Download Spring Semester Exam Review

Spring Semester Exam Review
Chapter 6
Nervous System
1. Which of the following is not a function of the temporal lobe?
A. hearing
B. smell
C. vision
D. memory
E. speech
2. Which of the following is the middle layer of the meninges?
A. pia mater
B. dura mater
C. arachnoid mater
D. nuero mater
E. cerebro mater
3. A fascicle is held together by a connective tissue layer called the:
A. endoneurium
B. perineurium
C. macroneurium
D. epineurium
E. microneurium
4. Each individual nerve fiber is covered by a fine, connective tissue sheath called a:
A. endoneurium
B. perineurium
C. macroneurium
D. epineurium
E. microneurium
5. Groups of fascicles and blood vessels are covered by a tough:
A. endoneurium
B. perineurium
C. macroneurium
D. epineurium
E. microneurium
6. There are ____ pairs of spinal nerves.
A. 4
B. 12
C. 14
D. 31
E. 34
7. Which spinal nerve plexus is located most inferiorly?
A. sacral
B. pectoral
C. brachial
D. cervical
E. lumbar
8. What spinal nerves would be found at the cervical plexus?
A. S1 – S4
B. C1 – C4
C. C5 – C8
D. L1 – L4
E. T6 – T9
9. What spinal nerves would be found at the brachial plexus?
A. S1 – S4
B. C1 – C4
C. C5 – C8
D. L1 – L4
E. T6 – T9
10. What spinal nerves would be found at the lumbar plexus?
A. S1 – S4
B. C1 – C4
C. C5 – C8
D. L1 – L4
E. T6 – T9
11. What spinal nerves would be found at the sacral plexus?
A. S1 – S4
B. C1 – C4
C. C5 – C8
D. L1 – L4
E. T6 – T9
12. What is the name of cranial nerve #3?
A. abducens
B. oculomotor
C. vagus
D. hypoglossal
E. olfactory
13. What is the name of cranial nerve #6?
A. hypoglossal
B. vagus
C. olfactory
D. oculomotor
E. abducens
14. What is the function of the optic nerve?
A. hearing
B. sight
C. jaw motion
D. tongue sensation
E. eye movements
15. What is the function of the trigeminal nerve?
A. jaw motion
B. smell
C. sight
D. tongue sensation
E. trapezius movements
16. The vagus nerve exits from the:
A. medulla oblongata
B. pons
C. midbrain
D. cerebrum
E. diencephalon
17. The trigeminal nerve exits from the:
A. medulla oblongata
B. pons
C. midbrain
D. cerebrum
E. diencephalon
18. If a person severed their spinal cord between T5 and T8, how would they be affected?
A. probable death
B. paralyzed from the neck down
C. paralyzed from the waist down, no loss of upper body function
D. paralyzed from the waist down, partial loss of upper body function
E. A or B
19. If a person was paralyzed from the neck down, where would there injury have probably
occurred?
A. C3-C4
B. C6-C7
C. T1-T2
D. T8-T10
E. L1-L3
20. A neuron that transmits a nerve impulse toward the central nervous system is called a(n):
A. motor neuron
B. sensory neuron
C. interneuron
D. associated neuron
E. A and B
21. A neuron that transmits a nerve impulse away from the central nervous system is called a(n):
A. motor neuron
B. sensory neuron
C. interneuron
D. associated neuron
E. B and C
22. The part of the nervous system that transmits impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscle is
the:
A. somatic nervous system
B. autonomic nervous system
C. central nervous system
D. afferent division
E. none of the above
23. The part of the nervous system that transmits impulses from the CNS to the heart is the:
A. somatic nervous system
B. autonomic nervous system
C. central nervous system
D. afferent division
E. none of the above
24. Dendrites conduct impulses:
A. toward cell bodies
B. away from cell bodies
C. within cell bodies
D. all the above
E. none of the above
25. Nerves that contain afferent fibers are called:
A. sensory nerves
B. motor nerves
C. mixed nerves
D. A and B
E. B and C
26. The peripheral nervous system includes:
A. brain and spinal cord
B. only spinal nerves and their branches
C. cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and their branches
D. only cranial nerves and their branches
E. brain, spinal cord, and spinal nerves
27. The central nervous system includes:
A. brain and spinal cord
B. only spinal nerves and their branches
C. cranial nerves, spinal nerves, and their branches
D. only cranial nerves and their branches
E. brain, spinal cord, and spinal nerves
28. The peripheral nervous system includes:
A. efferent nerves
B. sensory nerves
C. motor nerves
D. all the above
E. none of the above
29. Two subdivisions of the efferent nerves are _____________ and ______________.
A. central and peripheral nervous system
B. sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
C. somatic and autonomic nervous system
D. afferent and efferent neurons
E. motor and sensory neurons
30. Nerves that transmit impulses from sensory receptors to the CNS are known as:
A. motor/efferent nerves
B. afferent/sensory nerves
C. efferent/sensory nerves
D. afferent/motor
E. A and D
31. Along a multipolar neuron, the correct pathway for impulse conduction is:
A. dendrite, axon, cell body
B. dendrite, cell body, axon
C. axon, cell body, and dendrite
D. axon, dendrite, cell body
E. cell body, axon, dendrite
32. Gray matter is a term for:
A. unmyelinated nerve fibers
B. myelinated nerve fibers
C. afferent nerve fibers
D. efferent nerve fibers
E. central nervous system
33. Which branch of the nervous system activates the fight or flight response?
A. parasympathetic nervous system
B. sympathetic nervous system
C. autonomic nervous system
D. A and C
E. B and C
34. Which branch of the nervous system controls everyday involuntary functions?
A. autonomic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. sympathetic nervous system
D. A and B
E. A and C
35. Which of the following nervous system cells are a part of the CNS?
A. satellite cells and Schwann cells
B. Schwann cells and astrocytes
C. microglia and satellite cells
D. astrocytes and microglia
E. oligodendrocytes and satellite cells
36. Which of the following would not be controlled by the autonomic nervous system?
A. skeletal muscles
B. blood vessel constriction
C. sweat glands
D. heartbeat
E. none of the above
37. Which of the following is not one of the four major anatomic regions of the brain?
A. cerebrum
B. brain stem
C. diencephalon
D. spinal cord
E. cerebellum
38. Which of the following structures is not a part of the diencephalon?
A. midbrain
B. thalamus
C. epithalamus
D. hypothalamus
E. all are part of the diencephalon
39. Which of the following structures is a part of the diencephalon?
A. pons
B. midbrain
C. epithalamus
D. medulla oblongata
E. none of the above
40. Which of the following are structures of the brain stem?
A. cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem
B. thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus
C. pons, midbrain, medulla oblongata
D. thalamus, midbrain, brain stem
E. cerebrum, brain stem, spinal cord
Chapter 8
Endocrine System
1. In comparison to the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the
endocrine system are:
A. rapid to appear but short-lived
B. slow to appear but long-lasting
C. slow to appear and short-lived
D. rapid to appear and long lasting
E. none of the above
2.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The structure referred to historically as the master gland is the:
pituitary
adrenals
hypothalamus
thyroid
none of the above
3.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the following endocrine glands is located in the neck?
pineal gland
pituitary
thymus
thyroid
none of the above
4.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which endocrine gland is long, thin and located posterior to the stomach?
Lacrimal
pancreas
pituitary
thymus
none of the above
5.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the following is an exocrine gland?
pituitary
thymus
adrenal
lacrimal
none of the above
6.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?
pineal
testes
mammary
ovary
none of the above
7.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Tropic hormones:
are produced in the posterior pituitary gland
target the hypothalamus
target other endocrine glands
all of the above
none of the above
8.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
All of the following are amino-acid hormones except:
oxytocin
cortisol
calcitonin
glucagon
none of the above
9.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
All of the following are steroid hormones except:
testosterone
aldosterone
prolactin
progesterone
none of the above
10. Which of the following is an amino-acid hormone?
A. cortisone
B. cortisol
C. aldosterone
D. prolactin
E. none of the above
11. Which of the following is a steroid hormone?
A. calcitonin
B. progesterone
C. luteinizing hormone
D. thyroid-stimulating hormone
E. none of the above
12. Which of the following is a tropic hormone?
A. antidiuretic hormone
B. aldosterone
C. adrenocorticotropin hormone
D. oxytocin
E. none of the above
13. The hormone produced by the testes and is responsible for secondary sex characteristics in
men is:
A. estrogen
B. testosterone
C. epinephrine
D. progesterone
E. none of the above
14. The hormone that stimulates uterine muscles to contract during childbirth is:
A. follicle-stimulating hormone
B. estrogen
C. oxytocin
D. progesterone
E. none of the above
15. The hormone that stimulates growth of mammary glands and milk production in nursing
mothers is:
A. Oxytocin
B. Progesterone
C. Growth hormone
D. Prolactin
E. None of the above
16. The hormone that decreases urine production in the kidneys is:
A. epinephrine
B. adrenocorticotropin hormone
C. antidiurectic hormone
D. follicle-stimulating hormone
E. none of the above
17. The production of thyroxine (T4) is stimulated by what hormone?
A. FSH
B. ACTH
C. TSH
D. Thyroid hormone
E. None of the above
18. The most powerful thyroid hormone is:
A. thyroxine (T4)
B. calcitonin
C. triiodothyronine (T3)
D. thymosin
E. none of the above
19. Which of the following is a function of glucagon?
A. promotes the entry of glucose into tissue cells
B. tends to increase blood glucose concentrations
C. tends to decrease blood glucose concentrations
D. converts glucose into glycogen
E. none of the above
20. Prolactin affects:
A. the adrenal cortex
B. body growth
C. milk production
D. skin color
E. none of the above
21. What controls the pancreas’ secretion of insulin and/or glucagon?
A. neural control
B. humoral control
C. hormonal control
D. endocrine control
E. none of the above
22. What type of control initiates the fight or flight response?
A. hormonal control
B. neural control
C. humoral control
D. endocrine control
E. none of the above
23. What type of control initiates the testes to produce testosterone?
A. neural control
B. humoral control
C. hormonal control
D. endocrine control
E. none of the above
24. The mineralocorticoids of the adrenal cortex regulate:
A. calcium balance
B. sodium balance
C. sex hormone balance
D. sugar balance
E. none of the above
25. Which of the following is an example of an exocrine gland?
A. Thymus gland
B. Thyroid gland
C. Pancreas (insulin and glucagon)
D. Pancreas (digestive enzymes)
E. None of the above
26. Which of the following is not an example of an endocrine gland?
A. Ovary
B. Pituitary
C. Salivary gland
D. Pancreas (glucagon)
E. None of the above
27. Which of the following is a mineralocorticoid?
A. cortisone
B. antidiuretic hormone
C. aldosterone
D. cortisol
E. none of the above
28. Which of the following is a glucocorticoid?
A. aldosterone
B. testosterone
C. cortisone
D. progesterone
E. none of the above
29. Which of the following is not a tropic hormone?
A. TSH
B. PRO
C. LH
D. ACTH
E. None of the above
30. Hypothalamic releasing hormones act on the:
A. adrenal cortex
B. anterior pituitary
C. adrenal medulla
D. thyroid
E. none of the above
31. The hypothalamus produces:
A. aldosterone
B. epinephrine
C. oxytocin
D. prolactin
E. none of the above
32. Which of the following hormones is produced by the hypothalamus?
A. calcitonin
B. prolactin
C. adrenocorticotropin hormone
D. antidiuretic hormone
E. none of the above
33. An abnormally high metabolic rate could be associated with the functioning of the:
A. parathyroid gland
B. posterior pituitary
C. thymus
D. thyroid gland
E. none of the above
34. The adrenal medulla secretes:
A. ACTH
B. epinephrine
C. cortisol
D. glucagon
E. none of the above
35. The gland that serves in both an exocrine and an endocrine capacity is the:
A. pituitary
B. adrenal
C. pancreas
D. ovary
E. none of the above
36. Thymosin is a hormone that plays a role in:
A. the rate of metabolism
B. immunity
C. body growth
D. maintaining early pregnancy
E. none of the above
37. The two main ways that hormones are classified are:
A. anabolic or catabolic hormones
B. steroid or amino-acid hormones
C. sex or nonsex hormones
D. tropic or hypotropic hormones
E. none of the above
38. The chemical messengers secreted by the endocrine glands are:
A. Electrolytes
B. Enzymes
C. Hormones
D. Lacrimals
E. None of the above
39. Which of the following is an example of an endocrine gland?
A. Mammary gland
B. Pancreas (digestive enzymes)
C. Lacrimal gland
D. Hypothalamus
E. None of the above
40. What are protein-based hormones called?
A. Steroid hormones
B. Glucohormones
C. Nucleohormones
D. Amino-acid hormones
E. None of the above
Chapter 9
Respiratory System
1. Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?
