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Answers Physics Model Question Paper 01: (For Class 11 and 12 and PreMedical/Engineering Entrance) 1. 2. 3. 4. A ball rests upon a flat piece of paper on a table top. The paper is pulled horizontally but quickly towards right as shown. Relative to its initial position with respect to the table, the ball _____. Answer: ( C ) (a) remains stationary if there is no friction between the paper and the ball. (b) moves to the left and starts rolling backwards, i.e. to the left if there is a friction between the paper and the ball. (c) moves forward, i.e. in the direction in which the paper is pulled. Here, the correct statement/s is/are _____ . (A) only (a) (B) only (b) (C) both (a) and (b) physics questions (D) only (c) A boy throws a cricket ball from the boundary to the wicketkeeper. If the frictional force due to air cannot be ignored, the forces acting on the bal at a position X are represented by _____. Answer: ( A ) A convex lens is made of 3 layers of glass of 3 different materials as in the figure. A point object is placed on its axis. The number of images of the object are (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 A current I is flowing through the loop. The direction of the current and the shape of the loop are as shown in the figure. Answer: ( A ) Answer: ( The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is times______. (MA=R, MB=2R, DMA:90°) (A) 5. 6. B ) , but out of the plane of the paper. (B) , but into the plane of the paper. (C) , but out of the plane of the paper. (D) , but 1nto the plane of the paper. A point object O is kept at a distance of OP = u. The radius of curvature of the spherical surface APB is CP = R. The refractive indexes of the media are n1 and n2 which are as shown in the diagram. Then, a) if n1 > n2, image is virtual for all values of 'u'. b) if n2 = 2n1, image is virtual when R > u. c) the image is real for all values of u, n1 and n2. Here, the correct statement/s is/are ______. (A) only a) (B) a), b) and c) (C) only b) (D) both a) and b) A, B and C are the parallel sided transparent media of refractive index n1, n2 and n3 respectively. They are arranged as shown in the figure. A ray is incident at an angle on the surface of separation of A and B which is as shown in the figure. After the refraction into the medium B, the ray grazes the surface of separation of the media B and C. Then, Sin = ______. Answer: ( D ) Answer: ( C ) (A) (B) (C) 7. 8. (D) All capacitors used in the diagram are identical and each is of capacitance C. Then the effective capacitance between the points A and B is ______. (A) C (B) 3 C (C) 1.5C (D) 6 C An electron enters the space between the plates of a charged capacitor as shown. The charge density on the plate is . Electric intensity in the space between the plates is E. A uniform magnetic field B also exists in that space perpendicular to the direction of E. The electron moves perpendicular to both any change in direction. and without The time taken by the electron to travel a distance l in that space is ______. (A) (B) Answer: ( C ) Answer: ( A ) (C) 9. 10. (D) An ideal gas is taken via path ABCA as shown in figure. The network done in the whole cycle is Answer: ( B ) (A) 3P1 V1 (B) 3 P1 V1 (C) 6 P1 V1 (D) zero Assume the graph of specific binding energy versus mass number is as shown in the figure. Using this graph, select the correct choice from the following : Answer: ( D ) (A) Fusion of two nuclei of mass number lying in the range of 1 <A < 50 will release energy. (B) Fission of the nucleus of mass number lying in the range of 100 < A < 200 will release energy when broken into two fragments. (C) Fusion of two nuclei of mass number lying in the range of 100 < A < 200 will release energy. (D) Fusion of two nuclei of mass number lying in the range of 51 < A < 100 will release energy. Physics Model Question Paper 2: (For Class 11 and 12 and PreMedical/Engineering Entrance) Answers 1. B1, B2 and B3 are the three identical bulbs connected to a battery of steady e.m.f. with key K closed. What happens to the brightness of the bulbs B 1 and Answer: ( A B2 when the key is opened? ) (A) Brightness of the bulb, B1 decreases and that of B2increases. (B) Brightness of the bulbs B1 and B2 decreases. (C) Brightness of the bulbs B1 increases and that of B2decreases. (D) Brightness of the bulbs B1 and B2 increases. 2. Current 'I' is flowing in a conductor shaped as shown in the figure. The radius of the curved part is r and the length of straight portion is very large. The value of the magnetic field at the centre O will be Answer: ( A ) (A) (B) (C) (D) 3. Figure shows a mixture of blue, green and red colored rays incident normally on a right angled prism. The critical angles of the material of the prism for red, green and blue are 46, 44and 43 respectively. The arrangement will separate (A) red colour from blue and green Answer: ( A ) (B) blue colour from red and green (C) green colour from red and blue (D) all the three colours. 4. Identify the logic operation performed by the circuit given here. Answer: ( C ) (A) NOT (B) NAND (C) OR (D) NOR 5. In the circuit given here, the points A, B and C are 70 V, zero, 10 V respectively. Then G (A) currents in the paths AD, DB and DC are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. (B) currents in the paths AB, DB and DC are in the ratio of 3 : 2: 1. (C) the point D will be at a potential of 60 V. (D) the point D will be at a potential of 20 V. 6. PQ and RS are long parallel conductors separated by certain distance. M is the midpoint between them (see the figure).The net magnetic field at M is B. Now, the current 2A is switched off. The field at M now becomes ______. Answer: ( D ) (A) (B) 3B (C) 2B (D) 3 7. The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is 9 times that of steel. In the composite cylindrical bar shown in the figure, what will be the temperature at the junction of copper and steel? Answer: ( A ) (A) 75°C (B) 67°C (C) 25°C (D) 33°C 8. The equivalent resistance between the points A and B will be (each resistance is 15 ) Answer: ( B ) (A) 30 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 40 9. The moment of inertia of a circular disc of radius 2 m and mass 1 kg about an axis passing through the centre of mass but perpendicular to the plane of the disc is 2 kgm2. Its moment of inertia about an axis parallel to this axis but passing through the edge of the disc is ______ (See the given figure). Answer: ( B ) (A) 10 kgm2 (B) 6 kgm2 (C) 8 kgm2 (D) 4 kg m2 10. The resultant force on the current loop PQRS due to a long current carrying conductor will be Answer: ( D ) (A) 104 N (B) 3.6 104 N (C) 1.8 104 N (D) 5 104 N Physics Model Question Paper 3: (For Class 11 and 12 and Pre-Medical/Engineering Entrance) Answers Q. 1. The total energy stored in the condenser system shown in the figure will be Answer: (C) (A) 2 J (B) 4 J (C) 8 J (D) 16 J Q. 2. Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance d as shown in the figure. The work done on the particle during its displacement of 12 m is Answer: (A) (A) 13 J (B) 18 J (C) 21 J (D) 26 J Q. 3. The value of alternating emf E in the given circuit will be Answer: (C) (A) 220 V (B) 140 V (C) 100 V (D) 20 V Q. 4. There is a uniform electric field of intensity E which is as shown. How many labeled points have the same electric potential as the fully shaded point? Answer: (D) (A) 8 (B) 11 (C) 2 (D) 3 Q. 5. Three voltmeters A, B and C having resistances R, 1.5 R and 3R respectively are used in a circuit as shown. When a P.D. is applied between X and Y, the reading of the voltmeters are V1, V2 and V3 respectively. Then ______. Answer: (C) (A) V1 > V2 > V3 (B) V1 > V2 = V3 (C) V1 = V2 = V3 (D) V1 < V2 = V3 Q. 6. Four electric charges +q, +q, –q and –q are placed at the corners of a square of side 2L (see figure). The electric potential at point A, midway between the two charges +q and +q, is (A) Zero (B) (C) (D) Answer: (D) Q. 7. To get an output y = 1 from the circuit shown, the inputs A, B and C must be respectively Answer: (C) (A) 0, 1, 0 (B) 1, 0, 0 (C) 1, 0, 1 (D) 1, 1, O Q. 8. Two small spheres of masses M1, and M2 are suspended by weightless insulating threads of lengths L1, and L2. The spheres carry charges of Q 1, and Q2 respectively. The spheres are suspended such that they are in level with one another and the threads are inclined to the vertical at angles of 8, and 0, as shown. Which one of the following conditions is essential, if , = 2? Answer: (D) (A) Q1 = Q2 (B) L1 = L2 (C) M1 ≠ M2, but Q1 = Q2 (D) M1 = M2 Q. 9. Two thick wires and two thin wires, all of same material and same length, form a square in three different ways P, Q and R as shown in the figure. With correct connections shown, the magnetic field due to the current flow, at the centre of the loop will be zero in case of ______. Answer: (B) (A) P and Q only (B) P and R only (C) Q and R only (D) P only Q. 10. A current carrying closed loop in the form of a right angle isosceles triangle ABC is placed in a uniform magnetic field acting along AB. If the magnetic force on the arm BC is , the force on the arm AC is Answer: (C) (A) (B) (C) (D) Physics Model Question Paper 4: (For Class 11 and 12 and Pre- Answers Medical/Engineering Entrance) Q 1. A and B are two infinitely long straight parallel conductors. C is another straight conductor of length 1 m kept parallel to A and B as shown in the figure. Then the force experienced by C is (A) towards B equal to 0.6 (B) towards A equal to 5.4 (C) towards B equal to 5.4 (D) towards A equal to 0.6 105 N 105 N 105 N 105 N Q 2. A parallel plate capacitor with air as the dielectric has capacitance C. A slab of dielectric