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Part 1 Board Review
Spinal Anatomy 4
1. Which is responsible for the detection of static equilibrium
a. Utricle
b. Saccule
c. Macula
d. Cristae ampullaris
2. Medial deviation of the eye results from damage to which muscle
a. Lateral rectus
b. Medial rectus
c. Superior rectus
d. Inferior rectus
3. The atlanto-occipital joint is classified as a synovial _______ joint
a. Condyloid
b. Sellar
c. Hinge
d. Planar
4. Which forms the blood-brain barrier
a. Astrocytes
b. Ependymal cells
c. Schwann cells
d. Oligodendrocytes
5. The fovea dentalis is found on which vertebrae
a. C1
b. C2
c. C3
d. C4
6. Taste sensation is received by which nucleus
a. Substantia nigra
b. Edinger westphal
c. Solitarius
d. Ambiguous
7. Which CN supplies taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
a. V
b. VII
c. IX
d. X
8. Which best describes the role of Pacinian corpuscles
a. Sensitive to vibration
b. Insensitive to vibration
c. Sensitive to sudden, rapid deformity
d. Sensitive to nociception
9. What is the orientation of the inferior articular facets in the lumbar spine
a. Posteromedial
b. Anterolateral
c. Posterolateral
d. Anteromedial
10. Which does not contribute to the papillary reflex
a. Pretectal area
b. Edinger Westphal nucleus
c. Ciliary body
d. Lateral geniculate body
11. To prevent neural tube defects in a pregnant female, which vitamin is
recommended
a. Folic acid
b. Pyridoxine
c. Thiamine
d. Riboflavin
12. Which cell is responsible for myelination in the CNS
a. Oligodendrocytes
b. Schwann cells
c. Astrocytes
d. Ependymal cells
13. The radial nerve comes off which part of the brachial plexus
a. Posterior cord
b. Lateral cord
c. Medial cord
d. Superior trunk
14. The dorsal scapular nerve does not innervate which muscle
a. Levator scapulae
b. Rhomboid major
c. Rhomboid minor
d. Serratus posterior superior
15. Which foramen does the vertebral artery enter the skull through
a. Foramen magnum
b. Foramen ovale
c. Foramen rotundum
d. Jugular foramen
16. Which supplies the sternohyoid
a. Ansa cervicalis
b. Great auricular nerve
c. Transverse cervical nerve
d. Lesser occipital nerve
17. Which supplies the skin of the pinna of the ear
a. Greater auricular nerve
b. Greater occipital nerve
c. Transverse cervical nerve
d. Cervical cutaneous nerve
18. Which nerve wraps around the arch of the aorta
a. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
b. Right recurrent laryngeal
c. Vagus
d. Phrenic
19. What part of the somite forms the vertebral column
a. Sclerotome
b. Dermatome
c. Myotome
d. Neural crest cells
20. At what week does the notochord form
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
21. The supraspinous ligament is continuous with
a. Nuchal ligament
b. Tectorial membrane
c. PLL
d. ALL
22. From the tip of the dens to the foramen magnum, which of the following
ligaments attaches there
a. Alar ligament
b. Apical dental
c. Transverse ligament
d. Tectorial membrane
23. Which attaches to the lateral masses of atlas
a. Transverse
b. Apical
c. Alar
d. Ligamentum flava
24. Which forms the posterior border of the neural canal
a. Ligament flavum
b. PLL
c. ALL
d. Nuchal ligament
25. Where does the anterior longitudinal ligament end
a. Occiput
b. C1
c. C2
d. C3
26. Which limits flexion of the neck
a. Tectorial membrane
b. ALL
c. Longus coli
d. Sternocleidomastoid
27. Ependymal cells perform which of the following
a. Secrete CSF
b. Absorb CSF
c. Formation of blood brain barrier
d. Phagocytosis
28. The trochlear nerve goes through
a. Superior orbital fissure
