameters are most characteristic for the anicteric
form of viral hepatitis A:
a) Hyperbilirubinemia
b) Increased transaminase levels
c) Increase in alkaline phosphatase d) Increased cholesterol
209.
The main type of treatment for mild forms of viral hepatitis A is:
a) Compliance with regime and diet
b) The use of hepatoprotectors
c) Infusion therapy
d) Enzyme preparations e) Glucocorticoid therapy
210.
Which of the biochemical indicators is the most important for assessing the
severity of the course of viral hepatitis?
a) Increased bilirubin
b) Increased transaminases c) Increased of timol test d) Increased cholesterol
211.
Which of the listed variants of the preicteric period is not characteristic for
hepatitis B?
a) Catarrhal
b) Arthralgic
c) Dyspeptic
d) Asthenic-vegetative
e) Mixed
212.
The main type of treatment for mild and moderate forms of hepatitis B is:
a) Compliance with regime and diet
b) Infusion therapy
c) Glucocorticoids d) Antiviral drugs e) Hepatoprotectors
MEASLES, MUMPS, RUBELLA
213.
Which of the following symptoms characterize of mumps?
a) Punctuate rash (sporting rash)
b) Maculopapular rash
c) Vesicular rash
d) Swelling of parotid glands
214.
Which of the following symptoms characterize of mumps?
a) Strawberry tongue
b) Swelling of testis
c) Diarrhea
d) Vesicular rash
215.
What transmission way is characteristic for the measles?
a) Aierogenic way
b) Intramuscular c) Fecal-oral way d) Transplacentary
216.
In what season there is the measles?
a) Spring and summer
b) Winter-spring
c) Autumn and winter d) All year
217.
What immunity is developed at measles?
a) The life time
b) 1-2 years
c) 6 months
d) 10 years
218.
What condition develops after measles?
a) Allergy b) Atrophy c) Anergy d) Areflexia
219.
Choose atypical forms of measles:
a) hypertoxic form
b) mitigatory form
c) cataral form
d) theris no atypical form
220.
What clinical periods are in measles?
a) Catarrh period, rash period, pigmentation period
b) Catarrh period, convulsive period, coma
c) Rash period, catarrh period, coma
d) Catarrh period, rash period, coma
221.
How many days the infectious period at measles?
a) 3-5 days
b) 1-2 days
c) 10 days d) 14 days
222. Which combination of symptoms is characteristic of cholera:
a. watery stools, absence of abdominal pains, nausea;
b. nausea, vomiting;
c. watery fetid stool;
d. greenish stool, diffuse abdominal pain.
223. The generalized form of salmonellosis from the localized one is distinguished by
symptoms:
a. vomiting;
b. abdominal pain;
c.loose stools;
d.hepatosplenomegaly.
224.Indicate the cause of intestinal bleeding in typhoid fever:
a. intoxication;
b. bacteremia;
c. ulcerative lesion of the lymphoids of ileum;
d. peptic ulcer of the duodenum.
225. The following biochemical tests reflect the cytolysis of liver cells in viral hepatitis:
a. cholesterol level;
b. the level of total protein and protein fractions of the blood;
c. level of alanine aminotransferase and aspartic aminotransferase;
d. thymol test.
226.Indicate the characteristic changes in peripheral blood in typhoid fever:
a. neutrophilic leukocytosis;
b. leukopenia with relative lymphocytosis;
c. leukocytosis with lymphocytosis;
d. leukocytosis with eosinophilia.
227 .Indicate the pathogenesis link that distinguishes the generalized form of salmonellosis from
gastrointestinal form:
a.penetration of salmonella into the mucous membrane of the small intestine;
b. intoxication;
c.bacteremia;
d.parenchymal diffusion of the pathogen.
228. Indicate which parts of the nervous system are affected by botulism:
a. cerebral cortex;
b. motor nuclei of the medulla oblongata;
c. peripheral nerves; d. ganglia.
229.What clinical symptoms are characteristic of a gastrointestinal form of salmonellosis?
a. nausea, vomiting, loose watery stools of a greenish color, diffuse abdominal pain, high
fever;
b. vomiting without nausea, without abdominal pain, normal temperature;
c. cramping abdominal pains, scanty stools, high temperature;
d) abundant watery stools such as “rich broth” without abdominal pain, normal temperature.
230.Specify typical changes in the level of bilirubin and its fractions with viral hepatitis:
a. increase in the bound fraction;
b. an increase in the bound and free fractions to the same extent;
c. increase in free fraction;
d. an increase in the bound fraction with a moderate increase in free bilirubin.
231.What symptom of typhoid fever is absent in the first week of illness?
a. high temperature;
b. headache;
c. roseola rash;
d. weakness.
232.What changes in peripheral blood are characteristic of infectious mononucleosis?
a. neutrophilic leukocytosis;
b. leukopenia with relative lymphocytosis;
c. leukocytosis, lymphocytosis, monocytosis, atypical mononuclear cells;
d. leukopenia, lymphocytosis, monocytosis.