constant K and having the same thickness as the separation between the plates is introduced so as to fill one-fourth of the capacitor as shown in the figure. The new capacitance will be (A) (B) Answer: (A) Answer: (D) (C) (D) Q 3. If power dissipated in the 9 resistor in the circuit shown is 36 Watt, the potential difference across the 2 resistor is Answer: (D) (A) 2 Volt (B) 4 Volt (C) 8 Volt (D) 10 Volt Q 4. In the Wheatstone's network given below, P = 10 , Q = 20, R = 15 , S = 30The current passing through the battery (of negligible internal resistance) is Answer: (D) (A) 0.72 A (B) 0.18 A (C) 0 A (D) 0.36 A Q 5. Symbolic representation of four logic gates are shown as Answer: (A) Pick out which ones are for AND, NAND and NOT gates, respectively: (A) (ii), (iv) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (C) (iii), (ii) and (i) (D) (iii), (ii) and (iv) Q 6. The current passing through the ideal ammeter in the circuit given below is Answer: (C) (A) 0.5 A (B) 0.75 A (C) 1 A (D) 1.25 A Q 7. Three long straight wires A, B and C are carrying currents as shown in figure. Then the resultant force on B is directed _______. Answer: (B) (A) towards A. (B) towards C. (C) perpendicular to the plane of paper and outward. (D) perpendicular to the plane of paper and inward. Q 8. Two identical rods AC and CB made of two different metals having thermal conductivities in the ratio 2 : 3 are kept in contact with each other at the end C as shown in the figure. A is at 100°C and B is at 25°C. Then the junction C is at Answer: (D) (A) 50°C (B) 75°C (C) 60°C (D) 5s°C Q 9. Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of maximum kinetic energy (EK) of the emitted electrons with frequency in photoelectric effect correctly? Answer: (D) (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Q 10. Effective capacitance between A and B in the figure shown is (all capacitances are in µ F) Answer: (D) (A) 21 µ F (B) 23 µ F (C) µF (D) µF Physics Model Question Paper 5: (For Class 11 and 12 and Answers Pre-Medical/Engineering Entrance) (1) A body of mass M starts sliding down on the inclined plane where the critical angle is ACB = 30° as shown in figure. The coefficient of kinetic friction will be Answer: (C) (A) Mg/ (B) Mg (C) (D) None of these (2) A neutron, a proton, an electron and an - particle enter a region of uniform magnetic field with the same velocities. The magnetic field is perpendicular and directed into the plane of the paper. The tracks of the particles are labelled in the figure. The electron follows the track Answer: (A) (A) D (B) C (C) B (D) A (3) An n-p-n transistor can be considered to be equivalent to two diodes, connected. Which of the following figures is the CORRECT ONE? Answer: (C) (4) Block A of mass 2 kg is placed over block B of mass 8 kg. The combination is placed over a rough horizontal surface. Coefficient of friction between B and the floor is 0.5. Coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.4. A horizontal force of 10 N is applied on block B. The force of friction between A and B is ______. (A) zero (B) 50 N (C) 40 N (D) 100 N (5) Consider the following statements regarding the network shown in the figure. a) The equivalent resistance of the network between points A and B is independent of value of G. b) The equivalent resistance of the network between points A and B is c) The current through G is zero. Which of the above statements is/are TRUE? Answer: (A) Answer: (A) R. (A) (a), (b) and ( c) (B) (b) and (c) (C) (b) alone (D) (a) alone (6) Consider two insulated chambers (A, B) of same volume connected by a closed knob, S. 1 mole of perfect gas is confined in chamber A. What is the change in entropy of gas when knob S is opened? R = 8.31 J mol–1K–1. (A) 1.46 J/K (B) 3.46 J/K (C) 5.46 J/K (D) 7.46 J/K (7) Current through ABC and A'B'C' is I. What is the magnetic field at P? BP = PB' = r (Here C'B' PBC are collinear) (A) B = (B) B = Answer: (C) Answer: (B) (C) B = (D) Zero (8) Five equal resistance, each of resistance R, are connected as shown in figure below. A battery of V volt is connected between A and B. The current flowing in FC will be Answer: (C) (A) (B) (C) (D) (9) In the case of forward biasing of a p-n junction diode, which one of the following figures correctly depicts the direction of conventional current (indicated by an arrow mark)? (10) In the circuit shown, the currents i1 and i2 are ______. Answer: (A) Answer: (C) (A) i1 = 3 A, i2 = 1 A (B) i1 = 1 A, i2 = 3 A (C) i1 = 0.5 A, i2 = 1.5 A (D) i1 = 1.5 A, i2 = 0.5 A Circular motion’s questions: No. Question Answers(Click here to see answers) 1 A body is allowed to slide on a frictional less track from rest under-gravity. The track ends in a circular loop of diameter D. What should be the minimum height of the body in terms of D, so that it may successfully complete the loop? (a) D (b) D (c) D (d) 2D 2 A body is moving along a circular path with variable speed. It has (a) a radial acceleration (b) a tangential acceleration (c) zero acceleration (d) both tangential and radial accelerations 3 A body is traveling in a circle at constant speed. It (a) has constant velocity. (b) has no acceleration (c) has an inward acceleration (d) has an outward radial acceleration 4 A body of mass 100 gram, tied at the end of a string of length 3 m rotates in a vertical circle and is just able to complete the circle. If the tension in the string at its lowest point is 3.7 N, then its angular velocity will be ______ (g = 10 m/s2) (a) 4 rad/s (b) 3 rad/s (c) 2 rad/s (d) 1 rad/s 5 A body of mass 500 gram is rotating in a vertical circle of radius 1 m. What is the difference in its kinetic energies at the top and the bottom of the circle? (a) 4.9 J (b) 19.8 J (c) 2.8 J (d) 9.8 J 6 A body of mass m is suspended from a string of length l. What is the minimum horizontal velocity that should be given to the body in its lowest position so that it may complete full revolution in the vertical plane with the point of suspension at the center of circle? (a) (b) (c) (d) 7 A body of mass m performing UCM with frequency n along the circumference of circle having radius r, force is given by (a) 4nm2 (b) 42n2m (c) 2n2mr (d) nm2 8 A bucket containing water is tied to one end of a rope of length 2.5 m and rotated about the other end in a vertical circle. What should be the minimum velocity of the bucket at the highest point, so that the water in the bucket will not spill? (g = 10 m/s2) (a) 2.5 m/s (b) 4 m/s (c) 5 m/s (d) 7 m/s 9 A bucket tied at the end of a 1.6 m long string is whirled in a vertical circle with a constant speed. What should be the minimum speed so that the water from the bucket does not spill when the bucket is at the highest position? (a) 4 m/sec. (b) 6.25 m/sec. (c) 16 m/sec. (d) None of these 10 A can filled with water is revolved in a vertical circle of radius 4 metre and the water does not fall down. The time period of revolution will be (a) 1 sec (b) 10 sec (c) 8 sec (d) 4 sec 11 A car has a linear velocity v on a circular track of radius r. If its speed is increasing at a rate of a m/s 2, then its resultant acceleration will be (a) (b) (c) (d) 12. A car is moving in a circular track of radius 10 metre with a constant speed of 10 m/sec. A plumb bob is suspended from the roof of the car by a light rigid rod of 1 metre long. The angle made by the rod with the track is (a) zero (b) 30 (c) 45 (d) 60 13 A car is moving in horizontal circular track of radius 10 m, with a constant speed of 36 km/hour. A simple pendulum is suspended from the roof of the car. If the length of the simple pendulum is 1 m, what is the angle made by the string with the track? (a) 30 (b) 45 (c) 60 (d) 90 14 A car is moving on a circular path and takes a turn. If R1 and R2 are the reactions on the inner and outer wheels respectively, then (a) R1 = R2 (b) R1 < R2 (c) R1 > R2 (d) R1 R2 15 A car is moving with a speed of 30 m/s on a circular path of radius 500 m. Its speed is increasing at the rate of 2 m/s2. The acceleration of the car is (a) 9.8 m/s2 (b) 1.8 m/2 (c) 2 m/s2 (d) 2.7 m/s2 15 A car moving on a horizontal road may be thrown out of the road is taking a turn (a) by the gravitational force (b) due to the lack of proper centripetal force (c) due to the lack of frictional force between the tire and the road (d) due to the reaction of the ground 17 A car of mass 1000 kg moves on a circular road with a speed of 20 m/s. Its direction changes by 90 after traveling 628 m on the road. The centripetal force acting on the car is (a) 500 N (b) 1000 N (c) 1500 N (d) 2000 N 18 A car of mass 800 kg moves on a circular track of radius 40 m. If the coefficient of friction is 0.5, then maximum velocity with which the car can move is (a) 7 m/s (b) 14 m/s (c) 8 m/s (d) 12 m/s 19 A car sometimes overturns while taking a turn. When it overturns, it is (a) the inner wheel which leaves the ground first (b) the outer wheel which leaves the ground first (c) both the wheel leave the ground simultaneously (d) either inner wheel or the outer wheel leaves the ground 20 A coin kept on a rotating gramophone disc just begins to slip if its centre is at a distance of 8 cm from the centre of the disc. The angular velocity of the gramophone disc is then doubled. Through what distance, the coin should be shifted towards the centre, so that the coin will just slip? (a) 2 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 16 cm 21 A cyclist goes round a circular path of circumference 343 m in s. The angle made by him, with the vertical is (a) 42 (b) 43 (c) 44 (d) 45 22 A cyclist is moving in a circular track of radius 80 m, with a velocity of 36 km/hour. In order to keep his balance, he has to lean inwards from the vertical through an angle . If g = 10 m/s2, then is given by (a) tan1 (2) (b) tan1 (4) (c) tan1 (d) tan1 23 A cyclist turns around a curve at 15 miles per hour. If he turns at double the speed, the tendency of overturn is (a) doubled (b) quadrupled (c) halved (d) unchanged 24 A fighter aeroplane flying in the sky dives with a speed of 360 km/hr in a vertical circle of radius 200 m. Weight of the pilot sitting in it is 75 kg. What will be the value of force with which the pilot presses his seat when the aeroplane is at highest position (g = 10 m/s2) (a) 3000 N (b) 1500 N (c) (75 g)N (d) 300 N 25 A frictional track ABCDE ends in a circular loop of radius R, body slides down the track from point A which is at a height h of 5 cm. Maximum value of R for the body to successfully complete the loop is: (a) 5 cm (b) cm (c) cm (d) 2 cm Answers to Circular Motion, Paper 1 (Top) 1. Answer: B 2. Answer: D Answers to Circular Motion, Paper 1 (Top) 1. Answer: B 2. Answer: D 3. Answer: C 4. Answer: B 5. Answer: D 6. Answer: D 7. Answer: B 8. Answer: C 9. Answer: A 10. Answer: D 11. Answer: A 12. Answer: C 13. Answer: B 14. Answer: B 15. Answer: D 16. Answer: C 17. Answer: B 18. Answer: B 19. Answer: A 20. Answer: A 21. Answer: D 22. Answer: D 23. Answer: B 24. Answer: B 25. Answer: D 3. Answer: C 4. Answer: B 5. Answer: D 6. Answer: No. Question 1 A man whirls a stone of mass 250 gram, tied at the end of a string of length 2 m in a horizontal circle and at a height of 5 m from the ground. The string breaks and the stone flies off tangenitially and strikes the ground at a horizontal distance of 10 m from the man. What was the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration of the stone, when it was moving in the circle? (g = 10 m/s 2) (a) 50 m/s2 (b) 40 m/s2 (c) 30 m/s2 (d) 25 m/s2 A mass of 5 kg is tied to a string of length 1.0 m and is rotated in vertical circle with a uniform speed of 4 m/s. The tension in the string will be 130 N when the mass is at (g = 10 m/s 2) (a) highest point (b) mid way (c) bottom (d) cannot be justified A mass suspended on a frictional less horizontal surface. It is attached to a string and rotates about a fixed centre at an angular velocity 0. If length of the string and angular velocity are doubled the tension in the string which was initially T 0 is now (a) T0 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 Answers(Click here to see answers) (b) (c) 4 T0 (d) 8 T0 A metal sphere of mass 0.1 kg is attached to an inextensible string of length 130 cm whose upper end is fixed to the rigid support. If the sphere is made to describe a horizontal circle of radius 50 cm, the time for its one revolution is near about (a) 1.2 sec (b) 2.2 sec (c) 1.5 sec (d) 3 sec A motor cyclist loops a vertical circular loop of diameter 18 m, without dropping down, even at the highest point of the loop. What should be his minimum speed at the lowest point of the loop? (a) 10 m/s (b) 16 m/s (c) 21 m/s (d) 30 m/s A motor cyclist moving with a velocity of 75 km/hr on a flat road takes a turn on the road at a point where the radius of curvature of the road is 20 m. If the g is 10 m/s2 the maximum angle of banking with vertical for no skidding is (a) tan1 (6) (b) tan1 (2) (c) tan1 (12) (d) tan1 (4) A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude which is always perpendicular to the velocity of the particle. The motion takes place in a plane. It follows that (a) its velocity is constant (b) its acceleration is constant (c) its motion is linear (d) its motion is circular A particle is moving along a circular path. Let v, , and ac be its linear velocity, angular velocity, angular acceleration and centripetal acceleration respectively. Which is the wrong statement from the followings? (a) (b) (c) 9 10 (d) A particle is performing a U.C.M. Which is the wrong statement regarding its motion? (a) The velocity vector is tangential to the circle (b) The acceleration vector is tangential to the circle (c) The acceleration vector is directed towards the centre of the circle (d) The velocity and acceleration vectors are perpendicular to each other A particle is performing U.C.M. along a circular path of radius r, with a uniform speed v. Its tangential and radial acceleration are (a) zero and infinite (b) 11 12 13 and zero (c) zero and (d) r2 and infinite A particle moves in a circular path of radius r, in half of its period. Its displacement and distance covered are, (a) 2r, 2r (b) r , r (c) 2r, r (d) r, r A particle moving in a circle of radius 25 cm at 2 revolutions per second. The acceleration of the particle is S.I. unit is (a) 42 (b) 32 (c) 22 (d) 2 A particle of mass ‘m’ moves with a constant speed along a circular path of radius r under the action of a force F. Its speed is given by (a) (b) (c) 14 (d) A particle of mass m is executing uniform circular motion on a path of radius r. If P is the magnitude of its linear momentum, then, the radial force acting on the particle is, (a) pmr (b) (c) 15 16 17 (d) A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of radius R with uniform speed v. When it moves from one point to a diametrically opposite point its (a) kinetic energy changes by Mv2/4 (b) momentum does not change (c) momentum changes by 2 Mv2 (d) kinetic energy changes by Mv2 A particle P is moving in a circle of radius ‘a’ with uniform speed v. C is the centre of the circle and AP is diameter. The angular velocity of P about A and C are in the ratio (a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:1 (d) 4:1 A particle rests on the top of a hemisphere of radius R. The smallest horizontal velocity that must be imparted to the particle if it is to leave the hemisphere without sliding down is (a) (b) (c) 18 19 (d) A particle revolves round a circular path. The acceleration of the particle is (a) along the circumference of the circle (b) along the tangent (c) along the radius (d) zero A person with his hands in his pocket is skating on ice at the rate of 10 m/s and describes a circle of radius 50 m. What is his inclination to the vertical? (g = 10 m/s2) (a) tan1 (b) tan1 (c) tan1 (d) tan1 20 21 A pulley one metre in diameter rotating at 600 r.p.m. is brought to rest in 80 sec. by a constant force of friction on its shaft. How many revolutions does it makes before coming to rest? (a) 200 (b) 300 (c) 400 (d) 500 A satellite has mass m speed v and radius r, the force acting on it is: (a) zero (b) mrv2 (c) 22 (d) A simple pendulum of effective length ‘l’ is kept in equilibrium in vertical position. What horizontal velocity should be given to its bob, so that it just completes a vertical circular motion? (a) (b) (c) 23 (d) A simple pendulum of mass m and length l stands in equilibrium in vertical position. The maximum horizontal velocity that should be given to the bob at the bottom so that it completes on revolution is (a) (b) (c) 24 25 (d) A small body attached at the end of an inextensible string completes a vertical circle, then its (a) angular velocity remains constant (b) angular momentum remains constant (c) total mechanical energy remains constant (d) linear momentum remains constant A small body is to be moved inside a vertical circular tube of radius l. What minimum velocity should be imparted to it, as its lowest point so that it can just complete the vertical circle? (a) (b) (c) (d) D 7. Answer: B 8. Answer: C 9. Answer: A 10. Answer: D1. Ans.: a 2. Ans.: c 3. Ans.: d 4. Ans.: b 5. Ans.: c 6. Ans.: b 7. Ans.: d 8. Ans.: c 9. Ans.: b 10. Ans.: c 11. Ans.: c 12. Ans.: a 13. Ans.: a 14. Ans.: d 15. Ans.: b 16. Ans.: b 17. Ans.: a 18. Ans.: c 19. Ans.: b 20. Ans.: c 21. Ans.: d 22. Ans.: a 23. Ans.: d 24. Ans.: c 25. Ans.: d 1. 2. 3. 4. A stone attached to a rope of length l = 80 cm is rotated with a speed of 240 r.p.m. At the moment when the velocity is directed vertically upwards, the rope breaks. To what height does the stone rise further? (a) 1.2 m (b) 41.2 m (c) 20.6 m (d) 24.9 m A stone is tied to one end of a string. Holding the other end, the string is whirled in a horizontal plane with progressively increasing speed. It breaks at some speed because (a) gravitational forces of the earth is greater than the tension in string. (b) the required centripetal force is greater than the tension sustained by the string. (c) the required centripetal force is less than the tension in the string. (d) the centripetal force is greater than the weight of the stone. A stone of mass 250 gram, attached at the end of a string of length 1.25 m is whirled in a horizontal circle at a speed of 5 m/s. What is the tension in the string? (a) 2.5 N (b) 5N (c) 6N (d) 8N A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity . The force exerted by the liquid at the outer end is (a) 5. (b) ML2 (c) (d) A van is moving with speed of 108 km/hr. on level road where coefficient of friction between tires and road 0.5. For the safe driving of van the minimum radius of curvature of the road will be (g = 10 m/s2) (a) 80 m (b) 40 m 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. (c) 180 m (d) 20 m A weightless thread can bear tension upto 3.7 kg weight. A stone of mass 500 gram is tied at its one end and revolved in a vertical circular path of radius 4 m. If g = 10 m/s 2, then the maximum angular velocity of the stone is (radians/sec) will be (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 A wheel is subjected to uniform angular acceleration about its axis. Initially its angular velocity is zero. In the first two seconds, it rotates through 1 and in next two seconds, it rotates through 2. What is the ratio 2 / 1? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 A wheel of diameter 20 cm is rotating at 600 rpm. The linear velocity of particle at its rim is (a) 6.28 cm/s (b) 62.8 cm/s (c) 0.628 cm/s (d) 628.4 cm/s A wheel rotates with a constant angular velocity of 600 r.p.m. What is the angle through which the wheel rotates in one second? (a) 5 radian (b) 20 radian (c) 15 radian (d) 10 radian An aeroplane is taking a turn in a horizontal plane (a) its remains horizontal (b) it inclines inward (c) it inclines outward (d) its wings becomes vertical An electric fan has blades of length 30 cm as measured from the axis of rotation. If the fan is rotating at 1200 r.p.m., then the acceleration of a point on the tip of the blade is (take 2 = 10) (a) 1600 m/s2 (b) 3200 m/s2 2 (c) 4800 m/s (d) 6000 m/s2 An electron revolve around the nucleolus the radius of the circular orbit is r to double the kinetic energy of electron its orbit radius of (a) 13. 14. (b) r (c) r (d) r Angle between Centripetal acceleration and radius vector is (a) 90 (b) 180 (c) 0 (d) 45 Angular velocity of an hour hand of a watch (a) rad/s (b) rad/s (c) 15. r rad/s (d) rad/s At a curved path of the road, the road bed is raised a little on the side away from the centre of the curved path. The slope of the road bed is given by (a) tan = 16. (b) tan = (c) tan = (d) tan = Centripetal force in vector form can be expressed as (a) (b) (c) 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. (d) For a particle performing a U.C.M. the acceleration is (a) constant in direction (b) constant in magnitude but not in direction (c) constant in magnitude and direction (d) constant in neither magnitude nor in direction If a cycle wheel of radius 0.4 m completes one revolution in one second, then acceleration of the cycle is (a) 0.4 m/s2 (b) 0.8 m/s2 (c) 0.4 2 m/s2 (d) 1.6 2 m/s2 If a particle moves with uniform speed that its tangential acceleration will be (a) zero (b) constant (c) infinite (d) none of these If a stone of mass m is rotated in a vertical circular path of radius 1 m, the critical velocity will be (a) 6.32 m/s (b) 3.13 m/s (c) 9.48 m/s (d) 12.64 m/s If T1 and T2 are the periods of a simple pendulum and a conical pendulum respectively, of the same length, then (a) T1 = T2 (b) T1 > T2 (c) T1 < T2 (d) T1 = In a tension of a string is 6.4 N. Load at the lower end of a string is 0.1 kg the length of string is 6 m then find its angular velocity? (g = 10 m/sec2) (a) 4 rad/sec (b) 3 rad/sec (c) 2 rad/sec (d) 1 rad/sec In a vertical circle of radius r at what point in its path, a particle has a tension equal to zero? (a) Highest point (b) Lowest point (c) Any point (d) An horizontal point In an atom two electrons move round the nucleus in circular orbits of radii R and 4R respectively, the ratio of time taken by them to complete one revolution is (a) 25. (b) (c) In cycle cycle is (a) (b) (c) (d) 11. Answer: A 12. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. Ans.: (d) 13. Answer: B 14. An 1. 2. 3. (d) wheel of radius 0.4 m completes one revolution in one second, then acceleration of the 0.4 m/s2 0.8 m/s2 0.4 2m/s2 1.6 2m/s2 Answer: C1. Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: Ans.: In order to cause something to move in a circular path, we must apply (a) Inertial force (b) Centripetal force (c) Centrifugal force (d) Gravitational force In the case of uniform circular motion, which one of the following physical quantities does not remain constant? (a) mass (b) speed (c) linear momentum (d) kinetic energy Kinetic energy of a particle moving along the circle is ax2. If R is the radius of the circle. The radial force on the particle is (c) (b) (b) (b) (c) (b) (c) (d) (b) (b) (c) (a) (b) (b) (d) (c) (b) (d) (a) (b) (b) (b) (a) (d) 4. 5. (a) 2 (b) (c) 2ax (d) 2 Maximum safe speed does not depend upon (a) radius of curvature (b) angle of inclination with the horizontal (c) mass of the vehicle (d) acceleration due to gravity The angle between radius vector and centripetal acceleration is (a) (b) 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. rad 2 rad (c) rad (d) rad The angle described in 2 sec by an object rotating at a rate of 600 rpm is (a) 20 rad (b) 40 rad (c) 5 rad (d) zero The angular speed of a flywheel making 180 r.p.m. is (a) 2 rad/s (b) 4 rad/s (c) 6 rad/s (d) 32 rad/s The angular velocity of a fly wheel increases from 0 to 40 rad/s, in 8 seconds. What is its total angular displacement in this time? (a) 80 rad (b) 160 rad (c) 200 rad (d) 120 rad The angular velocity of a wheel is 70 rad/sec. If the radius of the wheel is 0.5 m, then linear velocity of the wheel is (a) 10 m/s (b) 20 m/s (c) 35 m/s (d) 70 m/s The banking angle is independent of (a) velocity of vehicle (b) mass of vehicle (c) radius of curvature of road (d) height of inclination The driver of a car traveling at velocity v suddenly sees a broad wall in front of him at a distance a. He should (a) break sharply 12. 13. (b) turn sharply (c) both a and b (d) none of the above The earth (mass = 6 1024 kg), revolves around the sun with an angular velocity of 2 107 rad/s, in a circular orbit of radius 1.5 108 k. The force exerted by the sun on the earth is (a) zero (b) 18 1020 N (c) 27 1030 N (d) 3.6 1022 N The K.E. (K) of a particle moving along a circle of radius r depends upon the distance covered (s) as K = as2. The centripetal force acting on the particle is given by (a) 2as (b) 2as2 (c) 14. 15. 16. 17. (d) The maximum safe speed for a vehicle taking a turn on a curved banked road, does not depend upon (a) acceleration due to gravity (b) mass of the vehicle (c) angle of inclination () with the horizontal (d) radius of curvature of the track The maximum safe speed of a vehicle on a circular tract is 15 km/hr. When the track becomes wet, the maximum safe speed is 10 km/hr. The ratio of coefficient of friction of the dry track to that of Wet track is (a) 9:4 (b) 3:2 (c) 2:3 (d) 1.5 : 1 The maximum velocity with which a driver must drive his car on a flat curved road of radius of curvature 150 m and coefficient of friction 0.6, to avoid the skidding of his car is (take g = 10 m/s2) (a) 60 m/s (b) 50 m/s (c) 40 m/s (d) 30 m/s The radius of a curved path on a national highway is R. The width of a road is b. The outer edge of the road is raised by ‘h’ w.r.t. the inner edge, so that a car with a velocity V can safely pass over it. What is the value of h? (a) (b) (c) 18. (d) The ratio of angular speed of minute hand and hour hand of a watch is 19. (a) 6: 1 (b) 1: 6 (c) 1 : 12 (d) 12 : 1 The rider in circus rides along a circular track in a vertical plane. The minimum velocity at the highest point of the track will be (a) (b) (c) 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. (d) What is the apparent weight of a body of mass m attached at the end of a string and which is just completing the loop in a vertical circle, at the lowest point in its path? (a) 0 (b) mg (c) 3 mg (d) 6 mg What is the smallest radius of a curve on a horizontal road, at which a cyclist can travel if his speed is 36 km/hour and the angle of inclination is 45? (g = 10 m/s2) (a) 25 m (b) 20 m (c) 15 m (d) 10 m What will be the maximum speed of a car on a road turn of radius 30 m, if the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the road is 0.4 (Take g = 9.8 m/s2 (a) 10.84 m/s (b) 9.84 m/s (c) 8.84 m/s (d) 6.84 m/s When a vehicle is moving along the horizontal curve road, centripetal force is provided by (a) vertical component of normal reaction (b) horizontal component of normal reaction (c) frictional force between road surface and tyres (d) all of these When particle revolves with uniform speed on a circular path (a) no force acts on it (b) no acceleration acts on it (c) no work is done by it (d) its velocity is constant When the angular velocity of a uniformly rotating body has increased thrice the resultant of forces applied to it increases by 60 N. find the acceleration of the body in two cases if the mass of the body is 3 kg (a) 2.5 m s2, 7.5 m s2 (b) 7.5 m s2, 67.5 m s2 (c) 5 m s2, 45 m s2 (d) 2.5 m s2, 22.5 m s2 swer: B 15. Answer: D1. Ans.: (b) 2. Ans.: (c) 3. Ans.: (a) 4. Ans.: (c) 5. Ans.: (d) 6. Ans.: (b) 7. Ans.: (c) 8. Ans.: (b) 9. Ans.: (c) 10. Ans.: (b) 11. Ans.: (a) 12. Ans.: (d) 13. Ans.: (c) 15. Ans.: (a) 16. Ans.: (d) 17. Ans.: (d) 18. Ans.: (d) 19. Ans.: (a) 20. Ans.: (d) 21. Ans.: (d) 22. Ans.: (a) 23. Ans.: (c) 24. Ans.: (c) 25. Ans.: (b) Answer: A Gravitation: 21. Answer: D 22. Answer: D 23. Answer: B 1. 2. A thief stole a box with valuable article of weight ‘W’ and jumped down a wall of height h. Before he reach the ground he experienced a load of (a) zero (b) W / 2 (c) W (d) 2 W The acceleration due to gravity g and mean density of the earth are related by which of the following relation? Where g is gravitational constant and R is radius of the earth (a) = (b) = (c) = 3. 4. (d) = When the planet comes nearer the sun moves (a) fast (b) slow (c) constant at every point (d) none of the above Kepler’s second law regarding constancy of arial velocity of a planet is a consequence of the law of conservation of 5. 6. (a) energy (b) angular momentum (c) linear momentum (d) none of these The period of geostationary artificial satellite is (a) 24 hours (b) 6 hours (c) 12 hours (d) 48 hours A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 6R above the surface of the earth, R being the radius of the earth. The time period of another satellite at a height of 2.5 R from the surface of earth is (a) 6 (b) 6 hr 7. 