a. eliminating carbon dioxide from the body
b. provide the body with a constant supply of oxygen
c. filters the air
d. control the temperature of inspired air
e. all are functions of the respiratory system
2. The upper respiratory tract includes all of the following structures except the:
a. larynx
b. laryngopharynx
c. oropharynx
d. nasopharynx
e. all are upper respiratory structures
3. The lower respiratory tract includes all of the following structures except the:
a. bronchi
b. larynx
c. trachea
d. lungs
e. all are lower respiratory tract structures
4. The structure known as the “Adam’s apple” located in the neck is the:
a. epiglottis
b. cricoid cartilage
c. thymus
d. laryngopharynx
e. none of the above
5. The more common name for the trachea is the:
a. throat
b. windpipe
c. voicebox
d. nose
e. nostril
6. What is the most superior region of the pharynx?
a. oropharynx
b. pulmonopharynx
c. laryngopharynx
d. nasopharynx
e. bronchiopharynx
7. Which structure is referred to as the throat?
a. bronchi
b. pharynx
c. esophagus
d. trachea
e. conchae
8. Air-filled cavities that surround the nose are known as:
a. conchae
b. meati
c. sinuses
d. tonsils
e. none of the above
9. Which of the following is not a type of sinus:
a. sphenoidal
b. maxillary
c. ethmoidal
d. frontal
e. all are types of sinuses
10. Which of the following sinuses are located underneath the eyes?
a. maxillary sinuses
b. frontal sinuses
c. ethmoidal sinuses
d. sphenoidal sinuses
e. mandibular sinuses
11. Air sacs in the lungs where many capillaries exchange carbon dioxide for oxygen taken into
the body are known as:
a. primary bronchi
b. bronchioles
c. conchae
d. meatus
e. none of the above
12. A large muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity and helps with
breathing is the:
a. larynx
b. trachea
c. diaphragm
d. intercostal muscles
e. pharynx
13. Which of the following is a function of the respiratory system?
a. produce sound
b. gas exchange
c. transport carbon dioxide from body cell’s to the lungs
d. both a and b
e. none of the above
14. What is the name of the region of the thoracic where the heart, trachea, and esophagus are
found?
a. left pleural division
b. right pleural division
c. medial pleural division
d. mediastinum
e. all are divisions
15. How many lobes does the right lung have?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
16. Which of the following is a structure of the upper respiratory tract?
a. lungs
b. alveoli
c. epiglottis
d. bronchioles
e. trachea
17. The eustachian tube connects the nasopharynx with the:
a. trachea
b. nasal cavity
c. mouth
d. middle ear
e. none of the above
18. The “gatekeeper” of the trachea that prevents food from going “down the wrong pipe” is the:
a. glottis
b. Adam’s apple
c. epiglottis
d. superior conchae
e. none of the above
19. The most inferior portion of the pharynx is known as the:
a. oropharynx
b. nasopharynx
c. pulmonopharynx
d. laryngopharynx
e. bronchiopharynx
20. After inhaled air passes through the larynx, it immediately enters the:
a. alveoli
b. pharynx
c. bronchi
d. bronchioles
e. none of the above
21. Which other body system operates in conjunction with the respiratory system to ensure that
oxygen is delivered to all body tissues?
a. digestive system
b. pulmonary system
c. cardiovascular system
d. immune system
e. integumentary system
22. What are the passageways that fork off from the trachea into each lung?
a. primary bronchi
b. bronchioles
c. alveoli
d. secondary bronchi
e. tertiary bronchi
23. Which of the following sinuses is a series of small air cells?
a. maxillary
b. sphenoidal
c. ethmoidal
d. frontal
e. mandibular
24. Which of the following sinuses are located above the eyes?
a. maxillary sinuses
b. frontal sinuses
c. ethmoidal sinuses
d. sphenoidal sinuses
e. mandibular sinuses
25. Paranasal sinuses are normally filled with:
a. bone marrow
b. air
c. serous fluid
d. mucus
e. hormones
26. The main site for gas exchange in the lungs takes place in the:
a. bronchioles
b. secondary bronchi
c. primary bronchi
d. alveoli
e. all of the above
27. How many lobes are in the left lung?
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
e. 1
28. The inner membrane of the thin, double-walled serous membrane that surrounds the lungs is
known as the __________ and it covers the lungs and dips into fissures.