233.A reliable criterion for meningococcal meningitis are changes in cerebrospinal fluid:
a. pleocytosis;
b. sugar reduction;
c. lymphocytic pleocytosis;
d. detection of the pathogen
234.What combination of symptoms is characteristic for the onset of meningococcal meningitis?
a. gradual onset, headache, vomiting, loose stools; b. rapid fever, headache, vomiting without
abdominal pain;
c. high fever, vomiting, abdominal pain;
d high fever, headache, visual impairment.
235. The kindergarten teacher, 22 years old, has high fever, enlarged painful occipital lymph
nodes, a small spotty pink rash on the skin, plentiful, without a tendency to thicken, evenly
covers all areas of the skin, joint pain. Sick 2nd day. The condition is satisfactory. Specify the
most probable diagnosis:
A. measles
B. rubella
C. infectious mononucleosis
D. pseudotuberculosis
D. typhus
236. Patient B. 21 years 3 days ago, the temperature rose to 39.8 ° C, a headache appeared. On
examination: serious condition, tachycardia, tachypne; the mucosa of the oropharynx is sharply
hyperemic; tonsils hyperemic, swollen; on the inner surface of both tonsils in the gaps of a
yellowish color plaque, easily removed with a spatula. The liver and spleen are not enlarged.
Specify the most probable diagnosis:
A. adenovirus infection
B. infectious mononucleosis
C. oropharyngeal diphtheria
D. lacunar angina
D. tonsillitis Simanovsky-Vincent
237. Patient K., 39 years old, went to the clinic with complaints of a constant headache, high
body temperature, abdominal pain; cough infrequent and unproductive. Enlarged liver and
spleen. Sick for 6 days. Specify the probable diagnosis:
A. typhus
B. influenza
C. typhoid fever
G. salmonellosis
D. pneumonia
238. Patient E., 20 years old, went to the doctor on the 5th day of illness. Concerned about fever
from the 1st day of illness, weakness, fatigue, sore throat, coughing. I took aspirin and
sulfadimezin on my own. Against this background, on the 4th day of the disease appeared
epigastric severity, nausea, a sharp decrease in appetite, dark urine. Objectively: the patient is
lethargic, pale, moderate yellowness of the sclera and mucous membranes of the oral cavity. The
liver is palpated 1 cm below the costal arch. Pulse 64 in 1 min., BP - 100/60 mm Hg He lives in a
student dormitory, in a room of 4 people. Specify the most probable diagnosis:
A. infectious mononucleosis
B. adenovirus infection
C. viral hepatitis
D. toxic hepatitis
E. toxoplasmosis
Influenza and SARS
239. Etiotropic therapy of severe forms of influenza:
A. antigrippin
B. influenza vaccine
C. remantadine
D. penicillin
E. oseltamivir
240. The correct statement:
A. pneumonia - a frequent manifestation of mycoplasma infection
B. parainfluenza infection is characterized by pronounced intoxication
C. Adenovirus infection is characterized by severe laryngotracheitis
D. adenovirus infection characterized by short-term subfebrile condition
E. rhinovirus infection differs from other acute respiratory viral infections by intense paroxysmal
cough
241. The leading lesion syndrome in parainfluenza is:
A. pharyngitis
B. rhinitis
C. laryngitis
D. tracheobronchitis
E. pneumonia
242. Complications of parainfluenza are:
A. pneumonia
B. otitis
C. sinusitis
D. meningoencephalitis
E. * false croup
243. The most serious complication of meningococcemia is:
A. endocarditis
B. the formation of multiple pemic foci
C. myocarditis
D. acute adrenal insufficiency (Friedericksen- Waterhouse syndrome)
244. The main signs of a common form of diphtheria:
A. swelling of the mucous membrane of the oropharynx
B. edema of the subcutaneous tissue of the neck in the submandibular region
C. the location of fibrinous deposits on the tonsils and on the mucous membrane of the
oropharynx
D. the location of fibrinous deposits on the tonsils only
E. bright hyperemia of the mucous membrane of the oropharynx
245. The main clinical sign of toxic diphtheria is:
A. Tumor spread
B. an increase in regional lymph nodes
C. edema of the subcutaneous tissue of the neck D. damage to other parts of the upper respiratory
tract
E. hyperthermia
246.Neonatal tetanus prevention is best done by:
A. Tetanus toxoid
B. Tetanus immunoglobulin
C. Metronidazole
D. Penicillin
247.Which of the following disease are notifiable to WHO in Geneva under the International
Health Regulations:
A. Plague, polio and malaria
B. Cholera, influenza and yellow fever
C. Cholera, plague and polio
D. Cholera, plague and yellow fever
248. Typical features of botulism include:
a. circumoral parasthaesia
b. extensor plantars
c. diarrhoea
d. fever
e. post-tetanic potentiation on EMG (electromyography)
249. The finding of large, multinucleated, clumps of cells in the bronchial secretions of a 2 year
old girl with acute bronchopneumonia suggests that this infection is caused by
a. Bordetella pertusis
b. Epstein-Barr virus
c. Mycoplasma hominis
d. Rhinovirus
e. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
250. Which picornaviruses are not resistant to the acidity of the stomach:
Rhinoviruses