8. hr (c) 5 hr (d) 10 hr The distance of Neptune and Saturn from the sun are nearly 1013 m and 1012 m respectively. Assuming that they move in circular orbits, their periodic times would be in the ratio of (a) 10 (b) 100 (c) 10 (d) 1000 A satellite is orbiting close to the surface of the earth, then its speed is (a) (b) Rg (c) 9. (d) If the gravitational force between two objects were proportional to 1/R (and not as 1/R2) where R is separation between them, then a particle in circular orbit under such a force would have its orbital speed v proportional to (a) (b) R0 (c) R1 10. (d) Imagine a light planet revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of radius R with a period of revolution T. If the gravitational force of attraction between the planet and the star is proportional to then (a) T2 R2 (b) T2 (c) T2 11. 12. (d) T2 R3 The period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. The period of another satellite in circular orbit of radius 4R is (a) T/4 (b) 8T (c) 2T (d) T/8 A planet moves around the sun. At a point A, it is closest from the Sun at a distance d1 and has a speed v1. At another point B, when it is farthest from the sun at a distance d2, its speed will be (a) (b) (c) 13. 14. (d) The period of geostationary artificial satellite of earth is (a) 6 hours (b) 12 hours (c) 24 hours (d) 365 days If ‘r’ represents the radius of the orbit of a satellite of mass ‘m’ moving round a planet of mass ‘M’, the velocity of the satellite is given by (a) v2 = (b) v2 = (c) v = 15. 16. 17. (d) v = A missile is launched with a velocity less than the escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic and potential energy is (a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) may be positive or negative The escape velocity of projection from the earth is approximately (R = 6400 km) (a) 7 km/sec (b) 112 km/sec (c) 12.2 km/sec (d) 1.1 km/sec If the earth is 1/4th of its present distance from the sun, the duration of the year would be 18. (a) 1/4 of the present year (b) 1/6 of the present year (c) 1/8 of the present year (d) 1/16 of the present year The relation between escape velocity and orbit velocity is (a) ve = (b) ve = vorb (c) ve = 2vorb 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. (d) ve = vorb There is no atmosphere on the moon because (a) it is closer ot the earth (b) it revolves round the earth (c) it gets light from the sun (d) the escape velocity of gas molecules is less than their root mean square velocity here If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1% its mass remaining the same, the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface would (a) decrease by 2% (b) remain unchanged (c) increase by 2% (d) will increase by 9.8% Fg and Fe represents gravitational and electrostatic forces respectively, between the two electrons situated at a distance of 10 m. The ratio Fg/Fe is of the order of (a) 1043 (b) 1036 (c) 1043 (d) 1036 The value of ‘g’ at a particular point is 9.8 m/sec2 suppose the earth suddenly shrink uniformly to half its present size without losing any mass. The value of ‘g at the same point (assuming that the distance of the point from the centre of the earth does not shrink) will become (a) 9.8 m/sec2 (b) 4.9 m/sec2 (c) 19.6 m/sec2 (d) 2.45 m/sec2 The planet mercury is revolving in an elliptical orbit around the sun as shown in figure. The kinetic energy of mercury will be greater at (a) A (b) B (c) C 24. (d) D The orbit velocity of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit just above the earth’s surface is v. For a satellite orbiting at an altitude of half of the earth’s radius, the orbital velocity is (a) (b) (c) 25. (d) If the change in the value of g at the height h above the surface of the earth is the same as at a depth x below it, then (both x and h being much smaller than the radius of the earth) (a) x = h (b) x = 2 h (c) x = (d) x = h2 1. Ans.: (a) 2. Ans.: (c) 3.Ans.: (a) 4. Ans.: (b) 5. Ans.: (a) 6. Ans.: (a) 7. Ans.: (c) 8. Ans.: (c) 9. Ans.: (b) 10. Ans.: (b) 11. Ans.: (b) 12. Ans.: (a) 13. Ans.: (c) 14. Ans.: (c) 15. Ans.: (b) 16. Ans.: (c) 17. Ans.: (c) 18. Ans.: (a) 19. Ans.: (d) 20. Ans.: (c) 21. Ans.: (c) 22. Ans.: (a) 23. Ans.: (a) 24. Ans.: (c) 25. Ans.: (b) 1. A satellite is revolving around the sun in a circular orbit with uniform velocity v. If the gravitational force suddenly disappears, the velocity of the satellite will be (a) zero (b) v (c) 2v (d) infinity 2. 3. 4. Who among the following first gave the experimental velocity of G? (a) Cavendish (b) Copernicus (c) Brook Taylor (d) none of these The mean radius of the earth is R, its angular speed on its own axis is and the acceleration due to gravity at earth’s surface is g. The cube of the radius of the orbit of a geo-stationary satellite will be (a) r2g / (b) R22 / g (c) RG 2 (d) R2g / 2 The largest and the shortest distance of the earth from are r 1 and r2. It’s distance from the sun when it is perpendicular to the major-axis of the orbit drawn from the sun. (a) (b) (c) 5. 6. (d) Geo-stationary satellite (a) revolves about the polar axis (b) has a time period less than that of the earth’s satellite (c) moves faster than a near earth satellite (d) is stationary in the space A spherical planet far out in space has a mass M 0 and diameter D0. A particle of mass m falling freely near the surface of this planet will experience an acceleration due to gravity which is equal to (a) (b) (c) 7. (d) Two planets of radii r1 and r2 are made from the same material. The ratio of the acceleration due to gravity g1/g2 at the surface of the two planets is (a) (b) (c) 8. (d) If g is the acceleration due to gravity of the earth’s surface the gain in the potential energy of an object of mass m raised from the surface of the earth to a height equal to the radius R of the earth is (a) mgR (b) 2mgR (c) mgR 9. (d) mgR An earth’s satellite of mass m revolves in a circular orbit at a height h from the surface g is acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth. The velocity of the satellite in the orbit is given by (a) (b) gR (c) 10. 11. 12. (d) If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, its mass remaining the same, the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface would (a) decrease (b) remains unchanged (c) increase (d) none of these The escape velocity from the earth’s surface is 11 km/sec. A certain planet has a radius twice that of the earth but its mean density is the same as that of the earth. The value of the escape velocity from this planet would be (a) 22 km/sec (b) 11 km/sec (c) 5.5 km/sec (d) 16.5 km/sec The escape velocity from earth is 11.2 km per sec. If a body is to be projected in a direction making an angle 45 to the vertical, then the escape velocity is (a) 11.2 2 km/sec (b) 11.2 km/sec (c) 11.2 13. km/sec (d) 11.2 km/sec What would be the duration of the year if the distance between the earth and the sun gets doubled? (a) 1032 days 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. (b) 129 days (c) 365 days (d) 730 days If escape velocity from the earth’s surface is 11.2 km/sec. then escape velocity from a planet of mass same as that of earth but radius one fourth as that of earth is (a) 11.2 km/sec (b) 22.4 km/sec (c) 5.65 km/sec (d) 44.8 km/sec A thin uniform, circular ring is rolling down an inclined plane of inclination 30 without slipping. Its linear acceleration along the inclined plane will be (a) g/2 (b) g/3 (c) g/4 (d) 2g/3 A artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the earth has a total (kinetic + potential) energy E0. Its potential energy is (a) 2E0 (b) E0 (c) 1.5 E0 (d) E0 The distance between centre of the earth and moon is 384000 km. If the mass of the earth is 6 1024 kg and G = 6.66 1011 Nm2/kg2. The speed of the moon is nearly (a) 1 km/sec (b) 4 km/sec (c) 8 km/sec (d) 11.2 km/sec When body is raised to a height equal to radius of earth, the P.E. change is (a) MgR (b) (c) 2 MgR (d) none of these A planet has twice the radius but the mean density is 1/4th as compared to earth. What is the radio of the escape velocity from the earth to that from the planet? (a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 1 The masses of two planets are in the ratio 1 : 2. Their radii are in the ratio 1 : 2. The acceleration due to gravity on the planets are in the ratio. (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 5 (d) 5 : 3 If the acceleration due to gravity of a planet is half the acceleration due to gravity of earth’s surface and radius of planet is half the radius of the earth, the mass of planet in terms of mass of earth is (a) (b) (c) 22. 23. (d) The radii of the earth and the moon are in the ratio 10 : 1 while acceleration due to gravity on th eearth’s surface and moon’s surface are in the ratio 6 : 1. The ratio of escape velocities from earth’s surface to that of moon surface is (a) 10 : 1 (b) 6 : 1 (c) 1.66 : 1 (d) 7.74 : 1 Acceleration due to gravity g in terms of mean density of Earth d (where R is radius of earth and G – universal gravitational constant) is (a) g = 4R2 d G (b) g = (c) g = 24. 25. (d) g = RdG The dimensions of universal gravitational constant are (a) M2 L2 T2 (b) M1 L3 T2 (c) M L1 T2 (d) M L2 T2 If R is radius of the earth and g the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface, the mean density of the earth is (a) (b) (c) (d) 1. Ans.: (b) 2. Ans.: (a) 3. Ans.: (d) 4. Ans.: (c) 5. Ans.: (a) 6. Ans.: (c) 7. Ans.: (a) 8. Ans.: (a) 9. Ans.: (d) 10. Ans.: (c) 11. Ans.: (a) 12. Ans.: (b) 13. Ans.: (a) 14. Ans.: (b) 15. Ans.: (c) 16. Ans.: (a) 17. Ans.: (a) 18. Ans.: (b) 19. Ans.: (c) 20. Ans.: (a) 21. Ans.: (d) 22. Ans.: (d) 23. Ans.: (d) 24. Ans.: (b) 25. Ans.: (c) 25. Answer: D Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 1 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. +I effect is shown by (A) N02 (B) Cl (C) Br (D) CH3 Answer: (D) 2. 0.023 g of sodium metal is reacted with 100 cm 3 of water. The pH of the resulting solution is ______. (A) 11 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 9 Answer: (C) 3. 