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Фізологія збудливих тканин
10
238
2
Фізологія ЦНС
15
235
3
Фізіологія ендокринної системи
10
123
4
Дослідження соматосенсорної системи
5
87
5
Фізіологія вищої нервової діяльності людини
10
114
6
Blood physiology
7
89
7
Cardiovascular Physiology
12
225
8
Respiratory physiology
7
61
9
Physiology of energy balance and thermoregulation
7
36
10
Digestive physiology
10
145
1.
1
What type of transport through the membrane is active:
Osmosis
Facilitated
diffusion
Filtration
The movement of
ions against the
concentration
gradient
Transport of CO2
2.
1
The peculiarity of the observation method is:
The experiment is
carried out only on
animals
The experimenter
intervenes in the
studied process
Certain indicators
are investigation
The experimenter
does not interfere
with the studied
process
The experiment is
carried out on
animals after
special training
3.
1
The universal property of living matter is:
Lability
Excitability
Chronaxie
Irritability
Conductance
4.
1
What type of transport is carried out with sodiumpotassium pump?
Osmosis
Facilitated
diffusion
Pinocytosis
Primary active
transport
Secondary active
transport
5.
1
By strength of action stimuli are divided into:
Physical, chemical
and biological
Adequate,
inadequate
Optimal specific
Subthreshold,
threshold,
suprathreshold
Subthreshold
efficient,
maximum
6.
1
Irritability - the ability of tissue to response on
stimulation:
Generate
membrane
potential
Change the level
of excitability
Generate an action
potential
To change to the
intensity of
metabolism
Change its lability
7.
1
Excitability - the ability of tissue to respond to the
stimulus:
To generate
membrane
potential
To change the
intensity of
metabolism
To change energy
metabolism
Generate an action
potential
To pass from a
state of rest to a
state of inhibition
8.
1
A drug that inhibits the synthesis of ATP in the cell was
used in the experiment. What type of transmembrane
transport will be affected?
Filtration
Simple diffusion
Osmosis
Active transport
Facilitated
diffusion
9.
1
What is the direction of ion transport during activation
of sodium- potassium pump?
Transport of
sodium and
potassium from the
cells
Transport of
sodium and
calcium into the
cell and potassium
from the cells
Transport of
sodium and
potassium into the
cell from the cell
Transport of
sodium from the
cell and potassium
into the cell
Transport of
sodium and
potassium into the
cell
10.
1
The formation of ATP cell was used blocked in the
exciting experimental cells. Resting membrane
potential decreased to zero. Violation of which
processes leaded to these changes?
Osmosis
Secondary- active
transport
Facilitated
diffusion
Primary active
transport
Filtering
11.
1
Which type of an irritant is electric current for excitable
tissues is an irritant?
Inadequate
Chemical
Threshold
Adequate
Subthreshold
12.
1
Tissue capable of response to stimuli move in an active
state, thus generating AP are called:
Contractile
Galling
Leading
Excitable
There is no right
answer
13.
1
The ability of tissue to respond to any kind of
metabolism change is called:
Lability
Contractility
Conductance
Irritability
Excitability
14.
1
To investigate the functions in physiology using:
The method of
observation
Method acute
experiment
The method of
chronic experiment
All if the above
Method of
modeling
15.
1
What methods are used to investigate the functions is
physiology?
Organism
Functional system
Tissue
Physiological
systems
All answers are
incorrect
16.
1
Mutually combining of various organs and
physiological systems to achieve results beneficial for
the body is called:
System of organs
Authority
Tissue
Functional system
Organism
17.
1
Which of the following compounds perform the
function of enzymes in the body:
Nucleic acids
Carbohydrates
Fats
Proteins
Minerals
18.
1
Living tissue's ability to respond to any kind of
influence by changing its metabolism is called:
Irritation
Excitability
Conductance
Irritability
Excitation
19.
1
Any action on the biological system, resulted in nonspecifically changing of its original state is called:
Conduction
Irritability
Excitability
Irritation
Excitation
20.
1
The opening of the laws of circulatory system
considered to be a beginning of experimental
physiology an, realized by:
Folbortom
Galen
Galvani
Harvey
Helmholtz
21.
1
The first head of the Department of Physiology,
founded in 1895 at the Lviv Medical University, was:
A. Vorobyov
B. Tihovsky
M. Vezhuhovskyy
A. Beck
I. Skorokhod
22.
1
Stimuli, that effect perceived receptors, and were
specifically adapted to them in the phylogeny, are
called:
Inadequate
Threshold
Subthreshold
Adequate
Suprathreshold
23.
1
Which of the following is wrong:
Coldnes
thermoreceptors
Light:
photoreceptors
Sound: organ of
Corti (inner ear)
Pressure:
chemoreceptors
Foog components:
taste buds
24.
1
Physical stimuli include all except:
Temperature
Sound
Light
Medications
Electric current
25.
1
Chemical irritants include all except:
Medications
Food components
Hormones
Viruses
Poisons
26.
1
Physical stimuli include:
Poisons
Hormones
Medications
Ultrasound
Viruses
27.
1
Chemical irritants include:
Plants
Viruses
Electric current
Medications
Pressure
28.
1
Biological irritants include:
Infrared rays
Medications
Hormones
Viruses
Sound
29.
1
In which cell structures run the processes of oxidative
phosphorylation:
Core
Lysosomes
Peroxisomes
Mitochondria
Ribosomes
30.
1
The internal environment of myocytes which contains
organelles is called:
Ultrafiltrate
Plasma
Lymph
Sarcoplasm
Secret
31.
1
The internal environment of hepatocytes, which
contains organelles is called:
Interstitial
environment
Plasma
Ultrafiltrate
Cytoplasm
Lymph
32.
1
Cell structure that provides the intercellular
communication is called:
Peroxisomes
Cytoplasm
Mitochondria
Membrane
Core
33.
1
Which of the following substances form the plasma
membrane?
Cholesterol
Phospholipids
Receptor proteins
All of the above
Glycoproteins
34.
1
Which of these substances can easily penetrate the
membrane?
Sodium ions
Glucose
Amino acids
Carbon dioxide
Hydrogen ions
35.
1
Speed of the simple diffusion through the cell
membrane is inversely proportional to:
Diffusion
coefficient of
solute
Membrane square
Concentration
gradient of solute
The thickness of
the cell membrane
The amount of
receptor proteins in
the cell membrane
36.
1
Which of the following processes occur during
osmosis:
Volume of fluid on
both sides of the
membrane does
not change
Water molecules
pass through the
membrane by
active transport
Water molecules
pass through the
membrane by
facilitated
diffusion
Water molecules
diffuse through the
membrane from
areas low osmotic
pressure to high
Osmotic pressure
on both sides of
the membrane does
not change
37.
1
What type of transport is associated with the direct use
of ATP energy?
Simple diffusion
Secondary- active
transport
Facilitated
diffusion
Primary active
transport
The movement of
ions concentration
gradient
38.
1
The structure of the cell membrane includes all of the
following except:
Glycoproteins
Lipids
Transport proteins
Antigenic proteins
Receptor proteins
39.
1
Which of the above-mentioned mechanisms doesn’t be
the cellular transport:
Secondary- active
transport
Diffusion
Primary active
transport
Autolysis
Osmosis
40.
1
AN injection of cyanide blocks the formation of ATP in
the cell. Which of the following processes will be
Transport of CO2
Osmosis
Movement of
potassium
Movement of
sodium against a
Transport of O2
affected?
concentration
gradient
concentration
gradient
41.
1
After dissociation of oxidative phosphorylation with
dinitrophenol, which of the following processes will be
affected?
Transport of CO2
Osmosis
Movement of
potassium
concentration
gradient
Movement of
sodium against a
concentration
gradient
Transport of O2
42.
1
Which of the following describes the active transport?
Only primary
active transport
Transport of
substances is
always against the
electrochemical
gradient
Direct using of
metabolic energy
Energy for
secondary active
transport is
provided by the
electrochemical
potential gradient
of another solute
None of the above
43.
1
Which of the following does not describe the
mechanism of secondary active transport?
Can occur on a
cotransport or
antyport
Uses energy from
the secondary
transmembrane
concentration
gradient of sodium
Provides
absorption of
glucose and amino
acids in the
digestive tract
Directly uses ATP
None of the above
44.
1
Osmosis is the movement of:
Water through the
membrane from
high to low
concentration of
solute
Solute through a
membrane area of
high to area of low
hydrostatic
pressure
Solute through the
membrane from
low to high
concentration
Water through the
membrane from
low to high
concentration of
solute
Solute through a
membrane from
high to low
concentration
45.
1
An irritant that can cause excitation should be
characterized by the following properties:
To be adequate,
Threshold p
the threshold
strength and
strength with
operate a threshold
appropriate speed
increase strength to
a certain value
Threshold strength
and operate within
a useful time
Threshold strength
to act with a
certain threshold
speed to increase
strength threshold
Subthreshold
strength
46.
1
Specify the phases and their sequence in the generation
of AP:
Depolarization,
trace potential
Depolarization,
latent,
Depolarization,
overshoot,
Depolarization,
refractoriness,
Overshoot,
depolarization,
repolarization
repolarization
repolarization
repolarization
repolarization
47.
1
What is the value of resting membrane potential of
skeletal muscle?
-70 mV
-120 mV
-45 mV
-90 mV
-30 mV
48.
1
A sodium-potassium pump was blocked in the exciting
cell. Which process will disappear after that?
Excitability
Anionic gradients
The action
potential
Resting potential
Refractoriness
49.
1
Because of blockade of cell membrane ion channels
resting potential decreased from -90 to -70 mV. What
channels are blocked?
Calcium
Magnesium
Sodium
Potassium
Chloride
50.
1
The term " cell membrane is polarized " means:
The inner and
outer surface of the
membrane have no
electrical charge
The inner surface
of the membrane
has a '+' charge,
and external " -"
The inner and
outer surface of the
cell membrane
have the same
electric charge
The inner surface
of the membrane
has a " - " charge,
and the outer '+'
The inner and
outer surface of the
membrane have
different electric
charge
51.
1
Ion channels were blocked in the exciting cell. It did
not change the level of the resting potential, but the cell
has lost the ability to generate action potential. What
channels were blocked?
Calcium
Sodium and
potassium
Chloride
Sodium
Potassium
52.
1
An increase of Na+ ions plasma concentration was
found patient In the intensive care unit? What process
of is broken in excitable tissues?
Yield of Cl- from
the cell
Output of Na+
from the cell
Output of K+ from
the cell
Input Na+ into the
cell
Input of K+ into
the cell
53.
1
What is a local answer?
Depolarization that
occurs on
suprathreshold
irritation and is the
kind of local
excitation
Depolarization that
occurs at threshold
stimulation and is
a kind of the local
excitation
Depolarization that
occurs on
subthreshold
irritation and is the
kind of excitement
that spreads
Depolarization that
occurs on
subthreshold is a
kind of irritation
and is the local
excitation
Depolarization that
occurs on
suprathreshold
irritation and is the
kind of excitement
that spreads
54.
1
Chronaxie - is:
The ability of
tissues to respond
to stimulation
The minimum
duration of the
stimulus in one
rheobase
Minimum strength
of the stimulus
threshold
The minimum
duration of the
stimulus in two
rheobase
The ability of
tissue to move into
an active state
55.
1
Ion channels were blocked in the exciting cell after the
cell eventually completely lost the resting potential.
What channels were blocked?
Chloride
Sodium
Potassium and
sodium
Potassium
Calcium
56.
1
An decrease concentration of K+ ions plasma
concentration was found patient In the intensive care
unit? What process of is broken in excitable tissues?
Input of Cl- into
the cell
Input of Na+ into
the cell
Output Na + from
the cell
Output of K+ from
the cell
Input of K+ into
the cell
57.
1
The excitable cell membrane permeability was
increased to potassium ions in the experiment. What
changes of electrical status of the membrane will occur?
Changes in the
action potential
No changes
Depolarization
Hyperpolarization
Local response
58.
1
Resting potential occurs is due to:
The presence in
the cell protoplasm
The presence of
ions inside the cell
The presence of
ions around the
cell
Different
concentrations of
ions inside and
outside the cell
The presence of
protein structures
in the cell
59.
1
Rheobase - is:
The minimum
strength of
chemical irritation
that causes
excitation
The minimum
strength of the
stimulus that
causes excitation
Minimum period
of stimulus that
causes excitation
Minimum power
electrical stimulus
that causes
excitation
The minimum
strength of
biological stimuli,
causing excitation
60.
1
The action of toxin completely blocked the synthesis of
ATP In the experiment. How this will affect the value
of the membrane potential?
First will increas,
then decreases
Will increase
Will not change
Will reduce to zero
First will decrease,
then increase
61.
1
Specify which index of excitability reflects a direct
relationship between excitability and its value:
Useful time
The threshold
strength
Rheobase
Lability
Chronaxie
62.
1
As a result of the influence electric current on
excitatory cell membrane depolarization occurred. The
movement of ions across the membrane plays a major
role in the development of depolarization?
K+
Ca2+
CI-
Na +
HCO3-
63.
1
An excited cell was put into Na+ free saline solution in
the experiment. How this will affect the development of
excitation?
The duration of the
action potential
will increase
The amplitude of
the action potential
will decrease
The amplitude of
the action potential
will increase
The action
potential will not
occur
The duration of the
action potential
will decrease
64.
1
Reversion - is:
The increasing of
the resting
potential
The increasing of
the membrane
charge
Reducing of the
membrane charge
Changing of the of
the membrane
charge to the
opposite
Generating of
action potential
65.
1
During the study of isolated excitable cells it was
revealed that the threshold strength of the cell
stimulation have been significantly reduced. Which of
the above cell be the cause of this?
Inactivation of
calcium channel
membrane
Blockade of
energy production
in the cell
Inactivation of
sodium channel
membrane
Activation of
membrane sodium
channels
Activation of
potassium
channels of the
membrane
66.
1
It is necessary to evaluate the level of excitability of the
tissue in the experiment. What index should be defined
for this purpose?
The amplitude of
the action potential
Resting potential
The duration of the
action potential
Threshold
depolarization
Lability
67.
1
Energy production processes were completely blocked
in the exciting cell. Haw the membrane potential will be
changed in the that?
Will be
significantly
reduced
Will slightly
increase
Will be slightly
reduced
Will disappear
Will significantly
increase
68.
1
The tissue was affected an electric pulse, whis
amplitude 70 % of threshold. What changes in
membrane potential will occur?
No changes
Hyperpolarization
The action
potential
Partial
depolarization
IPSP
69.
1
It is necessary to obtain an increasing of in resting
membrane potential in isolated cell in the experiment.
Which ion channels it necessary to activate?
Calcium
Sodium
Potassium and
sodium
Potassium
Sodium and
calcium
70.
1
The stimulus strength threshold stimulus straight that
causes:
The average effect
Local response
The maximum
effect
Minimal effect
Afterpotential
71.
1
All living cells have different electrical charge on the
outer and inner surfaces of the membrane - the resting
membrane potential (RMP). What ion plays a major
role in the generation of RMP?
Fe2 +
Cl-
Na+
K+
Ca2+
72.
1
After stimulation of excitable cells with DC it develops
action potential due to changes in membrane
permeability for ions. What ion plays a major role in its
development?
Cl-
Ions of organic
compounds
Ca2+
Na+
K+
73.
1
In case of excitable tissue stimulating with DC or under
the influence of neurotransmitter they formed an action
potential (AP), is formed which has a phase character.
What are the phases in sequence occur during the
development of АP?
Depolarization,
traces potentials
repolarization
Overshoot,
depolarization,
repolarization
Depolarization,
repolarization
latent
Depolarization,
repolarization,
trace potential
Depolarization,
refractoriness,
repolarization
74.
1
After activation of ion channels of the outer membrane
excitable cells its resting potential significantly
increased. What channels were activated?
Sodium and
calcium
Sodium
Calcium
Potassium
Chloride
75.
1
How does the cell membrane permeability change for
ions Na+ and K+ depolarization during phase?
Increases for Na+
and K+
Decreases for Na+
and K+ increases to
Does not change
for Na+ and K+
Increases for Na+
and decrease for
K+
Decreases for Na +
and K+
76.
1
How is the cell membrane permeability change for ions
Na+ and K+ ions during repolarization phase?
Increased for Na+
and is reduced for
K+
Decreased for Na+
and K+
Increased for Na+
and K+
Decreased for Na+
and K+ increased
to
Is not change for
Na + and K+
77.
1
How does the membrane potential change during
excitable cell membrane hyperpolarization?
Remained
unchanged
Changed to
opposite
Decreased to
opposite
Increases
All answers are
incorrect
78.
1
Polarization of cell membrane depolarization caused.
How has the charge of the membrane?
Remained
unchanged
Increased
Changed
Decreased
All answers are
incorrect
79.
1
In the experiment, increased permeability of excitable
cell membrane to potassium ions. What changes
electrical status of the membrane during this encounter?
Metabolic
potential
Resting potential
The action
potential
Hyperpolarization
Local response
80.
1
What phases of the action potential corresponds to the
absolute refractory period?
Repolarization and
hyperpolarization
trace
Local excitation
and repolarization
Trace
depolarization and
repolarization
Depolarization and
repolarization
Local excitation
and depolarization
81.
1
Subthreshold stimulation of the nerve fiber with electric
shock caused a local response (LR). Which
characteristics of this type of excitation is correct?
LR depends “on all
or nothing law”
LR spreads along
fiber for long
distances
LR amplitude does
not depend on the
strength of
stimulation
Appears during
activation of
potential depended
Na+ channels
Fiber excitability is
not increased
during LR
82.
1
During the reversal phase of АP in nerve fiber takes
Increased
Sodium activation
Login chloride
ions across the
Sodium
The answers are
place:
excitability
membrane
inactivation
not correct
83.
1
Depolarization - is:
Increasing of the
value of the critical
membrane
depolarization
The increase in the
charge of the cell
membrane
Increasing of cell
resting potential
Reduction of
polarization of the
cell membrane
Changing the
change of the
membrane to
opposite
84.
1
Repolarization - is:
Changing the
output of cell
change the
opposite
Reducing the
charge output of
the cell membrane
Increasing the
charge output of
the cell membrane
Restoring the
original charge
level of the cell
membrane
Reducing the
critical level of
depolarization of
the membrane
85.
1
Hyperpolarization - is:
The decreasing of
membrane
potential
Reduction of
polarization of the
cell membrane
Changing the
change of the cell
membrane to
opposite
Increasing of
polarization of the
cell membrane
No correct answer
86.
1
Add a method based on registration of bioelectric
potentials:
Tomography
Echoencephalogra
phy
Echocardiography
No correct answer
Rheography
87.
1
The experiment was performed membrane
depolarization of nerve fibres. Specify the critical
depolarization, in which there is the generation of nerve
impulses usually:
-75 mV
-50 mnV
-60 mV
-50 mV
-90 mV
88.
1
Some fish contain toxins that block the sodium channel
activation gate that can cause man to one of the
processes on the membranes of excitable structures
after eating such fish:
Phases of the
absolute refractory
Increased
excitability
Reducing of IPS
Absence of
generation of PD
Phase relative
refractory
89.
1
How is the excitability of the cells changed during the
generation of the action potential (AP)?
Absolute
refractoriness,
relative
refractoriness,
subnormal
excitability,
supernormal,
irritability
Subnormal
excitability,
absolute,
refractoriness,
relative
refractoriness,
supernormal,
excitability
Relative
refractoriness,
absolute
refractoriness,
supernormal
excitability,
subnormal,
irritability
Absolute
refractoriness,
relative
refractoriness,
supernormal
excitability,
subnormal,
irritability
Absolute
refractoriness,
supernormal,
excitability,
subnormal
excitability,
relative
refractoriness
90.
1
The blockade of ATP formation in cells will affect
directly one of the processes excitable cell membranes,
resulting in terminating of:
Potassium output
from the cell
Sodium input into
the cell
Sodium
inactivation
Effects of Na+ / K+
pump
Calcium input into
the cell
91.
1
How will the excitability of the tissue change if the MP
has increased, and the critical level of depolarization
has not changed?
Will not change
Will increase
Will reduce to zero
Will decrease
Will increase for
20%
92.
1
How to change the excitability of the tissue with respect
to baseline during the phase of track depolarization
potential АP?
Will not change
Will decrease
Will reduce
for10%
Will increase
Will reduce to zero
93.
1
After influence of ultra-high frequency electric current
on the muscles the tissue is heated and action potentials
are generated because pulses of electric current have:
Incoming direction
to the membrane
Subthreshold
strength
increase
Subthreshold time
All answers are
correct
94.
1
The lability of which exactly structure is the largest if it
is known that duration of generated AP is:
1 ms
3 ms
5 ms
0.5 ms
2 ms
95.
1
A significant decrease of extracellular potassium
concentration will lead to one of the processes:
Reduction of
membrane
conductance for K+
Increasing of Na+
active transport out
of the cell
Increasing of RP
The increasing of
membrane
conductance for K+
Reducing the
negative diffusion
of equilibrium
potential of K+
96.
1
What changes of MP and speed of excitation
conduction will occur when K+ channels of nerve fibers
are activated?
Depolarization will
increase
Hyperpolarization
will increase
Depolarization will
reduce
Hyperpolarization
will reduce
Hyperpolarization
will not change
97.
1
Saline solution invited with potassium ions was injected
into axoplasma of isolated nerve fibres in the
expirement. As a result, fiber resting membrane
potential increased from -80 mV to -95 mV because of:
Sodium
inactivation
Accommodation
Depolarization
Hyperpolarization
Repolarization
98.
1
The law, according to which, in response to the
increasing strength of the stimulus response gradually
increases until the maximum is called:
Accommodation
"All or nothing"
Strength - duration
Power (power
relations)
Polar
99.
1
Under the influence of chemical factor in the cell
membrane the number of potassium channels increased
The amplitude and
duration of the
Duration of АP
decreases and the
The duration and
amplitude of the
The duration and
amplitude of the
The amplitude of
the action potential
they can be activated on the generation of АP. How
does it influence appears on the parameters of the АP?
action potential
increase
amplitude
increases
action potential
does not change
action potential
decrease
decreases and
duration increases
100.
1
Proteins of cell membranes perform the following
functions:
As enzymes
As ion channels
As pumps
All of these
As receptors
101.
1
During the neuronal and muscle action potentials ion
transport of is increases in thousand times because of:
Potassium
channels
Calcium channels
Ligand -dependent
channels
Sodium channels
Chloride channels
102.
1
The appearance of the action potential in nerve fibres
blocking drugs that act on:
Potassium
channels
Calcium channels
Chloride channels
Sodium channels
Ligand -dependent
channels
103.
1
In determining changes in membrane permeability
during the development of the action potential it was
revealed that in the depolarization phase dominates
K+ output from the
cell
Na+ output from
the cell
K+ input into the
cell
Na+ input into the
cell
Cl- output into the
cell
104.
1
What is the main mechanism of generation of resting
membrane potential?
Diffusion of
sodium from the
cell
Diffusion of
potassium into the
cell
Diffusion of
sodium into the
cell
Diffusion of
potassium from the
cells
Diffusion of
chlorine in the cell
105.
1
What the ionic mechanisms is responsible for the
development of depolarization phase of the action
potential?
Potassium output
from the cells
The output of
sodium from the
cell
Potassium input
into the cell
Sodium input into
the cell
Calcium input into
the cell
106.
1
The limiting of ionic permeability of whish channels in
the experiment will cause which result in reducing the
resting membrane potential?
Chloride
Sodium
Magnesium
Potassium
Calcium
107.
1
In the solution with isolated nerve cells the
concentration of K+ ions was increased. As a result,
resting membrane potential of these cells decreased
from 85 mV to 15 mV as a result of processes related
to:
Accommodation
Hyperpolarization
Reverspolarization
Depolarization
Repolarization
108.
1
To reduce the excitability of cardiac muscle soft drugs
potassium is used. What is the mechanism of their
action on cardiomyocytes?
Block calcium
channels
Reduce the
amplitude of the
action potential
Cause
depolarization of
the membrane
Hyperpolarise
membranes
Activate calcium
channels
109.
1
In the experiment, indirect stimulation of
Decreased number
Developed
There postsynaptic
Decreased number
Impaired
neuromuscular drug did not cause muscle contractions,
and after direct stimulation the musclecontracted.
Specify the probable cause of this phenomenon:
of cholinesterase in absolute
the synaptic cleft
refractoriness of
the nerve
membrane
depolarization
appeared
of neurotransmitter
in the synapse
physiological
integrity of the
nerve
110.
1
What is the magnitude of the membrane resting
potential of nerve fibers?
-90 mV
-120 mV
-45 mV
-70 mV
-30 mV
111.
1
In the study of facial nerve excitability in a patient
'42years old a significant reduction was revealed. What
changes in excitability parameters made it possible to
determine the change in the functional state of the
nerve?
Increased lability
Acceleration of
accommodation
Useful time
increasity
The increasing in
chronaxie
Reducing rheobase
112.
1
Which of the following structures have highest lability?
Endocrine gland
Smooth muscle
Skeletal muscle
Nerve
Cardiac muscle
113.
1
Prevention of inactivation of sodium channels will
reduce:
Rate of
depolarization of
the action potential
The duration of the
action potential
The magnitude of
the action potential
overshoot
Rate of action
potential
repolarization
Duration of the
relative refractory
period
114.
1
How to change the threshold potential and the
excitability of nerve fibers if MP has decreased for 5
mV and critical depolarisation level has not changed?
Will increase for 5
mV, excitability
will increase
Will increase for 5
mV, excitability
will decrease
Will decrease for 5
mV, excitability
will decrease
Will decrease for 5
mV, excitability
will increase
Will decreass for 5
mV, excitability
will not change
115.
1
Membrane permeability for Na + in the depolarization
phase of the action potential:
Dramatically
reduced and there
is a strong source
of cell sodium
current
Dramatically
increases and there
is a strong source
of cell sodium
current
Does not change
significantly
Dramatically
increases and there
is a strong input
into the cell of
sodium current
No correct answer
116.
1.
How will the threshold potential and the excitability of
nerve fiber change if MP will increase for 5 mV and
critical level of depolarisation has not changed?
Will decrease for 5
mV, excitability
will decrease
Will decrease for 5
mV, excitability
will increase
Will increase for 5
mV, excitability
will increase
Will increase for 5
mV, excitability
will decrease
Will increase for 5
mV, excitability
will not change
117.
1
Which of the following does not apply to АP?
Phate of
repolarization and
trace
hyperpolarization
caused by K
Is distributed over
long distances
The ascending
phase of АP is
caused by the
opening of Na+
voltage- dependent
The amplitude of
the action potential
depends on the
strength of the
stimulus
АP is subject to the
law of "all or
nothing"
channel activity
channels
118.
1
Which of the following is true?
Relative refractory
period - the time
during which
subthreshold
stimulus leads to
the generation of
AP
Absolute
refractory period
coincides with the
phase inversion of
the action potential
(AP)
Refractory period
prevents the
generation of these
next АP
Absolute
refractory period the time during
which
subthreshold
stimulus leads to
the generation of
АP
Relative refractory
period partially
coincides with the
phase trace
hyperpolarization
of AP
119.
1
The peculiarity of the excitation in the chemical
synapse is:
Reverse
conduction
Bilateral conduct
High sensitivity to
chemicals
Unilateral conduct
Gradual
conduction
120.
1
The excitation along the nerve fibers in humans
sbreads:
With decreasing
amplitude
Antydroinally
In both directions
Non-decrementally
With increasing
amplitude
121.
1
What ion channel are blocked with local anesthetics
that are used in dental practice?
Slow calcium
Potassium
Rapid calcium
Sodium
Chloride
122.
1
Degeneration of the motor nerve causes muscle:
Contracture
Rack
hyperpolarization
Hypertonicity
Wasting
Rack
depolarization
123.
1
What force must be applied to the irritation of the nerve
fiber to cause excitation in phase of relative
refractoriness?
Subthreshold long
Subthreshold
Threshold
Suprathreshold
Threshold long
124.
1
The patient excitability of nerve should be determined.
What index should be defined for this purpose?
The duration of the
action potential
Resting potential
Lability
Threshold stimulus
strength
The amplitude of
the action potential
125.
1
The frog neuromuscular preparation was effected with
poison. After that preserved the ability of muscles to
contraction in response to direct stimulation, but lost in
response to nerve stimulation. What does the poison
Sodium channels
The processes of
energy production
Conjugation of
excitation and
contraction in the
muscle
Neuromuscular
synapse
Potassium
channels
blok?
126.
1
Nerve fiber was placed in an oxygen-free environment.
How will it influence the generation of action potential
(AP) of nerve fibres?
АP will increase
AP will not be
generated
АP will decrease
AP will be
generated
Will activate ion
transport, leading
to spontaneous
emergence of
potential
127.
1
The animal entered Curare like substance that acts on
neuromuscular synapses. How to prove that the
substance has exact effect?
Sign resting
potential of nerve
fibers
Sign action
potential of nerve
fiber
Sign action
potential of the
postsynaptic
membrane
Irritate the nerve
that innervates the
muscle that will
not result in
contraction
Determine the
amount of
acetylcholine in
the neuromuscular
synapse
128.
1
The basic condition for the regeneration of nerve fibres
is saving of:
Synaptic contacts
Myelin sheath
Nodes of Ranve
Communication
with the body of
the neuron
All answers are
correct
129.
1
What bioelectric phenomena cause the spread of
excitation along the nerve fibres?
Decrease in
membrane
permeability
Hyperpolarization
of the membrane
Local
depolarization of
the membrane
Local electric
currents between
the excited and not
excited area
All answers are
correct
130.
1
On violation of what law of excitation along the nerve
method of anaesthesia is based:
Of bilateral
conduction
Anatomical
integrity
Isolated
conduction
Physiological
integrity
None of these
131.
1
Threshold electrical stimulus stimulation of nerve fibre
triggered an action potential in it. What characteristic of
this excitation process is correct?
Is not subject to
the law of "all or
nothing"
AP does not spread
along fiber over
long distances
The amplitude of
the action potential
depends on the
strength of
stimulation
Fibres excitability
during rapid
phases of AP
disappears
Occurs during
chemosensitive
activation of Na+
channels
132.
1
Interaction of with ligand with membrane receptors
causes increased permeability of the membrane, but
without formation of secondary mediators?
cAMP
Ca2+
Dyatsylhlitserol
Acetylcholine
Inositoletriphospha
te (iP3)
133.
1
cAMP causes many cells transition from a state of rest
to a state of activity. In what order there is a cascade of
Activation of
protein kinase
activity, increased
Increased
permeability of the
membrane, the
Phosphorylation of
protein kinase
activation,
Activation of
protein kinases,
protein
Increased
permeability of the
membrane, protein
reactions that leads to this effect?
membrane
permeability,
phosphorylation of
proteins
activation of
protein kinases,
protein
phosphorylation
increased
membrane
permeability
phosphorylation,
increased
membrane
permeability
phosphorylation,
activation of
protein kinase
134.
1
What mediator provides neuromuscular transmission?
Adrenalin
Norepinephrine
Serotonin
Acetylcholine
GABA
135.
1
What is the basic process to ensure the concentration of
neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft?
Quantity of
neurotransmitter in
the presynaptic
nerve terminal
Rate of enzymatic
hydrolysis of
neurotransmitter
into the synaptic
cleft
Speed removal of
mediator by
surrounding
neurons
The rate of
diffusion of
neurotransmitter
from presynaptic
nerve terminal into
the synaptic cleft
Speed axonic
transport
136.
1
What link of synaptic transmission is blocked by Curare Influence of
(muscle relaxants)?
acetylcholinesteras
e on acetylcholine
Passage of Ca ions
through the
channels of
presynaptic
membrane
The work of Na+ /
K+ - pump
Cholinergic
receptors
postsynaptic
membrane
Realisiny of
neurotransmitter
into the synaptic
cleft
137.
1
It is known that nerve fibers are characterized with such
physiological properties as excitability and
conductivity, carried out according to certain laws.
Violation of which law arises in the case of local
anesthetics using?
Polar law
" All or Nothing "
Bidirectional
conduction
Physiological
integrity
Isolated in pulses
condaction
138.
1
Woman, 52 years before the tooth extraction had an
injection of local anesthetic. Violation of any process in
the nerve fibers have analgesic mechanism of action of
this drug?
Operation of
microtubules
Anatomical
integrity
Isolated
conduction of
excitation
Physiological
integrity
Aksonic transport
139.
1
To reduce pain sensitivity during dental procedures
doctor applied electric anestesia with the positive pole
of a direct current. What is the mechanism of this
method?
Violates the
physiological
integrity of nerve
Increases
sensitivity of
nociceptors
Causes
depolarization of
the membrane
Blocks membrane
depolarization
Violates the
anatomical
integrity of nerve
140.
1
What is the nature of excitation transfer in the synapse,
if there is no mediator?
Osmotic
Physical
Chemical
Electrical
Biological
141.
1
What is the nature of excitation transfer in the synapse
if it is carried out by acetylcholine?
Electrical
Physiological
Biological
Chemical
Physical
142.
1
What is the nature of excitation transfer in the synapse,
if it is carried by norepinephrine?
Physiological
Physical
Biological
Chemical
Osmotic
143.
1
During the development of AP of nerve fiber a second
stimulation way applied with electric carrent of
suprathreshold strength size in the early phase of
repolarization. After the second irritation AP:
Had higher
amplitude
Had a normal
amplitude
Had a smaller
amplitude
Did not occurred
Did not had a
reversal potential
144.
1
During the development of AP of nerve fiber sodium
channel inactivation causes:
Trace
hyperpolarisation
potential
Reversal potential
Local capacity
Absolute
refractory
IPS
145.
1
Under normal physiological conditions acetylcholine,
which is involved in neuromuscular transmission:
Generates a
miniature PKP that
can sumi and lead
to the emergence
of AP in muscle
fibers, depending
on the frequency
of pulses
motoneurons
Is stored in the
final plate muscle
fibers
Hydrolyzed to
acetate and
choline, which are
then absorbed by
the muscle fiber
end-plate
Opens the channels
in the final plate
that overlook the
ions Na+, and K+
ions
After binding to
the H- XP is
absorbed by the
muscle fiber endplate
146.
1
Drugs that block these channels may prevent the
transmission of excitation from presynaptic to
postsynaptic membrane synapse?
Potassium ATPdependent
Sodium
Potassium
potential
dependent
Calcium
Chloride
147.
1
The release of neurotransmitter by exocytosis at
neuromuscular synapse effectively is blocked by
prevention of exaction:
Output K+ across
the membrane of
the nerve terminal
The spread of AP
in myocyte
membrane
Input of Na+
through the
membrane to the
nerve terminal
Depolarization of
the nerve terminal
Input of Ca2+
through the
membrane finite
particle
148.
1
The speed of agitation axons grow if reduce:
The excitability of
the axon
Refractory period
The diameter of
the axon
Resistance of the
membrane
Capacity
membrane
149.
1
Anesthetic cease conducting of nerve impulses, because
Chloride channels
and increase the
Potassium
channels and
Calcium channels
and reduce input
Sodium channels
and reduce the
Potassium
channels and
they bind to the activate gate:
input of Cl-
increase the output
of K+
Ca2+
input of Na+
reduce the output
of K+
Introduction of atp
Blockade of
acetylcholinesteras
e
Introduction
sodium
150.
1
The patient found muscle weakness due to violation of
neuromuscular transmission. To improve
neuromuscular transmission should be applied:
Introduction
potassium
Introduction of
calcium
151.
1
The patient is a decrease in the rate of excitation along
the nerve fibers. The reason for this may be the most
likely:
Increasing the
ionic asymmetry
The increase in the Reducing the
amplitude of action frequency of AP
potential
Demyelination of
nerve fibers
Reducing the
threshold
depolarization
152.
1
During excitation of myelinated nerve fibers in the
proximal section of the nerve action potential = 120
mV, the next section is damaged and AP is reduced to
60 mV. What is a magnitude AP will be in undamaged
distal section of fiber, if the threshold of depolarization
is 20 mV:
100 mV
20 mV
60 mV
120 mV
Doesn’t occur
153.
1
The action of the neurotransmitter in the synapse results
in:
Formation of
cholinesterase
Presynaptic
membrane
hyperpolarization
Depolarization of
the presynaptic
membrane
Depolarization of
the postsynaptic
membrane
Activation of Ca2+channels
154.
1
The speed of action potential along nerve fibers
increases:
With stimulation
of Na+ / K+ pump
In nonmyelination
fibers
As the diameter of
the fiber
In myelinated
fibers
During
suppression Na+ /
K+ pump
155.
1
Of transport of ions through this channel leads to the
release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic
membrane:
Perchloric channel
Sodium channel
Potassium
channels
Calcium channel
Ligand -dependent
channel
156.
1
Which of the following statements below is true due to
the spreading of axon AP?
Demyelination of
nerve fibers
increases the speed
of conduction of
excitation
Saltatory
conductivity is
related to slow the
spread of AP
AP is distributed in
violation of the
physiological
integrity of the
axon
The speed of
agitation in large
myelinated nerve
fibers is higher
than in small
nonmyelinated
To spread the AP
ATP is used
157.
1
A sciatic nerve, which innervates ankle skeletal muscle,
was irritated with electric current in the experiment.
Glycine
Norepinephrine
Adrenalin
Acetylcholine
Serotonin
What neurotransmitter transmits excitation from nerve
to muscle?
158.
1
Which substance inhibits neuromuscular transmission
in muscles of the trunk and limbs?
Somatostatin
Norepinephrine
Adrenalin
Curare
Aspartate
159.
1
American Indians smeared arrowheads with tree sap,
which contains a substance that causes muscle
relaxation. This kind of substation is used for this
purpose in medicine. Name them?
Gaba
Esterase
Histamine
Curare
Ganglioplegic
160.
1
In surgery to relax skeletal muscles during complex
operations Curariform is used. Enter structure to which
these substances act.
Synaptic structure
of the spinal cord
Basal ganglia
Red nucleus of the
midbrain
Neuromuscular
synapses
Autonomic ganglia
161.
1
Which mediator is present in of neuromuscular synapse
human skeletal muscle:
Adrenalin
Norepinephrine
GABA
Acetylcholine
Glycine
162.
1
Name the potential of the neuromuscular synapse the
postsynaptic membrane:
Excitatory
postsynaptic
Inhibitory
postsynaptic
Elektrotonic
End-plate
There is no right
answer
163.
1
In the experiment under the influence of the chemical
the speed of the action potential in excitable cells of the
tissue substance decreased. What process can be
considered as the most likely?
Reduction of
potassium
inactivation
Reduction of
potassium
conductance
Reducing of
sodium
inactivation
Increased sodium
inactivation
Closure of calcium
channels in cells
164.
1
A man entered Curariform substance resulting in
relaxation of all skeletal muscles. What is causing this?
Violation of the
synthesis of
cholinesterase
Violation of the
synthesis of
acetylcholine
Blockade of Ca2+
channels of
presynaptic
membrane
Blockade of
cholinergic
receptors of
postsynaptic
membrane
Violation of
acetylcholine
release
165.
1
The blockade of excitation along the nerve fibers in the
local lidocaine anestesia is caused by:
Blockade of
potassium
channels
Blockade of K +Na+- ATPase
Calcium channel
blockade
Blockade of fast
sodium channels
Violation of redox
processes in the
fiber
166.
1
In experiments on frog sciatic nerve was affected with
novocaine. Violation of properties of the nerve may
Aksonic transport
Isolated
conduction of
Anatomical
integrity
Physiological
integrity
All answers are
incorrect
occur?
excitation
167.
1
The experiment determined the concentrations of
various ions in the cytoplasm of nerve cells was. The
highest was concentration of ions:
Of Ca2 +
Of Na +
Of Cl-
Of K +
Of HCO3-
168.
1
Nerve stimulated at a frequency 10 times / s in the first
experiment and 1000 / s in the second. Duration of AP 1 ms. How many AP will occur in each of the tests?
In the first - 10 AP
/ s in the second 100 AP / s
In the first - 10 AP
/ s in the second 10 AP / s
In the first - 10 AP
/ s in the second 500 AP / s
In the first - 10 AP
/ s in the second 1000 AP / s
In the first - 10 AP
/ s in the second 200 AP / s
169.
1
Saltatory principle of excitation in the nerve fibers is
caused by:
Diameter of fibers
and the presence or
absence of myelin
sheath
The presence of
myelin sheath
Short period of
refractoriness
The presence on
myelin membrane
Ranve
Synthesis of
neurotransmitter in
the nerve
terminalis
170.
1
Nerve stimulated with at a frequency 10 times / s in the
first experiment and 1000 / s in the second. Duration of
AP - 2 ms. How many AP will occur in each of the
tests?
In the first - 10 AP
/ s in the second 100 AP / s
In the first - 10 AP
/ s in the second 10 AP / s
In the first - 10 AP
/ s in the second 1000 AP / s
In the first - 10 AP
/ s in the second 500 AP / s
In the first - 10 AP
/ s in the second 20 AP / s
171.
1
The inactivation of neurotransmitter of the
neuromuscular synapse of skeletal muscle carrient
mainly due to:
Complete binding
of acetylcholine to
receptors on the
postsynaptic
membrane
Reuptake of
aksonic terminals
Leaching from the
synaptic cleft
Hydrolysis of
cholinesterase
Hydrolysis of
monoamine
oxidase
172.
1
Which of the following statements about synaptic
transmission across the neuromuscular synapse is
correct?
Are caused by the
release of Na+
through the
membrane of
muscle fibers
Increasing at a
high level of
cholinesterase
Caused by the
entrance of K+
across the
membrane of
muscle fibers
Caused by the
release of
acetylcholine from
the αmotoneurons
Activated with
tubo kurarine
173.
1
In the nerve fiber size of overshoot of action potential
normally is a function of:
Axon diameters
Resting membrane
potential
Extracellular Na+
concentration
Intracellular
concentrations of
K+
Values incentives
174.
1
Which of the following characteristics of axon depends
mostly on its diameter?
Duration of
refractory period
The activity of Na+
/ K+ pump
Overshut of action
potential
The speed of the
action potential
The value of the
resting potential
175.
1
Which of the following is closely associated with PEP
(end-plate potential) of the neuromuscular synapse?
The action
potential
"all or nothing"
Hyperpolarization
Depolarization
Potential
dependent target
176.
1
Muscle contracts in isotonic mode. The loading on
muscle was increased. How it appears on the amplitude
of muscle contractions?
Muscle
The amplitude of
contractions
increases
The amplitude
reduction does not
change
The amplitude of
the contractions
diminishes
Switch to isometric
muscle contraction
type
177.
1
Dynamometry – is a measurement of:
Lability
Reaction rate
Strength of
excitation
Muscle strength
Accommodation
178.
1
The working capacity of human was decreased physical
after physical work. Changes in which structures cause
fatigue?
Efferent nerves
Muscles
Afferent nerves
Neuromuscular
synapses
Nerve centers
179.
1
Enter the basic property of skeletal muscle that allows it
to perform highly differentiated movements?
The pressure of
protofibryls
The presence of
large motor units
The presence of
sarcoplasmic
reticulum
The presence of
small motor units
All answers are
incorrect
180.
1
During excitation myocyte sarcoplasmic reticulum
calcium ions, are moving to:
Postsynaptic
membrane
Neuromuscular
synapse
Presynaptic
membrane
Sarcomere
Synaptic cleft
181.
1
The function of calcium in skeletal muscle fibers:
Promote structural
conformations of
actin subunits
Interaction with
myosin
Interaction with
actin
Promotion
conformations,
leading to mutual
displacement of
actin and myosin
Promote structural
conformations of
myosin
182.
1
The stimulation with a frequency of 35 Hz is applied on
isolated frog calf in the experiment. What type of
contraction occurs?