a. parietal pleura
b. visceral pleura
c. mediastinum
d. parietal pericardium
e. visceral pericardium
29. The measure of the amount of air that can be expired immediately after a normal exhalation
is:
a. expiratory reserve volume
b. inspiratory reserve volume
c. tidal volume
d. functional residual capacity
e. none of the above
30. This refers to the continuous moving of air into and out of the lungs:
a. internal respiration
b. external respiration
c. inspiratory volume
d. pulmonary ventilation
e. pulmonary volume
31. Another word for “breathing in” air is:
a. infiltration
b. inhalation
c. exhalation
d. both a and b
e. none of the above
32. The average respiratory rate for adults is between ______ and _______ breaths in one
minute.
a. 8-10
b. 10-12
c. 12-15
d. 15-18
e. 30-35
33. The measure of the amount of air that remains in the lungs after a normal expiration is:
a. residual volume
b. expiratory reserve volume
c. vital capacity
d. functional residual capacity
e. none of the above
34. A nonrespiratory air maneuver that is a result of a need to clear dust or debris from the lower
respiratory tract is:
a. cough
b. sneeze
c. hiccup
d. yawn
e. burp
35. Another word for “breathing out” is:
a. expiration
b. exhalation
c. inhalation
d. both a and b
e. none of the above
36. The measure of the amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled after a maximal inhalation
is:
a. residual volume
b. expiratory reserve volume
c. vital capacity
d. functional residual capacity
e. none of the above
37. Which of the following is a structure of the upper respiratory tract?
a. lungs
b. trachea
c. bronchioles
d. primary bronchi
e. none of the above
38. The outer membrane of the thin, double-walled serous membrane that surrounds the lungs is
known as the __________ and it lines the thoracic wall and diaphragm.
a. visceral pleura
b. parietal pleura
c. mediastinum
d. parietal pericardium
e. visceral pericardium
39. Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?
a. air distribution
b. producing sound
c. deliver oxygen to the body’s cells
d. provides a sense of smell
e. all are functions of the respiratory system
40. Air sacs in the lungs where many capillaries exchange carbon dioxide for oxygen taken into
the body are known as:
a. bronchi
b. alveoli
c. trachea
d. conchae
e. meati
Chapter 11
Cardiovascular System
1.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Normal heart rate for a person is considered to be ________bpm.
52-62
62-72
72-82
82-92
none of the above
2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following vessels carries blood from the lungs to the heart?
aorta
pulmonary vein
inferior vena cava
pulmonary artery
superior vena cava
3.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The order of blood flow through the vessels is:
arterioles, venules, capillaries, arteries, and veins
veins, venules, capillaries, arteries, arterioles
arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins
arterioles, arteries, capillaries, veins, and venules
capillaries, arteries, veins, arterioles, venules
4.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which is true of the arteries?
They always carry oxygenated blood away from the heart.
They always carry deoxygenated blood away from the heart.
They always carry blood away from the heart.
They always carry blood toward the heart.
None of the above
5. The following is the correct order for blood flow during pulmonary and systemic
circulation.
a. right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body, right atrium
b. right ventricle, right atrium, lungs, left ventricle, left atrium, body
c. left ventricle, body, right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium
d. both A and C
e. none of the above
6.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The total amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute is called ___________.
stroke volume
cardiac output
blood pressure
heart rate
vasoconstriction
7.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The largest vein in the body is the:
aorta
superior vena cava
inferior vena cava
brachial vein
femoral vein
8.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The largest artery in the body is the:
femoral artery
inferior vena cava
radial artery
aorta
superior vena cava
9.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following vessels carries blood from the heart to the lungs?
pulmonary veins
superior vena cava
aorta
pulmonary arteries
inferior vena cava
10. From the right atrium, blood goes through the _________ valve and enters the ______
ventricle. Then it is pumped through the __________ arteries to the lungs.
a. semilunar, right, aortic
b. tricuspid, left, pulmonary
c. tricuspid, right, pulmonary
d. bicuspid, right, pulmonary
e. mitral, left, aortic
11. If this valve were damaged, it could allow blood to leak back into the left atrium.
a. tricuspid valve
b. aortic semilunar valve
c. pulmonary semilunar valve
d. bicuspid valve
e. none of the above
12. The left atrioventricular valve is also called the:
a. mitral
b. tricuspid
c. semilunar
d. both A and B
e. both B and C
13. When the blood is pumped out the right ventricle, it goes through the _______ valve and out
the _______ to the lungs.