b. Foramen rotundum
c. Foramen ovale
d. Foramen spinosum
29. Which artery supplies motor cortex, premotor cortex, postcentral gyrus, and the
primary auditory cortex of the brain
a. Middle cerebral artery
b. Anterior cerebral artery
c. Posterior cerebral artery
d. Middle striate
30. Which separates the cerebellum from the cerebral cortex
a. Tentorium cerebelli
b. Falx cerebelli
c. Falx cerebri
d. Thalamus
31. The Great Cerebral Vein of Galen drains into
a. Straight sinus
b. Superior sagittal sinus
c. Inferior sagittal sinus
d. Occipital sinus
32. The otic ganglion is innervated by
a. Glossopharyngeal nerve
b. Facial nerve
c. Occulomotor nerve
d. Trochlear nerve
33. Which CN pierces the parotid gland
a. 7
b. 9
c. 10
d. 5
34. What nerve pierces the psoas and runs anterior to the psoas
a. Genitofemoral nerve
b. Iliohypogastric nerve
c. Ilioinguinal nerve
d. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
35. The facial nerve is protected by which of the following as it leaves the cranial
vault
a. Mastoid process
b. Occipital condyle
c. Petrous portion of temporal bone
d. Temporous part of temporal bone
36. What muscle abducts the eye
a. Lateral rectus
b. Medial rectus
c. Superior oblique
d. Inferior oblique
37. The spinal cord ends at which of the following vertebral levels
a. L2
b. L1
c. L4
d. L5
38. The adrenal medulla is which of the following
a. Postganglionic sympathetic
b. Preganglionic sympathetics
c. Postganglionic parasympathetic
d. Preganglionic parasympathetic
39. If there was a lesion in the ventral commissure, which will you see
a. Bilateral loss of pain and temperature at that level
b. Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature below that level
c. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature below that level
d. Ipsilateral loss of touch at that level
40. Bilateral dislocation of C5-C6 leads to
a. Bilateral upper limb paralysis
b. Bilateral upper limb and lower limb paralysis
c. Ipsilateral upper limb paralysis
d. Ipsilateral upper limb and lower limb paralysis
41. Anterior slippage of L5 without breakage of pars
a. Spondylolisthesis
b. Spondylolysis
c. Spondylosis
d. Spondyloschisis
42. Which of the following dermatomes supplies sensation to the anteromedial knee
a. L2
b. L3
c. L4
d. L5
43. Dorsal rami of S2-S4 exits from which of the following
a. Ventral sacral foramen
b. Dorsal sacral foramen
c. Sacral hiatus
d. Cornu
44. The hip abductors are innervated by
a. Superior gluteal nerve
b. Inferior gluteal nerve
c. Femoral nerve
d. Sciatic nerve
45. Damage to the dorsal scapular nerve will prevent
a. Retraction of the scapula
b. Protraction of scapula
c. Flexion of humerus
d. Extension of humerus
46. The ligament that attaches with the 5th rib and the T4 TVP is
a. Radiate ligament
b. Superior costotransverse ligament
c. Intra-articular ligament
d. Lateral costotransverse ligament
47. Where does piriformis originate
a. Lumbar spinouses
b. Anterior aspect of sacrum
c. Lumbar bodies and discs
d. Posterior aspect of sacrum
48. What forms the posterior and inferior border of the nasal septum
a. Vomer
b. Inferior concha
c. Ethmoid
d. Middle concha
49. What type of joint is located between vertebral bodies
a. Symphysis
b. Synchondrosis
c. Syndesmosis
d. Suture
50. What forms the posterior border of the IVF
a. Articular pillars
b. Pedicles
c. Body
d. Disc
51. The intermediate sacral crest in sacrum corresponds to which of the following in
the lumbar spine
a. Spinous process
b. Articular pillars
c. Uncinates
d. TPs