Complete tetanus
Isotonic
Isometric
Incomplete tetanus
Mixed
183.
1
During the patient observation it became necessary to
determine the strength of the chewing muscles. What
research method should be used?
Myoarthrography
Masticatiography
(graphic method of
registration of
function of the
masticatory
apparatus)
Electromyography
Gnathodynamomet
ry
Electric pulp test
184.
1
In the experiment stimulation of skeletal muscle was
conducted with series of electrical pulses. What type of
muscle contraction would occur if each successive
pulse falls between shortening of a single muscle
contraction?
A series of single
contractions
Incomplete tetanus
Asynchronous
tetanus
Complete tetanus
Muscle contracture
185.
1
In the experiment, isolated frog muscle is irritated with
electric rhythmic pulses. Each subsequent pulse falls
between a relaxation of the previous cuts. What type of
muscle contraction will occur?
Complete tetanus
Asynchronous
Isolated
Incomplete tetanus
Tonic
186.
1
The main depot of Ca2 + is:
Nucleus
Ribosomes
Mitochondria
Sarcoplasmic
reticulum
Plate set
187.
1
To what type of contraction a smooth muscle is adapted
for?
Isolated
Isotonic
Isometric
Tonic
Auxotonic
188.
1
What type of muscle contraction occurs during bending
arms at the elbow?
Auxotonic
Phase
Isometric
Isotonic
All answers are
incorrect
189.
1
Power developed by muscle is insufficient to lift the
burden. What type of muscle contraction occurs in this
case?
Eccentric
Titanic
Isotonic
Isometric
All answers are
incorrect
190.
1
It is known that myocyte shortening occurs due to the
interaction of contractile proteins sarcomere involving
energy of ATP. Which pair of proteins provides the
process?
Actin and
tropomyosin
Troponin and
myosin
Myosin and
myoglobin
Actin and myosin
Myoglobin and
Tropinin
191.
1
Athlete beginner 18 years old appealed to the doctor
with a complaint on the development of muscle
cramping legs during long competition. What is the
basis for this phenomenon?
Reduced
excitability of
myocytes
Violation of the
K+- pump
Increasing
concentrations of
Ca2 +
Reducing the
concentration of
ATP
Violation of the
Na+ - pump
192.
1
Athletes, runners are divided into sprinters and stayers,
some reach great results in short-distance races, and
others - in long-distance. What physiological
mechanisms underlie this phenomenon?
The difference in
the ratio of ionic
composition of
sarcoplasm fibers
The difference in
the total number of
fibers of the
muscles
The difference in
the volumes of the
muscles
The difference in
the ratio of fast and
slow muscle fibers
of the muscles
The difference in
the length of the
fibers of the
muscles sarcomers
of the muscles
193.
1
During an experiment content of Ca2+ sharply dropped
in the blood. How can it affect the functional state of
the skeletal muscle?
Prolonged
relaxation time
Contractility can
increase
Improved
neuromuscular
excitation transfer
With reduced
strength
contraction,
reduced work
capacity
Functional
background does
not change
194.
1
Athlete’s long-term training to prepare him to marathon
race were found ineffective. Which morphofunctional
characteristics of muscle tissue it can be related with?
Heterohronim
A great number of
slow muscle fibers
Izohronism
Small number of
slow muscle fibers
Lack of fast fibers
195.
1
Isolated frog calf was applied stimulation with a
frequency of 1 Hz in experiments. What type of
contraction occurs?
Titans
Incomplete tetanus
Complete tetanus
Isolated
No contraction
196.
1
The excitability of which muscles is the highest if
chronaxie is determined like:
0.20 ms
0.16 ms
0.32 ms
0.08 ms
0.11 ms
197.
1
What does occur firstly during the latent period of
muscle fibers:
Blockade of ATP phase
Activation of Ca2+pump
The formation of
cross- bridges
Generation of AP
Reducing the
concentration of
Ca2+
198.
1
Tropomyosin in skeletal muscle:
Opens Ca2+
channels of
sarcoplasmic
reticulum
Is an important
regulatory protein
involved in the
coupling of
excitation and
contraction
Pumps Ca2+ ions
back into the
sarcoplasmic
reticulum
Blocks access of
miosine cross
bridges to actin
All of the above is
incorrect
199.
1
Duration of single contraction is 0.2 s, and time of
contraction - 0.1 sec. What type of contraction occurs
during muscle stimulation with a frequency of 50 hertz?
Isometric
Single contractions
Incomplete tetanus
Complete tetanus
Isotonic
200.
1
Increasing the amplitude of titanic muscle contraction is
the result of direct increasing of:
Cost of ATP in
muscle fibers
The amplitudes of
AP in muscle
fibers
Excitability of
muscle fibers
The concentration
of calcium in
muscle fibers
The concentrations
of acetylcholine in
the synaptic cleft
201.
1
During surgery the animal was introduced a drug that
blocks the action of acetylcholine (tubocurarine). What
muscular reaction should be expected in this case?
No reaction
Hypertonicity of
skeletal muscle
Hypertonicity of
smooth muscle
Muscle relaxation
Periodic reduction
202.
1
What property do ionic channels of skeletal muscle
end-plate have?
Atropine blocked
Activated by
depolarization
Highly selective
for sodium
Activated by
acetylcholine
Determines the
relative
refractoriness
203.
1
What does increase during the active phase of
contraction in muscle fibers mainly?
The amplitude of
the action potential
The concentration
of sodium ions
The concentration
of potassium ions
The concentration
of calcium ions
Excitability
204.
1
Duration of single contraction is 0,1 sec. What
minimum frequency irritation should be applied with to
appear uncomplete tetanus?
> 20 Hz
<10 Hz
10 Hz
> 10 Hz
> 25 Hz
205.
1
Repeated stimulation of skeletal muscle fiber causes
titanium contraction increasing the intracellular
concentration of one of the following substances:
ATP
Na+
K+
Ca2 +
Troponin
206.
1
Reducing the length of the muscle during its contraction
is due to:
Released Ca2+
from AB
Reduction of actin
filaments
Reduction of
myosin filaments
Sliding actin
filaments along
myosin filaments
Reduction of
tropomyosin
207.
1
Single contraction period is 0.05 s, and the period of
contraction - 0.02 sec. What is the minimum frequency
the irritation should be to appear complete tetanus?
50
<20
25
> 50
<50
208.
1
Calcium triggers contraction of skeletal muscle by
binding to:
Myosin
Ca2+-ATPase
Actinium
Troponin
Tropomyosin
209.
1
Normal skeletal muscle relaxation depends on:
Enhanced
destruction of
neurotransmitter acetylcholine - the
synapse
Reducing the
concentration of
ATP in the
sarcomere
Stimulation of
muscle fiber
membranes with
less frequency
Active transport of
calcium ions in the
sarcoplasmic
reticulum
Increased
intracellular pH
210.
1
Reduction of ATP in the muscle fibers will lead to a
lack of:
The formation of
actin- miosin
The release of ions
Ca2+ from tanks
Generation of the
action potential
Removing the
cross- bridges
Conjugation of
excitation and
bridges
during contraction
contraction
211.
1
Muscle strength will increase:
When the number
of troponin will
increased
With decreasing its
original length
By increasing the
activity of Ca2+ATPase
When the number
of cross- bridges
will increase
When the number
of tropomyosin
will increase
212.
1
Increasing the concentration of which ion will lead to a
significant increase in strength of muscle contraction?
Na+
K+
Mg2+
Ca2+
Cl-
213.
1
The absent of which ions dips conduction of excitation
neuro muscular synapse?
Chloride ions
Of sodium
Potassium ions
Calcium
Magnesium ions
214.
1
Motoneuron and muscle fibers innervated by it are
called:
Senser field of
muscle
The motor muscle
Muscle nerve
center
Motor unit
There is no right
answer
215.
1
In the experiment tired muscles was affected with
adrenaline, resulting in increased amplitude of muscle
contraction. What underlies in this muscles answer?
Rack membrane
depolarization
Reducing the
concentration of
calcium ions in the
sarcoplasm of
muscle fibers
Inactivation of
calcium channels
Increasing the
number of working
cross bridges
Reducing the
critical level of
depolarization
216.
1
The concentration of calcium ions in the cytoplasm of
muscle fibers increased after affect of the chemical
substance affect in the experimental. How this will
affect the amplitude of the single contraction?
Reduction will not
occur
Will decrease
Will not change
Will increase
No correct answer
217.
1
A steady miofybryl contraction of muscle cells not been
observed in the experiment due to the accumulation of
ions in the cytoplasm:
Magnesium
Potassium
Sodium
Calcium
Hydrogen
218.
1
Isolated muscle placed in Krebs solution was affected
with subthreshold stimulus. What kind of reaction we
should expect to the impact of the stimulus?
Hyperpolarization
of the membrane
Inactivation of ion
channels
The action
potential
Local response
Titanium
contractions
219.
1
Calcium in mioplasme is nessesary for:
Creation of
tropomyosin
Opening of bridges
Formation of
myosin heads
Locking of bridges
Distribution of AP
220.
1
Reducing the muscle length occurs during its
contraction due to:
Released Ca2+
Reduction of actin
filaments
Reduction of
myosin filaments
Actin filaments
slide along the
Contraction of
sarcolemma
myosin filaments
221.
1
The system of transverse T- tubules skeletal muscle:
Pamps Ca2+ from
the extracellular
fluid in the tank
terminal SR
Deposits Ca2+,
which is released
during the
coupling of
excitation and
contraction
Blocks release of
Ca2 +
Conducts AP into
the cell
All of the above
are wrong
222.
1
What is a role of Ca2+ in muscle contraction:
Promotes the
formation of
tropomyosin
Leads to the
disintegration of
ATP
Brakes Na+-K + /
ATPase activity
Promotes
interaction of
myosin with actin
through activation
of troponin –
tropomiosine
Compactes
membrane
223.
1
Which of the following statements is true regarding the
role of ATP in skeletal muscles?
ATP is required
for activation
rianodyne receptor
ATP is required
for the release of
Ca2+ from the
sarcoplasmic
reticulum during
excitation and
contraction
coupling
ATP is required
for excitation in
the T- tubules
ATP is needed to
remove the crossbridges during
muscle contraction
ATP is required
for the binding of
Ca2+ to troponin
224.
1
Under what conditions the frog leg ankle muscle will
not contract?
At threshold
stimulation with
frequency of 100
Hz
In isolated
stimulation
threshold strength
In rare irritation
with
suprathreshold
strength
In rare
subthreshold
stimulation
strength
At threshold
stimulation with
frequency of 1 Hz
225.
1
Why during increase of strength of the stimulus
increases the amplitude of single muscle contractions
skeletal muscle?
Because of there is
a summation of
individual
contractions in the
muscle
Because of
enhanced
contraction of each
muscle fiber
Because of next
irritation occurs in
phase of increased
excitability of the
previous excitation
Beacause it is
involved in
reducing the large
numer of muscle
fibers
Because of a result
of summation of
all the above
processes
226.
1
In the experiment under the influence of chemical
substances in muscles Ca2+ - pump was imparied. What
Reducing the
The increase of AP
Reduction of the
The increase of the
Activation of
sodium- potassium
effects will occur at the same time?
velocity of AP
resting potential
relaxation
pump
227.
1
The action potential plays the following role in the
mechanism of muscle contraction:
Causes shortening
of actin filaments
Causes
depolarization of
contractile proteins
Leads to activation
of ATP
Leads to increase
of permeability to
Ca2+ ions
Causes shortening
of myosin
filaments
228.
1
Uncomplete tetanus obtained in the experiment. How to
change the conditions of the experiment to obtain a
complete tetanus?
Do not need to
change
Should reduce the
frequency of
stimulation
The frequency of
stimulation can
stag amperage
should bee,
increase
Should increase
the frequency of
stimulation
Necessary to
reduce irritation
and frequency, and
amperage
229.
1
An athlete obtained a muscle contracture after workout.
This muscle loses elasticity and gradually hardens as it
does not have the ability to relax. Add a probable cause
of contracture?
Restructuring of
tropomiosine
Reduction of Ca2+
in the blood
Increased lactic
acid in the blood
Reducing the
concentration of
ATP
Increased K+ in
blood
230.
1
Why during an increase of stimulation strength the
amplitude of muscle contraction increases?
The number of
contacts between
actin and myosin
in each muscle
fiber increase
The number of
neurotransmitter at
neuromuscular
synapses increase
Increases the
concentration of
calcium in each
muscle fiber
The number of
muscle contracted
fibers increase
Progressively
decrease the length
of sarcomers in
muscle fibers
231.
1
In the experiment on white rat muscle excitability was
studied. Researcher had to reduce the excitability of
muscle. Which drug should be used for this purpose?
Acetylcholine
Tetraethylammoni
um
Tubocurarine
Tetrodotoxine
ATP
232.
1
If the interaction between actin and myosin in skeletal
muscle in pathological processes is changed so that
connections can be established, but not disconnected,
then the muscle:
During stimulation
will contracted and
relax as usual
Will contracted
with high speed
ATP hydrolysis
will occur at
higher levels with
stimulation
Will be tight and
inelastic
Will lose bending
233.
1
Why does muscle contraction happen?
Because of the
lack of calcium
Because of a
decrease of the
number of proteins
Because of a
decrease of body
temperature
Because of a
decrease of ATP
concentration in
the muscle below
the critical value
Because of an
excess of calcium
234.
1
The appearance of tetanus muscle contraction depends
on:
Speed of
propagation of
excitation in
muscle
Duration of single
stimulation
Strength of single
stimulation
Frequencies of
stimulation
Speed of growth of
stimulation
strength
235.
1
Choose the correct sequence of muscle contractions
regime change during increasing of stimulation.
frequency
Complete tetanus incomplete tetanus
- single contraction
Complete tetanus single contraction incomplete tetanus
Single contraction
- complete tetanus
- incomplete
tetanus
Single contraction
– incomplete
tetanus - complete
tetanus
Incomplete tetanus
- complete tetanus
- single contraction
236.
1
Why does amplitude of skeletal muscle contraction not
sumit to the law of "all or nothing" with increasing of
strength of direct stimulation of muscle?
Postsynaptic
potentials are
summed
Action potentials
in each nerve fiber
are summed
Nerve action
potentials are
summed
Single motor units
of muscle
contraction are
summed
Single muscle
contraction are
summed
237.
1
In the solution, with placed nerve- muscle preparation
ancle muscle of the frog, Neostigmine added to inhibit
cholinesterase activity. Why motor nerve stimulation
would not lead to muscle contraction?
Potassium
conductance of
end-plate has
decreased
Sodium
conductance of
end-plate has
decreased
Calcium
conductance of
presynaptic
membrane has
increased
A stable end-plate
depolarization has
appeared
Release of
acetylcholine in
the synaptic cleft
has decreased
238.
1
In cross- skeletal muscles:
Contraction caused
by the interaction
between actin and
tropomyosin
Relaxation caused
by passive
absorption of
calcium by
sarcoplasmic
reticulum
Contraction due to
calcium binding to
tropomyosin
Contraction caused
by the binding of
calcium to
troponin
Contraction caused
by the release of
calcium from the
T- tubules
239.
2
After a long training an athlete has developed a sharp
decrease in fatigue performance. Which link of reflex
arc fatigue came first?
In efferent
conductor
In afferent
conductor
In receptors
In the nerve
centers
In muscles
240.
2
In patients with multiple sclerosis the integrity of the
myelin sheath of axons was revoted. What function of
neurons was violated in the first place?
Receptor
Integrative
Memorial
Conductive
Trophic
241.
2
In patient semiunipolar spinal neurons nodes perished
as a result of viral infection. What link of reflex arc was
Neurons in the
lateral horn cores
Plug neurons
Motor neurons
Sensory neurons
Associative
neurons
damaged?
242.
2
Which of the following is not a reflex?
Muscle relaxation
in response to its
rapid contraction
Narrowing of the
pupil in bright
light
Cough in response
to irritation of
upper respiratory
tract
Muscle contraction
in response to
stimulation of
efferent nerve
fibers
Muscle contraction
in response to
stretching
243.
2
What link of reflex arc carries the perception of
information on the effects of stimulus analysis and
coding?
Afferent fibers
Nerve center
Body - effector
Receptor
Efferent fibers
244.
2
What link of circuit biological regulation provides an
opportunity of “deviation regulation”?
This link does not
exist
External
connection channel
Direct connection
channel
Channel feedback
All answers are
correct
245.
2
A spinal frog bending a time of protective reflex was
examined, leg frog was plunged in a glass with a weak
solution of sulfuric acid. Once the skin has been
removed from knee and lower reflex disappeared.
Withdrawal of which link of reflex arc leads to loss of
the reflex?
Plug- neuron
Afferent neurons
Efferent neurons
Receptive field
Feedback
246.
2
Which of the answers are the main properties of the
nerve centers?
One-tailed
conduction of
excitation. Of
excitation on an
"all or nothing".
Low lability.
Ability of temporal
and spatial
summation of
excitation. The
ability to transform
pulse rate
One-direction
conduction of
excitation. Delayed
excitation. The
high lability.
Ability of temporal
and spatial
summation of
excitation. The
ability to transform
pulse rate
Bidirectional
conduction of
excitation. Of
excitation delayed.
Low lability.
Ability of temporal
and spatial
summation of
excitation. The
ability to transform
pulse rate
One-direction
There is no correct
conduction of
answer
excitation. Delayed
excitation. Low
lability. Ability of
temporal and
spatial summation
of excitation. The
ability to transform
pulse rate
247.
2
What is a function of the nerve center?
Perceives the
stimulus energy
and converts it into
Provides
information about
the work of
Receives and
stores information
Provides analysis
and synthesis of
Forms receptive
field
nerve impulses
effector
information
248.
2
How are the substances that imitate the action of the
neurotransmitter called?
Antagonists
G-proteins
Cyclic compounds
Agonists
Second
messengers
249.
2
Enter the neurotransmitters of the brain engaged in
synaptic transmission at inhibitory synapses:
Norepinephrine
ATP
Glutamate
Glycine
There is no right
answer
250.
2
Why one and the same substance can act as both
excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitter?
A change in the
physicochemical
properties of a
protein receptor
EPSP occurs
during
neurotransmitter
secretion, IPSP without secretion
Due to changes in
the chemical
properties of
matter
Due to the
presence of
different types of
postsynaptic
membrane
receptors
By changing the
Ca2+ conductance
251.
2
What neurons are present in double neuron reflex arc?
Central and
peripheral
Motor and insert
Contact and
afferent
Afferent and
efferent
There is no right
answer
252.
2
Can one and the same substance serve as inhibitory and
excitatory neurotransmitter?
It can, for example
GABA
Can not
It can, for example
glycine
It can, for example
AcH and
noradrenaline
It may, for
example histamine
253.
2
How many central synapses the simplest reflex arc
contains?
3
4
2
1
More than 3
254.
2
Select a substance that blocks the inhibitory synapses:
Acetylcholine
Glycine
Norepinephrine
Strychnine
GABA
255.
2
The main inhibitory effect of glycine is linked with:
Reduction of Na +conductance
Reduction of
calcium current
Increase of Cl conductance
Increase of K+
conductance
Increase of Na +conductance
256.
2
Athletes with tendon sprain use chloroethyl which is
applied to the injured surface and leads to the cessation
of pain. At which part of the reflex arc effect of the
drug primarily intended?
The nerve centers
of the spinal cord
Effector
Efferent nerve
fiber
Receptor
Plug neurons
257.
2
How to dedivide neurons for physiological function:
Excitatory and
inhibitory
Multipolar,
bipolar, unipolar,
psevdounipolar
Cholinergic,
noradrenergic,
dopaminergic,
serotonergic,
Sensory (afferent),
associative (false),
motor (efferent)
Myelinated and
unmiyelinated
GABA - ergic,
hlutaminergic,
hlitsynergic
258.
2
Which of the lists describes correctly the properties of
synapses?
Bidirectional
conduction of
excitation, low
lability, fatigue
Excitation of onetailed, high
lability, fatigue
Bidirectional
conduction of
excitation, the high
lability, slow
fatigue
One-direction
conduction of
excitation, low
lability, fatigue
Excitation of onetailed, high
lability, slow
fatigue
259.
2
What causes the ortodromic direction of the excitation
in nerve fiber in the body?
The presence of
neurofilamenty
The presence of
interception
Ranvie
The presence of
myelin sheath
The presence of
synapses
The presence of
microglia
260.
2
What of the following is not a reflex?
Contraction of the
muscles of the
foot, when stroke
neurological
hammer on the
dnile tendon
Withdrawal hands
when you touch
the hot
Muscle relaxation
in response to a
decrease
Joining oxygen to
hemoglobin and
oxyhemoglobin
formation
Dilated pupils with
decreasing light
261.
2
Define the concept of "reflex":
The way in which
the spread of
excitation in the
irritable
Center, where the
excitation is
switched on
sensitive way on
the motor
The reaction of the
organism to
stimulation
Adaptive reaction
to the irritant
action involving
the nerve center
By spreading the
excitement of
receptor nerve
center
262.
2
What is a reflex?
The reaction of the
body to the action
of external stimuli
or internal
environment
Adaptation of
excitable tissues to
speed the growth
stimulus strength
Property excitable
tissues to respond
to the stimulus
effect of excitation
Natural reaction of
the body to the
action of external
stimuli or internal
environment,
which is
implemented with
the participation of
the central nervous
system
All answers are
correct
263.
2
By means of what mechanism of the biological
regulation the regulation of motor responses is
provided?
Enzymatic
regulation
Humoral
regulation
Miogenic
regulation
Neural regulation
Gene regulation
264.
2
What is not characteristic for the reflex activity?
Modification of
pulses coming
from different
parts of the CNS
Transferring
within the reflex
arc occurs with at
least one synapse
Often occurs
unconsciously
May provide
somatic or visceral
reaction, but not
simultaneously
It can
simultaneously
provide some
muscle contraction
and relaxation of
other
265.
2
In the study of the reflex arc excluded receptor chain.
What are the functions of the units will be affected?
Information
processing,
communication
Encoding of
information,
communication
The perception of
the stimulus,
communication
The perception of
stimulus analysis,
coding
Perception of
information,
analysis of
information,
communication
266.
2
The central synapse proteins have been activated
receptor postsynaptic membrane, increasing
permeability for potassium ion channels, the emergence
of CST. What neurotransmitter causes this effect?
Acetylcholine
Norepinephrine
Vasopressin
Glycine
cAMP
267.
2
The central reflex time is -
Duration of
repetition in
efferent neurons
Duration of
stimulation of
receptors
Duration of
repetition in
afferent neurons
Duration of
excitation through
the nerve center
At the beginning
of stimulation until
the reflex response
268.
2
Which of the following is not characteristic for
neuromuscular synapses of skeletal muscles?
The mediator is
acetylcholine
To excite only one
muscle fiber action
potential
End plate
containing Ncholinergic
receptors, which
are ionotropic
End plate
containing Ncholinergic
receptors, which
are metabotropic
Transmit only
excitation
269.
2
Time of a reflex - is:
Duration of
repetition in
afferent neurons
Duration
vnutrishnotsentraln
oho of excitation
of afferent neurons
in the efferent
Duration of
stimulation of
receptors
The interval from
start of stimulation
of receptors to the
appearance of the
reflex response
Duration of
repetition in
efferent neurons
270.
2
In the postsynaptic inhibition of postsynaptic membrane
permeability is responsible
Calcium
Sodium
Magnesium
Potassium
Iron
271.
2
A person suffering from tetanus in cause by minor
irritations does have cramps. What process is
suppressed in the central nervous system caused by
tetanus toxin?
Excitement,
exciting selection
of neurotransmitter
GABA from
presynaptic ending
Presynaptic
inhibition,
acetylcholine
release from
presynaptic ending
Reverse inhibition,
blockade of Mcholinergic
receptors
postsynaptic
membrane
Postsynaptic
inhibition, the
allocation of
glycine from
presynaptic ending
Excitation
selection glycine
from presynaptic
ending
272.
2
Postsynaptic inhibition develops as a result of:
Reducing the
frequency of the
excitation pulses
Block exciting
neurotransmitter
Increase the
frequency of the
excitation pulses
Block inhibitory
neurotransmitter
Increasing the
interval between
excitation pulses
273.
2
In the experiment study on the reflexes, was founded
that the reaction -response occurred when were applied
stimulus to the neuron number of consecutive
subthreshold. What property of the nerve centers
manifested in this situation?
Delay
Fatigue
Transformation
rate
Summation
excitation
Synaptic delay
274.
2
The frog was introduction strychnine, after it the
nominal shoved generalized convulsions in a respond
on irritation. Blockade of CNS structures is the cause of
such a response?
Adrenoceptor
Excitatory
synapses
Renshaw cells
Brake synapses
Cholinergic
275.
2
After the introduction of the solution of the chemical in
response to stimulation of the frog showed generalized
seizures. What matter was introduced?
Serotonin
Adrenalin
Acetylcholine
Strychnine
Dopamine
276.
2
In the experiment was found that after the excitation of
motoneurons of the flexor muscles, was inhibited
motoneurons extensor muscles. What type of inhibition
was in the basis for this phenomenon?
Pesymalne
Contrary
Braking after the
excitation
Reciprocal
Lateral
277.
2
In clinical practice, a patient with increased excitability
used sedative pills with sodium bromide. What is the
mechanism of it action?
Reverse braking,
increase
postsynaptic
membrane
Lateral inhibition,
increase
postsynaptic
membrane
Presynaptic
inhibition,
increased
permeability of the
Postsynaptic
inhibition,
increased
permeability of the
Postsynaptic
inhibition, increase
postsynaptic
membrane
permeability
channels for Na+
permeability
channels for Na+
postsynaptic
membrane
channels for K +
postsynaptic
membrane
channels for K+
permeability
channels for Na+
278.
2
What should be the frequency of presynaptic nerve
impulses to the body of the neuron it was consistent
summation of EPSP and EPSP duration was 15 ms?
33 pulses per
second
30 pulses per
second
55 pulses per
second
67 pulses per
second
44 pulses per
second
279.
2
In the intensive care unit admitted patients with seizures
of central origin, in which strychnine poisoning was
diagnosed. What is the mechanism behind this
phenomenon?
Incentive
allocation
inhibitory
neurotransmitter
Block allocation
exciting mediator
Stimulation of the
neuromodulator
Blocking of the
inhibitory
neurotransmitter
Promote exciting
selection of a
mediator
280.
2
How does nicotine influense on the course of the nerve
processes?
Compounding
processes of
excitation in the
cerebral cortex
Increases braking
and reduces
excitatory process
of the brain
Blocks
transmission of
information in the
reticular formation
Reduces braking
and enhances
excitatory
processes in the
cerebral cortex
Reduces the
processes of
excitation in the
cerebral cortex
281.
2
Which of the following properties of the nerve centers
enhance the sensitivity of the analyzer?
Delay,
transformation
Divergence,
occlusion
Facilitation,
inhibition
Convergence,
summation
Irradiation, the
concentration
282.
2
In the central synapse has been activated receptor of
postsynaptic membrane and increasing permeability for
potassium ion channels. Which neurotransmitter cause
this effect?
Vasopressin
Norepinephrine
Acetylcholine
Glycine
Camp
283.
2
The patient complains that loud sounds and bright lights
enhance the toothache. Which of the following
properties of the nerve centers provide this
phenomenon?
The phenomenon
of relief
Summation of
excitation
The transformation
rate of excitation
The principle of
dominance in the
nerve center
Irradiation of
excitation
284.
2
What are the different types of postsynaptic inhibition
depending on the structure of inhibitory neural chain?
The converse,
exterior,
depolarization
Reciprocal, lateral,
external
Reverse, lateral
and hiperpolar
Reciprocal, reverse
and lateral
Lateral, internal
and otherwise
285.
2
In the central synapse has been activated receptor of
postsynaptic membrane, and increasing permeability to
sodium ion channels, the emergence IPSP. What
Camp
Glycine
GABA
Norepinephrine
Vasopressin
neurotransmitter causes this effect?
286.
2
In the clinic for the treatment of certain CNS diseases
involving intense stimulation of certain areas of the
brain, such as epilepsy, use mediators of CNS. What
function they provide in the CNS and to which group of
chemicals they belong?
Exciting, amines,
dopamine,
serotonin
Brake,
neuropeptides,
vasopressin
Exciting, amines,
acetylcholine,
norepinephrine
Brake, amino
acids, GABA,
glycine
Brake,
acetylcholine,
norepinephrine
287.
2
The central nervous system contains a black substance
that determines the secretion of mediators:
Acetylcholine
Serotonin
Adrenaline
Dopamine
GABA
288.
2
In order to better hearing very quiet sounds, the man
closed his eyes, not diverted to the effect of other
stimuli and focused on the perception of sounds. What
is the principle of information processing in the
auditory sensory system which helps with the
perception of sound best?
Multichannel
signal
Formation of fire
occlusion
Formation of the
fire relief
Formation of a
dominant focus
Formation of
spinal finite path
289.
2
The total possible final way by Sherrington phenomena:
Braking
Divergence
Occlusion
Convergence
Reverb
290.
2
In experiment the animal is after intramuscular
injection of strychnine solution having convulsive
contraction of skeletal muscle in response to the
weakest stimulation weakest. Violation of which
process in the CNS result is?
Reverse inhibition
Excitability of
spinal interneurons
Presynaptic
inhibition
Postsynaptic
inhibition of spinal
motoneurons
Depolarization
inhibition
291.
2
Motoneurons are simultaneously fit 15 excitatory nerve
impulses. Will motor neurons generate efferent nerve
impulses when the amplitude of single EPSP on the
membrane is 1mV?
So as to facilitate
the process of
No, the process of
inhibition
Total EPSP
reaches a critical
level E
Thus, since the
total exceeds the
threshold
depolarization
EPSP
No, because the
total EPSP exceeds
the threshold
depolarization
292.
2
Motoneurons are simultaneously fit 8 excitatory nerve
impulses. Will motor neurons generate efferent nerve
impulses when the amplitude of single EPSP on t`he
membrane is 2 mV?
No, the process of
inhibition
No, EPSP total
reaches a critical
level of
depolarization
No, there is a
Thus, since the
process to facilitate total exceeds the
threshold
depolarization
EPSP
No, because the
total EPSP exceeds
the threshold
depolarization
293.
2
In the central synapse have been activated proteins
receptor of postsynaptic membrane, increasing
permeability for potassium ion channels, the emergence
of IPSP. Which neurotransmitter causes this effect?
cAMP
Norepinephrine
Acetylcholine
Glycine
Vasopressin
294.
2
In the experiment in frog cut the brain at the level of the
thalamus, determined the time of spinal reflex. After
that, in the cat the lens NaCl, which resulting in a
dramatically increased spinal reflex. What process in
the CNS illustrate this research?
Functional
plasticity
Excitation
Tone nerve centers
Braking
Posttetanichna
potentiation
295.
2
Fast depolarization of a membrane caused an increase
in membrane permeability for ions:
Zinc
Calcium
Magnesium
Sodium
Chlorine
296.
2
The emergence of EPSP increase postsynaptic
membrane permeability for ions:
Phosphorus
Magnesium
Sodium
Potassium
Zinc
297.
2
What process underlies the development of
postsynaptic inhibition?
The decrease in
membrane
potential
Depolarization
The disappearance
of the membrane
potential
Hyperpolarization
Activation of Na+N+ pump
298.
2
With the formation of the inhibitory postsynaptic
potential in chemical GABA- ergic synapse occurs:
Postsynaptic
membrane
repolarization
Postsynaptic
membrane
depolarization
Presynaptic
membrane
hyperpolarization
Postsynaptic
membrane
hyperpolarization
Hyperpolarization
of the synaptic
cleft
299.
2
Mechanism of EPSP in chemical GABA- ergic synapse
are:
Postsynaptic
membrane
repolarization
Postsynaptic
membrane
depolarization
Presynaptic
membrane
depolarization
Postsynaptic
membrane
hyperpolarization
Presynaptic
membrane
hyperpolarization
300.
2
The emergence EPSP caused an increase postsynaptic
membrane permeability for ions:
Potassium
Calcium
Magnesium
Sodium
Chlorine
301.
2
In the chronic experiment to the animals were injected
substance that blocks postsynaptic inhibition. What
material was used?
Acetylcholine
Penicillin
Aspartate
Strychnine
Glutamate
302.
2
The central synapse which activation postsynaptic
membrane receptor proteins, increased permeability of
ion channels for sodium, there was EPSP. What is the
Cyclic AMP
Glycine
GABA
Dopamine
Aspartate
mediator of a group of amines caused this effect?
303.
2
Excitatory neurotransmitters in the central nervous
system may be all of the chemical substance, except:
Substance p
Serotonin
Norepinephrine
Glucinium
Dopamine
304.
2
In experiments to the animal induced were conducted
injection of drugs that blocks postsynaptic inhibition
(strychnine). What is the muscular reaction occurs at
the same time?
Small spasms of
skeletal muscles
without CNS
excitation
CNS Inhibition of
skeletal muscle
cramps
Inhibition of CNS
muscle relaxation
The excitation of
the central nervous
system of seizure
of all skeletal
muscles
No reaction
305.
2
Which phenomenon occurs in neurons, if due to spatial
or temporal summation ZPSP reaches a critical level of
depolarization?
Hyperpolarization
Polarization
CST
The action
potential
Resting potential
306.
2
Inhibitory effect of glycine is due to:
Reduction of
potassium
conductance
Increase sodium
conductance
Reduction of
calcium
conductance
Increase perchloric
conductivity
Reduction of
perchloric
conductivity
307.
2
What is the opposite of inhibition in the CNS?
Braking is via axo
- axonal synapse
Excessive
depolarization of
nerve endings
Inhibition caused
by the action of the
inhibitory
neurotransmitter
Inhibition of
Inhibition of alphaRenshaw cells with motoneurons of
antagonistic
muscles
308.
2
Under the transformation rate of the in nerve center we
understand:
The spread of
excitation in the
central nervous
system
Direction of
propagation of
excitation
The circulation of
neural impulses in
closed circuits
Increase or
decrease the
number of pulses
at the output
compared to the
input
Unilateralism of
excitation
309.
2
What is the phenomenon of a dominant?
Formation in the
CNS neural circuit
occlusion
Formation in the
CNS center
reduced
excitability
The formation of a
new center in the
CNS
Formation in the
CNS center
increased
excitability
No correct answer
310.
2
What happens when under inhibition of presynaptic of
excitatory nerve endings?
Violation of the
synthesis of the
The increase in the
diffusion of
neurotransmitters
Rack
hyperpolarization
Rack
depolarization of
nerve endings and
Reducing the
sensitivity of the
postsynaptic
neurotransmitter
across the synaptic
cleft
of the nerve ending
reduce the release
of neurotransmitter
membrane to the
neurotransmitter
311.
2
After examination of the patient in the clinic of nervous
diseases was found bleeding in the brain stem and no
constriction of the pupil when exposed to light. With
the defeat which of the nuclei of the brain stem is that
connected?
Midbrain reticular
nuclei
The lateral
reticular nucleus of
the medulla
oblongata
Red nuclei of the
midbrain
Cores Yakubovich
- Edinhera Westphal midbrain
Black substances
312.
2
Patient after injury was impaired with swallowing.
Defer of part of CNS is likely the cause of this?
The hypothalamus
Spinal cord at the
level THII -IV
Spinal cord at the
level of CV -VI
Medulla
Midbrain
313.
2
In response to muscle stretch is seen reflectory
contraction of it. Irritation of which receptors begin this
reflex reaction?
Arthrous
Tactile
Golgi tendon
receptors
Muscle spindles
Pain
314.
2
During examination a patient has a violation elbow
reflexes. Where localized fire damage to the spinal
cord?
CVI - TI
CI - CV
SVII - CVIII
CV - CVIII
CVI - CV
315.
2
In the experiment, the animal cut the posterior roots of
the spinal cord. What changes occur in the area of
innervation cut backs?
Increased muscle
tone
Loss of motor
function
Reduced muscle
tone
Loss of sensitivity
Loss of sensation
and motor function
316.
2
After the earthquake the patient was transported to the
hospital with spinal cord injury, left part of body (below
the injuries), was no physical activity and
proprioreceptive sensitivity, and the right - no pain
sensitivity. Which state is observed in the patient?
Nystagmus
Bell- magendie
syndrome
Spinal shock
Syndrome brownsekara
Transfusion shock
317.
2
After the destruction of CNS structures pet lost
oriyentuvalni reflexes. What is it destroyed?
Black stuff
Red nucleus
Lateral vestibular
nucleus
Corpora
quadrigemina
The medial
reticular nucleus
318.
2
If the damage medulla dysfunction which centers
primarily leads to death?
Protective reflexes,
digestive
Motor reflexes,
gastrointestinal
Muscle tone and
protective reflexes
Respiratory,
cardiovascular
May, muscle tone
319.
2
When examining a patient was detected violation of
abdominal reflexes. Where is localized fire damage to
SI-SII
CV-CVIII
LIII-LIV
TVII-TXII
LI-LIII
the spinal cord?
320.
2
Experimental studies on rats after spinal cord cat
allowed to explore the mechanisms of spinal shock.
What is one of the main reasons for this phenomenon
by modern ideas?
Disorders of the
cardiovascular
system
Increased activity
of autonomous
reactions
Increased
excitability of
neurons in the
spinal cord
Removing the
descending
reticular formation
activating effects
Removal of
descending
inhibitory
influences of the
reticular formation
321.
2
In the experiment, the animal cut five front segments of
the spinal cord. What changes have been made in the
area of innervation?
Loss of
temperature
sensitivity
Loss of
proprioceptive
sensitivity
Loss of tactile
sensitivity
Loss of motor
function
Hypersensitivity
322.
2
In frogs was destroyed CNS structure, after it animal
leaned towards to sice of destruction, due to a
significant decrease in the tone of extensor muscles.
What structure destroyed?
Corpora
quadrigemina
Red nucleus
Black stuff
Lateral vestibular
nucleus
Pale ball
323.
2
During the pathologists study of spinal cord man 70,
identified degradation and reducing the number of
nuclei anterior horn cells in the cervical and thoracic
spine. What functions are affected in men alive?
Sensitivity of the
lower extremities
Motor function of
the lower
extremities
The sensitivity and
motor function of
the upper
extremities
Motor function of
the upper
extremities
Sensitivity of
upper limb
324.
2
After cutting the spinal cord of cat there was rigidity - a
sharp increase in the tone of extensor muscles. At what
level did cutting the cord?
Between
intermediate and
final brain
Between the
medulla and spinal
cord
Between the
intermediate and
midbrain
Between the
middle and
posterior brain
Between the
medulla oblongata
and the bridge
done?
325.
2
As a young man 30 years old, was found high blood
pressure (systolic - 155 mmHg, diastolic - 90 mmHg).
A the few hours later blood pressure normal. With the
participation of which reflex centers could this happen?
Cerebellar tonic
centers
Thoraco- lumbar
spinal centers
Sacral spinal
centers
Bulbar vascular
contraction Center
Intracardial
nervous system
326.
2
Because lesion by pathological process of the pathways
in the spinal cord of the was broken his pain sensitivity
and muscle sensitivity. Which way affected?
Rear
spinocerebellum
Lateral
spinokortycal
The medial
spinokortycal
Spinotalamic
Front
spinocerebellum
327.
2
The patient 36 years, after road trauma have paralysis
of muscles of extremities, case by loss of pain and
temperature sensitivity on the left, a partial reduction in
The front pillars
spinal cord
Motor cortex of
the left
The left half of the
spinal cord
The right half of
the spinal cord
Rear pillars spinal
cord
tactile sensitivity on both sides. Which lesions of the
which part of brain are most characteristic these
changes?
328.
2
The patient 70 years old, diagnosed with bleeding in the
brain stem. The examination revealed increased tone
flexor muscles on the background of the tone of
extensor muscles. Irritation which of brain structures
can be explained changes in muscle tone?
Black substances
Vestibular nuclei
Corpora
quadrigemina
Red nuclei
Reticular
formation
329.
2
In patients after cranial trauma breathing became deep
and liquid. What the structure of the brain is damaged?
Cerebral cortex
Medulla oblongata
The hypothalamus
Hindbrain
Cerebellum
330.
2
In experiments on animals wecsencepnolon nuclei
destroyed of red nuclei. Which of the following reflex
lost under these circumstances?
Miotatic tonic
Static vestibular
mark
Static mark
cervical
Rectifier and
statokinetychni
Miotatic fazychni
331.
2
When an athlete throws a barbell he fill up his back to
maximize the tone of extensor muscles of upper limbs.
Where are the centers of reflexes that while there?
In the basal
ganglia
In the spinal cord
In the motor cortex
In nuclei of
Deyters
In the red nucleus
332.
2
In the experiment carried with the cat was shove
irritation of one of the motor structures of the brain,
resulting in an increase in muscle tone of the extensor
stimulation. What is the structure of the brain in cats
irritating?
Nucleus ruber
Nucleus reticularis
medialis
Nucleus caudatus
Nucleus
vestibularis
lateralis
Nucleus
intermedius
lateralis
333.
2
In experiment with the cat observed elevated tone of
extensor muscles of extremities and back. At what level
section done?
Below vestibular
nuclei
The spinal cord
Between the spinal
cord and medulla
oblongata
Below the red
nuclei
Above the red
nuclei
334.
2
In response to strong rapid muscle contraction observed
his reflex relaxation. With stimulation of receptors
begin this reflex reaction?
Tactile
Muscle spindles
Arthrous
Golgi tendon
receptors
Pain
335.
2
In frogs was destroyed vestibular apparatus right side.
Haw will change the tone of the muscles?
Reduction flexor
tone on the left
side
Increased extensor
tone on the right
side
Reduction flexor
tone on the right
side
Reducing the
extensor tone on
the right side
Reducing the
extensor tone of
the left
336.
2
Conduct research on cerebron regititg animals. What
structures need to destroy in the animal to stiffness
disappeared?
The medial
reticular nucleus
Black stuff
Red nucleus
Vestibular lateral
nucleus
Lateral reticular
nucleus
337.
2
Due to the destruction of certain brain structures pet
lost orientation reflexes to strong light stimuli. What
structures have been destroyed?
Red nucleus
Black stuff
Rear hills Corpora
quadrigemina
Front hills Corpora
quadrigemina
Vestibular nuclei
338.
2
Due to the destruction of certain brain structures pet
lost his lost orientation reflexes to strong auditory
stimuli. What structures have been destroyed?
Black stuff
Front hills Corpora
quadrigemina
Red nucleus
Rear hills Corpora
quadrigemina
Vestibular nuclei
339.
2
During the neurological examination the patient
observed loss of knee reflex. Where are probably
localized lesion?
TIX - TX
LIII - SI
SI - SIII
LIII - LIV
LIV - SIII
340.
2
In animal experiments used a drug that activates the
effects of γ- motoneurons to muscle spindles. How and
why to change the power spinal reflexes?
Will decrease,
relaxation
ekstrafuzalfibers
Will decrease,
relaxation
intrafuzal fibers
Will increase,
reducing
ekstrafuzal fibers
Will increase,
reducing intrafuzal
fibers
Do not change;
relaxation
intrafuzal fibers
341.
2
During the neurological examination the patient
observed loss of Achilles reflex. Where are probably
localized lesion?
LIII - SI
LIII - LIV
TIX - TX
SI - SIII
LIV - SIII
342.
2
What reflex IP Pavlov called "what it is?"
Visceral
Classic
Adaptation
Orientation
Instrumental
343.
2
After the sudden stoping rotation in the Barany chair
the patient has nystagmus. Where is the center of this
reflex?
In the motor cortex
In the spinal cord
In the cerebellum
In the midbrain
In the basal
ganglia
344.