a. mitral, aorta
b. aortic, aorta
c. pulmorary, pulmonary arteries
d. tricuspid, right ventricle
e. bicuspid, pulmorary arteries
14. All arteries of the systemic circulation branch from the:
a. aorta
b. superior vena cava
c. pulmonary artery
d. inferior vena cava
e. none of the above
15. The pulmonary and aortic valves are also called:
a. cuspid valves
b. aortic valves
c. pulmonary valves
d. semilunar valves
e. none of the above
16. The correct layers of the heart from deep to superficial are:
a. epicardium, myocardium, and pericardium
b. epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium
c. endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium
d. myocardium, pericardium, and endocardium
e. none of the above
17. Respectively, the right and left atrioventricular valves are also known as:
a. bicuspid, tricuspid
b. mitral, bicuspid
c. tricuspid, mitral
d. bicuspid, mitral
e. mitral, tricuspid
18. When the blood is pumped out the left ventricle, it goes through the _______ valve and out
the _______ to the rest of the body.
a. mitral, aorta
b. aortic, aorta
c. pulmorary, pulmary arteries
d. tricuspid, right ventricle
e. bicuspid, pulmorary arteries
19. The muscular layer of the heart wall is the:
a. pericardium
b. myocardium
c. endocardium
d. epicardium
e. serous pericardium
20. The internal layer of tissue in the heart that lines the chambers is the:
a. pericardium
b. myocardium
c. endocardium
d. epicardium
e. fibrous pericardium
21. Which of the following is a semilunar valve?
a. mitral
b. tricuspid
c. pulmonary
d. bicuspid
e. none of the above
22. The brachial artery would be located ___________.
a. in the thigh
b. in the lower leg
c. in the upper arm
d. in the neck
e. none of the above
23. The radial artery would be located ___________.
a. in the wrist
b. in the lower leg
c. in the upper arm
d. in the neck
e. none of the above
24. The carotid artery would be located ___________.
a. in the thigh
b. in the lower leg
c. in the upper arm
d. in the neck
e. none of the above
25. Which of the following is not true of the ventricles?
a. They are the inferior chambers of the heart.
b. They are separated from the atria by the bicuspid and tricuspid valves.
c. They are the main pumping chambers.
d. They are separated from the atria by semilunar valves.
e. All of the above are true of ventricles.
Chapter 13
Digestive System
1.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
How many layers of muscle tissue are contained in the wall of the stomach?
one
two
three
four
five
2.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The part of the tooth that you can see is the:
crown
neck
root
gingiva
root canal
3.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
In adult teeth, tooth #23 is known as what type of tooth?
lateral incisors
bicuspids
1st molar
2nd molar
canines
4.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The most inferior region of the pharynx is the:
oropharynx
laryngopharynx
nasopharynx
oral cavity
nasal cavity
5.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The organ that connects the oral cavity to the esophagus is the:
stomach
small intestine
large intestine
pharynx
colon
6.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What organ connects the throat to the stomach?
small intestine
esophagus
pharynx
duodenum
large intestine
7.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The esophagus lies ___________ to the windpipe.
anterior
posterior
superior
inferior
both a and c
8.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The folds on the internal wall of the stomach is known as:
villi
papilla
rugae
microvilli
cilia
9.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
When this structure relaxes, chyme can pass from the stomach into the small intestines?
ileocecal valve
anal sphincter
pyloric sphincter
orbicularis oris
duodenal ampulla
10. The upper end of the stomach is known as the:
A. body of the stomach
B. head of the stomach
C. fundus
D. pylorus
E. duodenum
11. The lower end of the stomach is known as the:
A. fundus
B. pyloric region
C. duodenum
D. body of the stomach
E. head of the stomach
12. The layers of the GI tract in order, from inside to outside is:
A. serosa, muscularis externa, submucosa, and mucosa
B. muscularis externa, submucosa, mucosa, and serosa
C. mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa
D. serosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and mucosa
E. submucosa, mucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa
13. Which of the following foods is classified as a carbohydrate?
A. grains
B. olive oil
C. butter
D. fish
E. all are carbohydrates
14. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
A. A
B. B6
C. D
D. K
E. potassium
15. Which of the following is a mineral?
A. folate
B. niacin
C. calcium
D. thiamine
E. glucose
16. The numerous small elevations on the surface of the tongue that support taste buds are called:
A. cilia
B. rugae
C. villi
D. papillae
E. microvilli
17. The tooth type that does not appear in deciduous teeth is:
A. incisors
B. bicuspids
C. first molars
D. second molars
E. both c and d
18. The proper anatomical order for the divisions of the colon is as food would pass through
them is:
A. sigmoid, ascending, transverse, and descending
B. ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid
C. descending, transverse, sigmoid, and ascending
D. ascending, transverse, sigmoid, and descending
E. transverse, ascending, sigmoid, and descending
19. Which of the following foods would be high in protein?
A. grains
B. olive oil
C. butter
D. fish
E. all are carbohydrates
20. Digested food goes through the ____________ to enter the small intestine.
A. duodenal ampulla
B. duodenal papilla
C. pylorus
D. fundus
E. none of the above
21. The walls of the GI tract (excluding the stomach) are composed of ______ layers of tissue.
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
E. five
22. What is a mass of masticated food in the esophagus that is ready to be passed into the
stomach?
A. pylorus
B. bolus
C. bile
D. cardia
E. chyme
23. What is the innermost layer of muscle tissue called in the stomach?
A. oblique muscle layer
B. circular muscle layer
C. longitudinal muscle layer
D. latitudinal muscle layer
E. none of the above
24. When a bolus leaves the esophagus, it immediately enters the:
A. duodenum
B. fundus
C. pyloric region
D. cardia
E. cecum
25. The process of muscles contracting for the purpose of moving food particles along the GI
tract is called:
A. absorption
B. peristalsis
C. ingestion
D. defecation
E. chemical digestion
26. Put the following in the order that food would pass through them.
A. pharynx, pylorus, jejunum, esophagus, rectum
B. esophagus, cecum, ileum, pharynx, duodenum
C. rectum, cecum, pharynx, jejunum, esophagus
D. pharynx, esophagus, pylorus, duodenum, rectum
E. pylorus, duodenum, rectum, pharynx, cecum
27. Put the following in the order that food would pass through them.
A. ileum, cecum, ascending colon, descending colon, rectum, esophagus, pyloric region
B. ascending colon, descending colon, rectum, esophagus, pyloric region, ileum, cecum
C. esophagus, pyloric region, ileum, cecum, descending colon, ascending colon, rectum
D. pyloric region, esophagus, ileum, cecum, ascending colon, descending colon, rectum
E. esophagus, pyloric region, ileum, cecum, ascending colon, descending colon, rectum
28. Which of the following organs can act as an endocrine gland and an exocrine gland?
A. liver
B. pancreas
C. gall bladder
D. stomach
E. none of the above
29. Put the following in the order that food would pass through them.
A. pylorus, jejunum, ileocecal valve, cecum, rectum, fundus
B. jejunum, ileocecal valve, cecum, rectum, fundus, pylorus,
C. fundus, pylorus, ileocecal valve, jejunum, cecum, rectum
D. fundus, pylorus, jejunum, ileocecal valve, cecum, rectum
E. cecum, rectum, fundus, pylorus, jejunum, ileocecal valve
30. The shortest portion of the small intestine is the:
A. jejunum
B. ileum
C. duodenum
D. colon
E. cecum
31. The longest portion of the small intestine is the:
A. jejunum
B. ileum
C. duodenum
D. colon
E. cecum
32. Secretions from the liver, gall bladder, and pancreas are delivered to the ___________
through the ____________.
A. jejunum, jejunal ampulla
B. duodenum, duodenal villus
C. ileum, duodenal ampulla
D. duodenum, duodenal ampulla
E. jejunum, duodenal villus
33. The contents of the stomach are emptied into the:
A. cecum
B. ileum
C. jejunum
D. duodenum
E. colon
34. After leaving the stomach, chyme enters the:
A. large intestine
B. small intestine
C. esophagus
D. rectum
E. colon
35. Which of the following is not an anatomical part of the small intestine?
A. duodenum
B. ileum
C. jejunum
D. cecum
E. all are parts of the small intestine
36. The brush border of the intestinal mucosa consists of:
A. papilla
B. microvilli
C. cilia
D. villi
E. none of the above
37. The major site for the absorption of nutrients is the:
A. ileum
B. duodenum
C. cecum
D. jejunum
E. stomach
38. Which of the following is associated with the large intestine?
A. cecum
B. fundus
C. ileum
D. pyloric sphincter
E. duodenum
39. Under normal conditions, how many permanent teeth are there?
A. 16
B. 20
C. 24
D. 28
E. 32
40. In adult teeth, tooth #14 is known as what type of tooth?
A. lateral incisors
B. bicuspids
C. 1st molar
D. 2nd molar
E. canines