52. With otitis media you can get a loss of taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue;
which is involved
a. Chorda tympani
b. Mandibular nerve
c. Lingual nerve
d. Inferior petrosal nerve
53. All medium to large peripheral nerves are surrounded by an outermost fibrous
connective tissue known as
a. Endoneurium
b. Schwann sheath
c. Epineurium
d. Dural sheath
54. The vascular layer of the eye is
a. Cornia
b. Choroid
c. Retina
d. Sclera
55. Rotation in the lumbar spine is limited by ____________ processes
a. Articular process
b. TPs
c. Spinous process
d. Laminae
56. The most flexion/extension in the spine occurs at
a. C6-C7
b. T6-T7
c. L5-S1
d. T12-L1
57. What is formed by hyaline cartilage and attaches annulus
a. Endplates
b. Uncovertebral joints
c. Nucleus pulposus
d. Articular pillars
58. What is the embryonic origin of the middle ear
a. Otic placode
b. First pharyngeal pouch
c. First pharyngeal arch
d. Optic cup
59. What is between dura mater and periosteum of vertebral canal
a. Epidural
b. Subdural
c. Subarachnoid
d. CSF
60. Which is the inferior border of the IVF
a. Superior notch
b. Inferior notch
c. Body
d. Articular pillar
61. What is the weakest part of the disc
a. Posterolateral
b. Posteromedial
c. Anterolateral
d. Anteromedial
62. Which is an atypical rib and does not have an angel, tubercle, neck, or costal
groove
a. 1
b. 2
c. 10
d. 12
63. From which is the nucleus pulposus derived
a. Sclerotome
b. Myotome
c. Notochord
d. Ectoderm
64. The action of the serratus posterior inferior is to
a. Depress ribs during inhalation
b. Elevate ribs during inhalation
c. Depress ribs during exhalation
d. Elevate ribs during exhalation
65. The medial arcuate ligament of the diaphragm passes anteriorly to
a. Quadratus lumborum
b. Abdominal aorta
c. Psoas major
d. Crura of diaphragm
66. Ach receptors on skeletal muscles are
a. Muscarinic
b. Nicotinic
c. Adrenergic
d. Dopaminergic
67. _________ restricts hyperflexion of lumbar spine
a. supraspinous ligament
b. ALL
c. Rectus abdominus
d. Psoas major
68. What do the purkinje cells in the brain secrete
a. GABA
b. Histamine
c. Dopamine
d. Glutamate
69. Which makes up the middle cerebellar peduncle
a. Posterior spinocerebellar tract
b. Olivocerebellar tract
c. Pontocerebellar fibers
d. Rubrocerebellar fibers
70. Why do you have a kyphosis in the dorsal spine
a. For respiration
b. Because of anterior wedging of vertebral bodies
c. Because of anterior wedgin of discs
d. Due to bipedal stanch
71. What is the blood supply to the retina
a. Ophthalmic artery
b. Internal carotid
c. Middle cerebral
d. Anterior cerebral
72. What do the uncovertebral joints prevent
a. Rotation
b. Lateral flexion
c. Flexion
d. Extension
73. What is the root of the lung covered by
a. Cervical pleura
b. Mediastinal pleura
c. Diaphragmatic pleura
d. Costal pleura
74. Which of the following cranial nerves is associated with the cribriform plate
anatomically speaking
a. CN I
b. CN II
c. CN III
d. CN IV
75. Which has a full articular facet for a rib
a. T1
b. C7
c. T6
d. T10
76. The sinuvertebral nerve originates from
a. White rami
b. Grey rami
c. Ventral primary rami
d. Dorsal primary rami
77. What is the innervation of serratus posterior superior
a. Intercostals nerves
b. Posterior primary rami
c. Ventral primary rami
d. Sinuvertebral nerve
78. Where is the C8 dermatome located
a. Medial forearm
b. Lateral forearm
c. Medial arm
d. Lateral arm
79. Which nerve innervates the muscles of the thenar eminence
a. Median
b. Ulnar
c. Radial
d. Musculocutaneous
80. Which is a continuation of the musculocutaneous nerve