2
How in experiment we can verify the law BellMagendie?
Damage to the
right half of the
spinal cord - loss
of motor activity
on the right side
Cat dorsal roots no motor
responses, and
ventral - loss of
sensation
Destruction of the
lateral horns of the
spinal cord - loss
of sensation
Cat dorsal roots of
the spinal cord loss of sensation,
and ventral - lack
of motor responses
Damage to the left
half of the spinal
cord - loss of
motor activity on
the left side
345.
2
After falling down from the stairs in a young woman
observed partial loss of voluntary movements on the
right side and loss of pain and temperature sensation on
The gap sensory
and motor
pathways to the
Rupture of the left
half of the spinal
cord in the lumbar
Rupture of the left
half of the spinal
Rupture of the
right half of the
spinal cord in
Break dorsal half
of the spinal cord
the left side of the lover thoracic part. It is likely that a
woman is hes is destruction:
right at the bridge
part
cord
upper thoracic
part.
346.
2
After the earthquake, to the hospital people with
symptoms of spinal shock. X-ray image observed
damage the spinal cord at the lower thoracic segments.
A year after the injury voluntary movements in the
lower limbs partially recovered. It shows:
Compensation
abilities spinal
cord
Influence of the
cerebral cortex to
the motoneurons
Humoral
regulation of
voluntary
movements
Lack of complete
rupture of the
spinal cord
Regeneration of
damaged pathways
347.
2
The phenomenon of spinal shock is most likely is not
associated with:
Violation
functional
connection spinal
cord and brain
Anesthesia
Injuries
Violation afferent
reflex arc level
Gap supraspinal
impact of spinal
cord motoneurons
348.
2
The patient due after spinal cord injury, has dissosiotia
with pain and impaired temperature sensitivity, which is
correct with:
Rubro - spinal tract
Beam Gaulle and
Burdach
Dorsal spinal
cerebellar tract
Spino- thalamic
tract
Pyramidal tract
349.
2
In the experiments, with the animal brain stem
transection caused detserebrall rigidity. Which of the
reflexes saved in this animal?
"Lift"-reflex
Statokinetic
Rectifier
Antigravitation
Labyrynth
350.
2
Murchak is on the tablet, which slowly lifted up. How
will the muscle tone of the extremities and following
nerve pathways provides it?
Weaken the tone
of flexor muscles;
rubrospinal
Will increase the
tone of extensor
muscles;
vestybulospinal
Weaken the tone
of extensor
muscles;
retykulospinal
Will increase the
tone of flexor
muscles;
rubrospinal
Weaken the tone
of flexor muscles;
cortikospinal
351.
2
Indicate the movement of the brain stem, which
increase the activity of flexor muscles:
Neurons vestibular
and red nuclei
Neurons of the
vestibular nuclei
and reticular
formation bridge
Neurons red
nucleus and
reticular formation
of the bridge
Neurons red
nucleus and
reticular formation
of the medulla
oblongata
Neurons of the
vestibular nuclei
and the reticular
formation of
medulla oblongata
352.
2
What is the impact on the core Deyters has red nucleus?
How does this influence is reflected in the tone of
extensor muscles?
Thrills core
Deytersa. Extensor
tone does not
change
Inhibits core
Deyters. Increased
extensor tone
Thrills core
Deyters. Extensor
tonus decreases
Inhibits core
Deyters. Extensor
tonus decreases
Inhibits core
Deyters. Tone
fleksoriv reduced
353.
2
Neurons of the reticular formation varoliy bridge
functionally duplicate:
Nucleus
Darkshevycha
Red nucleus
The nucleus of the
cerebellum tent
Vestibular nuclei
Nucleus
Yakubovich
354.
2
Which of these ways provides involuntary movements
supporting equilibrium:
Pyramidal
Vestibulo- spinal
Cortico- spinal
Rubro - spinal
Reticulo- spinal
355.
2
Examples statokinetychnyh reflexes are:
Sucking
Ahill
Miotatic
Nystagmus eye
Proprioreceptive
356.
2
Which of the nuclei belonging to the vestibular- bulbar
complex?
Kernel
Darkshevycha
Red nucleus
The nuclei of the
substantia nigra
Nuclei bechterew,
Schwalbe, deyters
Nukleus
Yakubovich
357.
2
When aplly neurological hammer on the tendon
quadriceps femoris arises knee-jerk reflex, which
extends at:
Upper thoracic
spinal cord
segments
Cervical spinal
cord segments
Lower thoracic
spinal cord
segments
Lumbar segments
of the spinal cord
Sacral segments of
the spinal cord
358.
2
The man who walk from a dark room into a bright light,
there is constriction of the pupils. The structures of the
central nervous system, providing pupillary reaction are
at:
Medulla
Diencephalon
Cerebellar
Midbrain
Bridge
359.
2
Sechenov about 150 years ago, discovered the
phenomenon of central inhibition in experiments on
frogs. Which department CNS is involved in this type
of inhibition?
Vestibular nucleus
of the medulla
oblongata
Red nucleus of the
midbrain
Substantia nigra of
the midbrain
The nuclei of the
midbrain reticular
formation
Subcortical nuclei
360.
2
During the sea rolling in passenger developed
seasickness. Increased excitability of structures,
primarily causing this phenomenon?
Vomiting center
Vessel- motor
center
Vagus nerve
Vestibular
Sympathetic
nervous system
361.
2
In a study called knee tendon reflex. At what level of
CNS closes this reflex?
Lumbosacral
spinal cord
Cervical cord
Thoracic spinal
cord
Lumbar spinal
cord
Coccygeal spinal
cord
362.
2
In the experiment on the cat was cut brain Corpora
quadrigemina, resulting in increased tone in cat
extensor muscles. What is the structure of the brain in
this case was separated from the lesions located below
the brain?
The nuclei of the
oculomotor nerve
Substantia nigra
Reticular
formation
Red nucleus
Subcortical nuclei
vision and hearing
363.
2
Purring preventive medical examination in one of the
Diencephalon
Hindbrain
Midbrain
Cord
Cerebellum
surveyed physician found a significant weakening of
the knee tendon reflex. Which department CNS
probably shocked?
364.
2
Detserebral rigidity occurs when:
At the level of the
thoracic spinal
cord
Perestesia CNS
above the red
nucleus
Perestesia CNS
between the
medulla oblongata
and the bridge
Perestesia CNS
below the red
nucleus
Damage to the
cerebral cortex
365.
2
When you hit a neurological hammer on the tendon
below the kneecap observed extension of the limb. How
is called this reflex?
Static
Extensor
Bending
Tendon
Statokinetic
366.
2
What level of the central nervous system to realize the
reflexes that support his position?
Diencephalon
Hindbrain
Cord
Midbrain
Final brain
367.
2
Guinea pig is on the tablet, which is slowly lowered
down. How will the muscle tone of the extremities and
following nerve pathways will change?
Weaken the tone
of flexor muscles;
rubrospinal
Weaken the tone
of extensor
muscles ;
retykulospinal
Will increase the
tone of flexor
muscles;
vestybulospinal
Will increase the
tone of extensor
muscles;
vestybulospinal
Weaken the tone
of flexor muscles ;
kortykospinal
368.
2
What parameter of muscle contraction is adequate
stimulus for muscle spindles?
Increased strength
reduction
Nicking
The increase in
muscle crosssectional
Increasing the
length of muscle
Reducing the
length of the
muscle
369.
2
In which nerve fibers of the spinal cord impulses
delivered to the muscle spindles?
Fibres Group C
Alpha afferent
Gamma afferent
Gamma efferent
Fiber group
370.
2
The patient is easily tired. In a standing position with
eyes closed he has loses balance. Decreased skeletal
muscle tone. Which of the following brain structures
likely affected by this man?
The hypothalamus
Basal ganglia
Thalamus
Cerebellum
Pretsentralna
sulcus of the
cerebral cortex
371.
2
The woman, 64 years old, has disorders with subtle
finger movements, develop muscle rigidity, tremor. The
neurologist diagnosed Parkinson's disease. Which
lesion of brain structures has led to the disease?
Red nuclei
Reticular
formation
Thalamus
Substantia nigra
Cerebellar
372.
2
After a brain hemorrhage in a patient experienced
significant deterioration in taste sensitivity. What is the
structure of the brain is most likely damaged?
The hypothalamus
373.
2
An examination of the patient revealed: impaired motor
coordination, amplitude and power movements lost
accordance with the parameters of the task, sweeping
movements, disproportionate; walk march "cock",
"drunk", with finger is difficult to hit the target. What
section of the brain is damaged and how the term
should be called a disorder features?
374.
2
375.
Tonsils
Hippocampus
Postcentral curl
The black stuff
Medulla oblongata, Thalamus,
astaziya
dysarthria
The hypothalamus,
asthenia
Cerebellum, ataxia
The spinal cord,
atony
The patient developed a violation of physical activity:
tremor, ataxia and asynerhiya movements, dysarthria.
Where localized violations?
In the brainstem
In the basal
ganglia
In the limbic
system
In the cerebellum
In the medulla
oblongata
2
In the upright position patient, closed his eyes, loses his
balance. What is the structure of the brain it is probably
affected?
Limbic system
Thalamus
Basal ganglia
Cerebellum
Precentral curl
cerebral cortex
376.
2
An examination of the patient revealed: muscle
weakness, impaired trophic, nutrition and metabolism.
What section of the brain is damaged and how the term
should be called?
The hypothalamus,
asthenia
Thalamus,
adiadohokinez
The spinal cord,
atony
Cerebellum,
asthenia
Medulla oblongata,
astazia
377.
2
In the experiment, in the animal were removed
substantia nigra of the midbrain, leading to disruption
of motor function. This is due to the control functions:
The optic
orientation
Flexor
Extensor
Subsidiary motions
Auditory
orientation
378.
2
The man has bleeding in the back of the central whorl.
Which kind of sensitivity hi will lose?
Skin
Aural
Optical
Skin and
proprioceptive
Olfactory
379.
2
As a man, 60 years old, after bleeding in the brain it is
observed prolonged sleep. Damage to structures which
led to this situation?
Cerebral cortex
Hippocampus
Corpora
quadrigemina
Reticular
formation
Substantia nigra
380.
2
After a brain injury patient does not recognize objects
in their feeling. What section of the brain is damaged?
Temporal lobe
Cerebellum
Occipital lobe
Postcentral gyrus
Precentral gyrus
381.
2
A patient diagnosed with Parkinson's syndrome.
Violation of which neurotransmitter systems of the
brain is the reason?
Cholinergic
Histaminergic
Serotonergic
Dopaminergic
Opioid
382.
2
After the introduction of microelectrodes in the
structure of the diencephalon animal completely lost
vision. Which of subcortical structures, probably in this
case was damaged?
Associative
thalamic nuclei
Suprahiazmatyc
nucleus of the
hypothalamus
Medial body
Lateral body
Supraoptycal
nucleus of the
hypothalamus
383.
2
During brain surgery observed that stimulation of
certain areas of the cerebral cortex resulted in the
patient's tactile and temperature sensations. What is the
area of the cortex irritated?
The upper lateral
gyrus
Cingulate
Pretsentral gyrus
Postcentral gyrus
Parahipokamp
gyrus
384.
2
A person injured as a result of injuries arose top of the
primary motor cortex on the right. What changes in the
lower extremities will occur?
Muscle contraction
right foot
Paralysis of the
right foot
Muscle contraction
left foot
Paralysis of left leg
Muscle relaxation
right foot
385.
2
As a result of a brain haemorrhage a patient affected
basal activity of nuclei. What features will it lose?
Regulation of
auxiliary
movements,
synthesis of
hormones
Regulation of
posture, synthesis
of hormones
Regulation of tone,
posture
Regulation of
posture,
programming
motions,
subsidiary motions
Programming
movements,
synthesis of
hormones
386.
2
The gap motor pathway in the internal capsule on one
side causes the body:
Poor coordination
of the same name
by
Loss of motor
functions of the
same name by
Loss of sense of
touch and pressure
on the opposite
side
The loss of motor
function on the
opposite side
Loss of
coordination on the
opposite side
387.
2
Man after brain injury has lost vision. Damage to areas
of the cerebral cortex can cause this condition?
Parietal
Frontal
Temporal
Occipital
Temporal and
parietal
388.
2
Sensory aphasia is caused by the pathological process
in these brain structures:
In the body of
corpus
In the center of
Brock
In the reticular
formation
In the center of
Wernicke
In varoliyevomu
bridge
389.
2
An examination of elderly patients revealed motor
aphasia. Where is localized cell damage of the brain?
Postcentral gyrus
Groove gel
Angular gyrus
Brock’s centre
Precentral gyrus
390.
2
Which of the symptoms characterized by damage to the
cerebellum weakness (weakness), rapid onset of fatigue
and muscle involving a violation of trophic and
metabolic tissues?
Atony
Ataxia
Astaziya
Asthenia
Adiadohokinez
391.
2
A patient with the background of range of motion
observed tremor and increased muscle tone. CNS lesion
patterns which accompanied these symptoms?
Caudate nucleus
Cerebellum
Substantia nigra
Pale balls
Red nucleus
392.
2
Patient perception of breach clause (sensory aphasia).
What structure of the brain affected?
Lower frontal
gyrus
Upper frontal
gyrus
Lower temporal
gyrus
Superior temporal
gyrus
Posterior central
gyrus
393.
2
Which department of CNS in humans is affected if
there is an imbalance, fatigue, muscular dystonia?
Prosencephalon
Hindbrain
Cord
Cerebellum
Midbrain
394.
2
After a concussion patient with closed eyes loses his
balance. What the structure of the brain is likely
affected?
Thalamus
Basal ganglia
Limbic system
Cerebellum
Cord
395.
2
What are the symptoms most characteristic of damage
to the cerebellum?
Dystonia
Ataxia
Aspasia
All these
Asthenia
396.
2
Syndrome, which is characterized by restriction of
voluntary movements and trembling limbs at rest Parkinson's syndrome – is associated with:
Increased activity
of dopaminergic
neurons
Deficiencies of
GABA in the
nervous system
Excessive and
prolonged activity
of neurons
Neuronal
degeneration
dofminerhichnyh
Dysfunction of the
cerebellum
397.
2
Efferent fibers of the cerebellum, Purkinje cell axons
are not associated with:
The visual area of
the cortex and
thalamus
Nuclei of the
reticular formation
Red nuclei
Spinal cord
motoneurons
Vestibular nuclei
398.
2
What neuropeptide release nerve cells Renshaw plug?
Dopamine
Acetylcholine
GABA
Glycine
Serotonin
399.
2
Violation of pale orbs and the substantia nigra may
cause:
Chorea, athetosis
Hyperkinesia and
hypotonia of
muscles
Hyperkinesis
Hypokinesis and
muscle stiffness
Akinesia
400.
2
Examples of inhibitory neurons:
Unipolar neurons
Basal ganglia
neurons and
pyramidal cells
Autonomic ganglia
neurons and
Renshaw cells
Pear Purkinje
neurons and
Renshaw cells
Efferent neurons
401.
2
Why one and the same substance can act as both
excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitter?
By changing the
structure of the
receptor protein on
the postsynaptic
membrane
Due to changes in
the chemical
properties of
matter
When
neurotransmitter
secretion occurs
EPSP with
secretion - CST
Because of
synapses on
postsynaptic
membranes of
different types of
receptors
A change in the
concentration of
the
neurotransmitter
402.
2
For the dominant focus of excitation of neurons
characterized by all except:
Ability to
inhibition of
certain reflexes
The high lability
The ability to
transform the
excitation rate
The low lability
Ability to
summation of
excitation
403.
2
Dysfunction striatum causes:
Hypokinesis and
muscle
hypertonicity
Hyperkinesis
Hypokinesis and
muscular
hypotonia
Hyperkinesia and
hypotonia of
muscles
Hyperkinesis and
hypertension
muscles
404.
2
Neurons showing a black substance modulating effect
on background neuronal activity striatum through the
provision of:
Norepinephrine
Acetylcholine
DOPA
Dopamine
Glucinium
405.
2
Ancient cerebellum (vestybulocerebellum) is involved
in
Programming
purposeful
movements
Correction flick
Correction
performed
voluntary
movements
Adjusting the
balance of the
body
Adjusting the
amplitude,
orientation and
direction of motion
406.
2
New cerebellum (neotserebulum), in contrast to other
parts of the cerebellum, provides:
Make reflexes
straightening
Maintain balance
of the body
Regulation of
muscle tone of
flexor and extensor
Programming
purposeful
movements
Implementation of
static reflexes
407.
2
Striatum neurons carry inhibitory effect on neurons
black substance by providing the following mediator:
Norepinephrine
Acetylcholine
Glycine
GABA
Dopamine
408.
2
With the destruction of pale balls may have the
following symptoms except:
Drowsiness
Weakness
"Emotional
stupidity"
Chorea, athetosis
Shortness
implementation of
conditioned
reflexes and the
formation of new
409.
2
Hyperkinesis (chorea, athetosis) is most likely
Thalamus
Pale balls
Cerebellar
Caudate nucleus
The hypothalamus
associated with damage:
410.
2
Weakness, "emotional stupidity", sleepiness may be
associated with the destruction of these structures:
Caudate nucleus
Cerebellum
Vestibular nuclei
Pale ball
Substantia nigra
411.
2
The bark of the medial cerebellum and the related
kernel tent affect the activity of the central nervous
system following structure:
Red nuclei
Thalamus
Cerebral cortex of
the brain
Cores of Deyters
The spinal cord
412.
2
By which and through which neurotransmitter receptors
substantia nigra neurons affect the striatum?
Dopamine D1
receptors
Glutamate, NMDA
receptors
GABA, GABA
receptors
Dopamine D2
receptors
Glycine, glycine
receptors
413.
2
What is the impact on the cerebellar nuclei and
participation which neurotransmitter Purkinje cells
have?
Brake, dopamine
Exciting,
acetylcholine
Exciting,
dopamine
Brake, GABA
Brake, glycine
414.
2
The primary sensory areas of the cerebral cortex of the
forebrain:
Provides
integration and
analysis of afferent
information
coming from the
sensory thalamic
nuclei from
different sensory
systems
Contains
polisensorni
neurons for which
the inherent longterm preservation
of information
through the
circulation of
pulses
To carry out the
programming of
motor activity
Monosensorni
contain neurons
that provide the
primary data
analysis
Contains
monosensorni,
polymodal neurons
415.
2
The bark of hemispheres of the cerebellum and the
related gear nucleus affect the activity of the central
nervous system following structure:
Cores Deytersa
The spinal cord
The hypothalamus
Cerebral cortex of
the brain through
the thalamus
Red nuclei
416.
2
Associative areas of the cerebral cortex of the forebrain:
Ensure
implementation of
complex motor
programs
Contains
monosensorni,
monomodalni
neurons that
provide the
primary data
analysis
Provides
integration and
analysis of afferent
information
coming from the
sensory thalamic
nuclei from
different sensory
Contains
polisensorni
neurons for which
the inherent longterm preservation
of information and
programming of
motor activity
Contains
monosensorni,
polymodal neurons
systems
417.
2
In ancient India, a suspect in the crime offered to
swallow a handful of dry rice. Criminals could not
swallow the rice through reduced salivation. What
process causes this effect?
Activation of
parasympathetic
nucleus tonguepharyngeal nerve
Activation of
parasympathetic
nucleus of the
facial nerve
Reduced blood
flow to the salivary
glands
Activation of
sympathetic adrenal system
Inhibition of
sympathoadrenal
system
418.
2
Which of the following organs of the sympathetic and
parasympathetic divisions of the nervous system are
most pronounced opposite effect?
Kidneys, bladder
sphincter, salivary
gland
Heart, salivary
glands, muscles
Salivary glands,
blood vessels,
heart
Heart sphincter of
the bladder,
intestine (motility),
bronchi
Muscle, cancer of
the gastrointestinal
tract, salivary
glands
419.
2
As a victim, caught in a traffic accident, revealed an
increase in heart rate, a significant increase in blood
pressure, dilated pupils, dry mucous membranes of the
mouth. Please indicate which systems involving
regulation of these changes were:
Hypothalamic pituitary -adrenal
Vago - insular
Parasympathetic
Sympathoadrenal
Metasympatetic
420.
2
Which of the following answer lists the reactions that
occur in the body during excitation of the sympathetic
nervous system?
Dilated pupils.
Slower heart rate.
Lowering blood
pressure.
Hyperglycemia.
Decrease motility
of the small
intestine
The narrowing of
the pupil. Reduced
heart rate.
Lowering blood
pressure.
Hypoglycemia.
Increased motility
of the small
intestine
Dilated pupils.
Increase in heart
rate. Increased
blood pressure.
Hypoglycemia.
Increased motility
of the small
intestine
Dilated pupils.
Acceleration of
heart rate.
Increased blood
pressure.
Hyperglycemia.
Decrease motility
of the small
intestine
Dilated pupils.
Slower heart rate.
Increased blood
pressure.
Hypoglycemia.
Increased motility
of the small
intestine
421.
2
The woman, 24 years old, while waiting for tooth
extraction increased tone of the sympathetic division of
the autonomic nervous system. What process is
observed in the patient?
Bronchoconstrictio
n
Increased secretion
of digestive juices
Increased
peristalsis
The increase in
heart rate
Pupillary
422.
2
For a better view of the bottom of the eyeball doctor
opplied conjunctiva of the eye in patients atropine
solution. This led to the expansion of the pupil.
Blockade of membrane cytoreceptors caused this
Α- adrenoceptor
H2- receptor
N- cholinergic
receptors
M- cholinergic
receptors
Β- adrenoceptor
effect?
423.
2
A person who takes blocker membrane tsytoretseptoriv
synapses of the autonomic nervous system, complains
of dry mouth. Which of the receptors it needed?
H2- receptor
Β- adrenergic
receptors
N- cholinergic
receptors
M- cholinergic
receptors
Α- adrenergic
receptors
424.
2
Acting on the beta receptors of neuromuscular
transmission in smooth muscles. What are the changes
caused by norepinephrine?
Stimulates motility
of the alimentary
canal
Shrinks the pupil
of the eye
It stimulates the
secretion of gastric
Stimulates the
heart, relaxes
bronchial muscles
Constricts blood
vessels
425.
2
The man, 33 years old, diagnosed with breakthrough
stomach and inflammation of the peritoneum, which led
to tension in the muscles of abdominal wall, firmly
stomach. What reflex provides this symptom?
Kutanno - visceral
Viscerokutanny
Viscero- visceral
Viscerosomatic
Somatovisceral
426.
2
During the exam student has a dry mouth. Enhanced
implementation of what reflex is the mechanism that
leads to the development of this condition?
Conditional
parasympathetic
Definitely
peripheral
Definitely
parasympathetic
Conditional cute
Definitely cute
427.
2
Activation of what athlete receptor will provide skeletal
muscles enough oxygen?
Alpha- adrenergic
receptors
Parasympathetic
cholinergic nerves
Alpha and beta
adrenergic
receptors
Beta- adrenergic
receptors
Metasympatetyc
nerves
428.
2
The result of which the process is stable mydriasis in
high light?
Excessive activity
of the
parasympathetic
nervous system
Paralysis of the
ciliary muscle
Normal state
regulatory
mechanisms
Excessive activity
of the sympathetic
nervous system
Muscle paralysis,
which extends the
pupil
429.
2
The structure of cranial nerves are parasympathetic
fibers?
IX, X, XI, XII
III, VIII, X, XI
I, VII, XI, XII
III, VII, IX, X
II, IV, X, XI
430.
2
In which of the following sections of the diencephalon
will be observed arousal effects what is characteristic
for the parasympathetic nervous system during
stimulation?
Lateral region of
the thalamus
Medial parts of the
thalamus
Posterior part of
the hypothalamus
Anterior
hypothalamus
Ventromedial
nucleus of the
hypothalamus
431.
2
Where are the lower centers of the sympathetic nervous
system?
In the anterior
horns of the
thoracic and
In the midbrain,
the medulla
oblongata and in
In the medulla
oblongata and
lumbosacral spinal
In the lateral horns
of thoracic and
In the lateral horns
of the cervical and
lumbar spinal cord
the sacral spinal
cord
cord
lumbar spinal cord
thoracic
432.
2
In acute experiments on the dog was necessary to
exclude pharmacological effects of all divisions of the
autonomic nervous system. Specify what you can apply
to the following:
Obzidan
Atropine
Phentolamine
Benzohexonium
Aminazin
433.
2
The consumption of mushrooms, among whom was
Amanita phalloides, containing poison muscarine,
which stimulates the M- cholinergic receptors, the man
was poisoned. Under which (most likely) symptoms
this man can be set in the early hours of poisoning after
eating mushrooms:
Hypertension
Dilated pupils
Bronchodilation
The sharp
contraction of the
pupils
Tachycardia
434.
2
Which of parts of the hypothalamus occurs slow
heartbeat during stimulation?
Posterior group of
nuclei
Lots of watering
Middle of cores
The anterior group
of nuclei
Periventricular
nucleus
435.
2
Volunteers conducted a study on the impact of
chlorpromazine as sedation. After taking all they were
asked to lie down for a while to avoid the sharp drop in
blood pressure while staying upright. What is the most
likely mechanism of action of chlorpromazine that
occurs immediately after its introduction?
Blocks Mcholinergic
receptors
Stimulates βadrenergic
receptors
Stimulates αadrenergic
receptors
Blocks αadrenergic
receptors
Blocks βadrenergic
receptors
436.
2
Where are the centers of the parasympathetic nervous
system?
In the medulla
oblongata and the
lateral horns of the
thoracic and
lumbar spinal cord
In the midbrain,
medulla oblongata,
the lumbar spinal
cord
In the lateral horns
of thoracic and
lumbar spinal cord
In the midbrain,
medulla oblongata,
lumbosacral spinal
cord
In the anterior
horns of the
thoracic and
lumbar spinal cord
437.
2
Specify the output destination of sympathetic nerves of
the central nervous system:
And lumbar
segment and upper
cervical spinal
cord segments
The upper part of
the cervical spinal
cord segments,
first and second
lumbar segments
Thoracic spinal
cord, sacral part of
the spinal cord
Thoracic spinal
cord, and - the
third lumbar
segments
Second lumbar
segment, the lower
part of the cervical
spinal cord
segments
438.
2
In which parts of the brain are the body of
Varoliyevomu
Medulla oblongata, Midbrain,
Medulla oblongata, Cerebellum,
preganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers?
bridge, medulla
oblongata,
cerebellum
midbrain,
cerebellum
diencephalon,
hippocampus
midbrain,
varoliyevomu
bridge
midbrain, forebrain
439.
2
Where are localized sympathetic preganglionic neurons
in the body?
Lateral corner of IXII thoracic
segments, the front
corner of I-III
lumbar segments
of the spinal cord
Rear corner of the
spinal cord, side
and corner -XII
thoracic segments
The front corner of
the spinal cord,
lateral corner of I
and II of the
lumbar spinal cord
segments
In the lateral horns
I -XII thoracic
segments I-III
lumbar segments
of the spinal cord
Lateral corner of IIII lumbar
segments of the
spinal cord, back
and corner -XII
thoracic segments
440.
2
What is the effect of stimulation of the sympathetic and
parasympathetic fibers to the heart?
Cute - stimulate
parasympathetic stimulate
Cute - stimulate
parasympathetic do not work
Cute is not valid,
parasympathetic stimulate
Cute - stimulate
parasympathetic brake
Cute - brake,
parasympathetic stimulate
441.
2
A patient with caries, aged 30, during the manipulation
of the tooth pulp violation occurred, resulting in
dilation of the pupils. What caused the pupillary reflex
reaction?
Parasympathetic
conditional
Cute conditional
Parasympathetic
absolute
Cute absolute
Metasympatychny
y
442.
2
The woman, 24 years old, while waiting for tooth
extraction increased tone of the sympathetic division of
the autonomic nervous system. What process is
observed in the patient?
Bronchoconstrictio
n
Increased secretion
of digestive juices
Increased
peristalsis
The increase in
heart rate
Pupillary
443.
2
Ophthalmologist for diagnostic purposes (pupil dilation
for fundus examination) used a 1% metazon solution.
What caused mydriasis after applying medication?
Activation of β1adrenoceptor
Activation of α2adrenoceptor
Activation of Mcholinergic
receptors
Activation of α1adrenoceptor
Blockade of α1adrenoceptor
444.
2
In acute experiments on a dog with bilateral vasectomy
recorded a sharp rise in blood pressure, increased heart
rate, reduced secretory and motor functions of the
stomach. Indicate the possible mechanism of changes in
the visceral systems:
Activation vago insular system
Activating somatic
nervous system
Activation
Activation of the
metasympatychnoy sympathetic
i nervous system
nervous system
Stimulation of
viscero -visceral
reflexes
445.
2
Experimentally in animals by using mikroelektrodnu
technique, observed changes in the visceral systems bradycardia, increased secretory and motor functions of
Medulla oblongata
and the front horn
of the spinal cord
Midbrain and
lateral horns of the
thoracic and
Lateral horns of
thoracic and
lumbar spinal cord
Medulla and
midbrain
Brain stem and
lateral horns of the
sacral spinal cord
the stomach, significant blood flow to the pelvic
vessels, etc., as a result of activation of the lower
centers of the parasympathetic nervous system. Specify
the location of these centers within the central nervous
system:
lumbar spinal cord
446.
2
Patients with asthma appointed inhalation of 0.5%
solution izadryn (agonists). Bronchospasm was
removed, but the patient began to complain of heart
pain and palpitations. This is due to stimulation:
Synthesis of
acetylcholine
M- cholinergic
receptors
Β2- adrenoceptor
Β1- adrenoceptor
Α1- adrenoceptor
447.
2
Introduction atropine, a blocker of M- cholinergic
receptors leads to:
Activation of the
sympathetic
division of the
autonomic nervous
system
Activation of
parasympathetic
autonomic nervous
system
Inhibition of the
sympathetic
division of the
autonomic nervous
system
Inhibition of
parasympathetic
autonomic nervous
system
Inhibition of
sympathetic and
parasympathetic
divisions of the
autonomic nervous
system
448.
2
Solution of norepinephrine was introduced
intravenously to a patient. By which receptors will be
called vasoconstriction effect?
M- cholinergic
receptors
Β- adrenoceptor
N- cholinergic
receptors
Α- adrenoceptor
H1- histamine
receptors
449.
2
During the adolescent smoking occurred
hypersalivation. What receptors are activated at the
same time?
Β1- adrenergic
M- cholinergic
receptors
Α- adrenergic
receptors
N- cholinergic
receptors
Β2- adrenergic
receptors
450.
2
Add neurotransmitters that are released by the
parasympathetic synapse of arc reflex.
Dopamine
Adrenalin
Glycine
Acetylcholine
GABA
451.
2
Ganglionic synapses of the arc reflex in the sympathetic
receptors are located:
Α- adrenergic
receptors
Β- adrenergic
receptors
M- cholinergic
receptors
N- cholinergic
receptors
Dopamine
452.
2
What is the neurotransmitter of postganglionic
sympathetic nerve fibers stimulating the sweat glands?
Serotonin
Norepinephrine
Adrenalin
Acetylcholine
Histamine
453.
2
In humans, decreased heart rate, constricted bronchi
constricted pupil. CE is a consequence of the activation
of this system in the body regulating function?
Sympathetic
nervous
Sympathoadrenal
Hypothalamic adrenal
Parasympathetic
nervous
Renin -angiotensin
454.
2
In humans, decreased heart rate, constricted bronchi,
increased secretory and motor function of the
gastrointestinal tract. Activation of which regulation
happened?
Sympathetic
nervous
Sympathoadrenal
Hypothalamic adrenal
Parasympathetic
nervous
Renin -angiotensin
455.
2
In '29 the subject complained about an acute pain due to
injury of the hand. What neurotransmitters are involved
in the transmission of impulses from the damaged area?
GABA, endorphin,
proenkefalin
Somatostatin,
glucagon, insulin
Somatropin,
folitropin,
adrenaline
Serotonin,
histamine,
bradykinin
Ions H+, catalase,
peroxidase
456.
2
During the unrest in human saliva is reduced and there
is a drying sensation in the mouth. What
neurotransmitter is released at the same time on the
nerve endings that imitates salivary glands?
Histamine
Acetylcholine
Serotonin
Norepinephrine
GABA
457.
2
Feature of the autonomous (vegetative) nervous system
is the presence of two neurons in the efferent link of the
reflex arc. Transfer of excitation in the ganglia is
caused by using the following mediators:
GABA
Adrenalin
Serotonin
Acetylcholine
Norepinephrine
458.
2
During the exam the student noticed increased
sweating. A mediator with has influence on sympathetic
nervous system.
Dopamine
Norepinephrine
Serotonin
Acetylcholine
Histamine
459.
2
In the initial state due to pressing on the eyeballs
patients heart rate (HR) reduced from 72 to 60 beats per
minute. After receiving the blocker of membrane
cytoreceptors did not change heart rate. What receptors
are blocked?
Α- adrenergic
receptors
Α- and βadrenergic
receptors
N- cholinergic
receptors
M- cholinergic
receptors
Β- adrenergic
receptors
460.
2
Which of the answers listed below of are reactions
observed in the body when parasympathetic autonomic
nervous system is excited?
The narrowing of
the pupil. Slower
heart rate.
Narrowing of the
coronary arteries.
Decrease motility
of the small
intestine
Dilated pupils. The
increase in heart
rate. Increased
blood pressure.
Hyperglycemia.
Slower motility of
the small intestine
Dilated pupils. The
increase in heart
rate. Increased
blood pressure.
Narrowing of the
coronary arteries.
Slower motility of
the small intestine
The narrowing of
the pupil. Slower
heart rate.
Lowering blood
pressure. Increased
motility of the
small intestine.
Relaxation of the
sphincter of the
Dilated pupils. The
increase in heart
rate. Increased
motility of the
small intestine.
Relaxation of the
sphincter of the
bladder
bladder
461.
2
In patient after hemorrhage in the brain stem reflex
constriction of the pupil is absent while teaching by
light. Lesions which structure is causing this?
Red nuclei
Lateral reticular
nucleus
Medial reticular
nuclei
Parasympathetic
nuclei of the
oculomotor nerve
Substantia nigra
462.
2
Constricted pupils can occur in humans. What makes
this process?
The increased
activity of
sympathetic adrenal system
The action of
adrenaline
Increased
sympathetic tone
centers
Increased
parasympathetic
tone centers
Effects of
norepinephrine
463.
2
What is the substance that stimulates and blocks the
action of parasympathetic nerve?
Blocks
epinephrine,
atropine stimulates
Blocks
acetylcholine,
adrenaline
stimulates
Blocks atropine
stimulates GABA
Blocks atropine
stimulates
acetylcholine
Blocks GABA
stimulates
acetylcholine
464.
2
42 years old woman had there was an attack of asthma,
accompanied by bronchospasm. Raising the tone of
which nerve nuclei contributes bronchospasm?
Trigeminal
Nice
Tonguepharyngeal
Vagus
Facial
465.
2
In patients occured spasm of smooth muscles of the
bronchi. The use of activators of membrane receptors
physiologically grounded to remove the attack?
N- cholinergic
receptors
Α- adrenoceptor
M- cholinergic
receptors
Β- adrenoceptor
Α- and βadrenoceptor
466.
2
After examination of the patient in the clinic of nervous
diseases was found bleeding in the brain stem and no
constriction of the pupil when exposed to light.
Disorder which of the nuclei of the brain stem is that?
Midbrain reticular
nuclei
The lateral
reticular nucleus of
the medulla
oblongata
Red nuclei of the
midbrain
Cores Yakubovich
- Edinhera Westphal midbrain
Black substances
467.
2
The patient had on attack tachycardia. What
cardiomyocyte membrane cytoreceptors appropriate
block to stop the attack?
M- cholinergic
receptors
Α- adrenergic
receptors
M- and ncholinergic
receptors
Β- adrenergic
receptors
N- cholinergic
receptors
468.
2
In the dog during experiment irritate constant electric
current peripheral cut end of the right vagus nerve.
Indicate which of the following changes will be
observed in the activity of visceral organs:
Increased
bronchial lumen
Increase the
frequency of
respiratory
movements
The increase in
heart rate
The decrease in
heart rate
Inhibition of
intestinal motility
469.
2
In the right rabbit´s eye inserted two drops of atropine
and after half an hour we could watch the expansion of
the pupil of the eye. This was due to the influence of
atropine on:
Β- adrenergic
nerve- organ
synapses
M- cholinergic
ganglionic
synapses
H- ganglionic
cholinergic
synapses
M- cholinergic
nerve synapses
organ
Α- adrenergic
neuro -organ
synapses
470.
2
In experiments on dog was mode of the intestine and
monitored its motility, which was restored after some
time. Due to which reflections it was possible?
Somatic
Sympathetic
Parasympathetic
Metasympatychny
h
Viscero -visceral
471.
2
In chronic experiments on the dog, using the technique
mikroelektrodnu observed instantaneous reaction of the
system as a result of activation of the lower centers of
the sympathetic nervous system. Specify the location of
these centers within the central nervous system:
The front corners
of thoracic and
lumbar spinal cord
Medulla oblongata
and lumbosacral
spinal cord
Average brain and
lumbosacral spinal
cord
Lateral horns of
thoracic and
lumbar spinal cord
Brain stem and
sacral spinal cord
472.
2
When blockade of sympathetic innervations we can see
everything except:
Reduced heart rate
Narrowing of the
lumen of the
bronchi
Lowering blood
pressure
Dilated pupils
Expansion of
blood vessels of
the skin
473.
2
Sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system:
It has always
depressing
(inhibitory) effect
None of the above
statements does
not apply to the
sympathetic
division of ANS
Located usually
under the control
of consciousness
Usually shows the
opposite effect
than
parasympathetic
It has always
stimulating effect
474.
3
Define the humoral regulation.
Regulation,
provided hormones
Regulation,
provided
metabolites
Regulation,
provided blood
cells
Regulation that
provides
biologically active
substances
Regulation,
provided the
nervous system
475.
3
It is known that natriuretic peptide acts through
receptors linked to guanylate cyclase. As a result of this
interaction:
The formation of
inositol -3phosphate
The formation of
cAMP
Formation of
calmodulin
The formation of
cGMP
Phosphorylation of
tyrosine
476.
3
Indicate which of these hormones interact with
cytoplasmic receptors.
Glucagon
Adrenalin
Vasopressin
Cortisol
Thyroxine
477.
3
Specify intermediaries through which vasopressin
Phospholipase C
Diatsylhlitserol
Inositol -3 -
3.5 cAMP
3.5 cGMP
realizes its effect on target cells.
phosphate
478.
3
What is the relative hipoproduction hormone?
Stimulation cancer
target
Loss of function of
cancer
Loss regulatory
hormone
Receptor defect
leading to loss of
its function
Mutations in the
receptor, leading to
its activation
479.
3
What hormones are chemical structure to steroids?
Hormones of
hypothalamus
Thyroid Hormones
Catecholamines
Hormones of
sexual glands
Hormones of the
gastrointestinal
tract
480.
3
What role in the mechanisms of action of hormones
plays a secondary messenger inositol -3 -phosphate?
Opens calcium
channels in the cell
membrane
Activates adenylyl
cyclase
Activates protein
kinase
It stimulates the
release of calcium
from the
endoplasmic
reticulum
Activates
guanylate cyclase
481.
3
Which types of hormones on tissue involves their
ability to influence the processes of morphogenesis,
growth, differentiation structures?
Reaktohenna
Kinetic
Correcting
Morphogenetic
Permissive
482.
3
To analgesia can be used substance that mimics the
effects of morphine, but is synthesized in the CNS.
Name it:
Vasopressin
Somatoliberyn
Oxytocin
Endorfin
Calcitonin
483.
3
What is meant by self-regulation?
Regulation carried
out by means of
metabolites
The form of
regulation, the
mechanisms of
which are aimed at
ensuring the
adaptation of the
organism to the
conditions of
existence
All the
mechanisms of
regulation of body
functions
The form of
regulation, the
mechanisms of
which run
deviation
parameters
adjustable function
All numbered
wrong
484.
3
Indicate which of these hormones interact with
receptors cytomembrane.
Aldosterone
Thyroxine
Cortisol
Adrenalin
Testosterone
485.
3
Effects of intracellular receptors is implemented mainly
Activation of
inositol -3-
Activation of
Activation of
calcium-
The change in
Activation NO
through:
phosphate
adenylate cyclase
kadmodulin
gene expression
486.
3
Which of the following hormones increases in target
cells cAMP concentration of 3.5?
Estradiol
Aldosterone
Testosterone
Glucagon
Cortisol
487.
3
Second messenger in the mechanism of action of
adrenaline are:
Tsumf
Tstsmf
Cgmp
Camp
Tstmf
488.
3
What is a secondary hormone hyperproduction?
Loss regulatory
hormone
Mutation of the
receptor, leading to
its activation
Hyperfunction
cancer
Excessive
stimulation of
cancer target
Receptor defect
leading to loss of
its function
489.
3
Calcium ions - one of the evolutionarily ancient second
messengers in cells. They are activators of
glycogenolysis when interacting with:
Myosin light chain
kinase
Calcitonin
Calciferol
Calmodulin
Phosphorylase c
490.
3
What is the principle underlying the regulation of
endocrine glands?
The principle of
dual control
The principle of
subordination
The principle of
self-
The principle of
feedback
The principle
reception
491.
3
What neyrosekretions?
Activate the
selection
adrenaline
sympathetic
nervous system
Bold tropic
pituitary hormones
Bold posterior
pituitary hormones
The formation of
hormone-like
substances neurons
of the
hypothalamus
Changing of the
glands under the
influence of the
nervous system
492.
3
Which compound is a precursor in the synthesis of
prostaglandins in the human body?
Oleic acid
Palmitic acid
Linolenic acid
Arachidonic acid
Linoleic acid
493.
3
Which of the following hormones secrete affect the
peripheral endocrine glands?
Neurotransmitter
Paracrine
hormones
Neuromodulator
Tropic hormones
Effector hormones
494.
3
Which of the following hormones are derivatives of
polyunsaturated fatty acids?
Polypeptides
Thyroid hormones
Steroids
Eicosanoids
All of the above
495.
3
The group of eicosanoids are:
Thromboxane
Prostaglandins
Leukotrienes
All of the above
Prostacyclin
496.
3
Which of the following hormones out into the
bloodstream neurosecretory cells?
Prostacyclin
Neurotransmitter
Paracrine
hormones
Neurohormones
All of the
497.
3
Regulation of cell function, which directly synthesizes
regulatory substance, termed:
Endocrine
regulation
Paracrine
regulation
Neyrokrynna
regulation
Autocrine
regulation
None of the above
498.
3
Local effects of hormones on the adjacent, closely
spaced tissue, termed:
Endocrine
regulation
Neyrokrynna
regulation
Autocrine
regulation
Paracrine
regulation
None of the above
499.
3
Which of the following hormone initiates biological
effects by activating cytomembrane receptors?
Thyroid hormones
Progesterone
Estrogens
Adrenalin
Cortisol
500.
3
Which of the following hormones interacts with the
cytoplasmic receptor, with subsequent effects on gene
cells and processes of protein synthesis?
Insulin
Adrenalin
Tyroliberyn
Cortisol
Luteinizing
hormone
501.
3
Hormone Testosterone circulates in plasma as:
Bound to albumin
plasma
Free
dihydrotestosteron
e
Free testosterone
Linked with
steroyidzv'yazuyuc
hymy plasma
globulins
All answers are
correct
502.
3
Prostaglandins - tissue hormones that regulate the
function of tissues located near by:
Endocrine
regulation
Neyrokrynnoyi
regulation
Autocrine
regulation
Paracrine
regulation
None of the above
503.
3
Which of the following serves as a primary messenger?
Enzyme
cAMP
Receptor
Hormone
All answers are
correct
504.
3
Hormonal effect is the ability to run the activities of
effector hormone entitled:
Metabolic
Correcting
Morphogenetic
Kinetic
Reaktohennoho
505.
3
Loss regulatory hormone that normally stimulates the
production of hormones peripheral endocrine glands
entitled:
Primary
hipoproduktsiyi
Relative
overproduction
Primary
overproduction
Secondary
hipoproduktsiyi
Relative
hipoproduktsiyi
506.
3
Which of the following hormones implementing
biological effects by activating cAMP synthesis?
Insulin
Thyroxine
Estrogens
Parathyroid
hormone
Nitrogen
monoxide
507.
3
Which of the following hormones implementing
biological effects by activating the synthesis tsHMF?
Insulin
Thyroxine
Estrogens
Atriopeptyd
Parathyroid
hormone
508.
3
What second messenger system involves the
implementation of a biological effect of pancreatic
Diatsylhlitserol
Calcium ions
Cgmp
Camp
Inositol -3 phosphate
hormone - glucagon?
509.
3
Intracellular receptors for steroid hormones are called:
Transmembrane
domain
Intracellular
domains
Ligand independent
factors
Ligand - dependent All answers are
transcription
correct
factors
510.
3
Found that 7 adenohypophysis secretes tropic
hormones. Which of these hormones ensures normal
growth and physical development of the body?
Lipotropin
Lutropin
Laktotropin
Somatropin
Corticotropin
511.
3
Female, 45 years old, for the last 6 months had
strengthening on hair growth on the face, the white line
of the abdomen and legs. Facial features became
coarser. Irregular menstrual cycle. Which hormonal
changes attribute develop of these disorders?
Increased secretion
of oxytocin
Increasing
estrogen
Higher
concentrations of
growth hormone
Increasing
secretion of
androgens
Reduced secretion
of glucocorticoids
512.
3
Which of the following hormones produced in the
anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?
Melatonin
Somatostatin
Human chorionic
gonadotropin
ACTH
Oxytocin
513.
3
Which of the following hormones accumulate in the
posterior lobe of the pituitary gland?
Melatonin
Somatostatin
Human chorionic
gonadotropin
Oxytocin
ACTH
514.
3
Parents of boy 14 years old led an appointment with an
endocrinologist. The doctor said the child stunting,
disproportionate body composition, mental retardation.
About dysfunction which endocrine gland should think
first of all, in this case?
Epiphysis
Testes
Adrenal
Thyroid
Thymus
515.
3
Determine which disorders are possible with the failure
of the thyroid gland, if the failure occurs from early
childhood?
Hipopituyitaryzm
Dwarfism
Giantism
Cretinism
Hyperpigmentation
of skin
516.
3
As a young man in '16 height 110 cm, sharply reduced
intellectual capacity. The reason for this is the lack of
secretion during childhood:
Androgens
Somatropin
Insulin
Thyroxine
Estrogen
517.
3
Until family physician office boy turned '17
proportionate physique growth 115 cm with hypoplasia
of the genitals. With the lack of secretion of the
Adenokortykotrop
noho
Prolactin
Testosterone
Growth hormone
Aldosterone
hormone which is associated a state?
518.
3
A person in a state of physical and mental rest has a
heart rate of over 80 beats per minute. What could be
the cause this condition?
Increase allocation
natriuretic
hormone
Increased
excretion of
aldosterone
Reducing the
discharge of
adrenaline
Increased
excretion of
thyroxine
Effect of
prostaglandin
519.
3
When a frogs pituitary gland is destroyed its skin will
change colour after some time. Why?
Will increase
production of
thyrotropin
TSH production
will decrease
Will increase
production of
vasopressin
Products will
decrease
melanotropin
Will increase
production of
oxytocin
520.
3
From the hormone listed below select those for pituitary
regulation of peripheral endocrine glands:
Triiodothyronine,
thyrotropin,
somatotropin
Prolactin,
somatotropin,
glucagon
Gonadotropins,
thyrotropin,
oxytocin
Corticotropin,
gonadotropin
(folitropin and
lueteotropin),
thyrotropin
Insulin,
corticotropin,
aldosterone
521.
3
Which hormone promotes growth of the uterus during
pregnancy and causes hypertrophy of the mucous
membrane of the uterus in the first half of the menstrual
cycle?
Estrogen
Testosterone
Folliculin
Progesterone
Oxytocin
522.
3
Which of these hormones are produced in the posterior
lobe of the pituitary gland?
Gonadotropin,
corticotropin
Somatotropin,
thyrotropin
Somatotropin,
corticotropin
Vasopressin,
oxytocin
Epinephrine,
norepinephrine
523.
3
What body functions does the thyroid hormone –
thyroxine- affect?
In the exchange of
calcium and
phosphorus levels
of tissue
excitability
In the deposition
of glycogen in the
liver and muscles,
blood sugar, fat
metabolism
At the level of
sugar in the blood,
vascular tone,
intestinal motility
In the heat, protein
metabolism,
growth and
differentiation of
tissues
In exchange of
water, the
formation reaction
of drinking
524.
3
A female, 25 years of age, came to the doctor one
month after delivery complaining of reducing amounts
of milk formation. Which hormone deficiency led to
this situation?
Insulin
Somatostatin
Corticotropin
Prolactin
Glucagon
525.
3
A 10 -year-old child is 178 cm tall and weighs 64 kg.
This is the result of violation of what endocrine gland?
The adrenal
Gonads
Thyroid gland
Pituitary
Parathyroid
526.
3
An adult is 100 cm tall with proportional body structure
and normal mental development. Insufficient
production of what hormones during childhood caused
this?
Thyrotropin
Gonadotropin
Corticotropin
Somatotropin
Prolactin
527.
3
A child from birth had a reduced function of the thyroid
gland. What could be the consequence?
Hypopituitarism
Dwarfism
Giantism
Cretinism
Hyperpigmentation
of skin
528.
3
The child has violation of the term of teeth
development, there is an anomaly of enamel, enlarged
lips and tongue. Decreased secretion of what hormone
causes this change?
Somatotropin
Pth
Calcitonin
Thyroxine
Insulin
529.
3
By endocrinologist addressed patient complaining of
lost of weight to 10 kg within 2 months, palpitations,
and exophthalmia. These complaints most typical for
hyperfunction of what endocrine gland?
The adrenal
Gonad
Pancreatic
Thyroid
Parathyroid glands
530.
3
The patient observed growth in specific parts of the
body (jaw, nose, ears, tongue, feet, hands) while
maintaining the proportions of the body. This may be
due to:
Hyperthyroidism
Obese
Diabetes
Acromegaly
Gigantism
531.
3
The patient observed growth in specific parts of the
body (jaw, nose, ears, tongue, feet, hands) on the
background of maintaining the proportions of the body.
Increased secretion of what hormone can be the reason?
Somatostatin
Triiodothyronine
Tetraiodothyronine
Somatotropin
Cortisol
532.
3
Male, 12 years old, has a height of 180 cm. Which
hormone secretion disorder is this caused by?
Gonadotropin
Thyroxine
Thyrotropin
Somatotropin
Insulin
533.
3
The woman 40 years old with weak labour, caused by
decreased contractile ability of the myometrium. What
is the hormonal drug to use?
Aldosterone
Hydrocortisone
Dexamethasone
Oxytocin
Prednisone
534.
3
The child has retarded mental development, stunting,
tooth formation, delayed emergence points of
ossification, decreased metabolism. Lack of function of
The adrenal
Neurohypophysis
Gonads
Thyroid
Pancreatic
which endocrine glands can lead to this condition?
535.
3
The patient has increased basal metabolic rate,
increased body temperature, and tachycardia at rest.
Increased function of which endocrine gland may be
causing this?
Adrenal cortex
Pancreatic
Neurohypophysis
Thyroid
Gonads
536.
3
What substances stimulate the release of hormones of
adenohypophysis?
Endorphins
Statins
Liberyny + statin
Liberyns
Enkephalins
537.
3
What contributes to the formation of milk in a
breastfeeding woman?
ACTH
Norepinephrine
Somatropin
Prolactin
Adrenalin
538.
3
What substances inhibit the release of hormones of the
adenohypophysis?
Endorphins
Liberyn
Enkephalins
Statins
Liberyns and
statins
539.
3
The general examination of the patient revealed
thickening of the neck, exophthalmos, increased body
temperature, and a pulse rate of 110 beats per min. The
content of which hormone should be determined in the
blood?
Insulin
Germ
Catecholamines
Thyroxine
Cortisol
540.
3
On examination, the patient revealed excessive growth
of bones and soft tissues of the face, increased size of
the tongue, enlarged interdental spaces in the dental
arch. What changes in hormone secretion is most
likely?
Increased insulin
secretion
Reduced secretion
of thyroxine
Reduced secretion
of growth hormone
Increased secretion
of growth hormone
Increased secretion
of vasopressin
541.
3
What disease is caused by insufficient production of
hormones of the adrenal cortex?
Dwarfism
Graves' disease
Diabetes
Bronze disease
Acromegaly
542.
3
The elderly often experience bone demineralization
(reduced content of calcium in bone tissue).
Hyposecretion of which hormone causes this condition?
Aldosterone
Thyroxine
Insulin
Thyrocalcitonin
PTH
543.
3
The patient’s continued use of drugs has led to
hyperkalemia. Changing hormone secretion is caused
by
Reduced secretion
of vasopressin
Reduced
aldosterone
secretion
Increased secretion
of vasopressin
Increased secretion
of aldosterone
Reduced secretion
of renin
544.
3
In tomographic survey found damage to the supraoptic
and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus.
Deficiency of which hormones can result?
Thyrotropin,
follicle
Oxytocin, statins
Releasing factor
Antidiuretic
hormone, oxytocin
Corticotropin,
prolactin
545.
3
The patient has a dramatically reduced content of
calcium in the blood. Increased secretion of which
hormone will lead to this condition?
Vasopressin
Calcitonin
Aldosterone
Pth
Somatotropin
546.
3
In the kidneys examined increased reabsorption of
calcium and reduced - phosphate ions. Effect of what
hormone caused this change?
Aldosterone
Calcitonin
Hormonal forms of
vitamin D3
Pth
Vasopressin
547.
3
Endocrinologist monitors a 40 year old patient , whose
lack of adrenal function shows a decrease of the
hormone aldosterone in the blood. The function of the
cells of which layer of the cortex is damaged?
Sudanofobic area
Beam area
Mesh zones
Glomerular zone
X- band
548.
3
The newborn developed spasm of the glottis. Patient’s
history revealed its tendency to develop seizures. This
occurs because of dysfunction of which endocrine
gland?
Thyroid
The pancreas
Thymus
Parathyroid
The adrenal
549.
3
As a result of injury, a man lost 500 ml of blood, which
led to a decrease in daily urine output. Effects of which
hormone on the kidneys provides this adaptive
response?
Aldosterone
Cortisol
Natriuretic factor
Vasopressin
Renin
550.
3
A child, 2 years old, has seizures due to decrease in the
concentration of calcium ions in the plasma. Reduced
function of which gland causes this?
Pineal
Adrenocortical
Pituitary
Parathyroid glands
Thymus
551.
3
Secretion of which hormone is inhibited after the use of
oral contraceptives that contain sex hormones
Thyrotropin
Somatropin
Vasopressin
Gonadotropin
Oxytocin
552.
3
Careless student had a sudden meeting with the dean.
The concentration of which hormone is most likely to
increase in the student?
Cortisol
Tyreoliberyn
Corticotropin
Adrenaline
Somatotropin
553.
3
During the test, the patient’s endocrinology clinic
detected increase in blood glucose levels up to 11 mg /
dL. Lack of which is hormone is related to these
changes?
Testosterone
Glucagon
Estradiol
Insulin
PTH
554.
3
The patient revealed hyperkalemia and hyponatremia.
Decreased secretion of which hormone can cause this
change?
PTH
Cortisol
Vasopressin
Aldosterone
Natriuretic
555.
3
In the elderly we can often observe bone
demineralization (reduced content of calcium ions).
Hyposecretion of which hormone can cause this
condition?
Aldosterone
Thyroxine
Insulin
Calcytonin
PTH
556.
3
The woman has restricted blood flow in the kidneys.
High blood pressure. Which hormone hypersecretion
led to increased pressure?
Norepinephrine
Vasopressin
Adrenaline
Renin
Erythropoietin
557.
3
What processes can be observed in the body with
insulin?
Glycogenolysis,
hypoglycemia,
conversion of
glucose into
glycogen
Glycogenolysis,
hyperglycemia,
conversion of
glycogen to
glucose
Glikogenesis,
hyperglycemia,
conversion of
glycogen to
glucose
Glikogenesis,
hypoglycemia,
conversion of
glucose into
glycogen
Glikogenesis,
hypoglycemia,
conversion of
glycogen to
glucose
558.
3
What processes can be observed in the body when
adrenaline is administered?
Glycogenolysis,
hypoglycemia,
conversion of
glucose into
glycogen
Glikogenesis,
hyperglycemia,
conversion of
glucose into
glycogen
Glikogensis,
hyperglycemia,
conversion of
glycogen to
glucose
Glycogenolysis,
hyperglycemia,
conversion of
glycogen to
glucose
Glikogenesis,
hypoglycemia,
conversion of
glycogen to
glucose
559.
3
Which of these hormones affects the metabolism of
sodium in the body by increasing its reabsorption in
tubules?
Androgens
Glucocorticoids
Parathyroid
hormone
Mineralocorticoids
Estrogens
560.
3
What are the hormones produced by the adrenal
medulla?
Norepinephrine,
glucocorticoids
Glucocorticoids,
mineralocorticoids
Adrenaline
androgenic
hormones
Epinephrine,
norepinephrine
Epinephrine,
corticosteroids
561.
3
Which of these hormones has anti-inflammatory effect
on the tissues?
Glucagon
Adrenalin
Mineralocorticoids
Glucocorticoids
Insulin
562.
3
What hormones are involved in the formation of the
general adaptation syndrome when exposed to
stressors?
Cortisone,
androgens,
parathyroid
hormone, oxytocin
Thyroxine,
norepinephrine,
glucagon,
corticotropin
Somatotropin,
corticotropin,
epinephrine,
progesterone
Corticotropin,
glucocorticoids,
epinephrine,
norepinephrine
Corticosterone,
progesterone,
epinephrine,
norepinephrine
563.
3
What hormone promotes the formation of glycogen in
the liver and glucose utilization?
Thyroxine
Insulin
Adrenalin
Glucagon
Parathyroid
hormone
564.
3
What hormone promotes growth of the uterus during
pregnancy and causes hypertrophy of the mucous
membrane of the uterus in the first half of the menstrual
cycle?
Estrogen
Testosterone
Folliculin
Progesterone
Oxytocin
565.
3
What are the hormones, synthesized in the pancreas,
influence carbohydrate metabolism? In what type of
cells?
Insulin - the cells kallikrein - in
- cells
Insulin - the cells, glucagon - in
- cell
Insulin - the cells kallikrein - in
- cell
Insulin - the cells, glucagon the - cells
Glucagon - in cells kallikrein - in
- cells
566.
3
Patient breach intrarenal circulatory system and BCC.
Which factor secretion by the kidneys is changed?
Molecular
kininogen
Erythropoietin
Prostaglandins
Renin
Leukotrienes
567.
3
The function of which gland is not regulated by
pituitary tropic hormones?
Sex glands
Thyroid gland
Adrenal gland
Parathyroid gland
Breast
568.
3
What is the main hormone that controls the intensity of
reabsorption of water?
Parathyroid
hormone
Aldosterone
Natriuretic
hormone
Vasopressin
Tyreokaltsytonin
569.
3
After the introduction of the hormone in the human
kidney increased water reabsorption, increased vascular
tone, and increased systemic blood pressure. What
hormone was introduced?
Aldosterone
Adrenalin
Thyroxine
Vasopressin
Norepinephrine
570.
3
Which of the biologically active substances by
chemical structure is opioid peptides?
Vasopressin
Melanocyte
stimulating
hormone
Thyroidstimulating
Endorfin
Growth hormone
571.
3
How to change the tropic hormone secretion with
increasing levels of corresponding effector hormone?
How is this principle of regulatory interactions called?
Tropic hormone
secretion
decreases. The
principle of
positive feedback
Tropic hormone
secretion increase.
The principle of
negative feedback
Tropic hormone
secretion increase.
The principle of
positive feedback
Tropic hormone
secretion
decreases. The
principle of
negative feedback
Tropic hormone
secretion does not
change. The
principle of
negative feedback
572.
3
How to change the tropic hormone secretion with a
decrease in blood of respective effector hormone? How
is this principle of regulatory interactions called?
Tropic hormone
secretion
decreases. The
principle of
positive feedback
Tropic hormone
secretion
decreases. The
principle of
negative feedback
Tropic hormone
secretion increase.
The principle of
positive feedback
Tropic hormone
secretion increase.
The principle of
negative feedback
Tropic hormone
secretion does not
change. The
principle of
negative feedback
573.
3
How does the secretion of TSH change with decreasing
levels of thyroxine and triiodothyronine? How is this
principle of regulatory interactions called?
TSH secretion
decrease. The
principle of
positive feedback
TSH secretion
decrease. The
principle of
negative feedback
TSH secretion
increase. The
principle of
positive feedback
TSH secretion
increase. The
principle of
negative feedback
Secretion of TSH
did not change.
The principle of
negative feedback
574.
3
How does the secretion of TSH change with increasing
levels of thyroxine and triiodothyronine? How is this
principle of regulatory interactions called?
TSH secretion
decrease. The
principle of
positive feedback
Secretion of TSH
did not change.
The principle of
negative feedback
TSH secretion
increase. The
principle of
positive feedback
TSH secretion
decrease. The
principle of
negative feedback
TSH secretion
increase. The
principle of
negative feedback
575.
3
List the endocrine glands, whose activity is influenced
by the adenohypophysis
Parathyroid gland
Adrenal medulla
Islets of
Langerhans of the
pancreas
Thyroid, sex,
adrenal gland
(cortical
substance)
Neurohypophysis
576.
3
List the endocrine glands, whose activities are not
under the influence of the adenohypophysis
Adrenal gland
(cortical
substance)
Sex glands
Thyroid
Adrenal medulla
All of the above
577.
3
The hypothalamus inhibits secretion (release) of:
Thyroid
stimulating
hormone (TSH)
Folliclestimulating
hormone
Adrenocorticotropi
c hormone
(ACTH)
Growth Hormone
Oxytocin
578.
3
The hypothalamus inhibits secretion (release) of:
Gonadotrophin
Vasopressin
Adrenocorticotropi
c hormone
(ACTH)
Growth hormone
Oxytocin
579.
3
Secretion of these hormones which are under the
influence of the tropic hormones of the
adenohypophysis
Adrenaline
Pth
Insulin
Cortisol
Vasopressin
580.
3
Secretion of these hormones are not under the influence
of tropic hormones of the adenohypophysis
Thyroxine
Testosterone
Cortisol
Insulin
Triiodothyronine
581.
3
Hormones that act directly on target organs are called?
Liberyns
Releasing hormone
Statins
Effector
Tropic
582.
3
Pituitary hormones that act on other glands are called?
Liberyns
Statins
Releasing hormone
Tropic
Effector
583.
3
Somatostatin:
It stimulates the
It stimulates the
secretion of growth secretion of TSH
hormone
Inhibits the
secretion of LH
Inhibits secretion
of CTT
Inhibits secretion
of HH
584.
3
Somatoliberin:
Inhibits secretion
of CTT
Inhibits the
secretion of LH
It stimulates the
secretion of TSH
It stimulates the
Inhibits secretion
secretion of growth of HH
hormone
585.
3
Tyroliberin:
Inhibits secretion
of CTT
Inhibits secretion
of HH
It stimulates the
It stimulates the
secretion of growth secretion of TSH
hormone
Inhibits the
secretion of LH
586.
3
Corticoliberin:
It stimulates the
It stimulates the
secretion of growth secretion of TSH
hormone
Inhibits secretion
of CTT
It stimulates the
secretion of ACTH
Inhibits secretion
of HH
587.
3
With increasing concentration of cortisol secretion:
Kortykoliberyn
reduced
Thyroid
stimulating
increased
Tyroliberyn
increases
ACTH increases
ACTH decreased
588.
3
With increasing concentrations of cortisol secretion:
Tyroliberyn
reduced
Kortykoliberyn
reduced
ACTH increases
ACTH decreased
Decreased thyroid
stimulating
589.
3
Which of the following is correct about adrenaline?
On chemical
structure - amino
acid derivatives,
acting through
membrane
On chemical
structure - steroids,
acting through
cytosolic receptors
and its secretion is
On chemical
structure - peptide,
acting through
cytosolic receptors
and its secretion is
On chemical
structure - amino
acid derivatives,
acting through
membrane
On chemical
structure - steroids,
acting through
cytosolic receptors
and its secretion is
receptors and its
secretion is
regulated by
ACTH
regulated by
ACTH
regulated by TSH
receptors and its
secretion is not
regulated by tropic
hormones
not regulated by
tropic hormones
590.
3
Which of the following is correct about cortisol?
On chemical
structure - amino
acid derivatives,
acting through
membrane
receptors and its
secretion is
regulated by
ACTH
On chemical
structure - peptide,
acting through
cytosolic receptors
and its secretion is
regulated by TSH
On chemical
structure - amino
acid derivatives,
acting through
membrane
receptors and its
secretion is not
regulated by tropic
hormones
On chemical
structure - steroids,
acting through
cytosolic receptors
and its secretion is
regulated by
ACTH
On chemical
structure - steroids,
acting through
cytosolic receptors
and its secretion is
not regulated by
tropic hormones
591.
3
Which of the following is correct in relation to insulin
On chemical
structure - peptide,
acting through
membrane
receptors and its
secretion is
regulated by TSH
On chemical
structure - steroids,
acting through
cytosolic receptors
and its secretion is
regulated by
ACTH
On chemical
structure - amino
acid derivatives,
acting through
membrane
receptors and its
secretion is not
regulated by tropic
hormones
On chemical
structure - peptide,
acting through
membrane
receptors and its
secretion is not
regulated by tropic
hormones
On chemical
structure - steroids,
acting through
cytosolic receptors
and its secretion is
not regulated by
tropic hormones
592.
3
Which of the following is correct concerning the
parathyroid hormone?
On chemical
structure - amino
acid derivatives,
acting through
nuclear receptors,
and its secretion is
regulated by TSH
On chemical
structure - steroids,
acting through
cytosolic receptors
and its secretion is
regulated by
ACTH
On chemical
structure - amino
acid derivatives,
acting through
membrane
receptors and its
secretion is not
regulated by tropic
hormones
On chemical
structure - peptide,
acting through
membrane
receptors and its
secretion is not
regulated by tropic
hormones
On chemical
structure - peptide,
acting through
cytosolic receptors
and its secretion is
not regulated by
tropic hormones
593.
3
Which of the following hormones is produced by the
anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?
Vasopressin
Kortykoliberyn
Somatostatin
Prolactin
Oxytocin
594.
3
Which of the following hormones is produced in the
anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?
Prolactin
ACTH
Folliclestimulating
hormone
Vasopressin
HGH
595.
3
Which of the following hormones is produced by the
anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?
Somatostatin
Oxytocin
Vasopressin
Hgh
Somatoliberyn
596.
3
Which of the following hormones is produced in the
anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?
Prolactin
ACTH
TSH
Oxytocin
HGH
597.
4
A man carries an engagement ring and does not feel it
on the hand. Please indicate which processes occurred
in the membrane of afferent nerve fibers during
stimulation of skin mechanoreceptors:
Increasing the
threshold
depolarization
Increase in
excitability
Without a change
in excitability
Without a change
in threshold
depolarization
Reducing the
threshold
depolarization
598.
4
Damage of postcentral gyrus of the cerebral cortex in
humans causes loss of all types of skin sensitivity of
certain areas of the body, such as:
On the opposite
side
From the damage
Upper torso
Scalp
Lower torso
599.
4
Found that when a lady is dressed, she gradually lost
the feeling of clothing on her body as a result of
adapting tactile receptors as a result of changes in
membrane permeability afferent nerve fibers to ions,
namely:
Reduction for
sodium ions
Reduction for
calcium
Reduction for
potassium ions
The increase for
calcium
Increase for
sodium ions
600.
4
A person who suffers from chronic pain, appealed for
help to the neurosurgery clinic where her method of
stereotactic surgery defeat the nasty feeling. Indicate
which of the following are brain structures that were
excluded:
Ventropostlateralic
nucleus of
thalamus
Ventromedial
nucleus of the
thalamus
Supraoptic nucleus
of thalamus
Thalamus
The nerve fibers
that connect the
frontal lobes of the
thalamus
601.
4
In the study of visual acuity inspection, a patient was
diagnosed with hyperopia. For vision correction doctor
prescribed him glasses with lenses:
Gathering
Scattering
Astigmatic
Cylindric
Blackout
602.
4
An examination of visual acuity of a 25 -year-old man
found the breach that exposed correction by a
biconcave lens. Indicate the possible cause of the
Myopia
Astigmatism
Hyperopia
Presbyopia
Accommodation
disorder.
603.
4
Clinical examination of a person established blindness
in his left eye. Indicate which of the following can
cause damage to the visual sensory system:
The left optic
nerve to the
intersection
Lateral geniculate
body of thalamus
Crossroads of the
optic nerves
The visual cortex
Upper body humps
corpora
quadrigemina
604.
4
In the experiment, due to the destruction of one of the
structures of the midbrain, animal lost orientation reflex
to strong sound signal. Please indicate which structures
were destroyed:
Lower body
tubercles of
corpora
quadrigemina
Upper body
tubercles of
corpora
quadrigemina
The black stuff
Vestibular Deiters
nucleus
Red nucleus
605.
4
A surveyed 60 year of age revealed reduced perception
of high frequency sounds. Please indicate violations of
the auditory sensory system structures has led to this
situation:
Corti-organ closer to the oval
window
Corti - organ
closer to
helikotrem
The muscles of the
middle ear
Eardrum
Eustachian tube
606.
4
An examination of workers 50 years of age, a
blacksmith, found that it is better to perceive sounds in
both ears bone conduction than air conduction. Please
indicate the location most likely damaged:
Conductive system
(system of middle
ear bones)
The primary
auditory cortex
Eardrum
Lower body
tubercles of
corpora
quadrigemina
The medial
geniculate body of
thalamus
607.
4
A man was brought to the hospital after suffering a
severe explosion. The examination revealed that the
eardrum is not destroyed, due to fire protective reflex
that prevents rupture of the eardrum by a strong sound
wave. This reflex is realized by:
Reducing m.
Tensor tympani
Reducing m.
Auricularis arterior
Relaxation m.
Tensor tympani
Relaxation m.
Auricularis arterior
Relaxation m.
Stapedins
608.
4
In a worker, aged 33 years, after 10 years riveter, his
perception range of sound frequencies shifted from
normal to 16-9000 Hz. Indicate the possible reason for
the change of perception of sound frequencies:
Damage to the
proximal part of
the basal
membrane
Damage to the
distal part of the
basement
membrane
Damage to the
middle of the
basement
membrane
Damage of
tempanic
membrane
The development
of sclerotic
processes in the
middle ear
(otosclerosis)
609.
4
During exercise a person is less sensitive to pain.
Activation of which process causes this condition?
Sympathoadrenal
system
The functions of
the thyroid gland
Nociceptive
system
Antinociceptive
system
Adrenal function
610.
4
What are the receptors that signal the shortage of water
in the body?
Osmoreceptors
diencephalon
Carotid
chemoreceptor
Carotid sinus
baroreceptors
Mechanoreceptors
of the stomach
Taste buds
cells
611.
4
Which of these receptors is distant exteroreceptors
Photoreceptors
Notsitseptory
Proprioceptors
Taste
Thermoreceptors
612.
4
The man burns the tip of his tongu. Perception of which
taste stimuli will suffer the most?
Sweet
Sour
Salty
Sour and salty
Bitter
613.
4
Which receptor information is sent to the cortex without
thalamic?
Olfactory
Tactile
Flavoring
Optical
Aural
614.
4
The specific stimuli for nociceptive chemoreceptors
are:
All these
substances
Acetylcholine
Serotonin
Jonah potassium
Histamine
615.
4
The man kept flavor, but lost the overall sensitivity of
the structures of the oral cavity. On which nerve
damage does it mean?
N. Trigeminus
N. Vagus
N.
Glossopharyngeus
N. Hypoglossus
N.
Glossopharyngeus
and n. Vagus
616.
4
Which statement most accurately describes the activity
of olfactory receptors?
Are important for
assessing taste in
the mouth
Slowly adapting
There epithelial
cells that form
synapses with
lower-lying nerves
Associated with
secondary neurons
in the thalamus
coming
Do not show any
of these signs
617.
4
Which statement is most accurate regarding the
characteristics taste buds?
There secondarysensitive
chemoreceptors
Generates pulses
that propagate
afferent branches
of the trigeminal
nerve
There are primary
sensory neurons
Localized under
the epithelium of
the oral cavity
Is primarysensitive
chemoreceptors
618.
4
The patient has a tumor in the region of the upper nasal
passage. Violation of which functions would you
expect?
Smell
Taste
Salivation
Breathing
Swallow
619.
4
Properties of olfactory analyzer describe thresholds of
detection and recognition thresholds odors. Expression
of sense of smell depends on:
All answers are
correct
The concentrations
of odorous
substances
Duration of
stimulation of the
receptors
Stereochemical
properties of
matter
Functional state of
receptors
620.
4
With the defeat of any sensory system connected breach
of sense of balance, autonomic dysfunction: changes in
heart rate, skin vasoconstriction, sweating, nausea?
Vestibular
Proprioceptive
Visceral
Aural
Optical
621.
4
In the study of man smeared the tip of the tongue 1%
lidocaine. Loss of which taste sensation will the patient
lose?
Sweet
Bitter
Sour
Salt
Bitter and salty
622.
4
Analgesic effect when stimulated dorsomedial nucleus
of the hypothalamus is realized through:
Opiates
Adrenalin
Serotonin
Dopamine
Acetylcholine
623.
4
Receptors linked to cold:
With thin
myelinated fibers
In no myelinated
fibers
With thick
myelinated fibers
Since visceral
receptors
With
proprioceptors
624.
4
Encapsulated mechanoreceptors conduct impulses at a
rate of:
30-70 m / s
10-40 m / s
80-110 m / s
120-160 m / s
160-200 m / s
625.
4
During brain surgery it was observed that stimulation of
certain areas of the cerebral cortex resulted in the
patient's tactile and temperature sensations. What area
was irritated?
Postcentral gyrus
The upper lateral
gyrus
Precentral gyrus
Cingulate
Parahippocamp
gyrus
626.
4
Pressure receptors are:
Pacinian corpuscle
Meissner's
corpuscle
Ruffini corpuscles
Krause's corpuscle
Free nerve endings
627.
4
The man was bleeding in the posterior central gyrus. In
violation of any sensitivity on the other side it would?
Skin and
proprioceptive
Auditory and
visual
Optical
Aural
Olfactory and
gustatory
628.
4
The light image is projected on the retina due to:
Optical system of
the eye
Depolarization of
cones
Activation sticks
The transformation
of guanosine
monophosphate
Dilated pupils of
the eye
629.
4
In humans, constriction of pupils is caused by:
The rising tone
parasympathetic
centers
The rising tone
sympathetic
centers
Increased activity
of sympathetic adrenal system
The action of
adrenaline
The action of
norepinephrine
630.
4
All of these provisions is true of rhodopsin, except:
Is identical with
the visual pigment
in cones
Are associated
with night vision
Consists of opsin
and retinal
Increasing its
concentration in
the sticks during
dark adaptation
There are red in
solution but
becomes colorless
after illumination
631.
4
Total color blindness:
Is the result of the
inability to
More common for
women than for
The resulting loss
of visual
Is the result of the
inability to
Related to the
general blindness
distinguish all
colors
men
adaptation
distinguish
between one or
more of the three
primary colors:
red, green and blue
632.
4
While the vision of accommodation close objects:
Ciliary muscles
contract
Ciliary muscles
relax
Increasing the flow
of light in each eye
The curvature of
the lens does not
change
The field of view
is increased
633.
4
All these structures are related to parts of the visual
sensory system except:
Lens
Sticks
Cones
The optic nerve
Lateral geniculate
body
634.
4
The human ear distinguishes sound within:
16-20000 Hz
1000-4000 Hz
10000-18000 Hz
16-40000 Hz
4-20000 Hz
635.
4
Patients after skull injury lost vision. What is the area
of the cerebral cortex that is damaged?
Occipital
Front
Parietal and
temporal
Temporal
Parietal
636.
4
Field of View smallest for:
Green
Red-colored
Blue
Yellow
Purple
637.
4
Astigmatism affects people:
With irregular
curvature of the
cornea
With elongated
eyeball
With shortened
eyeball
With irregular
curvature of the
lens
Amended elasticity
lens
638.
4
Nystagmus:
No effect on visual
acuity
None of the people
with normal
nervous system
It may be the result
of disease cochlea
It may be the result
of damage to the
thalamus
Result cortical
disorders
639.
4
Semicircular canals respond to:
Angular
acceleration
Linear acceleration
The change of
body position in
space
The sudden
displacement of
the head
All the above
changes
640.
4
A man who looked out the window and began to read
the book. By changing the state of a body increases
with the refractive force of optical media?
Lens
Corneal
Vitreous
Pupils
Moist chamber of
the eye
641.
4
What process takes place when looking at close
objects?
Relaxation of
ciliary muscle
Reduction of
ciliary muscle
Relaxation Ch'ing
relations
Increased
curvature of the
lens
Increasing the
refractive power of
the eye
642.
4
Which of visual function is disrupted due to damage of
rods?
Peripheral vision
Light adaptation
Color vision
Binocular vision
Central vision
643.
4
In experiment with an animal recording the electrical
activity of neurons in the spiral node. This allows you
to analyze the sensory input from receptors that?
Kortiyev body
Vestibular
semicirculative
channels
Vestibular
Vestibular organ
and kortiyev
644.
4
In the experiment with an animal destroyed proximal
(near the oval window) of the cochlea of the inner ear.
It leads to violation of the perception of which sounds?
The high
frequency
Mids
Low Frequency
High and low
frequency
Violations will be
645.
4
The patient was examined for perception of sounds by
using a tuning fork. With its location near the external
ear the patient did not hear the sound tuning fork in the
right ear. When placing the fork legs on the mastoid
patient felt sound. Which part of the auditory system is
deleted?
Middle ear
Auditory nerve
Lower humps
Inner ear
Medial geniculate
body
646.
4
Against the background of the stimulus in animals
increased neuronal activity spiral node. Which of the
following was an irritant?
Sound
Light
Rotation
Contact with skin
Crick
647.
4
According to audiometry there is a breach of the
patient’s perception of high frequency sounds. Damage
to which part of the body may cause this?
Middle of the curls
Cochlear nuclei
Spiral ganglion
Corpora
quatregemina
Laterally
articulated bodies
648.
4
Organ of Corti is located:
Basement
membrane
Captia vaxularis
Tempanic
membrane
Covering
membrane
Membranes reisner
649.
4
Which of these structures is not relevant to the part of
auditory sensory system?
Reticular
formation
Cochlear nucleus
Medial kolinchate
body
The upper oil
Auditory cortex
650.
4
Presbyopia is caused by:
Age-related
changes in the
elasticity of the
lens
Loss of lens
transparency
Loss of rods in the
retina associated
with age-related
changes
Age-related
changes in shape
of the eyeball
None of the
aforementioned
651.
4
An examination of the patient revealed the absence of
external visual fields of both eyes (bitemporal
Optic chiasm
Optical tract
Sulcus calcarinus
N. Opticus
Corpus
geniculatum
hemianopsia). What part of the optic path is likely
damaged?
laterale
652.
4
A pituitary tumor compresses the inside of the chiasm
causing:
The disappearance
of the temporal
halves of the visual
fields of both eyes
The disappearance
of the inner halves
of the visual fields
of both eyes
The disappearance
of the left halves of
the visual fields of
both eyes
The disappearance
of the right half of
the visual field of
both eyes
No effect on visual
field
653.
4
Physical spatial dimension is perceived by the unique
ability of the auditory sensory system as time analyzer.
So people best estimates placing the sound source in
case of localization:
Sideways
Ahead
Behind
Underneath
From above
654.
4
What determines the visual adaptation:
Retinal
Vitreous
Lens
Ciliary body
Corneal
655.
4
In animal experiments destroyed the distal part curls
(about helikotrema) inner ear. Violation perception of
sound frequency there?
Sounds of low
frequency
High frequency
sound
Sounds average
frequency
Sound of medium
and high frequency
Violations will be
656.
4
In old age, there is loss of elasticity of the lens. What is
the main symptom that is detected?
Removal of the
nearest point of
clear vision
Astigmatism
Deterioration of
retinal blood flow
Disorders of color
vision
Violation of vision
in the dark
657.
4
To investigate the fundus pupil the pupil should be
dilated. What substance is used in the clinic for this
purpose?
Atropine
Acetylcholine
Anaprylin
Dopamine
Pilocarpine
658.
4
Patient has impaired vision in twilight saved the day.
What is the reason of specified anomalies of view?
Vitamin A
deficiency
Deficiency of
vitamin B1
Vitamin C
deficiency
Deficiency of
vitamin B2
Deficiency of
vitamin D
659.
4
Clicking on the eyeballs for 30-40 s observed changes
in the activity of the heart:
Will decrease heart
rate
Will increase the
heart rate
Will increase the
speed of
conduction of
excitation in the
heart conductive
system
Will increase the
power of heart rate
Will decrease the
duration of atrio ventricular delay
of excitation
660.
4
If a drop solution of atropine (blocker of M- cholinergic
receptors)is applied to the conjunctiva of the eye it will
Persistent
Temporary myopia
Temporary
Sustained
contraction of the
Increased
curvature of the
be observed the following reaction:
mydriasis
hyperopia
pupil
lens
661.
4
A driver does not slow down at a red light, because it
looked green. What disorder of color vision is this?
Protanopia
Deuteranopia
Trytanopiya
Myopia
Hyperopia
662.
4
Male, 26 years old, working in the darkroom and forced
to perform the work in a dark room. How does the
sensitivity of the photoreceptor changeafter being
revealed to daylight?
Dramatically
increase
It becomes
periodic
Do not change
Will decrease the
sensitivity of rods
Will decrease the
sensitivity of cones
663.
4
The first two neurons in the visual analyzer are:
Retina
Laterally
articulated bodies
Superiors culiculus
corpora
quatregemina
Inferior culiculus
corpora
quatregemina
Reticular
formation
664.
4
Which of the following sensory systems influence the
stimulus that leads to hyperpolarization receptor cells?
Optical
Aural
Taste
Olfactory
Tactile
665.
4
Activation of transducin by light activates an enzyme
that
Hydrolyze cgmp
Increases Dark
Current
Activates adenylyl
cyclise
Releases Ca2+ from
intracellular stores
Depolarizes
membrane
666.
4
Depolarization of cells in the cohlea is due primarily to
transport
K+ into the cell
Na+ into the cell
Cl- from the cell
Ca2+ into the cell
Mg2+ into the cell
667.
4
When a person returns slowly to the right:
Both eyes turn to
the left
stereocilliain the
right horizontal
canal deviate from
kinocillia
Auditory cells in
the left horizontal
canal depolarise
The image on the
retina is not by
focused
Endolymph in the
left and right
horizontal canales
semicircularis in
opposite directions
668.
4
Otoliths organs (utricle and saccule) is responsible for
Determination of
body position in
space
The emergence of
vestibulo- ocular
reflex
The emergence of
rotary nystagmus
Definition of
angular
acceleration
Initiation of reflex
tension
669.
4
Excitation of receptors of the organ of Corti occurs
when:
Deformations of
hair cells
Deformations of
the eardrum
Fluctuations in the
eardrum
Fluctuations in
peripheral lymph
None of these
factors
670.
4
By secondarysensitive receptors include:
Photoreceptor
degeneration
Intrafusal muscle
spindles
Pacinian
corpuscles
Olfactory receptors
Nightreceptors
671.
4
Receptors, which are virtually adapt to the stimulus are:
Vestibular
Temperature
Taste
Olfactory
Tactile
672.
4
Receptors, which are virtually adapt to the stimulus are:
Nightreceptors
Temperature
Taste
Olfactory
Tactile
673.
4
To the receptor of the auditory analyzer include:
Cochlea hair cells
Eardrum
Semicircular
canals
Vestibule
The set of lesions
of the inner ear
674.
4
The set of receptors, stimulation of which causes
excitation of single ganglion cells of the retina, called:
Receptive field
Blind spot
Macular
The central fossa
None of these
terms
675.
4
The minimum threshold of tactile spatial sensitivity is
characterized by:
Thumb
The front surface
of the shoulder
Plantar part of the
foot
Back
Dorsum of the
hand
676.
4
Neurotransmitter that is often secreted in
secondarysensitive receptors:
Acetylcholine
Histamine
Norepinephrine
Serotonin
Dopamine
677.
4
Record the total electrical activity of the photoreceptors
of the retina is called:
Electroretinograph
y
Electrooculograph
y
Electromyography
Electroencephalogr Electrocardiograph
aphy
y
678.
4
Which of the following methods of electrical activity
provides information on eye movements:
Electrooculograph
y
Elektroretinograph
y
Electromyography
Kimography
Elektrokohleograp
hy
679.
4
The primary function of the middle ear bones are:
Gain a sound
stimulus
The conductivity
of a highfrequency sounds
Increased ability to
determine the
direction of sound
Increased ability to
distinguish
between frequency
sound waves
Protect ears from
damage
680.
4
Adaptation receptors during prolonged stimulus is
Reduction in
excitability of
receptors
Reducing the
threshold
stimulation
Increased
excitability of
receptors
Reducing the
threshold potential
Increased sodium
conductance
681.
4
Accommodation of the eye - is its adaptation to:
A clear vision of
distant objects
differently
Perception of
colors
Perceptions of
long-acting
stimulus
Darkness
Light
682.
4
The mechanism of accommodation of the eye is to
change:
Curvature of the
lens
Quantities sticks
Quantities cones
The number of
active receptors
Pupil diameter
683.
4
What is not typical for pupils of a person with normal
Expansion in
The narrowing
with increasing
Normally the same
in the left and right
The narrowing
with increasing
Extension in
vision?
convergence eye
illumination
eyes
curvature of the
lens
response to pain
684.
5
Work Operator chemical production requires
monitoring process on the remote control. The operator
of an hour handles more than 300 signals and messages.
This work is monotonous, hypodynamic with neuro emotional stress. Which forms of organization of work
is this work?
Work with remote
control
Work that requires
muscle activity
Semi-automatic
operation
Group work
Mechanical work
685.
5
Weaver should, if necessary, quickly eliminate thread
breakage and run machine. What form of thinking used
in this operation?
Operational
Probable
Abstract logical
Visual- active
No right answer
686.
5
Work machine operator set requires memory for a short
time a large number of consecutive individual items of
work. What type of memory describes the work of the
operator?
Operational
Logical
Motor
Long
Secondary
687.
5
The worker keeps grinding tools weighing 10 kg in
total over 5 hours per shift. This work is accompanied
by prolonged muscle contraction, which ultimately
causes fatigue. What job executes worker?
Static
Negative dynamic
The positive
dynamic
Mild
Stressful
688.
5
The pulse rate in computer typing until the end of the
working day increased by 10%, systolic blood pressure
by 50%. What type of cardiac operators developed in
response to the production load?
Concentration in
norm
Hypertensive
Hypotonic
Dystonic
Speed
689.