a. Medial brachial cutaneous nerve
b. Saphenous nerve
c. Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
d. Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve
81. Which innervates the facet joints
a. Ansa cervicalis
b. Dorsal primary rami
c. Ventral primary rami
d. Anterior horn
82. Innervation of the tympanic membrane is through
a. Facial
b. Trochlear
c. Glossopharyngeal
d. Trigeminal
83. Which supplies parasympathetics to the hindgut
a. Greater splanchnic nerve
b. Lesser splanchnic nerve
c. Least splanchnic nerve
d. Pelvic splanchnic nerve
84. Which area of the brain is affected if you have motor aphasia
a. Occipital lobe
b. Brocas area
c. Superior temporal lobe
d. Wernicke’s area
85. Which limits lateral flexion in the lumbar spine
a. Articular process
b. Spinous process
c. Mamillary process
d. Accessory process
86. Which connects the 3rd and 4th ventricles of the brain
a. Foramen of Monroe
b. Foramen of Lushka
c. Cerebral aqueduct
d. Foramen of Magendie
87. The cerebellum mainly consists of
a. Pyramidal cells
b. Astrocytes
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Granular cells
88. What structure is responsible for balance when a person is standing upright
a. Spiral ganglion
b. Semicircular canals
c. Utricle
d. Macule
89. Where is the inferior olivary nucleus located
a. Neocortex
b. Pons
c. Medulla
d. Midbrain
90. The anterior chamber of the eye is bounded by
a. Iris and lens
b. Cornea and iris
c. Cornea and lens
d. Lens and retina
91. What transmits sound to the inner ear
a. Vestibular cochlear cells
b. Organ of Corti
c. Oval window
d. Round window
92. What are the borders of the aqueous humor
a. Lens and retina
b. Sclera and iris
c. Iris and lens
d. Cornea and lens
93. The pontine flexure is located between
a. Myelencephalon and metencephalon
b. Metencephalon and mesencephalon
c. Mesencephalon and telencephalon
d. Diencephalons and telencephalon
94. Where is the somatic motor nucleus located
a. Ventral horn
b. Lateral horn
c. Dorsal horn
d. Basal ganglia
95. The corpus striatum mainly consists of specific input from the
a. Cerebral cortex
b. Cerebellum
c. Pons
d. Medulla
96. Proximal scapular muscles are innervated by
a. C3, C4
b. C4, C5
c. C7, C8
d. C8, T1
97. A lesion of _______ would cause a loss of strength in the extensors of the arm
a. Posterior cord
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Musculocutaneous nerve
d. Medial cord
98. The globus pallidus primarily projects its axons to the
a. Postcentral gyrus
b. Precentral gyrus
c. Spinal cord
d. Thalamus
99. Which gives rise to the sympathetic ganglia
a. Endoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Neural crest cells
d. Notochord
100.
The myenteric plexus is made up of cell bodies from
a. Postganglionic parasympathetics
b. Preganglionic parasympathetics
c. Postganglionic sympathetics
d. Preganglionic sympathetics
101.
Which is innervated by dorsal primary rami
a. Iliopsoas
b. Serratus posterior inferior
c. Longissimus thoracis
d. Levator scapulae
102.
The thyroid gland is derived from
a. Neural crest cells
b. First pharyngeal pouch
c. Floor of the primitive pharynx
d. Oral ectoderm
103.
The medullary pyramids are made up of which tract
a. Vestibulospinal
b. Rubrospinal
c. Reticulospinal
d. Corticospinal
104.
Which is not controlled by both divisions of the autonomic nervous
system
a. Sweat glands
b. Digestive tract
c. Pupil of eye
d. Skeletal muscle
105.
What is the name of the landmark where the lambdoidal and sagittal suture
meet
a. Lambda
b. Bregma
c. Asterion
d. Pterion