5
In a man, blood volume increased by 50 % relative
dormancy 40 minutes after a meal. What is the reason
for this spike?
The specific
dynamic action of
food
Reduced heart rate
Accumulation of
lactic acid
Hypertension
Emotional stress
690.
5
In foundry workers engaged in physical labor from time
to time in the late changes develop muscle cramps, in
shoulder girdle, upper and lower extremities. The cause
of the pain is:
Loss of
electrolytes and
fluids through
sweat
Fluid loss in the
urine
Nervous and
emotional tension
Consumption of
large quantities of
liquid
Significant
physical activity
691.
5
Eliminating fatigue of skeletal muscles (the
phenomenon Orbeli - Hinetsynskoho) promotes
activation of:
Sympatheticadrenal system
Renin angiotensinaldosterone system
Hypothalamicpituitary system
Pituitary- thyroid
system
Hypothalamicpituitary- adrenal
system
692.
5
What determines the property of the muscle to perform
long-term job?
High content of
slow fibers
Small content of
slow fibers
High content of
fast fibers
Small content of
fast fibers
Regular workouts
693.
5
Fast fibers are used predominantly in anaerobic
glycolytic energy production path. The concentration of
the substrate which in this case is greater in this
muscle?
Lactate
Oxygen
Carbon dioxide
Acetoacetic acid
ATP
694.
5
With age, a man of fast muscle fibers:
Decreases
Increases
Do not change
Depends on
lifestyle
Rapid fiber
atrophy
695.
5
It is known that the work of muscles leads to increased
production of which hormones:
Corticotropin and
somatotropin
Estrogen and
calcitriol
Parathyroid
hormone and
calcitonin
Parathyroid
hormone and
oxytocin
Atriopeptides and
estrogen
696.
5
In untrained people, great physical effort typically leads
to:
Inhibition of
estrogen
Stimulation of
estrogen
Inhibition of the
synthesis of
thyroid stimulating
hormone
Inhibition of
gastric secretion
Lowering blood
pressure
697.
5
If a person increases their locomotor activity, in this
case, developing specific adaptation based on are:
Activation of
muscle protein
synthesis
Increased
aldosterone
Reducing the
amount of sugar in
the blood
Increases in
glomerular
filtration
Reduction of PTH
698.
5
In the emergency phase of adaptation to hypokinesia is
associated with emotional stress:
Increased activity
of the sympathetic
-adrenal system
Inhibition of
thyroid
Increased gastric
secretion
Stimulation of the
hypothalamicpituitary system
The fall in blood
pressure
699.
5
Long-term muscle contractions become painful because
the muscles ischemic and piled substance that irritates
the pain end. What is this stuff?
R- factor
Carbonic
Endorphins
Pyruvic acid
Acetoacetic acid
700.
5
During exercise a significant amount of energy to
reform ATP and creatine phosphate synthesis is
Glucose
Fat
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Oxygen-containing
compounds
provided as a result of oxidation:
701.
5
The main characteristic of HNA are:
Ability to create
conditioned
reflexes
Congenital form of
behaviour
The specific form
of behaviour
The ability to
respond to the
action of adequate
stimuli
Ability to
memorize
702.
5
Conditioned reflexes are different from unconditional in
that it:
Individually
acquired response
Congenital HNA
response to
stimulation
The reaction,
carried out with
HNA
Individual
response to
stimulation
Species specific
reaction with the
participation of the
central nervous
system
703.
5
Instincts in humans is the result of:
Cortex and
subcortical
structures
The hypothalamus
Cortex
Pons of Varolii
Corpus callosum
704.
5
During a long drought, the river dried up. Animals kept
approaching the river for some time, and then stopped
coming. What type of inhibition of conditioned reflexes
caused the change in behavior of animals?
Parting
Conditional brakes
Transcendent
Differentiation
Recordable
705.
5
What structures of the brain are responsible for memory
consolidation process?
Hippocampus,
medial part of the
temporal lobes
Thalamus, basal
nuclei
Corpus callosum
cortex
Occipital lobe,
hypothalamus
Bark,
hypothalamus
706.
5
What endogenous or exogenous substances makes a
person to feel emotional comfort?
Endorphins
Gammaaminobutyric acid
Caffeine
Ephedrine
Alcohol
707.
5
The experimenter wants to develop in dogs salivation
conditioned reflex. Which of the following should be
used as a conditioned stimulus?
Moderate sound
volume
Electric current
Too loud sound
Rusk
Meat
708.
5
A specific feature of humans are:
The ability of the
cortex to the
analysis and
synthesis
The ability to form
a temporary
connection
The presence of
unconditioned
reflexes
The presence of
cerebral cortex
The presence of
sensory systems
709.
5
What reflex IP Pavlov called "What is?"
Orientable
Instrumental
Visceral
Classic
Adaptation
710.
5
The most informative method for studying human GNI
are:
The method of
conditioned
reflexes
The method of
electroencephalogr
aphy
Method implanted
electrodes
Method
None of these is
ehoencephalograph methods
ic
711.
5
Interaction between unconditional and conditional
inhibition is:
Reciprocity
Differentiation
Inhibition
Lateness
Dying
712.
5
Experimenters should urgently develop a conditioned
reflex in dogs. On the basis of which the unconditioned
reflex should make conditional?
Protective
Peptic
orientable
Sexually
Miotactic
713.
5
Very loud sound during conditioned reflex activity led
to its inhibition. what kind of inhibition?
Transcendent
Recordable
Differentiation
Parting
Internal
714.
5
Which brain structures are found in a person?
All the above
Reticular
formation
Hippocampus
Temporal cortex
share
Bark
715.
5
Attention - this:
Purposeful mental
activity
The ability to
respond to stimuli
The manifestation
of the second
signal system
Congenital forms
of mental activity
The manifestation
of subcortical
structures
716.
5
People who establish musical instruments need perfect
pitch. Perfume - an absolute sense of smell. What is the
physiological pattern of the brain can develop and
maintain these qualities?
Differentiation - a
Fading braking
type of conditioned
inhibition
Recordable
inhibition
External braking
All types of
internal inhibition
717.
5
When a man sitting in a chair with his eyes closed, the
phone rang. How will his EEG look?
Alpha rhythm
change to a beta
rhythm
Beta rhythm
change to theta
rhythm
Will increase the
alpha rhythm
Will increase theta
rhythm
Theta rhythm
change to a beta
rhythm
718.
5
After what time are a newborns reflexes formed:
1-5 weeks of life
3-4 weeks of life
5-3 months of life
5-6 months of life
Baby born with
conditioned
reflexes
719.
5
What structures of the brain is responsible for the
formation of emotions:
All listed patterns
The hypothalamus
Reticular
formation
Bark, thalamus
Thalamus,
hippocampus
720.
5
During the exam the student has a dry mouth. Enhanced
implementation of reflex is the mechanism that leads to
the development of this condition:
Conditional cute
Conditional
parasympathetic
Definitely
somatomovable
Definitely
parasympathetic
Definitely cute
721.
5
A study of elderly patients revealed motor aphasia.
What area of the brain is damaged?
In the center of
Brock
In precentral gyrus
In gyrus Heshlya
In the angular
gyrus
In the postcentral
gyrus
722.
5
Student before an exam complains of acute dental pain.
which weakened during the exam. What caused the
inhibition of reduction of pain?
Outdoor
Transcendent
Parting
Differentiation
Recordable
723.
5
Found that conditioned reflexes, unlike definitely is
acquired throughout life and have adaptive value. What
is the role of adaptive opposed to unconditional?
In sygnaling
A greater
importance
A greater duration
In most power
At higher speeds
724.
5
Functional system behavial act is based on:
Dominant
motivation
Information that is
acquired in the
past
Biological
motivation
Assesement of
situation
Afferent synthesis
725.
5
Children present with complaints of disorder slowwave sleep stages. What should identify the patient's
doctor assume?
Dreaming
Frightening
dreams
Muscle atony
Lability of heart
rate
High-frequency
waves in the EEG.
726.
5
During emotional stress in humans occurs:
Increased
excitability of
nerve cells in the
brain
Reduced
metabolism
Reduction of
skeletal muscle
Reduction of
smooth muscle
Increased secretion
of salivary glands
727.
5
In a study of elderly patients identified sensory aphasia.
What is the area of the cerebral cortex that is damaged?
Wernicke center
Postcentral gyrus
Angular gyrus
Brock centre
Precentral gyrus
728.
5
Motivation - is:
Call to action
Purposeful action
Reflex response
Instinctive reaction
Conditioned reflex
reaction
729.
5
The dog developed a stable conditioned salivation
reflex: after call feeder protruded with pieces of bread.
Once in place of bread put pieces of meat. What will be
the reaction of the dog be?
The dog will not
eat right, first there
external inhibition,
which appears as
orientable
Will still
conditional reflex
(secretion of
saliva)
The dog will just
eat because the
meat tastes better
The dog starts to
eat immediately,
but will wait for
bread
Dog scared
reflection of the
type "what?"
730.
5
A man is going to solve complex problems, worries,
increases efficiency. What is the degree of emotional
stress (SN), and that while there are emotions?
CH and negative
emotions
CH II positive
emotions
CH III negative
emotions
CH IV negative
emotions
CH IV positive
emotions
731.
5
In patients after trauma breach short-term memory.
What is the mechanism of memory while impaired?
Reverb excitation
Structural changes
in neurons
Structural and
functional changes
in synapses
Ionic shifts in
membrane
receptors
Blockade of
afferent neurons
732.
5
As a speech disorder called:
Aphasia
Abasia
Ataxia ;
Affect
Stupor
733.
5
A a result of a brain haemorrhage, patient lost the
ability to read. Where localized lesion?
Angular gyrus of
the parietal lobe
The lower section
of the third frontal
gyrus
Posterior part of
the first temporal
gyrus
Precentral gyrus
Posterior part of
middle frontal
gyrus
734.
5
What will result from damage to the bottom of the third
frontal gyrus left hemisphere?
Violation playing
oral language
Memory
impairment
Violation of
mathematical
accounts
Violation of
understanding
spoken language
Violation of
understanding
written language
735.
5
In what order centers are activated during the
perception of speech written word?
Visual sensory
center, the angular
gyrus, Wernicke's
center
Center Wernicke,
auditory sensory
center
Auditory sensory
center, the center
of Wernicke
Visual sensory
center, the center
of Wernicke
All answers are
correct
736.
5
Patient complains of ill remembering new information.
what violation of neurotransmitter systems can you
think of?
GABA- ergic
Cholinergic
Adrenergic
Serotonergic
Glutamatergic
737.
5
What is the specific feature of HNA man?
In the presence of
the first and
second signaling
systems
There innate
behaviors
The possibility of
establishing
temporary
connections
In the ability to
form dynamic
stereotype
In the possibility to
adapt
738.
5
Disorders of higher nervous activity possible when:
change positive
conditioned reflex
to negative
Excitement
radiating through
the cortex
In the cortex there
is a dominant
focus
Produce a subtle
differentiation
Conduct long-term
research
739.
5
During the test, the patient found strong unbalanced
type of higher nervous activity Pavlov. Which
temperament by Hippocrates, this type of charge?
Choleric
Melanholich
Sanguine
Stolid
Hysterical
740.
5
An examination of the patient's left hemisphere
dominance of established cerebral cortex. What are the
features of higher nervous activity is not peculiar to this
man?
The advantage of
abstract thinking
on substantive
Emotional mood
rather negative
disinhibition
Gab
The ability to
predict
741.
5
Specify the characteristics of a relaxing type of nervous
system:
Strong, balanced,
inert
Weak, unbalanced,
inert
Light, balanced,
agile
Strong, balanced,
agile
Weak, unbalanced,
mobile
742.
5
The place of long-term storage of information are:
Temporal part of
the cortex,
hippocampus
Reticular
formation
Cerebellum
Frontal lobe
Occipital fate
743.
5
With the kind of mental activity people can speculate
and make their checks:
All the above
In Memory
Thinking
Analysis
Synthesis
744.
5
The underlying congestive form of emotional stress in
humans:
Constant conflicts
Violation of
cortical regulation
of internal organs
Disorders of the
nervous system
Breaking dynamic
stereotype
Violation of
adaptive properties
of the organism
745.
5
Specify the parameters that characterize a person's
attention:
Distribution,
volume, duration
Subjectivity,
stability, reflected
in consciousness
Limited, stability,
duration
Modality, duration,
volume
Subjectivity,
modality, duration
746.
5
Set if the most fully answers the basic human mental
operations:
Comparison,
abstraction,
analysis, synthesis,
induction,
deduction
Abstraction,
analysis, synthesis,
structure,
induction,
deduction
Analysis,
synthesis,
abstraction,
convergence,
structure,
divergence
Convergence,
divergence,
comparison,
structuring,
analysis, synthesis
Analysis,
synthesis,
structure,
divergence,
induction,
deduction
747.
5
Driving factor in the intellectual development of the
children are:
All of these factors
The nature of food
Communication
with peers
State of the
Environment
Conditions
748.
5
The patient was damaged hippocampal area of the
Loss of memory
for current events
Violation counting
The loss of deep
sensitivity in the
Violation of
understanding
Loss of
manipulative
limbic system. What are the consequences?
while keeping it on
past events
extremities
spoken language
movements
749.
5
Static work done during postural, is mainly due to
activation:
Slow motor units
Quick motor units
Chance of tetanus
Glikogenesis
Anaerobic
processes
750.
5
Systematic physical training leading to the development
of muscle fibers:
Hypertrophy
Myoclonus
Muscle spasm
Hypotonus
Dystrophy
751.
5
In the study of fatigue found that one of the factors that
contribute to its occurrence, is primarily:
Metabolic acidosis
Hyperhydration
Respiratory
alkalosis
Hyperglycemia
Glucogenesis
752.
5
When measuring hand dynamometer muscle strength in
the wrist flexor student found its decline compared with
normal values. This may be due to reduction:
Oscillation
frequency AP in
muscle fibers
The concentrations
of adrenaline
Voltage CO2
The concentrations
of lactate
The concentration
of potassium ions
753.
5
When you exercise on a bicycle ergometer showed an
increase in blood lactate compared with pyruvic,
indicating the presence of:
Oxygen debt
Hyperthermia
Hyperglycemia
Adaptation
Fitness
754.
5
As a young man during exercise in arterial blood P05 =
100 mmHg, pH = 7.4, Rs05 = 38 mmHg, the maximum
duration of breath-holding during forced inspiration 50 s, the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen - 98 %.
The above indicates that during physical work:
Adaptation
Hypoxia
Hypercapnia
Acidosis
Hyperoxia
755.
5
During exercise oxyhemoglobin dissociation increases
due to:
Acidosis
Hyperventilation
Adenosine
Hyperoxia
Reserve breathing
756.
5
With constant physical training of youth adaptation to
exercise indicate:
Increasing the
number of red
blood cells
Increased arterial
po5
Reduction of
arterial blood
Increased
concentrations of
lactate
Increased
saturation of
hemoglobin with
oxygen
757.
5
During a relay the second athlete ran before the first
handed him the baton. What type of conditional
inhibition is disrupted in the second athlete?
Late binding
Differentiation
Conditional brakes
Trace
Extinguishing
758.
5
In animal experiments is produced a conditioned reflex
Cortex
Diencephalon
Midbrain
Medulla oblongata
Cord
urination: include flashing lights and intravenously
injected animals a significant amount of saline. After
multiple repetitions only with the inclusion of light
caused an increase in urine output. What level circuit
conditional reflex connections:
759.
5
The dog in appearance and smell of the meat starts
salivating. What is this conditioned response?
Classic natural
food
Classic artificial
food
Classic natural
inhibitory
Imitating the
natural food
Classic natural
protective
760.
5
During production of conditional salivation reflex to
sound notes "E" in the first dog saliva secretions and all
other notes, but after multiple repetition notes "E " and
unconditional backing - only the sound. What process
in the CNS caused salivation at the beginning of a
conditioned reflex, and all sounds like the name of this
stage is a conditioned reflex?
Irradiation of
excitation in the
cerebral cortex, the
stage of
generalization
Convergence of
excitation in the
cerebral cortex, the
stage of
generalization
Convergence in the
cerebral cortex, the
stage of
generalization
Irradiation in the
cerebral cortex, the
stage of
specialization
Divergence in the
cerebral cortex, the
stage of
specialization
761.
5
In an animal, there appeared to be dominant motivation
- hunger and certain eating behaviour. From which
brain structures emerged dominant motivation?
Lateral nuclei of
the hypothalamus
Basal ganglia
Reticular
formation
Medial nucleus of
the hypothalamus
Limbic nuclei of
thalamus
762.
5
An examination of the person established a strong,
balanced, inert type of higher nervous activity Pavlov.
What temperament by Hippocrates in the subject?
Phlegmatic person
Sanguine
Choleric
Melancholic
person
Other
763.
5
Secretion of which hormone increases in humans
during sleep?
Somatropin
Adrenaline
Somatostatin
Cortisol
Aldosterone
764.
5
An examination of the person established a strong,
balanced, agile type of higher nervous activity Pavlov.
What temperament by Hippocrates in the subject?
Sanguine
Phlegmatic person
Choleric
Melancholic
person
Other
765.
5
During physical exercise the stimulation of protein
synthesis in muscle is due to the effects of:
Testosterone
Estrogen
Adrenaline
Aldosterone
Thyroxine
766.
5
Biological basis of motivation is:
Domestic needs
Starting
afferentiation
The memory of
past events
Positive or
negative emotion
Acceptor
consequences of
actions
767.
5
Excitation of central nervous system structure which is
a prerequisite to occurrence of motivation?
The hypothalamus
Thalamus
Bark
Reticular
formation
Midbrain
768.
5
Neurophysiological mechanism of interaction between
conditional and unconditional excitations is:
The convergence
of excitation on
neurons
Cartoon
excitations in CNS
synapses
The positive foci
induction between
excitation
Permeability
interaction
excitations
Generation
excitations
769.
5
When closing the eyes to the occipital lobe of the
cerebral cortex on EEG exhibits:
Alpha rhythm
Beta rhythm
Gamma rhythm
Delta Rhythm
Theta rhythm
770.
5
The reaction of the EEG desynchronization
characterized by a predominance:
Beta rhythm
Alpha rhythm
Gamma rhythm
Delta- rhythm
Theta rhythm
771.
5
What is the rhythm of the EEG reflects the active state
of the brain?
Beta rhythm
Alpha rhythm
Gamma rhythm
Delta Rhythm
Theta rhythm
772.
5
What is EEG rhythm corresponds to the stage of deep
sleep?
Delta rhythm
Theta rhythm
Beta rhythm
Alpha rhythm
Gamma rhythm
773.
5
What changes in the EEG observed at the beginning of
a conditioned reflex in the first application of a
conditioned stimulus?
The emergence
reactions
desynchronization
Changing the beta
rhythm in the
alpha rhythm
The appearance of
theta rhythm
The appearance of
delta rhythm
The appearance of
spindles
774.
5
What type of inhibition of the conditioned reflex occurs
in experiments on dogs under the following conditions:
Light + food → reflex formed; Light - without food →
reflex disappears.
Fading braking
Recordable
inhibition
Inhibition of
differentiation
Conditional brakes
Transcendent
inhibition
775.
5
What type of inhibition of the conditioned reflex occurs
in experiments on dogs under the following conditions:
Light + food after 5 seconds. → reflex is formed ; Light
- the food in 40 seconds. → reflex disappears.
Recordable
inhibition
Fading braking
Inhibition of
differentiation
Conditional brakes
Transcendent
inhibition
776.
5
What type of inhibition of the conditioned reflex occurs
in experiments on dogs under the following conditions:
The sound is 100 Hz + food → reflex formed; Sound
500Hz - without food → reflex disappeared.
Inhibition of
differentiation
Recordable
inhibition
Conditional brakes
Fading braking
Transcendent
inhibition
777.
5
What type of inhibition of the conditioned reflex occurs
Conditional brakes
Recordable
Inhibition of
Fading braking
Transcendent
in experiments on dogs under the following conditions:
Light + food → reflex formed; Light + sound - without
food → reflex disappeared.
inhibition
differentiation
inhibition
778.
5
What type of inhibition of the conditioned reflex occurs
in experiments on dogs under the following conditions:
Light + food → reflex formed; Strong flash Light +
food → reflex disappeared.
Transcendent
inhibition
Recordable
inhibition
Inhibition of
differentiation
Conditional brakes
Fading braking
779.
5
The student was awakened by an alarm call, and said
that he saw a dream. In what stage of sleep he woke up
and what is it characterized by?
Paradoxical phase
of sleep, the EEG
recorded beta
rhythm
4 - the stage of
slow-wave sleep,
the EEG recorded
delta - Rhythm
1st stage of slowwave sleep, the
EEG recorded "
sleepy spindles "
5nd and 3rd stages
of sleep, the EEG
recorded theta and delta -rhythm
In one of these
780.
5
The statement includes the following excitation
structure of the brain:
All the above
Cerebral cortex
The hypothalamus
The structures of
the limbic system
Reticular
formation
781.
5
Phase afferent synthesis in the CNS is completed:
Decision-making
Formation
program of
The beginning of
Formation
acceptor of the
result
Achieving results
782.
5
Functional behavioral response system is based on:
Dominant
motivation
Afferent synthesis
Assessment of the
situation
Biological
motivation
Information that is
acquired in the
past
783.
5
Which of the following is true regarding the
characteristics of the alpha rhythm of the EEG?
Disappears when
the patient opens
his eyes
Occurs when a
patient hears the
call
Changing waves of
greater amplitude
and lower
frequency during
REM- sleep
It characterizes the
response
desenchronization
Associated with
deep sleep
784.
5
Select which of the following statements is correct
regarding REM- sleep?
Accompanied by a
loss of skeletal
muscle tone
This is the first
stage of sleep
when a person
starts to fall asleep
On the EEG delta
rhythm recorded
Characterized by a
slow but steady
heart rate
Lasts longer than
periods of slowwave sleep
785.
5
Mechanism of short-term memory is represented by:
Reverberation of
excitation in the
closed neural
Posttethanic
potentiation
MRNA
transcription and
Activation of
protein synthesis
Structural changes
in neurons
circuits
resynthesis
786.
5
Which of the statements is incorrect about effect of
prolonged physical endurance workouts?
Increased oxygen
consumption in the
heart during
exercise
Increased capillary
density in skeletal
muscle
Reduction in
systolic and
diastolic blood
pressure during
exercise
Improving the
efficiency of
oxygen utilization
in skeletal muscle
Improving the
efficiency of the
cardiovascular and
respiratory systems
787.
5
Physical endurance training leads to the development of
muscle fibers:
Hypertrophy
Hyperplasia
Hyperkalemia
Hyperglycemia
Hypernatremia
788.
5
Which of the statements is incorrect about effect of
prolonged physical training on skeletal muscle
endurance?
Increasing the
number of muscle
fibers in muscles
Increasing the
number and size of
mitochondria
The formation of a
smaller amount of
lactic acid at a
given load level
Increase in
myoglobin content
in the cell
Increased capillary
density in skeletal
muscle
789.
5
Among the hormones that positively influence the
development of the working muscle hypertrophy, the
primary role include:
Testosterone
Cortisol
Estrogen
PTH
Aldosterone
790.
5
Which of the below listed changes in indicators of
blood circulation and breathing is adequate response to
a gradual increase in physical activity?
Diastolic pressure
is reduced or
unchanged, HR,
RR, systolic and
pulse pressure
increase
HR, RR
(respiratory rate),
systolic, diastolic
and pulse pressure
increase
RR, systolic and
diastolic blood
pressure decrease,
heart rate increases
Systolic pressure
decreases, heart
rate, RR, diastolic
pressure increases
None of these
changes do not
meet the normal
response to a
gradual increase in
physical activity
791.
5
What causes muscle fatigue during prolonged exercise?
All of the above
Dehydration
Imbalance of
electrolytes
Metabolic acidosis
Failure to maintain
adequate levels of
ATP
792.
5
Which of the following parameters, when performing
sub-maximal exercise, change after the use of beta blockers compared with sample conducted prior to
taking the drug?
Reduced heart rate
The decrease in
oxygen
consumption
Reduction of
respiratory volume
Increased systolic
blood pressure
The increase in
double product
793.
5
Select an adequate hemodynamic response to test
Martin?
Increased systolic
blood pressure,
while diastolic
Reduction in
systolic and
diastolic blood
The increase in
diastolic pressure
Increased systolic
and diastolic blood
None of the above
unchanged or
slightly reduced
pressure
at constant systolic
pressure
794.
5
The patient disease process struck the left hemisphere
frontal lobe, where Broca´s speech center is located.
What speech disorder will occur in this man?
Can not speak
He does not
understand the
meaning of words
Can not read
Do not understand
the meaning of
words and can not
read
Can not read or
speak
795.
5
The patient disease process struck the left hemisphere
temporal lobe, where Wernicke's language center is
located. What speech disorder will occur in this man?
He does not
understand the
meaning of words
Can not read
Can not speak
Do not understand
the meaning of
words and can not
write
Can not read or
speak
796.
5
In the study of human memory, it was easier to
remember geometric shapes rather than phrases. Which
hemisphere is in this man is more dominant and which
system actually has a higher level of functioning?
Rights and
signaling system
Rights II signaling
system
Left, and alarm
system
Both hemispheres,
both systems
Left, the second
signaling system
797.
5
In the study of human memory to remember the phrase
was easier than geometric shapes. Which hemisphere is
the dominant one and which system actually has a
higher level of functioning?
Left, the second
signaling system
Rights II signaling
system
Left, and alarm
system
Both hemispheres,
both systems
Rights and
signaling system
798.
6
The concept that the internal environment of each cell
is maintained with constancy is referred to as:
Regulation
Homeostasis
Coordination
In vivo
In vitro
799.
6
The daily production of hydrogen ion from CO2 is
primarily buffered by which of the following?
Extracellular
bicarbonate
Red blood cell
hemoglobin
Red blood cell
bicarbonate
Plasma proteins
Plasma phosphate
800.
6
Blood viscosity:
Is dependent of the
white blood cell
count
Is dependent of the
red blood cell
count
Falls as
haematocrit rises
Is independent of
vessel diameter
Is independent of
fibrinogen
concentration
801.
6
Which of the following is the major source of the total
daily acid load produced by the body?
Anaerobic
metabolism
Aerobic
metabolism
Phospholipid
catabolism
Protein catabolism
Triglyceride
catabolism.
802.
6
Maternal physiology changes dramatically in last
trimmest of pregnancy. Which one of the following
Increased
conversion of
glucose to
Increased total
blood volume
Reduced
circulating
Hypercapnia
Increased
hematocrit
changes would be expected:
glycogen
bicarbonate levels
803.
6
The anion gap will increase with an increase in the
plasma concentration of which of the following
Potassium
Sodium
Chloride
Bicarbonate
None of all
804.
6
Albumin:
Is present both in
RBCs and plasma
Is main factor for
oncotic pressure
Is the smallest
molecule of all of
proteins
Is normally present
in the urine
Is equally
distributed in the
intravascular and
extravascular
805.
6
Plasma globulins:
Have bigger
molecule as
compared to
albumin
Their gammaglobulins play role
as antibodies
Contribute towards
viscosity of blood
Help in transport
of iron
Help in
hemostasis.
806.
6
The following clinical laboratory data is obtained from
a patient with diabetes mellitus: lasma [Na+] = 140
meq/L Plasma [K+] = 7.0 meq/L Plasma [Cl–] = 105
meq/L Plasma [HCO3–] = 6 meq/L Arterial [H+] = 80
meq/L Plasma [glucose] = 600 mg/dL Which of the
following correctly reflects this patient's anion gap?
12 meq/L
29 meq/L
22 meq/L
36 meq/L
42 meq/L
807.
6
In metabolic acidosis caused by diabetic ketoacidosis,
which of the following of blood pH would be?:
pH = 7,0
pH = 7,25
pH = 7,35
pH = 7,45
pH = 7,55
808.
6
A red blood cell will hemolytic the most when it is
placed in a solution containing which of the following?
0,9% sodium
chloride
0,55% sodium
chloride
1,0% sodium
chloride
5% glucosa
40% glucosa
809.
6
Carbon dioxide in blood:
Is less soluble than
oxygen
Is transported
mainly as
bicarbonate ions
Is carried by WBC
Is helps in osmotic
pressure
Is transported
mainly by platlets
810.
6
Compared with intracellular fluid, extracellular fluid
has,
A greater
osmolarity
A lower potassium
ion concentration
A higher protein
concentration
A lower chloride
ion concentration
A higher
potassium ion
concentration
811.
6
The oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right
with all following except:
Pyrexia
Polycythaemia
Respiratory
acidosis
Sickle cell anaemia Increased
concentration of
2,3-DPG in the
erythrocytes
812.
6
Which factor is major for the viscosity of blood:
At 20°C is less
than at 37°C
Increases if plasma
protein
concentration rises
In veins is greater
than in arteries
Appears to be
more when
measured in vivo
than, in vitro
Decreases if
plasma protein
concentration rises
813.
6
Plasma albumin:
Molecule is the
smallest of all
other proteins
Contributes mainly
to the colloid
oncotic pressure
Behaves as an
anion at the pH of
blood
Is involved in
transport of
carbondioxide
Is involved in
transport of
oxygen.
814.
6
Blood:
Is about 8 to 10
liters
Comprises about
7% of body weight
Volume cannot be
measured by
dilution method
Normally has more
than 55% formed
elements
Volume can be
found by
difference after
measuring other
body water
components
815.
6
Hemolysis of red cells is produced by:
Putting the cells in
a solution having
salt concentration
same as plasma
Putting the cells in
solution with HCl
Suspending the
cells in
physiological
solution
Suspending the
cells in isotonic
saline
Putting the cells in
a solution having
osmotic pressure
more than that of
plasma
816.
6
The hematocrit
Of a normal person
averages about
55%
Is the per cent of
cells in the blood
Is the per cent of
plasma in the
blood
Is determined by
amount of WBC
Independs on the
altitude at which
the person resides
817.
6
The viscosity of the blood depends almost entirely on
the concentration of
White blood cells
Red blood cells
Thrombocytes
Hemoglobin;
Plasma
immunoglobulins
818.
6
Which of the following substances in the blood plasma
has the most powerful buffer property:
Hemoglobin
Bicarbonates
Phosphates
Plasma proteins
Glucose
819.
6
Total blood in a 3 kg newborn:
Comprises about 3
L
Comprises about
0,3 L
Comprises about 5
L
Volume tends to
rise when fluid is
lost
Comprises about
0,21 L
820.
6
The specific gravity of:
Blood is higher on
an average in
women than in
men
Plasma is related
more to its proteins
Plasma is related
more to its
electrolytes
Plasma decreases
as extracellular
fluid volume
decreases
Plasma is same as
urine
821.
6
Acidosis usually leads to:
A high pCO2, due
to hyperventilation
Peripheral
vasodilation
Potassium excess
A rise in plasma
sodium
concentration
Peripheral
vasoconstriction
822.
6
The oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the right by:
Decreased pCO2
Increased pCO2
Increased pH
Increased N2
tension
Decreased N2
tension.
823.
6
Major determinants of plasma osmolarity include all the
following except
Sodium
Hemoglobin
Chloride
Albumin
Calcium
824.
6
Excessive sweeping may cause:
Decrease
hematocrit
Increase
hematocrit
Respiratory
acidosis
Respiratory
alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
825.
6
Excessive diarrhea may cause:
Decrease
hematocrit
Increase
hematocrit
Respiratory
acidosis
Respiratory
alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis
826.
6
Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein which:
Is broken down in
the kidney
Stimulates RBC
production
Has a lifespan of
120 days
Levels inversely
proportional to
haematocrit
Stimulates RBC
and WBC
production
827.
6
Which of the following would normally be less in the
fetus than in the mother?
PaCO2
PaO2
Pulmonary
vascular resistance
Affinity of
hemoglobin for
oxygen
Arterial hydrogen
ion concentration
828.
6
Which of the following will present during staying in
high altitude?
Erythropenia
Erytrocytosis
Leukocytosis
Thrombocytosis
Leukopenia
829.
6
A 65-year-old female with renal failure presents for
hemodialysis. She is found to be anemic and is given a
dose of erythropoietin along with her usual vitamin and
mineral supplements. Erythropoietin stimulates which
of the following intermediates in hematopoiesis?
Basophilic
erythroblasts
Colony forming
units-erythroid
Multipotential
stem cells
Proerythroblasts
Reticulocytes
830.
6
RBCs:
4-5 x 109
Are responsible for
Carry hormons
Are nucleated cells
Contain
major part of the
blood viscosity
myeloperoxidase
831.
6
During adult life RBC formation occurs in:
Bones of skull and
pelvis
Sternum
Ribs
Vertebra
Liver
832.
6
The principle site of production of erythropoietin is
thought to be:
Red bone marrow
Kidney
Liver
Spleen
Intestine
833.
6
Anaemia patients tend to have:
Compensatory
decrease in cardiac
output
Hb level is 100 g/L
Decreased velocity
of blood
Higher hematocrit
Normal hematocrit
834.
6
Cyanosis is caused by:
Carbon monoxide
poisoning
Hypoxia
A decreased
concentration of
oxyhaemoglobin
An increased
concentration of
reduced
haemoglobin
A decreased
concentration of
haemoglobin.
835.
6
The adverse effect of breathing air contaminated with
CO is caused by:
CO blocking the
action of
erythropoietin
CO combining
with haemoglobin
into stable
compound
The irritant action
of CO on diffusion
of gases
The direct action
of CO upon the
enzymes of the cell
Formation of
MetHb
836.
6
Arterial PO2 is reduced in:
Anaemia
Pulmonary
hypoventilation
CO poisoning
KCN poisoning
During exercise
837.
6
Vitamin B12 deficiency will lead to:
Anaemia in which
RBC are smaller
and paler than
normal
Abnormal
absorbtion of Fe
Loss of myelin in
nerve sheath
Increased
hematocrit
Increased
erythorocyte
segimentation rate
838.
6
On an average 100 ml of blood contains:
5 g Hb
15 g Hb
20 g Hb
10 g Hb
10 g Hb
839.
6
Vitamin B2 deficiency can result from:
Extensive small
intestinal resection
Failure of gastric
mucosa to secrete
intrinsic factor
Failure of
duodenic mucosa
to secrete
enterokinase
Failure of gastric
mucosa to secrete
histamin
Failure of gastric
mucosa to secrete
gastrin
840.
6
Erythrocytes:
From a healthy
Contain
Are larger than
Are the less
Have no antigens
individual are
hemolysed when
put in isotonic
saline
hemoglobin
molecules
leukocytes
numerous cells in
the blood
present on the
surface
841.
6
Which of the following factors is likely to cause a
significant increase in production of red blood cells:
An increase in
physical activity
Change of
residence to the
high mountains
Blood transfusion
Bacterial infection
Hemolytic disease
842.
6
The major function of red blood cells is:
To destroy the
invading bacteria
by the process of
phagocytosis
To transport
hemoglobin, which
caries oxygen from
the lungs to the
tissues and carbon
dioxide from the
tissues to the lungs
To form
immunoglobulins
To promote
coagulation of the
blood
To prevent
coagulation of the
blood
843.
6
Hemoglobin carries carbon dioxide in the form of:
Oxyhemoglobin
Carbhemoglobin
Carboxyhemoglobi
n
Methemoglobin
Myoglobin
844.
6
Thalassaemia is characterized as:
Disorders of
hemostasis
Hemoglobinopathy
Type of hemolysis
Type of blood cells
None of the above
845.
6
The followings are the principal modulators of oxygen
affinity of haemoglobin except:
H+ concentration
Mg2+concentration
Temperature
CO2
2,3-DPG
846.
6
Blood transfusion of Rh+ is dangerous:
In a person who
receives it for the
first time
In a Rh– mother
who has already
given birth to Rh+
child
In a young female
with Rh– getting
first time such
transfusion
In a person who is
a Rh+ himself
In a Rh+ mother
who has already
given birth to Rhchild
847.
6
Which one of the following statements is incorrect:
The antigen
responsible for Rh
grouping is called
as D factor
Antigens are not
always protein in
nature
Some antigen
antibody reactions
require presence of
plasma factor
(complement)
The antigens
responsible for A
(II) and B (III)
blood groups are
unconjugated
proteins
Body will readily
form antibodies
against foreign
substances having
molecular weight
less than 10000
848.
6
A person with blood group B:
Can not be a father
of a child with 0
(I) blood group
Can not be a father
of a child with an
AB (IV) group if
the mother belongs
to 0 group
An not be a father
of a child with A
(II) blood group
Has the most
common blood
type
Can be a father of
a child with an A
(II) group if the
mother belongs to
0 (I) group
849.
6
Which one of the following would be potentially
dangerous situation:
Transfusion of one
unit of 0 negative
blood to B positive
recepient
An Rh negative
mother who is
bearing her second
Rh positive child
An Rh negative
mother who is
bearing her first
Rh positive child
An Rh positive
mother who Is
bearing her first
Rh negative child
An Rh positive
mother who is
bearing her second
Rh negative child.
850.
6
An individual with blood group A1 (II) will:
Not develop
plasma agglutinins
of type B (III)
blood in the
absence of
exposure to a B
agglutinogen
Never agglutinate
the erythrocytes
from group A1 (II)
donor
Usually
agglutinate the
erythrocytes from
0 (I) group donor
Usually
agglutinate the
erythrocytes from
AB (IV) donor
Usually
agglutinate the
erythrocytes from
type A1 (II) donor.
851.
6
Problems of massive transfusion most commonly
include:
Metabolic
alkalosis
Hyperkalaemia
Metabolic acidosis
Coagulopathy due
to hypocalcaemia
Hypercoagulation
852.
6
Antibodies against both type A and type В antigens are
found in the plasma of a person who is?
Any of these types
Type 0
Lypeab
Type B
Type A
853.
6
Production of which of the following blood cells is
stimulated by a hormone secreted by the kidneys?
Thrombocytes
Erythrocytes
Neutrophils
Monocyles
Lymphocytes
854.
6
Which of the following can cause problems in a
transfusion reaction?
Clogging of small
vessels by
agglutinated
clumps of RBCs
Donor antibodes
attacking recipient
RBCs
Lyssis of donated
RBCs
Blokage of kidney
tubules
Blokage of kidney
nefron
855.
6
If an Rh- mother becomes pregnant, when can
hemolytic disease of the newborn not possibly occur in
the child?
First pregnant
If the child is Rh- +
If the father is Rh-
Second pregnant
Father I (0)
Mother I (0)
856.
6
The antibodies:
Are formed by T-
Are Ig
Are formed by
Are involved in
process of
Are involved in
lymphocytes
immunoglobulins
RBC
diapedesis
hemostasis
857.
6
Interleukins are:
Enzymes
Low molecular
weight proteins
produced by WBC
Autacoids
Immunoglobulins
Low molecular
weight proteins
produced by
platelets
858.
6
Which immunoglobulin (MW 69,000) would exist as a
monomer in tears, saliva & mucus (secretions)?
IgG
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgD
859.
6
Ig G has all following except:
has a molecular
weight of 150000
is important in
mucosal immunity
is the principal
immunoglobulin in
secondary immune
response
is the most
common
circulating
immunoglobulins
in the serum
is the only
immunoglobulin
capable of crossing
the placenta
860.
6
Regaring to interferons:
they are produced
by B lymphocytes
They are produced
by cells infected
with virus
they are produced
by T lymphocytes
they are produced
by NK
lymphocytes
They are produced
by RBC
861.
6
A child falls and bumps her head on the floor. Tissue
factor is exposed beneath the endothelium of
traumatized blood vessels. Which of the following
procoagulant proteins binds to tissue factor and initiates
the clotting cascade?
Factor V
Factor VII
Factor X
Fibrinogen
Prothrombin
862.
6
During the passage of an intravenous catheter,
numerous endothelial cells are dislodged from the
lining of the popliteal vein. What substance allows
platelet adhesion to the exposed collagen fibers?
Factor VIII
Von Willebrand
factor
Factor IX
Fibronectin
Tissue factor
863.
6
In the clotting process, as the hemostatic plug develops,
fibrin polymerizes into monomeric threads which are
held together by noncovalent bonds. Which clotting
protein increases the strength of the clot by crosslinking
the newly formed fibrin threads?
High molecular
weight kininogen
(HMWK)
Factor XIII
Plasminogen
Thrombin
von Willebrand
Factor (vWF)
864.
6
Which of the following enzymes is ultimately
Heparin
Thrombin
Plasminogen
Kininogen
Prothrombin
responsible for the formation of fibrin monomers
865.
6
Warfarin (coumarin) is an anticoagulant that is often
given to patients following a heart attack. However, if
too much warfarin is administered, the patient can have
episodes of bleeding. The bleeding produced by
warfarin can be overcome by administering which of
the following
Aspirin
Vitamin K
Heparin
t-PA (tissue
plasminogen
activator)
Fibrinogen
866.
6
The most important function that neutrophils and
monocytes carry out is:
Coagulation
Phagocytosis
Transport of
oxygen
Antibody
formation
Tachyphylaxis
867.
6
Monocytes of the blood:
Originate from
reticylocytes
May migrate to the
tissues to form
reticuloendothelial
cells
Content granules
with histamin
Can manufacture
serotonin
Content granules
with heparin
868.
6
Intravascular clotting is accelerated by:
Circulating heparin
Ca2+
Circulating
antithrombin
Circulating
fibrinolysins
A layer of
negatively charged
proteins lining the
vessels
869.
6
The quantity of thrombin formed under physiological
conditions depends upon the presence of:
Serotonin
Thromboplastin
Epinephrine
Plasma
Plasminogen
870.
6
The best index of platelet function is:
Clot retraction
time
Bleeding time
Clotting time
Thromboplastin
generation
Prothrombin time.
871.
6
Lymphocyte count:
Increases in
children suffering
from allergy
Increases in people
suffering from
specific infection
Rises when
immunosuppressiv
e drugs are
administered
Is very sensitive to
high attitude
Rises with aging
872.
6
Which one of the following local factors is released
from platelets to check bleeding:
Bradykinin
Serotonin
Histamine
Kalikrein
Thrombosthenin
873.
6
Different chemical substances cause leukocytes to
move either close to them or away from them, this
Diapedesis
Chemotaxis
Chemotropism
Hydrotropism
Inflammatory
response
phenomenon is known as:
874.
6
The first step in stoppage of bleeding from a small cut
in skin is:
Platelet plug
formation
Local vascular
spasm
Fibrin thread
formation
Clot retraction
All of the above
875.
6
For normal blood clot formation:
Vit. C is essential
Liver must have
adequate supply of
Vit. K
Heparin should be
inactivated
Factor VI should
be present in blood
-
876.
6
Platelets have following except that they:
Are formed in the
bone marrow
Do not have
contractile power
Are non-nucleated
Show adhesiveness
while coming in
contact with
collagen
Liberate platelet
factor which helps
in clotting
877.
6
Neutrophil granulocytes:
Contain histamine
All of the above
Are the most
Are involved in
numerous
process of
leucocytes in blood phagocytosis
Show increase in
number during
pyogenic
inflammation
878.
6
Neutrophil cells show all the following characteristics
except that they:
Are motile
Cannot leave the
circulation
Contain lysosomes
Are attracted
chemically to sites
of inflammation
Phagocytose
foreign particles
879.
6
Antihaemophilic globulin and other plasma cofactors
are essential for:
Activation of
prothrombin
Formation of
prothrombin
activator
Convertion of
prothrombin to
thrombin
Stabilisation of
fibrin
Aggregation of
platelets
880.
6
Avitaminosis K causes decreased production or
decreased plasma concentration of the followings
except:
Prothrombin
Fibrinogen
Factor VII
Factor IX
Stuart-Prower
factor
881.
6
Which one of the following combination of substances
present in plasma cause the production of clot:
Prothrombin,
factor V, factor
VIII, platelet factor
Factor V, VII,
platelet factor III,
Ca2+, flbrinogen
Prothrombin,
tissue factor, Ca2+,
factor V
Thrombin and
fibrinogen
Prothrombin,
factor V,
Fibrinogen, Ca2+
882.
6
Humoral antibody formation response is shown by:
Large lymphocytes
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Monocytes
NK lymphocytes
883.
6
Which of the following decrease platelet aggregation
and cause vasodilatation?
PGE2
PGI2
PGF2alpha
TBXA2
PGD2
884.
6
Antithrombin III inactivates which coagulation factor?
XIIa
XIIa, Xa, IIa, IXa
885.
6
Immunoglobulin specificity is determined by:
Which enable
antigen specificity
886.
6
HLA antigens are found on:
887.
7
888.
Xa
IIa
IXa
Variable heavy and Constant heavy
light chain
and variable light
chain
Constant light and
variable heavy
chains
Constant both
chains
Platelets
All nucleated cells
B cells
T cells
Red Blood cells
Patient takes drugs blocking calcium channels. Indicate
processes in myocardium they influence on:
Conductiveness
Exitationcontraction
coupling
Rhythm
assimilation
Automatism
Excitability
7
Myocardial contractility:
Is depends upon an
interaction
between actin and
myosin filaments
Is enhanced by
local application of
epinephrine.
Is decreased by
local application of
epinephrine
Is enhanced by
local application of
potassium medium
Is increases when
bathing medium is
calcium free
889.
7
The absolute refractory period in the heart:
Is longer than the
refractory period in
the skeletal
muscles
Is the phase of the
cardiac cycle when
the heart cannot be
excited by any
stimulus how so
ever strong it may
be
Lasts
approximately as
long as the cardiac
contraction
Corresponds in
time with the
duration of the
action potential
Is shorter than the
relative refractory
period in the
skeletal muscles
890.
7
In the heart:
Contraction begins
normally in the left
atrium
Contraction begins
normally in the
right atrium
Excitation process
can spread directly
from atria to
ventricles
Ventricle shortens
from apex to base
in order to reduce
its diameter
Excitation process
can spread during
block of
conductive system
of heart
891.
7
Process of repolarisation is best demonstrated by:
Q wave
T wave
Р wave
R wave
S wave.
892.
7
The membrane potential of normal pacemaker cells of
the heart (mV) is
25-35
45-65
35-45
65-85
90-120
893.
7
Conduction speed in Purkinje system (m/s) is
0.05
4
1.0
2
0,01
894.
7
The plateau (phase 2) is due to the
Closure of Na
Prolonged opening
Closur of K
Opening of
Opening of
channels
of voltage-gated
Ca channels
channels.
voltage-gated Na
channels.
voltage-gated K
channels
895.
7
The initial rapid repolarization (phase 0) is related to
the
Closure of K and
Cl channels
Opening of
voltage-gated Na
channels
Prolonged opening
of voltage-gated
Ca channels
Closure of Na
channels and Clanions influx
Prolonged opening
of voltage-gated
Ca slow channels
896.
7
The initial rapid repolarization (phase 1) is related to
the
Opening of
voltage-gated Na
channels
Closure of Na
channels and Clanions influx
Closure of K and
Cl channels
Prolonged opening
of voltage-gated
Ca channels.
Opening of
voltage-gated K
channels
897.
7
The final repolarization (phase 3) is due to the
Closure of K and
Cl channels
Closure of Ca
channels and K
efflux
Opening of
voltage-gated Na
channels
Closure of Na
channels
Prolonged opening
of voltage-gated
Ca slow channels
898.
7
The most rapidly propagating tissue in heart is:
Ventricular tissue
Purkinje fibres
Atrial muscle
AV node
Bundle of HIS
899.
7
Inactivation of phospholamban in cardiac muscle
decreases which of the following
The velocity of
contraction in
smooth muscle
The duration of
contraction
The amount of
calcium released
from the
sarcoplasmic
reticulum
The depolarization
required to initiate
a contraction
The strength of
contraction
900.
7
Phase-4 depolarization of SA nodal cells is caused by
which of the following
A decrease in the
flow of chloride
out of the cell
An increase in the
flow of sodium
into the cell
A decrease in the
activity of the NaK pump
A decrease in the
flow of potassium
out of the cell
An increase in the
activity of the
Na/Ca exchanger
901.
7
An ectopic extrasystole caused by a ventricular focus is
characterized by which of the following
A skipped atrial
contraction
A skipped
ventricular
contraction
A larger than
normal force of
contraction
Interruption of the
regular SA node
discharge
Retrograde
conduction of the
action potential to
the atria
902.
7
Absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle last during
Depolarization
phase
All of the above
Initial rapid
repolarization
phase
Plateau
Overshoot
903.
7
Duration (ms) of the absolute refractory period of the
cardiac muscle is nearly
100
250-270
50
350
400
904.
7
Which of the fallowing is a characteristic of cardiac
muscle?
More than one
nucleus per cell
Cell fibers
arranged in a
branching network
or syncytium
Cell arranged in
very long,
cylindrical fibers
Cells located in
walls of arteries
and veines
Controlled
voluntarily
905.
7
Which of the fallowing will be greater during the
plateau phase of the ventricular action potential than at
rest?
Chloride
conductance
Calcium
conductance
Sodium
conductance
Total membrane
Potasium
conductance
906.
7
Cyclic adenosine monophosphate activates protein
kinase A. This leads to phosphorylation electric
sensitive:
Cl - channel
Ca2+- channels
Na2 + - channel
K + - channels
Mg2 + - channels
907.
7
Resting potential of pacemaker cells (mV ):
25-35
55-60
35-45
65-85
85-95
908.
7
Which muscular contraction type is cardiac muscle
distinguishing characteristic:
Smooth (complete)
tetanus
Single contraction
Incomplete tetanus
Tonic contraction
Isometric
contraction
909.
7
Which tunic of an artery contains endothelium?
Tunica media
Tunica
interna/intima
Tunica externa
Tunica adventitia
No right answer
910.
7
The heart’s electrical conduction network found within
the ventricular myocardium is termed the:
Left and right
bundle branches
Purkinje fibers
Bundle of
His/atrioventricula
r bundle
Atrioventricular
node
Sinoatrial node
911.
7
Transfer of excitation in the myocardium occurs
through :
Neuron
Nexus
Dendrite
Axon
Synapse
912.
7
lining of the inner walls of the heart’s chambers is
termed the:
Myocardium
Endocardium
Epicardium
Serous
pericardium
Visceral
pericardium
913.
7
The SA node:
But not the AV
node receives
parasympathetic
nerve supply
Is connected by
three bundles with
AV node
Cells have a faster
rate of diastolic
depolarization at
39° than at 37°C
At the beginning
of ventricular
contraction
At the end of
ventricular
contraction
914.
7
The P wave of ECG occurs:
At the beginning
of atrial
contraction
By SA node
excitation
After the atrial
contraction
At the beginning
of ventricular
contraction
At the end of
ventricular
contraction
915.
7
In the average normal ECG, T wave is negative in:
Lead III
AVR
Lead I
Lead II
V1
916.
7
In transmission of the impulses causing the heart to
beat, the impulses pass from the bundle of HIS to the:
Visceral
pericardium
Purkinje fibres of
the ventricles
AV node of the
ventricular septum
Nodes of Ranvier
AV node
917.
7
If an individual has a heart rate of 150, what is the
amount of time it takes to complete one heart beat?
0.8 seconds
0.4 seconds
8 seconds
150 seconds
60 seconds
918.
7
The sino-atrial (SA) node is
A cardiac lymph
node
Found in the wall
of the right atrium
near the opening of
the superior vena
cava
Located in the
ventricular septum
between the right
and left ventricles
Located in the wall
of the carotid
artery
Present only in the
fetus
919.
7
The correct sequence of parts that function to carry
electrical impulses over modified nerve-muscle tissue
of the heart is:
AV node, SA
node, Purkinje
fibres, HIS bundle
SA node, AV
node, HIS bundle,
Purkinje fibres
AV node, HIS
bundle, Purkinje
fibres, SA node
SA node, Purkinje
fibres, AV node,
HIS bundle
SA node, Purkinje
fibres, HIS bundle
920.
7
Which of the following rhythms is initiated by the AVnode
10-20 /min
40-50 /min.
60-80 /min
80-100 /min
20-30 /min
921.
7
The region of the heart having the lowest inherent
rhythmicity is:
SA node
Purkinje
AV node
Atrial muscle
Ventricular muscle
922.
7
The most rapidly propagating tissue in heart is:
Ventricular tissue
Purkinje fibers
Atrial muscle
AV node
Bundle of HIS
923.
7
Blood flows directly into the ventricles from the atria
during
Late atrial systole
and early
ventricular systole.
Early atrial systole
and late ventricular
diastole.
Early atrial
diastole and late
ventricular systole.
All of the above
None of the above
924.
7
On an "ECG" the spread of an impulse over the atria
just prior to atrial contraction is represented by:
The QRS complex
The "P" wave
The Q portion of
the QRS complex
The T wave
Combination of the
RS component of
the QRS complex
925.
7
The P-Q interval on an ECG:
Is usually about
0.25 sec
Is related to A-V
conduction time
Is of no
physiological
significance
Varies with
placement of
electrodes
None of the above
926.
7
The interval P-Q lasts (sec)
0.6-0.12
0.12-0.21
0.18-0.24
0.24-0.27
0.27-0.32
927.
7
The QRS wave of an ECG is produced by
Depolarization of
the atria.
Depolarization of
the ventricles.
Repolarization of
the atria.
Repolarization of
the ventricles.
Refractory period
928.
7
On a normal ECG, atrial repolarization occurs during
the:
P wave
QRS complex
T wave
P-Q interval
S-T segment
929.
7
On a normal ECG, ventricular depolarization occurs
during the:
P wave
QRS complex
T wave
P-Q interval
S-T segment
930.
7
The first heart sound, ‘lub’, is a valuable aid in
diagnosing:
Semilunar valve
dysfunctions
Atrioventricular
valve dysfunctions
Ileocecal valve
dysfunctions
Pulmonary trunk
wall dysfunctions
Ascending aortic
wall dysfunctions
931.
7
When aortic pressure is greater than the ventricular
pressure:
The
bicuspid/mitral
atrioventricular
valve closes
The aortic
semilunar valve
closes
The tricuspid
atrioventricular
valve opens
The pulmonary
semilunar valve
opens
The pulmonary
semilunar valve
closes
932.
7
The lowest venous blood pressure is found within:
Large-sized veins
The venae cavae
Medium-sized
veins
Venules
Little sized veins
933.
7
What is most responsible for propelling blood in the
arterial system during cardiac diastole
Skeletal muscle
contraction and
breathing
Elastic recoil of
conducting
(elastic) arteries
Hydrostatic blood
pressure arising
from ventricular
contraction
Venous return of
blood
All answers are
correct
934.
7
These structures are the major determinants of vascular
resistance (where resistance to blood flow is greatest):
Arteries
Arterioles
Capillaries
Venules
Veins
935.
7
Indicate QRS complex normal duration:
0,06-0,15 sec
0,08-0,1 sec
0,02-0,05 sec
0,04-0,12 sec
All answers are
uncorrect
936.
7
Indicate possible reason of such ECG disorder at which
one can see unequal interval R-R (with their duration
0,6-1,0 sec):
Myocardial
infarctum
All answers are
uncorrect
Left ventricle
hypertrophy
Arhythmia
Heart attack
(myocardial
ishemia)
937.
7
In course of ECG-investigation of patient suffering
from thyroid hyperfunction it was made the conclusion
about tachycardia. On the basis of which ECG elements
analysis it has been done?
Interval P-Q
Interval R-R
Segment P-Q
Interval P-T
Complex QRS
938.
7
There are next changings on patient’s ECG: segment ST transposition and dens T prolongation (up to 0,25
sec). Indicate heart function with the disorders of which
such changings are delt with?
Atria
repolarization
Ventricles
repolarization.
Atria
depolarization
Ventricles
depolarization
Excitement
transmission
through a/v node
939.
7
ECG-investigation of 45-yeared man demonstrated P
dens absence in all leads. Block of which conductance
system part can be predicted?
Atrio-ventricular
node
Sino-atrial node
Purkin’e fibres
Gis’ fascicle right
bundle
Gis’ fascicle left
bundle
940.
7
Prove that vagus irritation causes conductive heart
function inhibition:
QRST complex
prolongation on
EKG more than
0,45 sec
interval P-Q
prolongation on
ECG more than 0,
20 sec
anacrote
prolongation on
sphygmogram
catacrote
prolongation on
sphygmogram
it’s necessary to
determine heart
throw level and to
mark its
diminishing
941.
7
Which myocardium physiological peculiarities can be
assessed on ECG?
Excitability,
automatism,
contractiveness
Excitability,
conductivenes,
automatism
Excitability,
contractiveness,
refractiveness
Contractiveness,
automatism,
conductiveness
Contractiveness,
refractiveness,
automatism
942.
7
The heart’s natural pacemaker is termed the:
AV node
SA node
Bundle of
His/atrioventricula
r bundle
Left and right
bundle branches
Purkinje fibers
943.
7
If the heart’s natural pacemaker fails to fire, then:
No blood would
enter the ventricles
The node on the
floor of the right
atrium would act
as a secondary
pacemaker
No blood would
enter the atria
The node on the
floor of the left
ventricle would act
as a secondary
pacemaker
The person would
die within minutes
944.
7
Excitation of the ventricles begins 0.12 - 0.18 s after
excitation fibrillation. This is caused by:
slow AP
generation in the
SA node
AP delay in the
AV node
AP delay in
bundle branch
block
AP delay in fibers
Purkinje
All of the above
945.
7
AV node generates an excitation frequency
10 – 20 per 1 min
40 – 50 per 1 min
60 – 80 per 1 min
80 – 100 per 1 min
20 – 30 per 1 min
946.
7
Oscillation frequency excitation is maintained SA node
in the range:
15-20
60-85
20-40
40-50
120-130
947.
7
The electrocardiogram (ECG) is LEAST effective in
detecting abnormalities in
Coronary blood
flow
Cardiac
contractitliti
Cardiac rhythm
Atrioventricular
condaction
The position of the
heart in the chest
948.
7
Impulses are conducted from the sinoatrial (SA) node
of the heart to the atrioventricular (AV) node at an
approximate rate of :
1.0 ms
0.1 second (s)
0.1 milisecond
(ms)
1.0 s
10.0 s
949.
7
The repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle is
represented by which portion of the ECG shown
S
T
R
Q
P
below?
950.
7
The PR interval in an ECG is measured by finding the
interval between the
Beginning of the
P wave and the
beginning of the R
wave
Beginning of the P
wave and the
beginning of the
QRS complex
of the P wave and
the end of the QRS
complex
end of the P wave
and the beginning
of the QRS
complex
end of the P wave
and the end of the
QRS complex
951.
7
Which of the fallowing statements about second–degree
heart block is correct?
The PR interval is
shortened
Not all atrial
impulses reach the
ventricles
The rate of
ventricular
contraction is
increased
Sinoatrialatrioventricular
(SA-AV) nadal
conduction is
slover
AV nodal
condaction is
completely
interapted
952.
7
If the QRS complex is positive in lead II and negative
in lead III, The mean electrical axis (MEA) is betwen
+30 and +60
-30 and +30
+60 and + 90
+90 and +120
+ 120 and +150
953.
7
Which of the following conditions will cause an
increase in the size of the QRS complex recorded from
lead II?
Mitral prolapse
Ventricular
hypertrophy
Second-degree
heart block
Bradycardia
A shift in the mean
electrical axis from
+ 60 degrees to 0
degrees
954.
7
The thickest layer of the heart wall is:
Endocardium
Myocardium
Epicardium
Fibrous
pericardium
No right answer
955.
7
Atrial repolarization coincides in time whith the:
P wave
QRS wave
T wave
P-Q interval
P-T interval
956.
7
Which of the following depolarizes next after the AV
node?
Ventricular
myocardium
Atrial myocardium
Bundle branches
Purkinje fibres
No right answer
957.
7
Papillary muscles of the heart:
Contract to hold
the atrioventricular
valves open during
systole
Contract to hold
the atrioventricular
valves shut during
systole
Contract to pull the
atrioventricular
valves open during
diastole
Contract to pull the
atrioventricular
valves shut just
prior to systole
Contract to pull the
atrioventricular
valves shut after to
systole
958.
7
The second heart sound, ‘dub’, is a valuable aid in
diagnosing:
Atrioventricular
valve dysfunctions
Semilunar valve
dysfunctions
Ileocecal valve
dysfunctions
Pulmonary trunk
wall dysfunctions
Ascending aortic
wall dysfunctions
959.
7
The normal heart sounds (lub and dup) are produced by
which of the following events?
Sympathetic
stimulation of the
sinoatrial node
Closure of the
atrioventricular
and semilunar
valves
Ventricular systole
Friction of blood
flowing against the
chamber walls
Ventricular
diastole
960.
7
The left ventricle’s myocardium is thicker than the right
ventricle’s myocardium in order to:
Ncrease the size of
the thoracic cavity
during diastole
Contract with a
greater pressure
Force blood
through a smaller
semilunar valve
Accommodate a
greater volume of
blood
None of the above
961.
7
To auscultate the aortic semilunar valve, one’s
stethoscope should be placed in the:
Second intercostal
space to the left of
the sternum
Second intercostal
space to the right
of the sternum
Fifth intercostal
space inferior to
the left nipple
In the right fifth
intercostal space
None of the above
962.
7
A heart rate of 90 bpm (beats per minute) means the
duration of one cardiac cycle is about _____ seconds.
1.0
0.67
1.5
1.67
There is not
enough data given
to determine an
answer
963.
7
A person whose heart rate is 70 bpm (beats per minute)
and whose cardiac output is 4.9 L/min. (liters per
minute):
Has a stroke
volume of 7.0
liters per beat
Has a stroke
volume of 0.07
liters per beat
Has a stroke
volume of 7.0 ml.
Per beat
Has a stroke
volume of 0.7 ml.
Per beat
Has abnormal
values
964.
7
As the heart approaches the end of atrial diastole:
The ventricular
myocardium
contracts thereby
opening the
atrioventricular
The majority of
atrial blood has
entered the
ventricles via
gravity and elastic
The atrial
myocardium
contracts thereby
opening the
semilunar valves
All of the heart’s
None of the above
valves must remain
opened in order for
normal blood flow
valves
recoil
965.
7
The second heart sound, "dupp", is normally heard
during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
Just after the start
of ventricular
systole
Just after the end
of ventricular
systole
Just after the end
of atrial systole
Just after the start
of atrial diastole
Just after the start
of atrial systole
966.
7
Stenosis of the bicuspid/mitral atrioventricular valve
may initially cause an increase of pressure in the:
Left ventricle
Pulmonary circuit
Coronary circuit
Superior and
inferior venae
cavae
Right ventricle
967.
7
Increased end-systolic volume results in:
Higher enddiastolic volume
More blood
remaining in the
ventricle after
contraction
Higher cardiac
output
More blood ejected Higher cardiac
from the ventricle
input
per beat
968.
7
An excessively shortened PR-interval can have this
effect on cardiac output (CO):
Decrease CO
because it reduces
ventricular
contraction time
Decrease CO
Increase CO
because it reduces because it
ventricular fill time increases force of
ventricular
contraction
Increase CO
because it
increases enddiastolic volume
Decrease CO
because it
increases enddiastolic volume
969.
7
Increase in afterload in the aorta can have what affect
on cardiac output (CO):
Decrease CO
because of
increased
hydrostatic
pressure and
increased stroke
volume
Decrease CO
because of
increased
backpressure
opposing
ventricular ejection
of blood
Increase CO
because of
increased elastic
recoil of the aorta
Increase CO
because of
increased blood
pressure and blood
volume
Decrease CO
because of
increased blood
pressure and blood
volume
970.
7
Chordae tendineae:
Attach to the
undersurface of the
semilunar valves
Arise from
papillary muscles
in the ventricles
Get pulled taught
immediately prior
to ventricular
systole
Remain slack to
allow the normal
retrograde flow of
coronary blood
Reduce from
papillary muscles
in the ventricles
971.
7
During cardiac cycle immediutely after closure of AV
valves there is:
Isometric
contraction
Isotonic
contraction
Isometric
relaxation
Isotonic relaxation
None of the above.
972.
7
Immediately after closure of semilunar valves, there is:
Isometric
Isotonic relaxation
Isometric
Isotonic
None of the above
contraction phase
relaxation phase
contraction
973.
7
The phase of atrial systole coincides with ventricular:
Isotonic relaxation
Isometric
relaxation
Isotonic
contraction
Isometric
contraction
None of the above
974.
7
The closure of AV valves is initiated by:
Atrial contraction
None of the above
Ventricular
contraction
Ventricular
relaxation
Backward flow of
blood during
ventricular
contraction
975.
7
Rate of ventricular filling:
Is maximum
during first third of
diastole
Variable
depending upon
the timing of atrial
contraction
Is maximum
Is maximum
during middle third during last third of
of diastole
diastole
Is constant
throughout diastole
976.
7
Second heart sound differs from the first in that:
It has a higher
frequency
It has a lower
frequency
Its duration is
greater than that of
the first
It is occasionally
split
Its duration is
similar to the first
977.
7
The cardiac output can be determined by:
Product between
stroke volume and
pulse pressure
Product between
stroke volume and
pulse rate
Product between
end-diastolic
volume and pulse
rate
Difference
between systolic
and diastolic
pressure
Difference
between strke
volume and pulse
rate
978.
7
Within physiological limits, increased venous return to
the heart:
Decreases heart
rate
Increases cardiac
output
Decreases
systemic blood
pressure
Decreases
intrathoracic
pressure
Decreases pulse
pressure
979.
7
Cardiac index is cardiac output:
Per unit of body
weight
Per unit of surface
area
Per unit of body
volume
Per unit of time
.Per unit of body
volume
980.
7
Increased mean arterial blood pressure on sympathetic
stimulation cannot be possibly attributed to:
Increased venous
return to heart
causing increased
cardiac output
Decreased vagal
tone
Increased
peripheral
resistance
Increased
venomotor tone
More forceful
cardiac contraction
981.
7
Cardiac output in adult under basal condition would be
close to:
2.5 litres
5.0 litres
7.5 litres
9.5 litres
4.0 litres.
982.
7
The first heart sound is mainly due to:
Closure of
semilunar valves
Closure of AV
valves
The rapid inflow
of blood from
auricle to ventricle
Inflow of blood
from ventricle to
aorta
Turbulent flow of
blood in aorta.
983.
7
The pulse pressure would be greatest in:
Aorta
Dorsalis paedis
artery
Femoral artery
Femoral vein
Capillaries of the
foot.
984.
7
The heart rate increases in the following states except
during:
Sympathetic
stimulation
Hypothyroldism
Muscular activity
Emotional
excitement
Stress reacton.
985.
7
Process of repolarisation is best demonstrated by:
Q wave
T wave
Р wave
R wave
S wave.
986.
7
The P wave of ECG occurs:
At the beginning
of atrial
contraction
By SA node
excitation
After the atrial
contraction
At the beginning
of ventricular
contraction
At the end of
ventricular
contraction
987.
7
In the average normal ECG, T wave is negative in:
Lead III
AVR
Lead I
Lead II
V1
988.
7
The pulse pressure would be greatest in:
Aorta
Dorsalis paedis
artery
Femoral artery
Femoral vein
Capillaries of the
foot.
989.
7
Cardiac output in man (bw=70kg) under stress
condition (Ps=100 beat/per min) would be close to:
12.5 litres
7.0 litres
5 litres
9 litres
4.0 litres
990.
7
The atrioventricular valve that is on the same side of the
heart as the origin of the pulmonary artery is named the
Bicuspid valve
Tricuspid valve
Mitral valve
Semilunar valve
None of above
991.
7
Blood flows directly into the ventricles from the atria
during
Late atrial systole
and early
ventricular systole.
Early atrial systole
and late ventricular
diastole
Early atrial
diastole and late
ventricular systole
All of the above
None of the above
992.
7
The "lubb-dup" sounds have practical clinical value
because they provide information concerning the
Strength of arterial
contractions
Efficiency of heart
valves
Power of papillary
muscles
Closure of foramen All of the above
ovale
993.
7
After closure of semilunar valves during the cardiac
cycle, there is a perid of:
Isometric
contraction phase
Isometric
relaxation phase
Isotonic
contraction
Isotonic relaxation
None of the above
994.
7
Duration of ventricular systole
0.5 sec
0.33 sec
0.4 sec
0.65 sec
0.8 sec
995.
7
The first heart sound is produced at
The end of systole
The beginning of
systole
The beginning of
diastole
The end of diastole
Both systole and
diastle
996.
7
In a test subject, oxygen consumption was measured at
700 mL/min. Pulmonary artery oxygen content was 140
mL per liter of blood and brachial artery oxygen
content was 210 mL per liter of blood. Cardiac output
was which of the following?
30.0 L/min
10.0 L/min
4.2 L/min
7.0 L/min
12.6 L/min
997.
7
Which one of the following is the best index of
afterload
Mean arterial
blood pressure
Left ventricular
mean systolic
pressure
Left ventricular
end-diastolic
pressure
Pulmonary
capillary wedge
pressure
Total peripheral
resistance
998.
7
Which of the following would result from a regurgitant
aortic valve in a nonfailing heart?
A decrease in
systolic blood
pressure
A decrease in
diastolic pressure
A systolic murmur
A decrease in heart
rate
A decrease in
cardiac energy
consumption
999.
7
Stroke volume is increased by which of the following?
An increase in
heart rate
A decrease in
venous compliance
A decrease in
coronary blood
flow
A decrease in
contractility
An increase in
afterload
1000. 7
An increased preload would most likely be caused by
an increase in which of the following?
Capillary
permeability
Venous tone
Myocardial
contractility
Heart rate
Arteriolar tone
1001. 7
A patient in heart failure improves markedly after using
a drug that increases the inotropic state of her heart.
Which one of the following changes is primarily
responsible for the improvement in her condition
An increase in
cardiac excitability
A decrease in end
diastolic volume
A reduction in
heart rate
An increase in
end-diastolic
pressure
An increase in wall
thickness
1002. 7
Which one of the following is most likely to be
observed in a patient with untreated atrial fibrillation
An increased
arterial blood
pressure
An increased left
atrial pressure
An increased
venous A wave
A decreased heart
rate
An increased
stroke volume
1003. 7
In a resting, healthy man, which of the following is the
approximate ejection fraction
0.9
0.6
0.2
0.3
0.1
1004. 7
During normal diastole, which of the following is most
important in preventing over-distension of the
Adjacent lungs
Fibrous
pericardium
Aortic valve
Diaphragm
Mitral valve
ventricles?
1005. 7
During cardiac examination of a newborn infant, a
murmur is detected, and the diagnosis of patent ductus
arteriosus is made. Which of the following best
describes the direction of blood flow through the patent
ductus arteriosus in this infant?
From aorta to left
pulmonary vein
From aorta to left
pulmonary artery
From aorta to right
pulmonary artery
From left
pulmonary artery
to aorta
From right
pulmonary artery
to aorta
1006. 7
A 60-year-old male with heart disease is brought to the
emergency room. Cardiovascular evaluation reveals a
resting O2 consumption of 200 mL/min, a peripheral
arterial O2 content of 0.20 mL O2/ml of blood, and a
mixed venous O2 content of 0.15 mL O2/mL of blood.
What is his cardiac output?
2.5 L/min
4.0 L/min
10.0 L/min
25.0 L/min
100.0 L/min
1007. 7
One can see significant hypersympathicotony in course
of emotional stress. Indicate the most possible heart
activity changings: 4 topic
Heart activity
remains
unchangeable
Heart contraction
frequency and
force increasing
Heart contraction
frequency and
force decreasing
Heart stoppage due
to tetanic heart
muscle contraction
Arhythmias
1008. 7
Starling's law of the heat: 4 topic
Could explain why
the output of left
and right ventricles
is equal in the long
term
States that strength
of myocardial
contraction is a
function of initial
length of the
muscle fibers
Could explain fall
in cardiac output
when a person
changes his
posture from lying
down to standing
Could explain fall
in cardiac output
when a changes of
intraaortic pressure
Could explain
relationship
cardiac output with
arterial resistance
1009. 7
The greatest benefit derived from administering a
positive inotropic drag to a patients in heart failure
results from
A reduction in
heart rate
A reduction in
heart size
An increase in
contractile forse
An increase in wall
thickness
An increase in
cardiac excitability
1010. 7
Patients who have received cardiac transplants are able
to increase cardiac output during exercise for which of
the following reasons?
Heart rate is
increase by
sympathetic
stimulation
Increased venous
return results in an
increase in stroke
volume
Ventricular end –
diastolic pressure
is decrease
Length of systole
is shortened
following
transplantation
Non of the above
1011. 7
Coronary blood flow is increased by all the following
except
A decrease in
arterial Po2
Beta-adrnergic
blockade
An increase in
arterial Pco2
Decrease in
systemic blood
pressure
Vagal stimulations
1012. 7
Increasing vagal stimulation of the heart will cause an
increase in
Heart rate
PR interval
Ventricular
contractility
Ejection fraction
QS interval
1013. 7
Excessively high heart rate (>180) can reduce cardiac
output because:
It tires out the
heart muscles and
so they pump
slower
It reduces the time
for ventricular
filling which
reduces stroke
volume
Blood is moving
too fast through
the lungs to pick
up enough oxygen
The pr-interval
increases which
leads to longer
ventricular diastole
and shorter
ventricular systole
The qs-interval
increases which
leads to longer
ventricular diastole
and shorter
ventricular systole
1014. 7
Sympathetic stimulation to the heart’s natural
pacemaker normally results in:
A greater force of
myocardial
contraction
A faster heart rate
Both choices (a)
and (b) are correct
The heart’s natural
pacemaker is not
influenced by
sympathetic
stimulation
Non of the above
1015. 7
If vagal nerves to the heart were severed, the result
should be that:
The heart would
stop contracting
The heart rate
would increase
The
atrioventricular
node would takeover as the heart’s
pacemaker
Parasympathetic
stimulation to the
heart would
increase
Non of the above
1016. 7
In a physically Irained person,
Heart rate can
reach higher levels
than in an
untrained person
Stroke volume is
greater than in an
unlrained person
Vagal tone is
lower than in an
unlrained person
Vascular resistance
is higher than in an
untrained person
Left ventricular
end-diastolic
volume is less than
in an untrained
person
1017. 7
In a person with a prominent respiratory sinus
arrhythmia,
Efferent cardiac
sympathetic
activity decreases
during inspiration
Efferent vagal
activity decreases
during inspiration
The slope of the
slow diastolic
depolarization of
the sinoatrial cells
decreases during
inspiration
The arrhythmia
will become more
pronounced in
response to
hemorrhage
Propranolol will
abolish the
arrhythmia
1018. 7
When cardiac sympathetic activity suddenly ceases, the
effects of that activity subside gradually because
Neuropeptides
coreleased with
norepinephrine
The processes that
remove neurally
released nor-
The calcium
channels in the
myocyte
The neurally
released
norepinephrme
Norepinephrine
continues to be
released from the
delay its
degradation
epinephrine from
the cardiac tissues
are slow
membranes are
connected to the
bela-adrenergic
receplors by g
proteins
alters the
viscoelastic
characteristic of
the cardiac tissues
nerve endings long
after the neural
activity has ceased
1019. 7
When vagal activity suddenly ceases, the cardiai
response to that activity disappears rapidly becausi the
Acetylcholine in
the nerve endings
is rapid!' depleted
Abundant
acetyicholinesleras
e rapidly degrade:
the released
acetylcholine
Myocytes rapidly
take up the
released acetyl
choline
Nerve endings
rapidly take up the
release!
Acetylcholine
Cardiac cells
become lachyphy
lactic
1020. 7
Starling's law of the heat:
States that strength
of myocardial
contraction is a
function of Initial
length of the
muscle fibres
Could explain how
stroke volume be
maintained when
peripheral
resistance
increases
Could explain why
the output of left
and right ventricles
is equal in the long
term
Could explain fall
in cardiac output
when a person
changes his
posture from lying
down to standing
All of the above
1021. 7
Sympathetic stimulation to the heart would cause:
Negative
chronotropic effect
Positive
chronoinotropic
effect
Positive inotropic
effect
Negative
dromotropic effect
Negative
bathmotropic
effect
1022. 7
During the process of inspiration in children:
Pulse rate
decreases
Pulse rate
increases
Pulse strength
increases
Pulse rate does not
change
Pulse is weak
1023. 7
Force of contraction of the heart:
Decreases by
athletic training
Increases with
sympathetic
stimulation
Is unaffected by
nutrition
Decreases by
increased filling
Is not dependent
upon rate.
1024. 7
Activity in the sympathetic nerves to the heart increases
in the following except:
During exercise
When the arterial
pressure falls
During excitement
When the arterial
pressure rises
During stress.
1025. 7
Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes:
Decrease in the
rate of diastolic
depolarisation in
pacemaker
Shifts the
Starling's curve of
myocardial
contractility to the
right.
Fall in coronary
blood flow
Decrease in the
rate of conduction
in AV node
Shifts the
Starling's curve of
myocardial
contractility to the
left
1026. 7
Increasing vagal stimulation of the heart will cause an
increase in which of the following?
Heart rate
PR interval
Ventricular
contractility
Ejection fraction
Cardiac output.
1027. 7
Which of the following conditions causes pulse
pressure to increase?
Tachycardia
Hypertension
Hemorrhage
Aortic stenosis
Heart failure.
1028. 7
In running 100 metres, the increased oxygen
requirements of tissues is immediate responses:
Increased 2,3 –
DPG
Increased cardiac
output
Increased
erythropoietin
Rise in co2 partial
pressure activating
peripheral
chemoreceptors
Increased arterial
CO2 partial
pressure leads to
vasodilatation.
1029. 7
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the
heart:
The left ventricle
ejects a larger
volume of blood
with each systole
than the right
ventricle
Stroke volume
increases with
increased venous
return
The intrinsic rate
of the heart's
pacemaker is 100
beats/min
Cardiac output
Both ventricles
increases with
contract
increased heart rate simultaneously
1030. 7
Carotid sinus stimulation causes:
A fall in venous
pressure
An increase in
heart rate
Reflex bradycardia
Reflex hyperpnoea
Reflex increase in
venous pressure.
1031. 7
Chemoreceptor stimulation leads to:
Hypoventilation
Reflex bradycardia
Apnoea
Rise in BP
None of the above.
1032. 7
CO is carried in venous blood mostly in form of'
Carbonate
None of these.
Carbonic acid
Bicarbonate
Dissolved СО2
1033. 7
The most important cardiac and vasomotor centres are
located in:
Cerebral cortex
Medulla.
Cerebellum
Hypothalamus
Pons
1034. 7
The heart rate increases in the following states except
during:
Sympathetic
stimulation
Hypothyroldism
Muscular activity
Emotional
excitement
Stress reacton.
1035. 7
Increasing vagal stimulation of the heart will cause an
increase in which of the following?
Heart rate
PR interval
Cardiac output
Ventricular
contractility
Ejection fraction
1036. 7
A healthy 28-year-old woman stands up from a supine
position. Which of the following cardiovascular
changes is most likely to occur?
Decreased
myocardial
contractility
Increased heart
rate
Decreased total
peripheral
resistance
Dilation of large
veins
Increased renal
blood flow
1037. 7
The exchange of gases and nutrients between blood and
Arteries
Capillaries
Arterioles
Veins
Venule
tissues is a major function of:
1038. 7
Which of the following statements best describes
arteries?
All arteries contain
valves to prevent
the back-flow of
blood
All arteries carry
blood away from
the heart
All arteries carry
oxygenated blood
towards the heart
Only large arteries
are lined with
endothelium
Only large veins
are lined with
endothelium
1039. 7
The circulatory pathway that carries blood from the
digestive tract towards the liver is termed the:
Cerebral circuit
Hepatic portal
circuit
Coronary circuit
Pulmonary circuit
No right answer
1040. 7
Immediately following strenuous and vigorous exercise,
which of the following is most likely to occur?
The skin will be
cold and clammy
Capillaries of the
active muscles will
be engorged with
blood
Blood will be
rapidly diverted to
the digestive
organs
Blood flow to the
kidneys quickly
increases
No right answer
1041. 7
A long-term hypertensive person, whose BP is 200/120
mm Hg, is in risk of developing all of the following
changes, except:
Increased risk of
damage to the
blood vessel’s
endothelium
Decreased size of
the myocardium
Increased risk of
coronary artery
disease
Increased
workload of the
left ventricle
Decreased
workload of the
left ventricle
1042. 7
The C wave of jugular venous pulse occurs:
During ventricular
systole
Just prior to
auricular systole
Just after peak of
auricular systole
Just after dicrotic
notch in aortic
pressure
At the beginning
of expiration
1043. 7
Carotid sinus stimulation causes:
A fall in venous
pressure
An increase in
heart rate
Reflex bradycardia
Reflex hyperpnoea
Reflex increase in
venous pressure
1044. 7
Which of the following is/are true?
The force of
contraction of the
left ventricle is
smaler than that of
the right ventricle
The lowest
velocity blood
flow occurs in the
capillaries
The highest
velocity blood
flow occurs in the
capillaries
The bundle of HIS
is the typical site at
which electrical
activity occurring
in the atria can be
conducted to the
ventricles
The lowest
velocity blood
flow occurs in the
arterioles
1045. 7
In a typical capillary
The pressure at the
venous end
exceeds that at the
The tension in the
wall increases as
the hydrostatic
The radius
exceeds that of a
typical arteriole
The radius is more
than three times as
great as the radius
The tension in the
wall is
proportional to the
fourth power of the
arterial end
pressure rises
of a red blood cell
radius
1046. 7
The ultrafiltration of fluid from the capillaries into the
interstitial spaces increases as the
Oncotic pressure
of the interstitial
fluid decreases
Tissue hydrostatic
pressure decreases
Hydrostatic
pressure in the
capillaries
decreases
Radius of the
upstream arteriole
decreases
Molecular weight
of the plasma
proteins decreases
1047. 7
The pressure drop in the systemic circulation is greatest
in the
Capillaries
Arterioles
Venules
Aorta
Venae cavae
1048. 7
The less compliant arterial system in old people
compared with young people
Allows blood to
flow through the
capillaries at a
more steady rate
Requires the heart
to expend more
energy to pump a
normal cardiac
output
Prevents the
arterial systolic
pressure from
attaining
excessively high
values
Increases the total
blood volume.
Decreases the
mean arterial blood
pressure
1049. 7
Arterial blood pressure could be decreased by
An increase in
cardiac output
Decrease in
cardiac output
An increase in
venous return
An increase in
peripheral
resistance
Increased viscosity
of blood
1050. 7
Which of the following would not influence venous
return:
Contraction of
skeletal muscles
squeezing veins
Exchange of
materials at
capillary bed
Higher pressure in
capillaries than in
veins, forcing
blood toward heart
Gravity
Dilation of veins
1051. 7
There is the major force pushing fluid out of the
capillaries.
Force of gravity
Capillary blood
pressure
Respirations in the
body
Valve in a vein
Colloidal osmotic
pressure
1052. 7
The "pressure gradient" is the highest or steepest along
the:
Large arteries
Arterioles
Capillaries
Veins
Venae cavae
1053. 7
Which statement about capillaries is NOT TRUE?
Capillaries are
microscopic
vessels whose
walls are one cell
thick
Blood pressure is
lowest in
capillaries.
Velocity of blood
flow is slowest in
capillaries
Many capillaries
are smaller than
whole cells
Capillaries are
semipermeable
exchangeable
vesels
1054. 7
In a normal person, most of the circulating blood is
located in the
Systemic
capillaries
Systemic veins
Pulmonary
capillaries
Pulmonary veins
Systemic arteries
and arterioles
1055. 7
Velocity of blood flow is greatest in the
Capillaries
Aorta
Venules
Venae cavae
Arterioles
1056. 7
The principal determinants of mean arterial pressure are
Arterial and
venous compliance
Cardiac output and
peripheral
resistance
Cardiac output and
arterial compliance
Peripheral
resistance and
arterial compliance
Cardiac output and
venous compliance
1057. 7
Which of the following is/are the most critical factor in
maintaining arterial pressure.
Total length of the
vessels examined
Peripheral
resistance in
arterioles
Cross sectional
diameter of vessels
examined
Cardiac output
Blood pressure
1058. 7
If arterial blood pressure falls markedly, which of the
following would you expect to occur?
Body cells swollen
with excess fluid
Less movement of
fluid from the
capillaries to the
interstitial spaces
Leakage of blood
proteins into
interstitial fluid
Exchange of water
between the blood
and interstitial
fluid unaltered
Interstitial edema
1059. 7
Which of the following has the highest total crosssectional area in the body?
Arteries
Capillaries
Arterioles
Venules
Veins
1060. 7
Tissue fluid" is found in the
Vascular spaces
Interstitial spaces
Intracellular spaces
Cells
Tissues
1061. 7
The ultrafiltration of fluid from the capillaries into the
interstitial spaces increases as the
Oncotic pressure
of the interstitial
fluid decreases
Tissue hydrostatic
pressure decreases
Hydrostatic
pressure in the
capillaries
decreases
Radius of the
upstream arteriole
decreases
Molecular weight
of the plasma
proteins decreases
1062. 7
Which one of the following will be observed in a
patient with a dilated failing left ventricle and a normal
resting mean blood pressure
A decreased heart
rate
An increased
pulmonary
capillary
hydrostatic
pressure
A decreased left
ventricular wall
stress
An increased left
ventricular ejection
fraction
A decreased left
ventricular energy
consumption
1063. 7
After a mild hemorrhage, compensatory responses
initiated by the baroreceptor reflex keeps blood
pressure at or close to its normal value. Which one of
the following values is less after compensation for the
Heart rate
Venous
compliance
Ventricular
contractility
Total peripheral
resistance
Coronary blood
flow
hemorrhage than it was before the hemorrhage
1064. 7
Central venous pressure is increased by which of the
following?
Decreasing blood
volume
Decreasing heart
rate
Increasing venous
compliance
Increasing total
peripheral
resistance
Decreasing plasma
aldosterone
concentration
1065. 7
Blood flow through an organ would be increased by
decreasing which of the following
The diameter of
the arterial vessels
The hematocrit
The number of
open arterial
vessels
The arterial
pressure
The diameter of
the venous vessels
1066. 7
The percentage of the total cardiac output distributed to
any single organ is most dependent on which of the
following
The contractile
state of the heart
The ratio of an
organ's vascular
resistance to total
peripheral
resistance (TPR)
The magnitude of
mean blood
pressure
The magnitude of
diastolic pressure
The magnitude of
cardiac output
1067. 7
A 65-year-old male visits his family practitioner for a
yearly examination. Measurement of his blood pressure
reveals a systolic pressure of 190 mm Hg and a
diastolic pressure of 100 mm Hg. His heart rate is
74/min and pulse pressure is 90 mm Hg. A decrease in
which of the following is the most likely explanation
for the high pulse pressure?
Cardiac output
Arterial
compliance
Myocardial
contractility
Stroke volume
Total peripheral
resistance
1068. 7
A 54-year-old male is seen in clinic with complaints of
palpitations and light-headedness. Physical examination
is remarkable for a heart rate of greater than 200 beats
per minute and a blood pressure of 75/40 mm Hg. What
adjustments have probably occurred in the cardiac
cycle?
Diastolic time has
decreased and
systolic time has
increased
Systolic time has
decreased but
diastolic time has
decreased more
Diastolic time has
decreased but
systolic time has
decreased more
Systolic time has
decreased and
diastolic time has
increased
Systolic time has
decreased but
diastolic time has
not changed
1069. 7
In a tissue capillary, the interstitial hydrostatic pressure
is 2 mm Hg, the capillary hydrostatic pressure is 25 mm
Hg and the interstitial oncotic pressure is 7 mm Hg. If
the net driving force across the capillary wall is 3 mm
Hg favoring filtration, what is the capillary oncotic
pressure?
21 mm Hg
27 mm Hg
23 mm Hg
24 mm Hg
25 mm Hg
1070. 7
Blood is flowing through the circuit shown above. The
inflow pressure is 100 mm Hg and the outflow pressure
is 10 mm Hg. The resistance of each of the five
branches is 5 mm Hg/mL/min. What is the flow across
the circuit?
3.6 ml/min
90 ml/min
45 ml/min
135 ml/min
180 ml/min
1071. 7
Which of the following vascular structures contains the
largest proportion of the total blood volume in a normal
individual?
Aorta and large
arteries
Venules and veins
Arterioles
Capillaries
Pulmonary
vasculature
1072. 7
In which type of blood vessel is the mean linear
velocity of a red blood cell the lowest?
Aorta and large
arteries
Capillaries
Arterioles
Small arteries
Vena cavae and
large veins
1073. 7
When aortic pressure is less than ventricular pressure,
this causes:
The
bicuspid/mitral
atrioventricular
valve to close
The aortic
semilunar valve to
open
The pulmonary
semilunar valve to
close
The tricuspid
atrioventricular
valve to open
The aortic
semilunar valve to
close
1074. 7
Which of the following is generally true of veins
compared to arteries:
There tends to be
less blood located
in the veins than in
the arteries when
the body is at rest
There tends to be
more veins
draining blood
from a region than
arteries supplying
blood to that
region
Veins tend to run
deeper than
arteries, closer to
bones
Veins tend to have
smaller diameter
lumens than
arteries
Veins tend to have
bigger diameter
lumens than
arteries
1075. 7
What is most responsible for propelling blood in the
venous system?
Hydrostatic blood
pressure arising
from ventricular
contraction
Skeletal muscle
contraction and
breathing
Elastic recoil of
large veins
Increased capillary
resistance at the
venous
Elastic recoil of
little veins
1076. 7
Where in the body does blood flow travel the fastest?
Coronary arteries
Aorta
Cerebral arteries
Capillaries
Veins
1077. 7
What is the pulse pressure of a person who has an
arterial blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg
130
60
100
160
190
1078. 7
Increased mean arterial blood pressure on sympathetic
stimulation cannot be possibly attributed to:
Increased venous
return to heart
causing increased
Decreased vagal
tone
Increased
peripheral
Increased
venomotor tone
More forceful
cardiac contraction
cardiac output
resistance
1079. 7
Sudden standing evokes the baroreceptor reflex. Which
one of the following will be greater after a person
suddenly stands up than it was before the person stood?
The end-diastolic
volume
The ejection
fraction.
The renal blood
flow
The venous return
The pulse pressure
1080. 7
Capillary permeability is increased by:
Adrenaline
Bradykinin
Calcium
Vasopressin
Noradrenaline
1081. 7
Which one of the following will increase if massaging
the neck stretches the carotid sinus baroreceptor:
Total peripheral
resistance
Vagal nerve
activity
Right atrial
pressure
Venous tone
Ventricular
contractility
1082. 7
During surgical removal of an invasive glioma from the
skull base, cranial nerves IX and X are accidentally cut
bilaterally. What would be the immediate change in the
patient's hemodynamic condition?
Bradycardia with
hypertension
Tachycardia with
hypertension
Bradycardia with
hypotension
Sinus arrhythmia
with hypotension
Tachycardia with
hypotension
1083. 7
A cardiovascular physiologist performs an experiment
on an animal subject to study heart rate and blood
pressure changes with nerve stimulation. He selectively
stimulates the afferent portions of the glossopharyngeal
and vagus nerves. Which of the following outcomes
would most likely occur after this manipulation?
Bradycardia with
hypertension
Bradycardia with
hypotension
Sinus arrhythmia
with hypotension
Tachycardia with
hypertension
Tachycardia with
hypotension
1084. 7
A healthy 28-year-old woman stands up from a supine
position. Which of the following cardiovascular
changes is most likely to occur?
Decreased
myocardial
contractility
Increased heart
rate
Decreased total
peripheral
resistance
Dilation of large
veins
Increased renal
blood flow
1085. 7
The most important cardiac and vasomotor centres are
located in:
Cerebral cortex
Medulla.
Cerebellum
Hypothalamus
Pons
1086. 7
Blood pressure increases and heart rate decreases in
response to which of the following
Hemorrhage
Increased
intracranial
pressure
Exercise
Increased body
temperature
Exposure to high
altitude
1087. 7
Sudden standing evokes the baroreceptor reflex. Which
one of the following will be greater after a person
suddenly stands up than it was before the person stood?
The end-diastolic
volume
The ejection
fraction
The renal blood
flow
The venous return
The pulse pressure
1088. 7
A reduction in carotid sinus pressure would cause a
Heart rate
Venous
Myocardial
Total peripheral
Cardiac output
decrease in which of the following
compliance
contractility
resistance
1089. 7
Which one of the following organs has the highest
arteriovenous O2 difference under normal resting
conditions
Brain
Heart
Skeletal muscle
Kidney
Stomach
1090. 7
Which one of the following characteristics is most
similar in the systemic and pulmonary circulations?
Stroke work
Preload
Afterload
Peak systolic
pressure
Blood volume
1091. 7
Which one of the following values is greater in the
pulmonary circulation than in the systemic circulation?
The mean arterial
pressure
The vascular
compliance
The arterial
resistance
The blood flow
The sympathetic
tone
1092. 7
Which one of the following increases during aerobic
exercise
Diastolic blood
pressure
Cerebral vascular
resistance
Mixed venous
oxygen tension
Blood flow to the
kidney
Circulating blood
volume
1093. 7
Flow of fluid through the lymphatic vessels will be
decreased if there is an increase in which of the
following?
Capillary pressure
Capillary oncotic
pressure
Capillary
permeability
Interstitial protein
concentration
Central venous
pressure
1094. 7
Which one of the following will increase if massaging
the neck stretches the carotid sinus baroreceptor
Total peripheral
resistance
Vagal nerve
activity
Right atrial
pressure
Venous tone
Ventricular
contractility
1095. 7
During exercise, cardiac output is augmented by which
of the following
Sympathetic
stimulation of
resistance vessels
Increased
ventricular
contractility
Dilation of venous
vessels
Decreased enddiastolic volume
Decreased mean
systemic arterial
pressure
1096. 7
A healthy, 25-year-old female medical student has an
exercise stress test at a local health club. Which of the
following is most likely to occur in this woman's
skeletal muscles during exercise?
Decreased blood
flow
Increased arteriolar
diameter
Decreased
metabolite
concentrations
Increased oxygen
concentration
Increased vascular
resistance
1097. 7
During surgical removal of an invasive glioma from the
skull base, cranial nerves IX and X are accidentally cut
bilaterally. What would be the immediate change in the
patient's hemodynamic condition?
Bradycardia with
hypertension
Tachycardia with
hypertension
Bradycardia with
hypotension
Sinus arrhythmia
with hypotension
Tachycardia with
hypotension
1098. 7
In which segment of the systemic circulation does the
greatest decrease in blood pressure occur?
Aorta and large
arteries
Arterioles
Capillaries
Small arteries
Vena cavae and
large veins
1099. 7
During an experimental procedure, a cardiovascular
researcher prepares his anesthetized animal subject
forblood pressure and electrocardiogram monitoring.
He then isolates and electrically stimulates
glossopharyngeal afferent fibers that supply the carotid
sinus. Which of the following changes would most
likely occur in this subject?
Hypertension with
bradycardia
Hypotension with
bradycardia
Hypertension with
tachycardia
Hypotension with
tachycardia
No changes in
blood pressure or
heart rate
1100. 7
During exercise there is an increase in a persons
Diastolic pressure
Stroke volume
Pulmonary arterial
pressure
Pulmonary arterial
risistance
Total peripheral
resistanse
1101. 7
Patient was injected by noradrenaline. Through which
receptors it caused vasoconstriction?
Betaadrenoreceptors
Alpaadrenoreceptors
N-cholinoreceptors
Mcholinoreceptors
H1-hystaminic
receptors
1102. 7
Vessels constriction and dilation regulation processes
are very important for organism proper functionning.
Call hormone causing vasoconstriction:
Aldosterone
Noradrenaline
Thyroxine
Parathormone
Glucagone
1103. 7
Cerebral blood flow is regulated by:
Skin temperature
An intrinsic
autoregulatory
mechanism
ADH
The hypothalamic
‘thermostat’
All answers are
correct
1104. 7
Following a motor vehicle accident, a large loss of
blood will initially cause:
A higher BP due to
an increased stroke
volume
A lowered BP due
to a decreased
cardiac output
No change in BP
but a slower heart
rate
No change in BP
but an increased
respiration rate
All answers are
correct
1105. 7
Cerebral blood flow is
Reduced by high
paccv
Characterized by
auto regulation
Insensitive to PO2
Primarily under
neural control
Uniform
throughout the
brain
1106. 7
If a drug is given that acts specifically to constrict the
arterioles in the systemic circulation
Cardiac output will
increase but mean
arterial pressure
will not be affected
Cardiac output and
central venous
pressure will both
decrease
Cardiac output and
mean arterial
pressure will both
decrease
Cardiac output will
decrease but
central venous
pressure will rise
Mean arterial
pressure and
central venous
pressure will both
rise
1107. 7
When a person lying on a lilt table is shifted from a
horizontal to an upright position, the cardiac output
Arterial
compliance
Central venous
pressure decreases
Heart rate
decreases
The arteriovenous
shunts in the
splanchnic vessels
Sympathetic
nervous activity to
decreases because
decreases
dilate
the heart decreases
1108. 7
In metabolic regulation of blood flow
Blood flow and
arterial pressure
are inversely
related
Blood flow and
tissue metabolism
arc directly related
Blood flow and
tissue metabolism
are inversely
related
Blood flow is held
constant during
changes in tissue
metabolism
Basal vascular lone
is unchanged when
tissue metabolism
is altered
1109. 7
In severe exercise
Arterial oxygen
levels fall
Arleriovenous
oxygen difference
increases
Capillary
hydrostatic
pressure decreases
Pulse pressure
decreases
Stroke volume
increases
proportionately
more than does
heart rate
1110. 7
The most important factor in the regulation of coronary
blood flow is the
Extravascular
compression of the
coronary vessels
Metabolic activity
of the myocardium
Activity of the
cardiac
sympathetic nerves
Activity of the
vagus nerves to the
heari
Coronary
perfusion pressure
1111. 7
The less compliant arterial system in old people
compared with young people
Allows blood to
flow through the
capillaries al a
more steadv rate
Requires the heart
to expend more
energy to pump a
normal cardiac
output
Prevents the
arterial systolic
pressure from
attaining
excessively high
values
Increases the total
blood volume
Decreases the
mean arterial blood
pressure
1112. 7
In the coronary circulation
Parasympaihetic
effects
predominate over
sympathetic neural
effects on the
vessels
Venous oxygen
content is one of
the lowest in the
body
The epicardium
and endocardium
are equally
vulnerable to
reductions in
coronary perfusion
pressure
Autoregulation
does not occur
Coronary blood
flow to the left
ventricle is greatest
during ventricular
systole
1113. 8
Out of the twenty three generation of passages from
conducting zone of airways, gas exchange occurs in:
1 generation
7 generation
3 generation
5 generation
15 generation
1114. 8
Type II pneumocytes:
Develop from type
I pneumocytes
Metabolise
surfactant
Are macrophages
Are very flat and
practically devoid
of organelles
All of the above
1115. 8
Type I pneumocytes:
Give rise to Type
II pneumocytes
Are flat and
minimal organelles
Bind surfactant
(receptors) on their
brush border
All of the above
None of the above
1116. 8
The intrapleural pressure during quiet breathing at the
start of inspiration:
Increased from 2,5
mmHg to 6,0
mmHg
Decreased from 2,5 mmHg to -6,0
mmHg
Decreased from 6
mmHg to 2,5
mmHg
Increased from -6
mmHg to -2,5
mmHg
Increased from -6
mmHg to 2,5
mmHg.
1117. 8
The oxygen required by the respiratory muscles would
be increased by all the following except:
a decrease in lung
compliance
a decrease in
airway resistance
an increase in the
rate of respiration
a decrease in the
production of
pulmonary
surfactant
an increase in tidal
volume.
1118. 8
A person starts to breathe into a 12-L spirometer
containing 10% helium at the end of a passive
expiration. If, after several minutes, the helium
concentration in the spirometer falls to 8 %, this
person's functional residual capacity (FRC) is
approximately:
1L
3L
2L
4L
5L
1119. 8
The concentration of CO2 is lowest in:
The anatomic dead
space at end
expiration
The anatomic dead
space at end
inspiration
The alveoli at end
inspiration
The alveoli at end
expiration
The blood in the
pulmonary veins.
1120. 8
Functions of alveolar macrophages include all the
following except:
Phagocytosis of
bacteria
Secretion of
surfactant
Release of
lysosomal
enzymes into the
alveolar space
Transport of
inhaled particles
out of the alveoli
Release of
leukocyte
chemotactic
factors.
1121. 8
A deficiency of pulmonary surfactant would:
Decrease surface
tension in the
alveoli
Decrease lung
compliance
Decrease the
change in intrapleural pressure
required to achieve
a given tidal
volume
Decrease the work
of breathing
Increase functional
residual capacity
(FRC)
1122. 8
The concentration of CO2 is lowest in:
The anatomic dead
space at end
The anatomic dead
space at end
The alveoli at end
inspiration
The alveoli at end
expiration
The blood in the
pulmonary veins.
expiration
inspiration
1123. 8
Which one of the following would increase in
obstructive, but not in restrictive, pulmonary disorders?
Vital capacity
Functional residual
capacity
Maximum
breathing capacity
FEV1
Breathing
frequency
1124. 8
Very small particles are removed from the respiratory
system by which of the following:
Bulk flow
Phagocytosis
Diffusion
Expectoration
Ciliary transport.
1125. 8
Which one of the following is higher at total lung
capacity than it is at residual volume?
Maximum static
inspiratory
pressure
Anatomical dead
space
Lung compliance
Airway resistance
Alveolar pressure.
1126. 8
A spirometer can be used to directly measure which of
the following:
Functional residual
capacity
Inspiratory
capacity
Residual volume
Total lung capacity
Physiological dead
space
1127. 8
A woman has a respiratory rate of 18, a tidal volume of
350 mL, and a dead space of 100 mL. What is her
alveolar ventilation:
4.0 L
4.5 L
5.0 L
5.5 L
6.0 L.
1128. 8
Chronic cigarette smoking can produce all the
following except:
Emphysema
Decreased
anatomic dead
space
Atelectasis
Carbon
monoxyhemoglobi
nemia
“Morning
coughing”
1129. 8
The anatomic differences that contribute to important
functional differences between the bronchi and
bronchioles are that
Bronchioles have
type 1 and type 2
squamous (thin,
flat, pavement)
epithelial cells,
whereas the
bronchi have
columnar
epithelium with
cilia
The bronchi are
not directly
attached to the
connective tissue
fibers of the lung
tissue, whereas the
bronchioles are
directly embedded
into the lung
connective tissue
structure
The bronchiolar
glands are situated
directly beneath
the lining
epithelium
(submucosa),
whereas the glands
of the bronchi are
larger and external
to the cartilage
rings or plates
The smooth
muscle of the
bronchi is arranged
longitudinally
(along the axis of
the airway),
whereas the
smooth muscle of
the bronchioles is
arranged circularly
or spirally around
the lumen of the
airway
The pulmonary
arteries and veins
are always
adjacent to the
airways leading
into and out of the
ventilated lungs
units they subserve
1130. 8
An 8-year-old normal girl (30-kg body weight) has a
breathing frequency of 20/min at rest and a breath
0.6 L/min
1.6 L/min
0.25 L/min
2.4 L/min
3.2 L/min
(tidal) volume of 80 ml. Her total ventilation is closest
to
1131. 8
The principal function of the lungs is to ensure that:
The hemoglobin in
the erythrocytes
leaving each lung
unit is 100%
saturated with
oxygen
Inspired air and
pulmonary blood
flow are
distributed
adequately to all
lung units, so that
gas exchange is
accomplished with
minimal energy
expenditure
Tissue cell oxygen
consumption and
carbon dioxide
elimination are
equal
Each lung unit is
perfused in
proportion to its
capillary blood
volume and
ventilated in
proportion to its
gas volume
Diffusion into and
out of blood is
never rate limiting
for oxygen uptake
or carbon dioxide
release
1132. 8
Normal inspiration is limited by:
The breathing
frequency, about
12/min in resting
adult humans,
which limits each
breath to 5
seconds' duration
Sensory feedback
to the respiratory
centers in the
medulla (brain
stem) from
mechanoreceptors
in the chest wall
and lung and from
various
chemoreceptors
sensitive to oxygen
and carbon dioxide
The rise of
abdominal
pressure as the
diaphragm
contraets
The rise in pleura)
pressure as lung
volume increases
The mechanical
limits of the chest
wall
1133. 8
A middle-aged man with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (emphysema) has an arterial Pco2 = 57 mm Hg;
the predicted normal value is 40 mm Hg at an alveolar
ventilation of 4.3 L/min. If we assume the patient's CO2
production is normal (200 m l/min), alveolar ventilation
is about
8.0 L/min
3.0 L/min
3.8 L/min
6.1 L/min
1.8 L/min
1134. 8
If the diaphragm contracts more vigorously, it is likely
that the slowly adapting lung stretch receptor activity
will:
Be less than
normal
Be greater than
normal
Be the same as
normal
Cause the time for
inspiration to
lengthen
Increase
inspiratory volume
1135. 8
The exchange of gases between the lungs and lung
capillaries is called:
Internal respiration
External
respiration
Ventilation
Breathing
Perfusion.
1136. 8
Dalton's Law describes:
The principles of
expansion
The laws of partial
pressures of gases
The laws of
temperature
difference between
partial gases
The principles of
temperature
differences under
water
The principles of
gas exchange
1137. 8
The partial pressure of oxygen in dry air at sea level:
363 mmHg
359 mmHg
349 mmHg
300 mmHg
50 mm Hg
1138. 8
The water vapor pressure of alveolar gas at a barometric 23.5 mmHg
pressure of 380 mmHg is:
47.0 mmHg
76.0 mmHg
94.0 mmHg
305.0 mmHg
1139. 8
Which of the following will return toward normal
during acclimatization to high altitude?
Arterial carbon
dioxide tension
Arterial hydrogen
ion concentration
Arterial
bicarbonate ion
concentration
Arterial
hemoglobin
concentration
Alveolar
ventilation
1140. 8
What is relted to acclimitisation to altitude:
Hypoventilation
Polycythemia
Decreased cardiac
output
Oligocythemia
Anemia
1141. 8
Peripheral chemoreceptors:
Is similar to irritant
receptors
Have glomus cells
Innervated by
glossopharyngeal
nerve
In the vasomotor
centre
In the respiratory
centre
1142. 8
Pulmonary arteriolar constriction can be caused by all
the following except:
Local O2
deficiency
Increase in pH
(local)
Local
accumulation of
CO2
Systemic hypoxia
NO
1143. 8
Pulmonary arteries are dilated by all the following
except:
Acetylcholine
Adrenaline
PGI2
Isoproterenol
NO
1144. 8
Breaking point – the point at which no further voluntary
inhibition of breathing is possible, is due to:
Fall in PCO2 and
PO2
Fall in PO2 and
rise in PCO2
Rise in PCO2 and
PO2
Rise in PO2 and
fall in PCO2
Equal in PCO2 and
PO2
1145. 8
The clinical sign of cyanosis is caused by which of the
following:
An increase in the
affinity of
hemoglobin for
oxygen
An increase in the
concentration of
deoxygenated
hemoglobin in the
blood
A decrease in the
percent of red
blood cells
(hematocrit)
An increase in the
concentration of
carbon monoxide
in the venous
blood
A decrease in the
concentration of
iron in the red
blood cells
1146. 8
Which one of the following gases diffuses across the
alveoli-capillary membrane by a diffusion-limited
transport process?
Oxygen
Carbon monoxide
Nitrogen
Carbon dioxide
Nitrous oxide
(N2O)
1147. 8
Which one of the following will decrease in a person
with ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) abnormalities
Anion gap
Arterial carbon
dioxide tension
Arterial pH
Alveolar-arterial
(A-a) gradient for
oxygen
Alveolar
ventilation.
1148. 8
Which one of the following is higher at the apex of the
lung than at the base when a person is standing
Blood flow
ventilationperfusion (V/Q)
ratio
Ventilation
PaCО2
Lung compliance.
1149. 8
Patients with chronic lung disease are often divided into
those who are cyanotic and (those who are not cyanotic.
The presence of cyanosis in blue bloaters but not in
pink puffers results from difference in which of the
following?
Vital capacities
V/Q ratios
Airway resistances
Total lung
capacities
Expiratory flow
rates
1150. 8
The normal resting oxygen consumption of adult
humans is determined by the:
Fact that the P50
of adult human
blood is normally
26 to 29 mm Hg,
and therefore no
more than 50% of
total blood oxygen
concentration is
available for
cellular oxidative
metabolism
Oxidative energy
Ability of
requirements of the pulmonary
body's cells
capillary blood to
take up oxygen
from alveolar gas
in the time
available (less than
3 second) for
exchange
Ability of tissue
cells to extract
oxygen from the
capillary blood in
the time available
for exchange in the
capillaries
Fact that resting
cardiac output is
about 5 L/min,
therefore blood
flow to some
organs is limited
1151. 8
In pulmonary edema caused by a toxic substance,
plasma proteins enter the alveoli and inactivate the
surface active material. This fixes alveolar surface
tension at a constant value of 50 mN/cm. Which of the
following statements regarding the pressure-volume
curve of the lung best describes the new condition?
The inflation limb
of the air-filled
curve will be
displaced to the
left (reduced
translung pressure
at any given lung
The deflation limb
of the air-filled
curve will be
displaced to the
right (greater
translung pressure
at any given lung
The compliance of
the respiratory
system will be
increased
The deflation limb
of the liquid-filled
curve will be
displaced to the
right (greater
translung pressure
at any given lung
The inflation limb
of the air-filled
curve will be
normal
volume)
volume)
volume)
1152. 8
Given the following partial resistances of the large and
small airways, Rlarge = 3.5 and Rsmal = 0.7 cm, H2O
× sec/L, respectively, the total airway resistance is
closest to :
3.6
2.2
0.8
0.5
0.4
1153. 8
A woman is brought to the intensive care unit at her
community hospital. Chest radiographs show that her
entire right lung (55% total lung mass) is consolidated
(un ventilated) as a result of bacterial pneumonia. Her
lips, fingernail beds, and skin are blue (cyanotic).
Subsequent measurements reveal arterial oxygen
tension = 50 mm Hg (O2 saturation = 85%) and mixed
venous oxygen tension = 30 mm Hg (O2 saturation =
57%), even though the patient is breathing 300% O2.
Cardiac output = 7 L/min. The patient's venous
admixture is approximately (ignore any correction due
to dissolved O2 in blood)
3.8 L/min
2.5 L/min
6.0 L/min
35% of cardiac
output
55% of cardiac
output
1154. 8
The local perfusion of ventilation units is regulated
mainly by
The production of
nitric oxide by
lung endolhe-lium
Alveolar O2
tension
The production
and release of pro
Stacy cl in from
lung endothelium
The production
and release of
thromboxane
Alveolar CO2
tension
1155. 8
If alveolar oxygen tension equals 300 mm Hg and if the
hemoglobin-oxygen equilibrium curve is shifted 30 mm
Hg to the right as a result of acidosis (increased
hydrogen ion concentration in blood), which of the
following is the most likely to be the systemic arterial
oxygen tension? Assume that the individual is
otherwise normal.
90 mmHg
300 mmHg
330 mmHg
99%
95%
1156. 8
The blood hemoglobin concentration is 75 g/L in a 29year-old woman who sleeps with three children in an
inadequately ventilated room heated by a small
kerosene stove. Which of the following condition will
Hiperventilation
Dyspnoe
Norapnoe
Pachipnoe
Apnoе
be?
1157. 8
In the absence of carbonic anhydrase, the rate of
carbonic acid (H2CO3) dissociation into water and CO2
in pulmonary capillary blood is too slow to reach a
steady state with respect to alveolar Pco2 in the time
available for blood transit (< 3 sec). Which of the
following blood gas relations is most nearly correct?
Alveolar
ventilation will fall
Arterial Pco2 will
rise above alveolar
Pco2
Alveolar
ventilation will
remain constant
Arterial Pco2 will
be the same as
alveolar Pco2, but
the blood
bicarbonate
concentration will
be lower than the
alveolar gas
bicarbonate
concentration
Arterial Pco2 will
fall below alveolar
Pco2
1158. 8
In skeletal muscle during exercise, the number of
capillaries being perfused may be three times the
resting number. One major consequence of having more
capillaries with blood flow is that
The diffusion path
from blood to
mitochondria is
increased
The diffusing
capacity of the
muscle capillary
network is
increased at least
threefold
Skeletal muscle
vascular resistance
is markedly
decreased, which
accounts for the
large increase in
flow
Tissue oxygen
consumption is
decreased
Tissue oxygen
consumption is
increased
1159. 8
What prevents the lungs from overfilling during normal
respiratory movements?
Carotid
chemoreceptors
The Hering-Bruer
reflex
Aortic arch
baroreceptors
Depletion of
surfactant
All of above
1160. 8
Which biologically active substances are partially
degraded by the lung?
Surfactant
Noradrenaline
Histamine
Angiotensin
None of the above
1161. 8
Peripheral and central chemoreceptors may both
contribute to the increased ventilation that occurs as a
result of:
A decrease in
arterial oxygen
content
An increase in
arterial carbon
dioxide tension
A decrease in
arterial blood
pressure
A decrease in
arterial oxygen
tension
An increase in
arterial pH
1162. 8
Complete transection of the brainstem above the pons
would:
Result in cessation
of all breathing
movements
Prevent any
voluntary holding
of breath
Prevent the central
chemorecep-tors
from exerting any
control over
ventilation
Prevent the
peripheral
chemore-ceptors
from exerting any
control over
ventilation
Abolish the heringbreuer reflex.
1163. 8
Enzymes within the lung are responsible for the
activation of which of the following?
Bradykinin
Angiotensin II
Prostaglandins
Serotonin
Leukotrienes
1164. 8
The activity of the central chemoreceptors is stimulated
by which of the following?
A decrease in the
PO2 of blood
flowing through
the brain
An increase in the
PCO2 of blood
flowing through
the brain
A decrease in the
oxygen content of
blood flowing
through the brain
A decrease in the
metabolic rate of
the surrounding
brain tissue
An increase in the
pH of the CSF
1165. 8
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of a
high arterial PCO2:
Increased
metabolic activity
Depressed
medullary
respiratory centers
Increased alveolar
dead space
Alveolar capillary
block
Increased alveolar
ventilation
1166. 8
Which of the following will increase as a result of
stimulating parasympathetic nerves to the bronchial
smooth muscle?
Lung compliance
Bronchoconstrictio
n
Elastic work of
breathing
Bronchodilatation
Anatomic dead
space
1167. 8
An increase in altitude causes a decrease in gas
exchange efficiency because:
Less blood
circulates through
the lungs
There is a decrease
in oxygen
pressure, therefore
less of a gradient
into the lungs
during inspiration
The surface area of
the alveoli
decrease
There are fewer
red blood cells in
the blood at high
altitudes
At high altitudes,
evil spirits inhibit
vital processes of
the body
1168. 8
Hyperventilation in response to a stressful situation
leads to which of the following?
An increase in the
activity of the
central
chemoreceptors
A decrease in the
blood flow to the
brain
A decrease in pH
of the arterial
blood
An increase in the
resistance of the
pulmonary blood
vessels
A decrease in the
excitability of
nerve and muscle
cells.
1169. 8
Peripheral chemoreceptors:
Is similar to irritant
receptors
Have glomus cells
Innervated by
glossopharyngeal
nerve
In the vasomotor
centre
In the respiratory
centre.
1170. 8
The respiratory rate after exercise does not reach basal
level until:
15 min
O2 debt is repaid
30 min
90 min
PCO2 return to
normal
1171. 8
Breating stops if spinal cord is cut at the level:
Below origin of
phrenic nerve
Above the level of
phrenic nerve
origin
At the level of T2
At the level of T12
At the level of L2
1172. 8
If the arterial blood Pco2 = 80 mm Hg,[HCO3-] = 32
mEq/L, and Po2 = 100 mm Hg, it is likely that:
The subject is in a
coma because the
rcticular activating
system is switched
off
The medullary
chemoreceptors
are stimulated
The medullary
chemoreceptors
are not stimulated
or are depressed
because the
bicarbonate
concentration in
arterial blood is
high
The carotid body
chemoreceptors
are not stimulated
or are depressed
The carotid body
chemoreceptors
are maximally
stimulated
1173. 8
The partial pressures of oxygen and CO2 interact in
arterial blood and brain in such a manner that
Hypercapnia
decreases
ventilation when
inspired oxygen
concentration is
normal
In hypoxemia, the
slope of the CO2ventilation doseresponse curve is
reduced
In hypoxemia, the
slope of the CO2ventiIalion doseresponse curve is
not affected
Hypercapnia
permits ventilation
to increase more
when inspired
oxygen is reduced
than when CO2 is
absent from
inspired air
The threshold Pco2
of the CO2ventilation doseresponse curve is
decreased when
inspired oxygen
concentration is
increased
1174. 9
How many hours after a meal is basal metabolic rate
(BMR) measured?
1 hour
12 hours
2 hours
6 hours
18 hours.
1175. 9
The basal metabolic rate is determined primarily:
Hydrocortisone
Thyroxine
Insulin
Growth hormone
Epinephrine
1176. 9
The basal metabolic rate (BMR) increases with all the
following except:
Anxiety
Advancing age
Body surface area
Increased
environmental
temperature
Reduced
environmental
temperature
1177. 9
Metabolic rate is increased least with:
Exercise
Increased CNS
activity
Specific dynamic
action of food
Hot climate
Cold climate
1178. 9
A man with a respiratory quotient (RQ) of 70:
Has been eating a
high-fat diet
Has been fasting
for 24 hours
Has been eating a
high-protein diet
Has eaten
carbohydrates for
24 hours
Is dehydrated.
1179. 9
Heat production is mostly due to:
Na-k-atpase pump
Skeletal muscle
activity
Dynamic action of
food
Vasodilatation
Mental activity\
1180. 9
Decreased heat production under general anaesthesia is
due to:
Decreased anterior
pituitary function
Decreased skeletal
muscle tone
Vasodilatation
Starvation
Decreased na-katpase activity
1181. 9
A low respiratory quotient in a septic patient is due to:
Increased lactic
acid
Fat metabolism
Increased
ventilation
Fever
Hypoxaemia
1182. 9
The set-point of temperature of an adult is
approximately 37,1C. This:
Is fixed in
individuals
Decreases with
anaesthesia
Parallels skin
temperature
Decreases with
exercise
All of the above
1183. 9
The set-point in temperature regulation controls the
body’s response to changes in temperature. The
location of sensory receptors which regulates the setpoint is:
Anterior
hypothalamus
Posterior
hypothalamus
Spinal cord
Skin
Great veins
1184. 9
In thermoregulation all statements are true except:
Brown fat is an
important source
of heat production
in neonates
Peripheral
vasoconstriction
decreases heat
production
Shivering is due to
impulses
conducted via
autonomic
efferents
Sweating is
mediated by
sympathetic
cholinergic
neurons
Respiratory heat
loss is insignificant
under normal
conditions
1185. 9
In the body, metabolism of 10 g of protein would
produce approximately:
1 kcal
41 kcal
410 kcal
4100 kcal
41 cal
1186. 9
The energy value of 1g of carbohydrate is:
3 kcal
4 kcal
5 kcal
7 kcal
9 kcal
1187. 9
Gluconeogenic substances include which of the
following, except:
Alanine
Glycerol
Lactate
Two – carbon
Vit. B1
fragments from
fatty acid oxidation
1188. 9
Glucagon has a number of important biochemical and
physiologic effects including:
Stimulation of
insulin secretion
All is correct.
Lipolysis
Glycogenolysis
Stimulation of
somatostatin
secretion
1189. 9
The major lipoprotein source of the cholesterol used in
cells is
Chylomicrons
LDL
Intermediatedensity
lipoproteins (IDL)
Albumin-bound
free fatty acids
HDL
1190. 9
Which of the following producers the most high-energy
phosphate compounds?
Aerobic
metabolism of l
Metabolism of l
mol of long chain
Anaerobic
metabolism of l
Metabolism of l
mol of glucose
Metabolism of l
mol of amino acid
mol of glucose
fatty acid
mol of glucose
1191. 9
Which of the following would not produce an increase
in the plasma level of free fatty acids?
A drug that
increases the level
of intracellular
camp
A drug that
inhibits
hormonesensitive
lipase
A drug that
activates β3 –
adrenergic
receptors
A drug that
decreases the
metabolic
clearance of
glucagon
A drug that
inhibits
phosphodiesterase.
1192. 9
When LDL enters cells by receptor – mediated
endocytosis, which of the following does not occur?
Decrease in the
formation of
cholesterol from
mevalonic acid
Increase in the
intracellular
concentration of
cholesteryl esters
Increase in the
tranfer of
cholesterol from
the cell to HDL
Decrease in the
rate of synthesis of
LDL receptors
Decrease in the
cholesterol in
endosomes
1193. 9
Which of the following does not increase the output of
glucose from the liver?
Induction of
phosphorylase
Insulin
Glucagon
Increased
intracellular
protein kinase A
Epinephrine.
1194. 9
What deficit is the most closely associated with spina
bifida?
Vit. C
Folic acid
Vit. B
Vit. K
Uric acid
1195. 9
Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
Vitamin A
Vitamin B
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Vitamin K
1196. 9
A lowering of blood glucose concentration promotes:
Decreased
lipogenesis
All of the above
Increased lipolysis
Increased
glycogenolysis
None of the above
1197. 9
Glucose can be secreted into the blood by:
The muscles
The liver
The liver and
muscles
The liver, muscles,
and brain
Pancreas
1198. 9
Somatomedins are required for the anabolic effects of:
Hydrocortisone
Growth hormone
Insulin
Thyroxine
Epinephrine
1199. 9
At rest, about 12% of the total calories consumed are
used for :
Cell transport
Protein synthesis
The Na+/K+ pumps
Dna replication
None of the above
1200. 9
Which of the following hormones stimulates anabolism
of proteins and catabolism of fat?
Thyroxine
Growth hormone
Insulin
Glucagon
Epinephrine
1201. 9
Which of the following statements about leptin is false?
It is secreted by
adipocytes
It stimulates the
release of
neuropeptide Y in
It increases the
energy expenditure
of the body
It promotes
feelings of satiety,
decreasing food
None of the above
the hypothalamus
intake
1202. 9
Which of the following daily intakes (in grams) of
carbohydrates (C), protein (P), and fat (F) would be
best for a healthy 80-kg male construction worker?
C: 420, P: 80, F:
125
C: 550, P: 80, F:
65
C: 420, P: 130, F:
100
C: 325, P: 80, F:65
C: 340, P:50, F:65
1203. 9
The major lipoprotein source of the cholesterol used in
cells is:
Chylomicrons
Ldl
Intermediatedensity
lipoproteins (IDL)
Albumin-bound
free fatty acids
HDL
1204. 9
Which of the following producers the most high-energy
phosphate compounds?
Aerobic
metabolism of l
mol of glucose
Metabolism of l
mol of longchain
fatty acid
Anaerobic
metabolism of l
mol of glucose
Metabolism of l
mol of glucose
Metabolism of l
mol of amino acid
1205. 9
Which of the following producer the most glucose
when metabolized in the body?
1 mol of serotonin
1 mol of thyroxine
(T4)
1 mol of alanine
1 mol of oleic acid
1 mol of
acetoacetic acid.
1206. 9
All following are true for ingested lipid except:
Increases in the
faeces with a
decrease in bile
secretion
Is not important in
prostaglandin
synthesis
Is absorbed via the
intestinal
lymphatics
Is mainly in the
form of
triglycerides
Can be used as a
source of atp
production
1207. 9
The functions of lipids include all except:
Acting as a storage
of metabolic
reserves
Transporting
glucose across
membranes
Providing
protection for
organs such as the
kidney
Preventing cell
injury
Acting as
hormones and
vitamins
1208. 9
The advantage to the human body to use triglycerides
as one form of metabolic energy is because:
Direct access to
mitochondria in
cardiac muscle
Interconvertability
with glucose in
liver
Easily transported
in blood as a
complex with
albumin
Fully reduced
structure and
anhydrous storage
in adipose
Immediate
precursor of ketone
bodies in skeletal
muscle
1209. 9
In protein deficiency, water accumulates in the
intracellular spaces, the condition is known as:
Edema
Kwashiorkor
Anemia
Marasmus
Spongy disease
1210. 10
The following statements are true in relation to saliva
except that it:
Contains an
enzyme which is
essential for
complete digestion
Has important
lubricating action
Has antiseptic
action
Maintains mouth
pH around 7
Helps in speech
of starch
1211. 10
Saliva:
Waterly secretion
is increased by
parasympathetic
stimulation
Is primarily under
hormonal control
Has larger
proportion of Na+
in response to
aldosterone
administration
Has less proportion Waterly secretion
of ketone bodies in is increased by
diabetic ketosis
sympathetic
stimulation
1212. 10
Which of the following statements is incorrect? Saliva:
Is essential for the
complete digestion
of starch
Prevents dental
caries
Helps in
deglutition
Is a well buffered
Prevents
solution that tends decalcification of
to maintain a pH of the teeth
7.0 in the mouth
1213. 10
Parasympathetic stimulation to salivary glands causes:
Enhanced transport
activity of the
ductal epithelium
Increased synthesis
and secretion of
ptyalin and mucins
Increased blood
flow to the glands
Enhanced
glandular
metabolism and
growth
Increased viscosity
of saliva
1214. 10
Salivary secretion increases:
More by bitter
food than sweet
one
When sympathetic
nerves supplying
the glands are
stimulated
During motion
sickness
Just before
vomiting
All of the above
1215. 10
Appetite for food:
Increases if blood
glucose level falls
Independs upon
the type of food
Decreases if lateral
hypothalamic area
is stimulated
Is increased if
fever present
Decreases if blood
glucose level falls
1216. 10
Oesophagus at rest is:
Closed at the top
and the bottom
Open at top
Open at bottom
Open at top and
bottom
Contracted
throughout its
length
1217. 10
Oesophageal peristalsis:
Can occur in the
absence of a
swallow
Is abolished by
vagotomy
Is under hormonal
control
Moves a bolus by
decreasing
pressure in front of
it
Is not effective for
liquids
1218. 10
The lower oesophageal sphincter:
Has a resting tone
that maintains
pressure below
Is a distinct ring of
circular muscle
Relaxes before a
bolus arise
Is primarily under
hormonal control
Consists of striated
muscle
atmospheric
1219. 10
Gastric acid secretion is decreased by:
Vagal inhibition
Luminal peptides
& amino acids
Noradrenaline
M1 cholinergic
antagonist same
efficacy at
reducing gastric
acid secretion
Distension of
bowel wall
1220. 10
As the masticated food passes through oesophagus:
All of the above
Cardiac sphincter
constricts
Stomach shows
receptive
relaxation
Pyloric sphincter
relaxes
Duodenum
constricts
1221. 10
Tlie carbohydrates in oral cavity are hydrolysed by the
following enzyme:
Amylase
Lactase
Maltase
Sucrase
Alpha-dextrinase.
1222. 10
Small gut contractions:
Are enhanced by
parasympahetic
activity
Are absent in
fasted man
Are primary
propulsive in fed
man
May occur only in
postprandial time
Are triggered by
slow waves
1223. 10
The upper one third portion of small intestine can
absorb most of the following except:
Triglicerides.
Vit B12
Bile salts
Electrolites
Neutral amino
acids and glucose
1224. 10
The carbohydrates in small gut are hydrolysed by the
following enzymes except:
Ptyalin
Lactase
Maltase
Sucrase
Alpha-dextrinase
1225. 10
Swallowing reflexes begin when receptors are
stimulated by food in this structure.
Pharynx
Oral cavity
Stomach
Teeth
Esophagus
1226. 10
The propulsive function that occurs in the esophagus is
called
Peristalsis
Swallowing
Segmentation
Defecation
Ingestion
1227. 10
Which sequence below represents the correct layering
of the wall of the GI tract beginning with the layer next
to the lumen?
Mucosa submucosa muscularis externa
- serosa
Muscularis externa
- serosa submucosa mucosa
Submucosa mucosa muscularis externa
- serosa
Serosa - mucosa muscularis externa
- submucosa
Mucosa muscularis externa
- submucosa serosa
1228. 10
The short reflexes in the digestive system are stimulated
by
The enteric
plexuses
Higher brain
centers
The
parasympathetic
system
The sympathetic
system
None of the above
1229. 10
Lingual lipase is present in
Saliva
Bile
Taste buds
Gastric secretion
None of the above
1230. 10
The "mucosal barrier" involves all of the following
mechanisms except
Secretions from
chief cells
Replacement of
damaged gastric
mucosal cells by
the division of
undifferentiated
stem cells in the
gastric pits
A thick coat of
bicarbonate-rich
mucus coating of
the gastric wall
Tight junctions
between the
epithelial cells of
the stomach
mucosa
None of the above
1231. 10
How does the autonomic nervous system affect salivary
secretory rate?
Salivary secretory
rate is increased in
response to
parasympathetic
and sympathetic
stimulation.
Salivary secretory
rate is decreased in
response to
parasympathetic
and sympathetic
stimulation.
Salivary secretory
rate is increased in
response to
parasympathetic
stimulation and
decreased in
response to
sympathetic
stimulation.
Salivary secretory
rate is decreased in
response to
parasympathetic
stimulation and
increased in
response to
sympathetic
stimulation.
None of the above
1232. 10
In the study of man smeared the tip of the tongue 1%
lidocaine. Loss of which taste sensation will the patient
lose?
Sweet
Bitter
Sour
Salt
Bitter and salty
1233. 10
Which statement most accurately describes the activity
of olfactory receptors?
Are important for
assessing taste in
the mouth
Slowly adapting
There epithelial
cells that form
synapses with
lower-lying nerves
Associated with
secondary neurons
in the thalamus
coming
Do not show any
of these signs
1234. 10
The man burns the tip of his tongu. Perception of
which taste stimuli will suffer the most?
Sweet
Sour
Salty
Sour and salty
Bitter
1235. 10
Olfactory receptor cells are
Bipolar neuroepithelial cells
Epithelial cells
which synapse
with the primary
afferent olfactory
nerve
Specialised nerve
endings
Oligodendrocytes
Typical sensory
neurones
1236. 10
The sense of smell requires that the gas molecule has
some water solubility because
The receptors are
embedded in an
aqueous
environment
The nasal mucosa
is composed of
lipids
Gas must pass
through ion
channels
All gas are charged
ions
Cells are 90%
water
1237. 10
The threshold for the detection of odors is ___ and
adaptation to odors occurs ____.
Low, quickly
High, slowly
High, quickly
Low, slowly
High, very fast
1238. 10
The axons of the olfactory neurons pass through the
foramina of the _____ to synapse with mitral or tufted
cells in the ____.
Cribiform plate,
olfactory bulb
Cribiform plate,
olfactory tract
Nasal bone,
olfactory tract
Nasal bone,
olfactory bulb
Olfactory tract,
cribiform plate
1239. 10
Which cells proliferate to replace lost olfactory cells?
Basal cells
Mitral cells
Olfactory hairs
Tufted cells
Olfactory bulbs
1240. 10
Which of the following is NOT true of olfactory
neurons?
Olfactory neurons
are uni-polar
neurons
Olfactory neurons
have receptors that
react with odorants
dissolved in fluid
The olfactory
neurons synapse
with cells in the
olfactory bulb
The axons of the
olfactory neurons
combine to form
the olfactory
nerves
All answers are
correct
1241. 10
Which region of the olfactory cortex is involved in
conscious perception of smell?
Lateral olfactory
area
Intermediate
olfactory area
Medial olfactory
area
Superior olfactory
a
Olfactory area
1242. 10
Which region of the olfactory cortex is connected to the
limbic system?
Medial olfactory
area
Lateral olfactory
area
Intermediate
olfactory area
Superior olfactory
area
Posterior olfactory
area
1243. 10
Which type of papillae have no taste buds associated
with them?
Filiform
Circumvallate
Foliate
Fungiform
None of the above
1244. 10
Which type of papillae have the most sensitive taste
buds associated with them?
Foliate
Filiform
Circumvallate
Fungiform
None of the above
1245. 10
How many primary tastes have been identified?
5
4
7
10
400
1246. 10
Which of the following cranial nerves does not transmit
taste sensation?
Trigeminal (V)
nerve
Facial (VII) nerve
Glossopharyngeal
(IX) nerve
Vagus (X) nerve
Olfactory (I)
nerve
1247. 10
Identify the location of the taste area of the cortex.
Postcentral gyrus
Precentral gyrus
Thalamus
Temporal lobe
Hipothalamus
1248. 10
Which of the following primary tastes do not cause
depolarization of the gustatory through a G protein
mechanism?
Salty
Sweet
Bitter
Umami
Sour
1249. 10
Which taste sensation is the most sensitive?
Bitter
Salty
Sweet
Umami
Sour
1250. 10
Dumping syndrome is mostly due to:
Exaggerated
fluctuation of
blood glucose
Considerable rise
in plasma kinin
levels
Marked increased
in lipid content of
faeces
Increased secretion
of pancreatic juice
All of the above
1251. 10
The followings are some of the gastrointestinal
hormones except:
Chymotrypsin
CCK-PZ
GIP
Motilin
Villikinin
1252. 10
Vitamin B12 deficiency may result from:
Total gastrectomy
or ileal resection.
High dietary intake
of phosphates
Inadequate intake
of fresh fruits and
green leafy
vegetables
Total gastrectomy
Following ileal
resection
1253. 10
The followings are true for stomach except that it:
Secretes enzymes
like trypsin,
amylase
Responds to an
increase in its
contents from 6001600 mL with less
than 5 mm Hg
increase in
pressure
Shows process of
receptive
relaxation during
deglutition
Contains a
pacemaker near its
cardiac portion
Empties more
rapidly in response
to liquid than to
solid diet
1254. 10
Gastric secretions:
All of the above
Are enhanced by
were thought of
food
Improve on eating
the food
Are stimulated by
histamlne injection
Contain factor
which helps in Vit.
B12 absorption
1255. 10
The hormone mainly acting on stomach is:
Gastrin
Pancreozymin
Secretin
Bombesin
VIP
1256. 10
Which of the following hormones is involved in the
initiation of the migrating motor complex:
Motilin
Gastrin
Secretin
Cholecystokinin
Enterogastrone
1257. 10
Patient undergoes a gastrectomy and doctor informs
her that she will need to take vitamin B12 for the rest of
her life. Absence of which of the following cell types is
Parietal cells
Chief cells
G cells
Goblet cells
Mucous neck cells
responsible for this vitamin replacement requirement?
1258. 10
Which of the following paracrine secretions is
responsible for inhibiting gastric acid secretion:
Somatostatin
Histamine
Enterogastrone
Pepsin
Enterooxyntin
1259. 10
The rate of gastric emptying increases with an increase
in which of the following:
Intragastric
volume
Intraduodenal
volume
Fat content of
duodenum
Osmolality of
duodenum
Acidity of
duodenum
1260. 10
Basal acid output is increased by which of the
following?
Alkalinization of
the antrum
Acidification of
the antrum
Administration of
an H2 receptor
antagonist
Vagotomy
Acidification of
the duodenum.
1261. 10
Which one of the following processes applies to the
proximal stomach:
Accommodation
Peristalsis
Retropulsion
Segmentation
Trituration
1262. 10
A patient undergoes a total gastrectomy because of a
proximally located gastric cancer. After the surgery,
which of the following digestive enzymes will be
produced in inadequate amounts?
Pepsin
Amylase
Chymotrypsin
Lipase
Trypsin
1263. 10
Withdrawal from chronic administration of an
antisecretory compound is followed by rebound gastric
acid hypersecretion. Which drug could account for the
observed result:
A proton pump
inhibitor
A H1 receptor
antagonist
A cholinergic
receptor antagonist
An antacid
A CCKB receptor
antagonist
1264. 10
Gastric emptying is slowest after consuming:
High fat meal
High protein meal
Alcohol
Prokinetics
Carbohydrates
1265. 10
Which of the following is the principal paracrine
secretion involved in the inhibitory feedback regulation
of gastric acid secretion:
Somatostatin
Gastrin
Histamine
Enterogastrone
Acetylcholine
1266. 10
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome patients experience severe,
intractable peptic ulcer disease due to gastric acid
hypersecretion. The cause of the increased acid output
is increased plasma levels of which of the following:
Gastrin
Secretin
Somatostatin
VIP
Motilin
1267. 10
Speed of delivery of nutrients from stomach to small
intestine:
CHO>protein>fat
CHO>fat>protein
Protein>CHO>fat
Fat >CHO>protein
Fat>protein>CHO.
1268. 10
After ingestion of a meal:
Digestion of fat
and carbohydrate
begins in the
mouth while
protein digestion
begins in the
stomach
Carbohydrate in
the mouth and
protein in the
stomach
Protein in mouth
and fats and
carbohydrate in
stomach
Most fluid and
electrolytes are
absorbed in the
large bowel
Composition of the
food has no effect
on transit time
through the bowel
1269. 10
The macrolide antibiotic erythromycin is associated
with gastrointestinal disturbances related to increased
motility. The antibiotic works by binding to receptors
on nerves and smooth muscle that recognize which of
the following gastrointestinal hormones:
Motilin
Gastrin
Secretin
Cholecystokinin
Enteroglucagon
1270. 10
Which of the following gastrointestinal hormones is
involved in initiation of migrating motor complexes?
Motilin
Gastrin
Enterooxyntin
Somatostatin
Secretin
1271. 10
During deglutition, the bolus passes into the stomach
from the esophagus through the
Gastroesophageal
sphincter
Pyloric sphincter
Urethral sphincter
Ileocecal valve
Esophageal
sphincter
1272. 10
During the intestinal phase of gastric regulation,
The stomach is
Hormones reduce
initially stimulated, chief cell activity
and later inhibited
The gastroenteric
reflex reduces
stomach activity
Secretin causes
more hcl release
The enterogastric
reflex is turned off
1273. 10
What is the main organic molecule digested in the
stomach?
Proteins
Sugars
Lipids
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
1274. 10
Which regulatory chemical stimulates gastric gland
activity and motility?
Gastrin
Histamine
Vasoactive peptide
Secretin
Cholecystokinin
1275. 10
Which substance or occurrence would directly decrease
gastric activity?
Distention of
duodenum
Defecation
Gastrocolic reflex
Site and smell of
food
Insulin activity
1276. 10
Which of the following products does the stomach
produce?
HCl and intrinsic
factor
Mucous and
amylase
Bile and trypsin
Pepsinogen and
secretin
Only secretin
1277. 10
Which of the following cells produce HCl?
Parietal cells
G cells
Enteroendocrine
cells
Chief cells
Mucous cells
1278. 10
The only stomach function that is essential to life is
The secretion of
intrinsic factor
The secretion of
pepsinogen
Mechanical
digestion
The presence of
hcl
All answers are
correct
1279. 10
The ___________ phase of gastric secretion is
considered a conditioned reflex.
Cephalic
Gastric
Intestinal
Esophageal
Esophageal and
intestinal
1280. 10
Which of the following would not directly stimulate the
secretion of gastrin?
A low ph of gastric
content
Partially digested
proteins
Alkalinity
Caffeine
Gastrin
1281. 10
HCl secretion is stimulated by the binding of all of the
following substances except
Norepinephrine
Histamine
Gastrin
Acetylcholine
Secretin
1282. 10
You have sat down to a scrumptious meal consisting of
a spinach salad, a juicy piece of very lean filet mignion
(16 oz.), a baked potato with generous gobs of butter
and sour cream, and a fine glass of a robust wine.
Which of the following represents the BEST order in
which the above items are sequentially emptied from
the stomach?
Wine, potato, filet
mignion, butter
Fillet mignion,
Wine, filet
potato, wine, butter mignion, potato,
butter
Potato, filet
mignion, butter,
wine
Potato, wine,
butter, filet
mignion
1283. 10
A 38 year old male walks into your office complaining
of abdominal pain. An upper GI series revealed the
presence of a gastric ulcer. Gastrin levels are 74 pg/ml
(normal range is 50 to 150 pg/ml). Hydrochloric acid
levels are 2mmoles/hr (normal range is 1 to 5
mmoles/hr). Blood analysis reveals elevated levels of
macrophages and other immunocytes. From the given
information, this individual is most likely suffering
from ___________ which is best treated
with__________.
Chronic
Superficial
Gastritis antibiotics
Crohns’s Disease somatostatin
Celiac Disease opiates
H. Pylori infection
- omeprazole
Gluten enteropathy
- ipecac
1284. 10
Which one of the following statements is incorrect:
Biliary secretion is
2500 ml/day
Daily salivary
secretion is about
1500 ml
Gastric secretion
per day is about
2000 ml
Per day production
of pancreatic juice
is about 1500 ml
Intestinal
secretions are
about 1500 ml/day
1285. 10
Man is unable to digest:
Cellulose
Dextrin
Glycogen
Lactose
Galactose
1286. 10
Which of the following hormones is involved in the
Motilin
Gastrin
Secretin
Cholecystokinin
Enterogastrone
initiation of the migrating motor complex:
1287. 10
Removal of proximal segments of the small intestine
results in a decrease in which of the following:
Pancreatic enzyme
secretion
Basal acid output
Maximal acid
output
Gastric emptying
of liquids
Gastric emptying
of solids
1288. 10
During a fast, a brief phase of intense sequential
contractions begins in the stomach and gradually
migrates to the ileum. Release of which of the
following intestinal hormones is most likely responsible
for this observed effect?
Motilin
Cholecystokinin
Gastrin
Gastrin-releasing
peptide
Secretin
1289. 10
Which of the following is characterized bile:
Bile salts
contribute to the
solubility of
cholesterol in the
bile
Contains bilirubin
mainly in the
unconjugated form
Contributes more
than pancreatic
secretion to the
neutralisation of
acid from the
stomach
Becomes more
alkaline following
concentration in
the gall bladder
Is produced at a
rate of
approximately
2000 ml/day
1290. 10
The liver has all activities except:
Has its highest
oxygen tension at
the centre of a
lobule
Receives most of
its oxygen supply
from the portal
vein
Produces heparin
Has a normal
portal venous
pressure of smaler
than 20 mmhg
Receives
approximately
25% of the cardiac
output
1291. 10
After secretion of trypsinogen into the duodenum, the
enzyme is converted into its active form, trypsin, by
which of the following?
Enteropeptidase
Procarboxypeptida
se
Pancreatic lipase
Previously
secreted trypsin
An alkaline pH
1292. 10
Which of the following hormones is most important in
the initiation of gallbladder contraction following a
fatty meal?
CCK
Gastrin
GIP
Secretin
VIP
1293. 10
Biochemical analysis of a duodenal aspirate after a
meal reveals a deficiency of enterokinase. The levels of
which of the following digestive enzymes would be
affected?
Trypsin
Amylase
Colipase
Lactase
Pepsin
1294. 10
Release of which of the following peptides leads to an
increase in the secretion of pancreatic enzymes into the
Cholecystokinin
Gastrin
Motilin
Secretin
Somatostatin.
small intestine?
1295. 10
Patient with episodic abdominal pain notes that the pain
increases after the ingestion of a fatty meal. The action
of which of the following hormones is responsible for
the postprandial intensification of symptoms?
Cholecystokinin
Gastrin
Pepsin
Secretin
Somatostatin.
1296. 10
Biochemical analysis of a duodenal aspirate after a
meal reveals a deficiency of enterokinase. The levels of
which of the following digestive enzymes would be
affected?
Trypsin
Amylase
Colipase
Lactase
Pepsin
1297. 10
In fat digestion:
Pancreatic lipase in Bile salts are the
the duodenum is
most efficient
the most important emulsifiers
Gastric lipase is
the most important
Digestion takes
place in micelles
Micelles attach to
enterocyte receptor
1298. 10
Release of which one of the following increases the pH
of duodenal contents?
Secretin
Gastrin
Intrinsic factor
Cholecystokinin
Gastrin releasing
peptide.
1299. 10
Functions of the liver include all except:
Renin synthesis.
Protein
metabolism
Defence
Glycogenolysis
Homeostasis
support
1300. 10
Glucagon has all functions except:
Stimulates
glycogen
synthesis.
Is a positive
inotrope
Is produced by the
alpha cells of the
pancreas
Stimulates
production of free
fatty acids in the
blood
Ts release is
increased in
starvation
1301. 10
In order to prevent self-digestion of the pancreas
activation of pancreatic proteases occurs in the
Duodenum
Liver
Gallbladder
Stomach
Pancreas
1302. 10
The stimulus for the release of pancreatic enzymes is
The presence of
chyme containing
proteins and fats in
the duodenum
Secretin
Gastrin.
Gastric distention.
Bile salts.
1303. 10
Which of the following secretagogues or conditions is
most likely to stimulate the secretion of cholecystokinin
(CCK) from the duodenal mucosa?
Glucose
High pH
Free fatty acids
Amino acids
Hypotonicity
1304. 10
Which gastrointestinal function is not caused by
cholecystokinin?
Increased rate of
gastric emptying
Contraction of the
bladder
Increased secretion
of pancreatic juice
rich in digestive
enzymes
Potentiation of
secretin-induced
pancreatic
secretion rich in
bicarbaonate
Potentiation of
secretin-induced
bile production
1305. 10
What type of food begins the digestion process in the
small intestine?
Fats
Sugars
Proteins
Starches
Vitamins
1306. 10
What are the functions of the intestinal juices?
To continue
breaking down
starches and
proteins
To begin breaking
down fats
To begin breaking
down starches and
proteins
To break down
vitamins and
minerals
To break down
minerals
1307. 10
Blood vessels in the large intestine absorb:
Minerals and water
Protein
Bile
Starches
Proteins
1308. 10
The mucosa of the large intestine is characterized by
All of the above
Many lymphatic
nodules and cells
in the lamina
propria
Numerous goblet
cells and intestinal
glands
Lack of intestinal
villi
Numerous goblet
cells
1309. 10
Production of bile is one of several important functions
of the
Iver
Pancreas
Small intestine
Gallbladder
Large intestine
1310. 10
Bile is stored and concentrated in the
Gallbladder
Liver
Biliary apparatus
Duodenum
Large intestine
1311. 10
The presense of chime within the small intestine will
lead to all the fallowing except
An increase in
secretion of gastric
acid
A decrease in the
rate of gastric
emptying
Contraction of the
gallbladder
An increase in
intestinal
segmentation
Pancreatic
secretion of
bicarbonate
1312. 10
Which is enzyme deficiency the cause of incomplete
digestion of fats in the digestive tract and increase the
number of neutral fat in the stools?
Pancreatic lipase
Hepatic lipase
Gastric lipase
Lipase Escherichia
Enterokinase
1313. 10
The duodenum was removed in the patient. To reduce
the secretion of the hormone which is lead?
Cholecystokinin
and seretine
Gastrin
Histamine
Gastrin and
histamine
Neurotenzine
1314. 10
Which one of the following statement is incorrect:
More proteins in
the faeces come
Dietary fibre
content improves
An increase in the
Constipation is
cellulose content in associated with
A person who does
not defaecate once
from bacteria than
from diet
bulk of faeces
diet tends to cause
an increase in the
frequency of bowel
movements
symptoms of
headache, loss of
appetite and
restlessness, all of
which are due to
absorption of
toxins from the
faeces
a day is not
considered as
constipated and
unhealthy.
1315. 10
The digestion and absorption of medium and short
chain triglycerides involve:
Intraluminal and
membrane
digestion
Emulsiflcation
Lipolysis
Mucosal uptake
Lymphatic
delivery
1316. 10
Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur with excess
fluid loss from which of the following:
Stomach
Ileum
Colon
Pancreas
Liver
1317. 10
Lactose content of milk for lactose-intolerant people
can be decreased using insolubilized :
Lactose synthatase
Beta galactosidase
Hexokinase
Phosphoglucomuta
se
Glucokinase
1318. 10
In the intestinal chyme, final sugars normally found are:
Glucose and
fructose
Galactose and
xylose
Mannose
Xylose and ribose
Mannose and
xylose
1319. 10
Which of the following statement in relation to small
intestine is incorrect:
The small gut is
connected to the
large gut at the
jujenocaecal
junction
It is about3 meter
long
Usually 50% of the
digestion and
absorption is over
by the time chyme
reaches the ileum
The chyme
received from the
stomach usually
remains the small
gut for over 2
hours
Glucose absorption
can occur against
concentration
gradient in the
small gut
1320. 10
Micelle are necessary for normal absorption of
following except:
Vitamin K
Medium-chain
fatty acid
Long chain
Long chain fatty
acid
Dietary cholesterol
monoglicerids
1321. 10
The upper one third portion of small intestine can
absorb most of the following except:
Triglicerides.
Vit B12
Bile salts
Electrolites
Neutral amino
acids and glucose
1322. 10
Iron absorption in intestine is:
Dependent upon
iron excretion
Enhanced by
convershion of
ferrous to ferric
Improved by biles
Regulated in
accordance with
the body's need for
Depressed by
gastric secretions.
form
iron
1323. 10
Succus entericus contains:
A substance which
activates
trypshogen
Enzymes which
break down starch
Enzymes which
convert
monosachharides
into simpler
molecules
Electrolites having
similar
concentration as a
blood
None of be above
1324. 10
In the small intestine, glucose is absorbed:
In combination
with sodium
Passively
By facilitated
diffusion
By co-transport
with chloride
Actively by insulin
dependent uptake
1325. 10
Calcium uptake in the intestine:
Requires a carrier
protein on the
mucosal side
Is passive
Is by facilitated
diffusion
Is less than 10%
dietary intake
Is facilitated by
phosphate
1326. 10
Bacteria in the intestines:
Reduced in small
intestine due to
gastric acid & fast
motility.
Reduced by the
continuous
movement of
contents through
GIT
Small intestine is
sterile
Bacteria in small
intestine and large
intestine – same in
number but
different species
Required for the
breakdown of fiber
1327. 10
Which of the following is the origin of electrical slow
wave activity in gastrointestinal tract smooth muscle:
The interstitial
cells of Cajal
The smooth
muscle of the
circular muscle
layer
The smooth
muscle of the
longitudinal
muscle layer
The smooth
muscle of the
muscularis mucosa
The myenteric
plexus
1328. 10
Cholera toxin causes diarrhea by inhibiting which of the
following:
Neutral NaCl
absorption in the
small intestine
Electrogenic Na
absorption from
the small intestine
Na-glucose
coupled absorption
from the small
intestine
Na/H exchange in
the small intestine
Electrogenic Na
absorption from
the colon
1329. 10
Na+ absorption in small bowel:
Occurs by active
transport
Occurs with H+
Is facilitated by
glucose
Is by active
transport at the
brush border
membrane passive
across basilateral
membrane
(diffusion)
Occurs with Clthrough tight
junctions
1330. 10
Calcium uptake in the intestine:
Requires a carrier
protein on the
mucosal side
Is passive
Is by facilitated
diffusion
Is less than 10%
than dietary intake
Is facilitated by
phosphate
1331. 10
Bacteria in the intestines:
Reduced in small
intestine due to
gastric acid & fast
motility.
Reduced by the
continuous
movement of
contents through
GIT
Small intestine is
sterile
Bacteria in small
intestine and large
intestine – same in
number but
different species
Required for the
absorption/
breakdown of
proteins
1332. 10
Which of the following is the major mechanism for
absorption of sodium from the small intestine:
Neutral NaCl
absorption
Na+-H+ exchange
Cotransport with
potassium
Electrogenic
transport
Solvent drag
1333. 10
Removal of proximal segments of the small intestine
results in a decrease in which of the following:
Pancreatic enzyme
secretion.
Basal acid output
Maximal acid
output
Gastric emptying
of liquids
Gastric emptying
of solids
1334. 10
Gas within the colon is primarily derived from which
one of the following sources:
Fermentation of
undigested
oligosaccharides
by bacteria
CO2 liberated by
the interaction of
HCO3– and H+
Diffusion from the
blood
Swallowed
atmospheric air
Air pockets within
foodstuffs.
1335. 10
Removal of the terminal ileum will result in which of
the following:
An increase in the
water content of
the feces
A decrease in
absorption of
amino acids
An increase in the
concentration of
bile acid in the
enterohepatic
circulation
A decrease in the
fat content of the
feces
An increase in the
absorption of iron
1336. 10
Absorption of fat-soluble vitamins requires which of
the following:
Pancreatic lipase
Intrinsic factor
Chymotrypsin
Pancreatic amylase
Secretin
1337. 10
Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small intestine is
closely coupled with which of the following?
Na/H exchange
Na-glucose
absorption
Neutral NaCl
absorption
Electrogenic Na
absorption
Na-vitamin B12
absorption
1338. 10
The function of a lacteal is to
Absorb lipids
Absorb
carbohydrates.
Regulate muscle
contraction.
Absorb amino
acids
Produce enzymes.
1339. 10
The major outcome that occurs through mechanical
digestive activities is
An increase in the
surface area of
food by breaking it
Enteric reflex
activation
Chemical
breakdown of food
Facilitation of
absorption
Propulsion of
materials via
into smaller
fragments.
molecules
peristalsis
1340. 10
This structure is a modified portion of the small
intestine mucosa that greatly increases the absorptive
surface area.
Villus
Circular fold
Microvillus
Lumen
Lacteal
1341. 10
Which activity below is a mixing action that exposes
materials to secretions and absorptive surfaces?
Segmentation
Vagovagal reflexes
Enteroendocrine
reflex
Peristalsis
Deglutition
1342. 10
Which is a function of the large intestine?
Absorption of
water, ions, and
some vitamins
Absorption of most Digestion of
nutrients
cellulose
Digestion of
carbohydrates
Digestion of
proteins
1343. 10
Which of the following is a characteristic of the large
intestine?
It contains a large
number of bacteria
Is longer than the
small intestine
It is the site for
acid neutralization
It provides no
absorptive function
It has villi
1344. 10
What would be the effect of stripping the small
intestines of their villi?
Decreased surface
area for absorption
would cause
weight loss to
occur
A duodenal ulcer
Greater absorption
of nutrients would
occur
The large intestine
would take over as
primary absorptive
site
No right answer
1345. 10
The final product of carbohydrate digestion is
Monosaccharides
Glycogen
Disaccharides
Polysaccharides
Glycosaccharides
1346. 10
Which of the following cells produce HCl?
Parietal cells
G cells
Enteroendocrine
cells
Chief cells
Mucous cells
1347. 10
Which of the following cells produce pepsinogen?
Chief cells
Mucous cells
G cells
Enteroendocrine
cells
Parietal cells
1348. 10
Most absorption takes place in the ______.
Jejunum
Large intestine
Duodenum
Ileum
Stomach
1349. 10
The digestive system in a cadaver is longer than in a
living person because in a cadaver there is no
Muscle tone
Nervous system
influence
Food in the tube.
Digestion taking
place
Іnfluence the
humoral system
1350. 10
__________ is the major means of propulsion in the
digestive system.
Peristalsis
Mechanical
digestion
Ingestion
Defecation
Vomiting
1351. 10
Which of the following intestinal hormones is not part
of the enterogastrone?
Gastrin
Secretin
Cholecystokinin
Vasoactive
intestinal peptide
Vasopressin
1352. 10
A condition that affects the large bowel, but has no
physiological or anatomical cause is
Irritable bowel
A hiatal hernia
Celiac disease
Pernicious anemia
Bowel ulcer
1353. 10
What is the most common type of motility associated
with the descending colon?
Haustrations
Antipropulsive
movements
Mass movement
Perisatalsis
Segmentation
1354. 11
Which of the following can be determined by
calculating the clearance of para-aminohippuric acid
(PAH)?
Effective renal
plasma flow
(ERPF)
ECF volume
Glomerular
filtration rate
(GFR)
Plasma volume
Total body water
(TBW)
1355. 11
If the plasma concentration of a freely filterable
substance that is neither secreted or reabsorbed is 0.125
mg/mL, its urine concentration 25 mg/mL, and urine
formation 1.0 mL/min, the glomerular filtration rate is:
200 mL/min
50 mL/min
125 mL/min
150 mL/min
362 mL/min
1356. 11
30-year-old woman is given 0.1 g inulin intravenously.
One hour later the plasma inulin concentration is 1
mg/100 mL. Which of the following is the extracellular
fluid volume (in liters) of this woman?
10
8
12
14
16.
1357. 11
The consumption of oxygen by the kidney:
Directly reflects
the level of sodium
transport
Decreases as blood
flow increases
Is regulated by
erythropoietin
Remains constant
as blood flow
increases
Is greatest in the
medulla
1358. 11
If the plasma concentration of a freely filterable
substance that is neither secreted or reabsorbed is 0.125
mg/mL, its urine concentration 25 mg/mL, and urine
formation 1.0 mL/min, the glomerular filtration rate is:
150 mL/min
50 mL/min
125 mL/min
200 mL/min
362 mL/min
1359. 11
Major determinants of plasma osmolarity include all the
following except:
Hemoglobin
Sodium
Chloride
Albumin
Glucose
1360. 11
An increase in the concentration of plasma potassium
causes an increase in:
Secretion of
aldosterone
Release of renin
Secretion of ADH
Release of
natriuretic
hormone
Production of
angiotensin II
1361. 11
A healthy 20-year-old man deprived of water for
several days has an arterial pressure of 118/78 mm Hg
and a plasma concentration of antidiuretic hormone
(ADH) 5 times above normal. Which of the following is
the most likely explanation for the increase in ADH
concentration?
Increased plasma
osmolality
Decreased plasma
aldosterone
Decreased plasma
renin activity
Increased
extracellular fluid
volume
Increased left atrial
pressure
1362. 11
A healthy 38-year-old woman is found unconscious and
severely dehydrated. Her plasma levels of antidiuretic
hormone (ADH) are increased about 5-fold above
normal. In which portion of her kidney tubule is most
of the water being reabsorbed?
Proximal tubule
Cortical collecting
duct
Distal tubules
Loops of Henle
Medullary
collecting duct
1363. 11
Glomerular hydrostatic pressure = 44 mm Hg,
Bowman's capsule hydrostatic pressure = 9 mm Hg,
Osmotic pressure of plasma = 28 mm Hg, Osmotic
pressure of tubular fluid = 0. Given this data, what is
the net filtration pressure at the glomerulus?
7 mm Hg
5 mm Hg
25 mm Hg
63 mm Hg
81 mm Hg
1364. 11
The ratio of urinary concentration to plasma
concentration of inulin {(U/P) inulin} decreases. Which
of the following is true if the glomerular filtration rate
remains constant?
Urine flow rate has
increased
Aldosterone levels
have increased
Inulin clearance
has decreased
Positive free water
clearance has
decreased
Reabsorption of
inulin has increase
1365. 11
A healthy adult participating in a clinical research study
increases his daily sodium intake greatly, but his
plasma sodium remains at a constant level. Which of
the following substances is most responsible for this
constancy in plasma sodium concentration when large
amounts of sodium are ingested?
Antidiuretic
hormone
Aldosterone
Angiotensin II
Atrial natriuretic
factor (ANF)
Epinephrine
1366. 11
A research physiologist decides to use a marker to
measure the volume of total body water in a volunteer
medical student. Which of the following substances
would he most likely use?
Antipyn
Cresyl violet
Evans blue
I131-albumin
Inulin
1367. 11
A certain substance, which is both freely filtered and
secreted, is being maximally secreted. As the plasma
Decreases and
approaches that of
Increases and
approaches that of
Increases to the
Will decrease to
Will remain the
concentration of the substance increases, the renal
clearance:
inulin
inulin
renal plasma flow
zero
same
1368. 11
A hypertensive patient is found to have a partial
obstruction of the renal artery due to an atherosclerotic
plaque.The resultant decrease in blood flow causes the
increased release of an enzyme from which of the
following structures?
Juxtaglomerular
cells
Afferent arterioles
Arcuate arteries
Kupffer cells
Proximal
convoluted tubule
1369. 11
Amino acids are almost completely reabsorbed from the
glomerular filtrate via active transport in the:
Proximal tubule
Loop of Henie
Distal tubule
Collecting duct
Renal pelvis
1370. 11
The daily production of hydrogen ion from CO2 is
primarily buffered by:
Red blood cell
hemoglobin
Extracellular
bicarbonate
Red blood cell
bicarbonate
Plasma proteins
Plasma phosphate
1371. 11
Glomerular filtration rate would be increased by:
Of plasma protein
Constriction of the
afferent arteriole
A decrease in
afferent arteriolar
pressure
Compression of
the renal capsule
A decrease in the
concentration
1372. 11
All the following comparisons between the distal
nephron and the proximal tubule are correct except
The distal nephron
secretes more
hydrogen ion than
does the proximal
tubule
The distal nephron
is less permeable
to hydrogen ion
than is the
proximal tubule
The distal nephron
is more responsive
to aldosterone than
is the proximal
tubule
The distal nephron
has a more
negative
intraluminal
potential than does
the proximal
tubule
The distal nephron
secretes more
potassium than
does the proximal
tubule
1373. 11
Destruction of the supraoptic nuclei of the brain will
produce which of the following changes in urinary:
volume and concentration? (Assume that fluid intake
equals fluid loss).
Increased urinary
volume and a very
dilute urine
Increased urinary
volume and a
concentrated urine
Decreased urinary
volume and a very
dilute urine
Decreased urinary
volume and a
concentrated urine
None of the above
1374. 11
Which of the following statements about renin is true?
It converts
angiotensinogen to
angiotensin I
It is secreted by
cells of the
proximal tubule
Its secretion leads
to loss of sodium
and water from
plasma
Its secretion is
stimulated by
increased mean
renal arterial
pressure
It converts
angiotensin I to
angiotensin II
1375. 11
H+ secretion in the distal nephron is enhanced by all the
following except:
Hyperkalemia
An increase in the
level of plasma
aldosterone
An increase in the
tubular lu-minal
concentration of
poorly
reabsorbable
anions
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory
acidosis
1376. 11
In controlling the synthesis and secretion of
aldosterone, which of the following factors is LEAST
important?
Adrenocorticotropi
c hormone
(ACTH)
Renin
Angiotensin II
Concentration of
plasma Na+
Concentration of
plasma K+
1377. 11
A patient is found to have a urine creatinine
concentration of 196 mg/mL; a plasma creatinine
concentration of 1.4 mg/mL; and a urine flow of 1
mL/min. The creatinine clearance is:
140 mL/min
44 mL/min
98 mL/min
125 mL/min
196 mL/min
1378. 11
In 1 h, 54 mL of urine is collected from a test subject.
The concentration of para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) in
the plasma is 0.02 mg/ mL, and in the urine it is 14
mg/mL. What is the effective renal plasma flow
(ERPF)?
630 mL/min
31.1 mL/min
128 mL/min
278 mL/min
771 mL/min
1379. 11
Most of the glucose that is filtred through the
glomerulus undergoes reabsorption in the:
Proximal tubule
Descending limb
of the loop of
Henie
Ascending limb of
the loop of Henie
Distal tubule
Collecting duct
1380. 11
When the potassium content of a patient's diet is
increased fivefold, that patient is noted to have a change
in concentration of plasma K from 3.5 meq/L to 5
meq/L. The most likely explanation for this change is
that:
The patient has
adrenal
insufficiency
The concentration
of plasma K+ is
sensitive to dietary
intake
Secretion of
antidiuretic
hormone is
reduced
The patient has an
aldosteronesecreting tumor
The patient has
renal insufficiency
1381. 11
Urinary volume is increased by all the following
except:
Sympathetic
stimulation
Diabetes insipidus
Diabetes mellitus
Increased renal
arterial pressure
Infusion of
mannitol
1382. 11
Which of the following structural features distinguishes
the epithelial cells of the proximal tubule from those of
the distal tubule?
The proximal
tubule has a more
extensive brush
The distal tubule
has a thicker
basement
The proximal
tubule has a
thicker basement
The proximal
tubule forms the
juxtaglomerular
The distal tubule
has fewer tight
border
membrane
membrane
apparatus
1383. 11
Glomerular filtration rate (<3FR) and renal blood flow
(RBF) will both be increased if:
The efferent and
afferent arterioles
are both dilated
The efferent and
afferent arterioles
are both
constricted
Only the afferent
arteriole is
constricted
Only the efferent
arteriole is
constricted
The afferent
arteriole is
constricted and the
efferent arteriole is
dilated
1384. 11
Significant buffers for hydrogen ions generated in the
body from anaerobic metabolism include all the
following except :
Plasma lactate
Extracellular
bicarbonate
Plasma proteins
Inorganic
phosphates
Intracellular
proteins.
1385. 11
Extracellular bicarbonate ions serve as an effective
buffer for all the following except:
Carbonic acid
Sulfuric acid
Phosphoric acid
Lactic acid
P-hydroxybutyric
acid
1386. 11
The following statements are true of the F secreted into
the lumen of the distal nephron except that it:
Can combine with
NH+
Can combine with
HCO3-
Can combine with
HP042-
Can remain as free
H+
Is secreted by an H
ATPase pump
1387. 11
Metabolic alkalosis can be caused by all the following
EXCEPT:
Hyperaldosteronis
m
Hyperventilation
Hypokalemia
Volume depletion
Vomiting
1388. 11
The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
secretion (SIADH) is caused by the excess release of
ADH. SIADH will have the LEAST effect on:
Urinary flow
Concentration of
plasma sodium
Total body water
Urinary osmolarity
Plasma osmolarity
1389. 11
The pH of the tubular fluid in the distal nephron can be
lower than that in the proximal tubule because:
The tight junctions
of the distal
nephron are less
leaky to solute
than those of the
proximal tubule.
A greater sodium
gradient can be
established across
the wall of the
distal nephron than
across the wall of
the proximal
tubule
More buffer is
present in the
tubular fluid of the
distal nephron than
in the proximal
tubule
More hydrogen ion
is secreted into the
distal nephron than
into the proximal
tubule
The brush border
of the distal
nephron contains
more carbonic
anhydrase than that
of the proximal
tubule
1390. 11
Renal correction of hyperkalemia will result in:
Acidosis
Alkalosis
Increased secretion
of HCO
Increased secretion
of H
Increased
excretion of Na+
1391. 11
Chronic metabolic acidosis, all the following will occur
The urinary pH
All the filtered
HCO- will be
The production of
ammonia by the
Secretion in the
distal nephron will
Glutamine uptake
by the kidney will
except:
will be increased.
reabsorbed by the
kidney
kidney will
increase
be enhanced
be enhanced
1392. 11
Aldosterone causes a decrease in the renal tubular
secretion of:
Sodium
Magnesium
Hydrogen
Potassium
Ammonium.
1393. 11
A man drinks 2 L of water to replenish the fluids lost by
sweating during a period of exercise. Compared with
the situation prior to the period of sweating:
His intracellular
fluid volume will
be greater
His intracellular
fluid will be
hypertonic
His extracellular
fluid will be
hypertonic
His extracellular
fluid volume will
be greater
His intracellular
and extracellular
fluid volumes will
be unchanged.
1394. 11
Ammonia is an effective and important urinary buffer
for which of the following reasons?
The walls of the
renal tubules are
impermeable to
NI4-
Its production in
the kidney
decreases during
chronic acidosis
The walls of the
renal tubules are
impermeable to
NI4-
Its acid-base
reaction has a low
PK
None of the above.
1395. 11
The amount of potassium excreted by the kidney will
decrease if:
Circulating
aldosterone levels
increase
Distal tubular flow
increases
Dietary intake of
potassium
increases
Na+ reabsorption
by the distal
nephron decreases
The excretion of
organic ions
increases.
1396. 11
A respiratory acidosis that results in an increase in the
concentration of hydrogen ion in arterial blood from 40
neq/L (pH 7.4) to 50 neq/L (pH 7.3) would
Stimulate the
peripheral
chemoreceptors
Decrease the
amount of
ammonium
excreted in the
urine
Inhibit the central
chemoreceptors
Increase the pH of
the urine
Decrease the
concentration of
HCO3– in arterial
blood.
1397. 11
In the presence of ADH, the distal nephron is least
permeable to:
Urea
Water
Ammonia
Sodium
Carbon dioxide
1398. 11
Which of the following substances will be more
concentrated at the end of the proximal tubule than at
the beginning of the proximal tubule?
Creatinine
Glucose
Sodium
Bicarbonate
Phosphate
1399. 11
When a person is dehydrated, hypotonic fluid will be
found in the:
Proximal tubule
Glomerular filtrate
Loop of Henie
Distal convoluted
tubule
Collecting duct.
1400. 11
The electrically neutral active transport of sodium from
the lumen of the kidney occurs in the:
Ascending limb of
the loop of Henie
Proximal tubule
Descending limb
of the loop of
Cortical collecting
duct
Medullary
collecting duct
Henie
1401. 11
In metabolic acidosis caused by diabetic ketoacidosis,
which of the following would be greater than normal?
Anion gap
Concentration of
plasma HCO3–
Arterial pCO
Plasma pH
None of the above
1402. 11
Decreasing the resistance of the afferent arteriole in the
glomerulus of the kidney will decrease
None of the above
The renal plasma
flow
The filtration
fraction
The oncotic
pressure of the
peri-tubular
capillary blood
The glomerular
filtration rate
1403. 11
If GFR increases, proximal tubular reabsorption of salt
and water will increase by a process called
glomerulotubular balance. Contributions to this process
include
An increase in
peritubular oncotic
pressure
An increase in
peritubular
capillary
hydrostatic
pressure
A decrease in
peritubular sodium
concentration
An increase in
proximal tubular
flow
An increase in
peritubular
capillary flow
1404. 11
The glomerular filtration barrier is composed of all the
following except
Macula densa
Fenestrated
capillary
endothelium
Basement
membrane
Podocytes
Mesangial cells.
1405. 11
Renin release from the juxtaglomerular apparatus is
inhibited by:
Increased pressure
within the afferent
arterioles
Beta-adrenergic
agonists
Prostaglandins
Aldosterone
Stimulation of the
macula densa
1406. 11
Patients with renal insufficiency develop very high
plasma concentrations of urea (uremia) because of an
increase in:
Secretion of urea
by the distal
tubules
Synthesis of urea
by the liver
Reabsorption of
urea by the
proximal tubules
The glomerular
filtration rate
The renal blood
flow
1407. 11
The amount of H excreted as titratable acid bound to
phosphate would be increased by all the following
except:
An increase in the
dietary intake of
phosphate
An increase in the
amount of
phosphate filtered
at the glomerulus
An increase in the
pH of the urine
An increase in the
level of plasma
parathyroid
hormone (PTH)
A decrease in the
renal tubular
maximum (Tm) for
phosphate
reabsorption
1408. 11
Which one of the following is correct? Sympathetic
stimulation of the kidneys:
Dilates efferent
arterioles
Results in a
lowered
glomerular
capillary blood
Results in an
increased rate of
blood flow into the
glomeruli
Results in an
increased
glomerular
filtration rate
Two or more of the
above are correct.
pressure
1409. 11
Potassium secretion into the urine is controlled by:
Aldosterone
secretion.
Renal tubular cells
Renin production.
All of the above.
None of the above
1410. 11
The hormone ADH functions by affecting what part of
the kidney?
Proximal
convoluted tubule
Distal convoluted
tubule
Glomerulus
Efferent arteriole
None of the above
1411. 11
The capillary beds that receive blood from the efferent
arterioles (іn the kidney) are called the:
Glomerular
capillaries.
Nephron
capillaries.
Peritubular
capillaries
Pulmonary
capillaries
Coronary
capillaries
1412. 11
Increase in GFR occurs with:
None of the above
Increased
sympathetic
stimulation
Decreased renal
blood flow
Hypoproteinaemia
Ureteric
obstruction
1413. 11
Regarding renal clearance:
All of the above
Inulin clearance
measures renal
blood flow
Creatine clearance
correlates with
GFR
Filtration fraction
measured as inulin
clearance/ PAH
clearance (GFR)
divided by total
plasma flow)
None of the above
1414. 11
The primary event leading to the reabsorption of water
in the kidney is the active reabsorption of:
Sodium
Water
Chloride
Potassium
None of these
1415. 11
Which of the following is generally not filtered through
the glomeruli?
Fibrinogen
Glucose
Sodium
Fatty acids
Both C and D
1416. 11
Calculate the effective glomerular filtration pressure
from the following data: Average glomerular
hydrostatic pressure = 78; colloid osmotic pressure of
glomerular blood = 28; hydrostatic pressure of
Bowman's capsule =14
36 mm Hg
22 mm Hg
19 mm Hg
14 mm Hg
None of these
1417. 11
Urinary volume is increased by all the following
except:
Sympathetic
stimulation
Diabetes insipidus
Diabetes mellitus
Increased renal
arterial pressure
Infusion of
mannitol
1418. 11
Which one of the following substances is less
concentrated at the end of the proximal tubule than at
Phosphate
Creatinine
Hydrogen
Chloride
Sodium
the beginning of the proximal tubule:
1419. 11
If a substance is transported from the plasma of the
peritubular capillary into the fluid of the renal tubule, it
is said to be:
Secreted
Filtered by blood
pressure
Excreted by
osmosis
Reabsorbed
None of the above.
1420. 11
Active reabsorption of glucose appears to occur in the:
Proximal
convoluted tubule
Henle's loop
Distal convoluted
tubule
Collecting tubule
None of the above.
1421. 11
Under normal circumstances, the kidneys produce
about ? liters of glomerular filtrate per day
180.
1500
60
80-120
100
1422. 11
Potassium secretion into the filtrate and eventual urine:
Is associated with
sodium
reabsorption from
the distal
convoluted tubules
is decreased by the
potassium sparing hormone
Is controlled
primarily by ADH
Is usually low
because potassium
is low in the diet
Doesn't occur
because potassium
is the chief ion
inside cells
1423. 11
If the arteriole that supplies blood to the glomerulus
becomes constricted:
The glomerular
filtration rate
decreases
Blood flow into
the efferent
arteriole increases
Hydrostatic
pressure in the
glomerulus
increases
The protein
concentration of
the filtrate
increases
None of the above
1424. 11
Decreasing the resistance of the afferent arteriole in the
glomerulus of the kidney will decrease:
The glomerular
filtration rate
The renal plasma
flow
The filtration
fraction
The oncotic
pressure of the
peritubular
capillary blood
None of the above
1425. 11
What percentage of the blood circulating through the
body makes it through the kidneys in one day?
25%
15%
40%
75%
100%