0.5 mole of each of H2, SO2 and CH4 are kept in a container. A hole was made in the container. After 3 hours, the order of partial pressures in the container will be (A) pH2 > pSO2 > pCH4 (B) pH2 > pCH4 > pSO2 (C) pSO2 > pH2 > pCH4 (D) pSO2 > pCH4, > pH2 Answer: (D) 4. 10 cm3 of 0.1 N monobasic acid requires 15 cm3 of sodium hydroxide solution whose normality is (A) 1.5 N (B) 0.15 N (C) 0.066 N (D) 0.66 N Answer: (C) 5. 106 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is (A) between 6 and 7 (B) between 10 and 11 (C) between 7 and 8 Answer: (C) (D) between 5 and 6 6. 2 gm of a radioactive sample having half life of 15 days was synthesised on 1st Jan 2009. The amount of the sample left behind on 1st March. 2009 (including both the days) (A) 1 gm (B) 0.5 gm (C) 0 gm (D) 0.125 gm Answer: (D) 7. 2HI(g) Ý H2(g) + I2(g) The equilibrium constant of the above reaction is 6.4 at 300 K. If 0.25 mole each of H2 and I2 are added to the system, the equilibrium constant will be (A) 3.2 (B) 1.6 (C) 6.4 (D) 0.8 Answer: (C) 8. Answer: (B) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) (A) irreversible reaction (B) heterogenous catalysis (C) homogenous catalysis (D) neutralisation reaction is an example for 9. Answer: (D) 30 cc of HCl, 20 cc of 5 HNO3 and 40 cc of NaOH solutions are mixed and the volume was made up to 1 dm 3. The pH of the resulting solution is (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 8 (D) 2 10. 5 moles of SO2 and 5 moles of O2 are allowed to react. At equilibrium, it was found that 60% of SO2 is used up. lf the partial pressure of the equilibrium mixture is one atmosphere. the partial pressure of O2 is (A) 0.21 atm (B) 0.41 atm (C) 0.82 atm (D) 0.52 atm Answer: (B) 11. Which one of these is NOT TRUE for benzene? (A) It forms only one type of monosubstituted product (B) There are three carbon-carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds (C) Heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the theoretical value (D) The bond angle between carbon-carbon bonds is 120° Answer: (B) 12. Which one of the following is paramagnetic? (A) N2 (B) NO (C) CO Answer: (B) (D) O3 13. Which one of the following is a covalent crystal? (A) Ice (B) Rock salt (C) Dry ice (D) Quartz Answer: (D) 14. Which one of the following DOES NOT involve coagulation? (A) Formation of delta region (B) Clotting of blood by the use of ferric chloride (C) Peptization (D) Treatment of drinking water by potash alum Answer: (C) 15. Which one is not a constituent of nucleic acid? (A) Uracil (B) Guanidine (C) Phosphoric acid (D) Ribose sugar Answer: (B) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 2 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. 50 cm3 of 0.2 N HCI is titrated against 0.1 N NaOH solution. The titration is discontinued after adding 50 cm3 of NaOH. The remaining titration is completed by adding 0.5 N KOH. The volume of KOH required for completing the titration is ______. (A) 10 cm3 (B) 12 cm3 (C) 10.5 cm3 (D) 25 cm3 Answer: (A) 2. 80 g of oxygen contains as many atoms as in (A) 80 g of hydrogen (B) 1 g of hydrogen (C) 10 g of hydrogen (D) 5 g of hydrogen Answer: (D) 3. 9.65 C of electric current is passed through fused anhydrous magnesium chloride. The magnesium metal thus obtained is completely converted into a Grignard reagent. The number of moles of the Grignard reagent obtained is ______. (A) 1 104 (B) 5 104 (C) 1 105 (D) 5 105 Answer: (D) 4. A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with (A) 6% solution of Glucose (B) 25% solution of Glucose (C) 1 M solution of Glucose (D) 0.05 M solution of Glucose Answer: (C) 5. A bivalent metal has an equivalent mass of 32. The molecular mass of the metal nitrate is (A) I92 (B) 188 (C) 182 (D) 168 Answer: (B) 6. A body of mass 10 mg is moving with a velocity of 100 ms1. The wavelength of de-Broglie wave associated with it would be (Note : h = 6.63 1034Js) (A) 6.63 1037m (B) 6.63 1031m (C) 6.63 1034m (D) 6.63 1035m Answer: (B) 7. A body of mass x kg is moving with a velocity of 100 ms1. Its de Broglie wavelength is 6.62 1035m. Hence x is (h = 6.62 1034Js) (A) 0.15 kg (B) 0.2 kg (C) 0.1 kg (D) 0.25 kg Answer: (C) 8. A buffer solution contains 0.1 mole of sodium acetate dissolved in 1000 cm3 of 0.1 M acetic acid. To the above buffer solution, 0.1 mole of sodium acetate is further added and dissolved. The pH of the resulting buffer is equal to ______. (A) pKa (B) pKa Log2 (C) pKa + L0g2 (D) pKa + 2 Answer: (C) 9 A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the Answer: (C) concentration of is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals 1.8 × 10–5, what is the pH of this solution? (A) 8.73 (B) 9.08 (C) 9.43 (D) 11.72 10. A complex compound in which the Answer: (C) oxidation number of a metal is zero is (A) K4 [Fe (CN)6] (B) K3 [Fe (CN)6] (C) [Ni (CO)4] (D) [Pl (NH3 )4]Cl2 11. Which of the following is used to prepare Cl2 gas at room temperature from concentrated HCI? (A) MnO2 (B) H2S (C) KMnO4 (D) Cr2O3 Answer: (C) 12. Which of the following is not an ore of magnesium? (A) Carnallite (B) Dolomite (C) Calamine (D) Sea water Answer: (C) 13. Which of the following has the highest bond order? (A) N2 (B) O2 (C) He2 (D) H2 Answer: (A) 14. Which of the following gives an aldehyde on dry distillation? (A) Calcium acetate + calcium benzoate (B) Calcium formate + calcium acetate (C) Calcium benzoate (D) Calcium acetate Answer: (B) 15. Which of the following does not give benzoic acid on hydrolysis? (A) phenyl cyanide (B) benzoyl chloride (C) benzyl chloride (D) methyl benzoate Answer: (C) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 3 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. A compound is formed by elements A and B. This crystallises in the cubic structure where the A atoms are at the comers of the cube and B atoms are at the body centres. The simplest formula of the compound is (A) AB (B) A6B (C) A8B4 (D) AB6 Answer: (A) 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. A compound of 'A' and 'B' crystallises in a cubic lattice in which the 'A' atoms occupy the lattice points at the comers of the cube. The 'B' atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is (A) AB (B) AB3 (C) AB2 (D) A3B A covalent molecule AB3 has pyramidal structure. The number of lone pair and bond pair electrons in the molecule are respectively (A) 3 and 1 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 2 (D) 0 and 4 A diabetic person carries a pocket of Glucose with him always, because (A) Glucose reduces the blood sugar level. (B) Glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously. (C) Glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly. (D) Glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly. A dibromo derivative of an alkane reacts with sodium metal to form an alicyclic hydrocarbon. The derivative is ______. (A) 2, 2 - dibromobutane (B) 1, 1 - dibromopropane (C) 1, 4 - dibromobutane (D) 1, 2 - dibromoethane A gas deviates from ideal behaviour at a high pressure because its molecules (A) attract one another (B) show the Tyndall effect (C) have kinetic energy (D) are bound by covalent bonds A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal mole of CO and N2. If the total pressure of the mixture was found 1 atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the mixture is (A) 1 atm (B) 0.5 atm (C) 0.8 atm (D) 0.9 atm A ligand can also be regarded as (A) Lewis acid (B) Bronsted base (C) Lewis base (D) Bronsted acid A metal present in insulin is (A) copper (B) iron (C) zinc (D) aluminium Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (C) Answer: (A) Answer: (B) Answer: (C) Answer: (C) 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. A mixture of CaCl2 and NaCl weighing 4.44 g is treated with sodium carbonate solution to precipitate all the Ca +2 ions as calcium carbonate. The calcium carbonate so obtained is heated strongly to get 0.56 g of CaO. The percentage of NaCl in the mixture (atomic mass of Ca = 40) is ______. (A) 30.6 (B) 75 (C) 69.4 (D) 25 Which of the following compound would not evolve CO2 when treated with NaHCO3 solution? (A) salicylic acid (B) phenol (C) benzoic acid (D) 4-nitro benzoic acid Which is not the correct statement about RNA and DNA? (A) DNA is active in virus where RNA never appears in virus (B) DNA exists as dimer while RNA is usually single stranded (C) DNA contains deoxyribose as its sugar and RNA contains ribose (D) RNA contains uracil in place of thymine (found in DNA) as a base Which cycloalkane has the lowest heat of combustion per CH2 group? (A) cyclopropane (B) cyclobutanc (C) cyclopontane (D) cyclohexane When a mixture of calcium benzoate and calcium acetate is dry distilled, the resulting compound is (A) acetophenone (B) benzaldehyde (C) benzophenone (D) acetaldehyde What is the nature of glucose-glucose linkage in starch that makes its so susceptible to acid hydrolysis? (A) Starch is hemiacetal (B) Starch is acetal (C) Starch is polymer (D) Starch contains only few molecules of glucose Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (A) Answer: (D) Answer: (A) Answer: (B) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 4 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. A white crystalline salt A reacts with dilute HCI to liberate a suffocating gas B and also forms a yellow precipitate. The gas B turns potassium dichromate acidified with dilute H2SO4 to a green coloured solution C. A, B and C are respectively ______. Answer: (A) 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. (A) Na2S2O3, SO2, Cr2 (SO4)3 (B) Na2SO3, SO2, Cr2 (SO4)3 (C) Na2SO4, SO2, Cr2 (SO4)3 (D) Na2S, SO, Cr2 (SO4)3 According to Bayer's strain theory which is highly stable? (A) cyclohexane (B) cycloheptane (C) cyclopentane (D) cyclobutane Acidified K2Cr2O7 solution turns green when Na2SO3 is added to it. This is due to the formation of (A) CrSO4 (B) Cr2(SO4)3 (C) (D) Cr2(SO3)3 Acidified sodium fusion extract on addition of ferric chloride solution gives blood red colouration which confirms the presence of (A) S (B) N (C) N and S (D) S and Cl Amines behave as (A) Lewis acids (B) Lewis base (C) aprotic acid (D) neutral compound Among the following, the compound that contains ionic, covalent and coordinate linkage is (A) NaCl (B) CaO (C) NH3 (D) NH4Cl Among the following, which is least acidic? (A) phenol (B) O-cresol (C) p-nitrophenol (D) p-chlorophenol An alkyl halide reacts with alcoholic ammonia in a sealed tube, the product formed will be (A) a primary amine (B) a secondary amine(C) a tertiary amine (D) a mixture of all the three An aqueous solution containing 6.5 gm of NaCl of 90% purity was subjected to electrolysis. After the complete Answer: (C) Answer: (B) Answer: (C) Answer: (B) Answer: (D) Answer: (B) Answer: (D) Answer: (A) 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. electrolysis, the solution was evaporated to get solid NaOH. The volume of 1 M acetic acid required to neutralise NaOH obtained above is (A) 100 cm3 (B) 200 cm3 (C) 1000 cm3 (D) 2000 cm3 An element with atomic number 21 is a (A) halogen (B) representative element (C) transition element (D) alkali metal The sp3d2 hybridization of central atom of a molecule would lead to (A) square planar geometry (B) Tetrahedral geometry (C) Trigonal bipyramidal geometry (D) Octahedral geometry The reagent with which both acetaldehyde and acetone react is (A) I2/NaOH (B) Fehling's reaction (C) Carbonic acid (D) Tollen's reagent The ozone layer forms naturally by (A) the interaction of CFC with oxygen (B) the interaction of UV radiation with oxygen (C) the interaction of IR radiation with oxygen (D) the interaction of oxygen and water vapour The number of naturally occurring p-block elements that are diamagnetic is ______. (A) 6 (B) 18 (C) 7 (D) 5 The normality of 30 volume H2O2 is (A) 2.678 N (B) 5.336 N (C) 8.034 N (D) 6.685 N Answer: (C) Answer: (D) Answer: (A) Answer: (B) Answer: (D) Answer: (B) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 5 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. An ionic compound is expected to have Answer: (B) 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. tetrahedral structure if lies in the range of (A) 0.414 to 0.732 (B) 0.225 to 0.414 (C) 0.155 to 0.225 (D) 0.732 to 1 An octahedral complex is formed when hybrid orbitals of the following type are involved (A) sp3 (B) d sp2 (C) d2sp3 (D) sp2d2 An organic compound on heating with CuO produces CO2 but no water. The organic compound may be (A) Methane (B) Ethyl iodide (C) Carbon tetrachloride (D) Chloroform An organic compound X is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with Phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structure of X is (A) (CH3)2CHOH (B) CH3CHO (C) CH3CH2OH (D) CH3 CH3 An oxygen containing organic compound upon oxidation forms a carboxylic acid as the only organic product with its molecular mass higher by 14 units. The organic compound is ______. (A) a primary alcohol (B) an aldehyde (C) a ketone (D) a secondary alcohol Anisole can be prepared by the action of methyl iodide on sodium phenate. The reaction is called (A) Wurtz's reaction (B) Williamson's reaction (C) Fittig's reaction (D) Etard's reaction Argon is used (A) in high temperature welding (B) in radiotherapy for treatment of cancer (C) in filling airships Answer: (C) Answer: (C) Answer: (A) Answer: (A) Answer: (B) Answer: (A) 8. 9. (D) to obtain low temperature Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basic strengths : CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N, NH3 (A) (CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2 NH (B) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N < NH3 (C) NH3 < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2 (D) NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH Arrange the following in the increasing order of their bond order: O2, O ,O (A) O ,O2, O (B) O2, O (C) O 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. Answer: (D) Answer: (C) and O ,O ,O ,O ,O , O2 O (D) O , O , O , O2 Based on the first law of thermodynamics, which one of the following is correct? (A) For an adiabatic process: U = w (B) For an isochoric process: U = q (C) For a cyclic process: q = w (D) For an isothermal process: q = +w The yellow precipitate formed during the chromyl chloride test is chemically (A) lead chromate (B) chromic acid (C) sodium chromate (D) lead acetate The typical range of molar enthalpies for the strongest intermolecular (Hydrogen) bonds is (A) 200 – 300 kJ (B) 300 – 500 kJ (C) 4 – 25 kJ (D) 4 – 25 J The time required for 100% completion of a zero order reaction is (A) a/2k (B) ak (C) 2k/a (D) a/k The standard emf of a galvanic cell involving 2 moles of electrons in its rodox reaction is 0.59 V. The equilibrium constant for the redox reaction of the cell is (A) 105 (B) 1020 (C) 1010 (D) 10 Answer: (C) Answer: (A) Answer: (C) Answer: (D) Answer: (B) 15. The spin only magnetic moment of Fe2+ ion (in BM) is approximately (A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 5 Answer: (D) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 6 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. Benzaldehyde and acetone can be best distinguished using ______. (A) sodium hydroxide solution (B) Fehling's solution (C) Tollens' reagent (D) 2, 4-DNPH Benzene reacts with chlorine in sunlight to give a final product (A) C6H5Cl (B) C6Cl6 (C) C6H6Cl6 (D) CCl4 By what factors does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled? (A) 1.4 (B) 2.0 (C) 2.8 (D) 4.0 Carbon can reduce ferric oxide to iron at a temperature above 983 K because ______. (A) carbon has a higher affinity towards oxidation than iron. (B) carbon monoxide formed is thermodynamically less stable than ferric oxide. (C) iron has a higher affinity towards oxygen than carbon. (D) free energy change for the formation of carbon dioxide is less negative than that for ferric oxide. Carbon forms two oxides which have different compositions. The equivalent mass of which remains constant? (A) carbon (B) oxygen (C) neither carbon nor oxygen (D) both carbon and oxygen Catalytic dehydrogenation of a primary alcohol gives a (A) secondary alcohol (B) aldehyde (C) ketone (D) ester Answer: (C) 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. Answer: (C) Answer: (A) Answer: (A) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (D) CH3CH2Br A B C C D; "D" is _____. (A) CH3CONH2 (B) CH3Br (C) CHBr3 (D) CH3NH2 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. Answer: (D) CH3COOH ln the above reaction Z is (A) Ketol (B) Acetal (C) Butanol (D) Aldol Chloroacetic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid. This can be explained using ______. (A) I effect (B) M effect (C) +I effect (D) + M effect Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following? (A) H2 and Pt as catalyst (B) Glycol with KOH (C) Zn-Hg with HCl (D) LiAlH4 0.023 g of sodium metal is reacted with 100 cm3 of water. The pH of the resulting solution is ______. (A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 9 2 gm of metal carbonate is neutralized completely by 100 ml of 0.1 (N) HCI. The equivalent weight of metal carbonate is (A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 150 (D) 200 25 g of each of the following gasses are taken at 27oC and 600 mm pressure. Which of these will have the least volume? (A) HCl (B) HBr (C) HI (D) HF 4 moles each of SO2 and O2 gases are allowed to react to form SO3 in a closed vessel. At equilibrium 25% of O2 is used up. The total number of moles of all the gases present at equilibrium is (A) 6.5 (B) 7.0 (C) 8.0 (D) 2.0 A distinctive and characteristic functional group of fats is Answer: (A) Answer: (C) Answer: (C) Answer: (D) Answer: (C) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) (A) a peptide group (B) an ester group (C) an alcoholic group (D) a ketonic group Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 7 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. Consider the following gaseous equilibria with equilibrium constants K1 and K2 respectively. Answer: (B) SO2(g) + Ý SO3(g) 2SO3(g) Ý 2SO2(g) + O2(g) The equilibrium constants are related as ______. (A) 2K1 = (B) (C) 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. (D) Considering the reaction C(S) +O2(g)CO2(g)+393.5 kJ the signs of H , S and G respectively are (A) , +, (B) , , (C) , +, + (D) +, , Considering the state of hybridization of carbon atoms, find out the molecule among the following which is linear? (A) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 (B) CH3 CH = CH CH3 (C) CH3 C C CH3 (D) CH2 = CH CH2 C CH Cooking is fast in a pressure cooker, because (A) food is cooked at constant volume. (B) loss of heat due to radiation is minimum. (C) food particles are effectively smashed. (D) water boils at higher temperature inside the pressure cooker. Dalda is prepared from oils by (A) oxidation (B) reduction (C) hydrolysis (D) distillation Dalton's law of partial pressures is applicable to which one of Answer: (A) Answer: (C) Answer: (D) Answer: (B) Answer: (A) 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. the following systems? (A) CO + H2 (B) H2 + Cl2 (C) NO + O2 (D) NH3 + HCl Decomposition of benzene diozonium chloride by using Cu2Cl2/HCl to form chlorobenzene is (A) Cannizarro's reaction (B) Kolbe's reaction (C) Sandmeyer's reaction (D) Raschig's reaction Denatured alcohol is (A) Rectified spirit (B) Undistilled ethanol (C) Rectified spirit + methanol + naphtha (D) Ethanol + methanol During the adsorption of krypton on activated charcoal at low temperature, ______. (A) H < 0 and S < 0 (B) H > 0 and S < 0 (C) H < 0 and S > 0 (D) H > 0 and S > 0 During the extraction of gold the following reactions take place Au +CN + H2O [X] [X] + Zn [Y] + Au X and Y are respectively (A) [Au(CN)2] and [ZN(CN)4]2 (B) [Au(CN)4]3 and [ZN(CN)4]2 (C) [Au(CN)4]2 and [ZN(CN)4]2 (D) [Au(CN)2] and [ZN(CN)6]4 A transition metal ion exists in its highest oxidation state. It is expected to behave as (A) a chelating agent (B) a central metal in a coordination compound (C) an oxidising agent (D) a reducing agent Acrolcin test is positive for (A) polysaccharides (B) proteins (C) oils and fats (D) reducing sugars Among the alkali metals cesium is the most reactive because (A) its incomplete shell is nearest to the nucleus (B) it has a single electron in the valence shell (C) it is the heaviest alkali metal (D) the outermost electron is more loosely bound than the outermost electron of the other alkali metals An electric current is passed through an aqueous solution of a mixture of alanine (isoelectric point 6.0) glutamic acid (3.2) and arginine (10.7) buffered at pH 6. What is the fate of the Answer: (C) Answer: (C) Answer: (A) Answer: (A) Answer: (C) Answer: (C) Answer: (D) Answer: (A) 15. three acids? (A) Glutamic acid migrates to anode at pH 6. Arginine is present as a cation and migrates to the cathode. Alanine in a dipolar ion remains uniformly distributed in solution. (B) Glutamic acid migrates to cathode and others remain uniformly distributed in solution. (C) All three remain uniformly distributed in solution. (D) All three move to cathode An organic compound which produces a bluish green coloured flame on heating in presence of copper is (A) chlorobenzene (B) benzaldehyde (C) aniline (D) benzoic acid Answer: (A) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 8 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. During the formation of a chemical bond (A) energy decreases (B) energy increases (C) energy of the system does not change (D) electron-electron repulsion becomes more than the nucleus-electron attraction E1, E2 and E3 are the emf values of the three galvanic cells respectively. Answer: (A) 2. 3. 4. 5. a) Zn | || b) Zn | || Answer: (A) |Cu |Cu c) Zn | || |Cu Which one of the following is true? (A) E3 > E2 > E1 (B) E2 > E3> E1 (C) E1 > E3> E2 (D) E1 > E2> E3 Ellingham diagram represents a graph of (A) G Vs T (B) G0 Vs T (C) S Vs P (D) G Vs P Enthalpy change for the reaction, 4H(g) 2H2(g) is –869.6 kJ. The dissociation energy of H – H bond is (A) +217.4 kJ (B) –434.8 kJ (C) –869.6 kJ (D) +434.8 kJ Enthalpy of vapourization of benzene is +35.3 kJ mol1 at its boiling point of 80°C. Answer: (B) Answer: (D) Answer: (A) 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Chemistry Model Question The entropy change in the transition of the vapour to liquid at its boiling point [in JK1 mol1] is ______. (A) 100 (B) 441 (C) +100 (D) +441 Entropy of the universe is (A) continuously increasing (B) continuously decreasing (C) zero (D) constant Excess of carbon dioxide is passed through 50 ml of 0.5 M calcium hydroxide solution. After the completion of the reaction, the solution was evaporated to dryness. The solid calcium carbonate was completely neutralised with 0.1 N Hydrochloric acid. The volume of Hydrochloric acid required is (At. mass of calcium = 40) (A) 500 cm3 (B) 400 cm3 (C) 300 cm3 (D) 200 cm3 Excess of PCl5 reacts with conc. H2SO4 giving (A) chlorosulphonic acid (B) thionyl chloride (C) sulphuryl chloride (D) sulphurous acid For a chemical reaction A B, the rate of the reaction is 2 103 mol dm3 s1, when the initial concentration is 0.05 mol dm3. The rate of the same reaction is 1.6 102 mol dm3s1when the initial concentration is 0.1 mol dm3. The order of the reaction is (A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 0 For a stable molecule the value of bond order must be (A) negative (B) positive (C) zero (D) there is no relationship between stability and bond order. Answer: (A) Answer: (A) Answer: (C) Answer: (A) Answer: (B) Paper - MCQs Test 9 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. For alkali metals, which one of the following trends is INCORRECT? (A) Ionization energy: Li > Na > K > Rb (B) Hydration energy: Li > Na > K > Rb (C) Atomic size: Li < Na < K < Rb (D) Density: Li < Na < K < Rb For one mole of an ideal gas, increasing the temperature from 10°C to 20°C ______. Answer: (D) 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. (A) increases the rms velocity by times. (B) increases the average kinetic energy by two times. (C) increases both the average kinetic energy and rms velocity, but not significantly. (D) increases the rms velocity by two times. For the decomposition of a compound AB at 600 K, the following data were obtained: [AB] mol dm3 Rate of decomposition of AB in mol dm3 s1 0.20 2.75 108 0.40 11.0 108 0.60 24.75 108 The order for the decomposition of AB is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1.5 (D) 0 For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of + 2 oxidation state will be there in which of the following order? (A) Cr > Mn > Co > Fe (B) Mn > Fe > Cr > Co (C) Fe > Mn > Co > Cr (D) Co > Mn > Fe > Cr (At. nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27) For the reaction 2HI(g) Ý H2(g) + I2(g) Q KJ , the equilibrium constant depends upon (A) temperature (B) pressure (C) catalyst (D) volume For the reaction Fe2O3 + 3CO 2Fe + 3CO2 the volume of carbon monoxide required to reduce one mole of ferric oxide is (A) 22.4 dm3 (B) 44.8 dm3 (C) 67.2 dm3 (D) 11.2 dm3 Answer: (C) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (A) Answer: (C) For the reaction H20 (l) Ý H2O(g) at 373 K and one atmospheric pressure (A) H = TS (B) H = E (C) H = 0 (D) E = 0 For the reaction N2O(g) + 2(g) Ý 2NO(g), the equilibrium constant is K1. The equilibrium constant is K2 for the reaction 2NO(g) + O2(g) Ý 2NO2(g). What is K for the reaction 7. 8. NO2(g) Ý Answer: (A) Answer: (D) N2(g) + O2(g)? (A) (B) (C) (D) For the reversible reaction A(s) +B(g) Ý C(g) + D(g): G0 = 350kJ. Which one of the following statements is true? (A) Equilibrium constant is greater than one. (B) The entropy change is negative. (C) The reaction is thermodynamically not feasible. (D) The reaction should be instantaneous. Formation of coloured solution is possible when metal ion in the compound contains (A) paired electrons (B) unpaired electrons (C) lone pair of electrons (D) none of these 9. 10. Answer: (A) Answer: (B) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 10 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. Generally, the first ionization energy increases along a period. But there are some exceptions. One which is NOT an exception is ______. (A) Na and Mg (B) N and O (C) Be and B (D) Mg and Al Which one of these is NOT true for benzene? Answer: (A) 8. Answer: (A) 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. (A) There are three carboncarbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds. (B) It forms only one type of monosubstituted product. (C) The bond angle between the carbon-carbon bonds is 1200. (D) The heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than the theoretical value. Gram molecular volume of oxygen at STP is (A) 11200 cm3 (B) 22400 cm3 (C) 5600 cm3 (D) 3200 cm3 Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous behaviour is that graphite (A) has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers. (B) has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms with weak interplate bonds. (C) is a non-crystalline substance. (D) is an allotropic form of carbon. Helium is used in balloons in place of hydrogen because it is (A) incombustible (B) lighter than hydrogen (C) radioactive (D) more abundant than hydrogen Hofmann's bromamide reaction is to convert (A) amine to amide (B) amide to amine (C) alcohol to acid (D) acid to alcohol How many chiral carbon atoms are present in 2, 3, 4 trichloropentane? (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4 How many optically active stereomers are possible for butan2, 3-diol? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Hydrogen gas is not liberated when the following metal is added to dil. HCl (A) Ag (B) Zn (C) Mg (D) Sn Hydroxyl ion concentration of 1M HCl is (A) 1 1014mol dm3 (B) 1 10-1mol dm3 (C) 1 10-13mol dm3 (D) 1 101mol dm3 Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (A) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (A) Answer: (A) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 11 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. Identify the ore not containing iron (A) chalcopyrites (B) carnallite (C) siderite (D) limonite Identify the reaction that does not take place in a blast furnace. (A) CaCO3 CaO + CO2 (B) CaO + Si O2 Ca Si O2 Ca Si O3 (C) 2Fe2O3 + 3C 4Fe + 3CO2 (D) CO2 + C 2CO If n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons will be (A) ns np(n 1)d (n 2)f (B) ns n(n 2)f (n 1)d np (C) ns (n 1)d (n 2)f np (D) ns (n 2)f np (n 1)d If one mole of ammonia and one mole of hydrogen chloride are mixed in a closed container to form ammonium chloride gas, then (A) H > u (B) H = u (C) H < u (D) there is no relationship Answer: (B) 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. If the for a given reaction has a negative value, then which of the following gives the correct relationships for the values ofG° and Keq? (A) Go > 0; Keq < 1 (B) Go > 0; Keq > 1 (C) Go < 0; Keq > 1 (D) Go < 0; Keq < 1 If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol–1 at 27°C, the entropy change for the process would be (A) 100 J mol–1 K–1 (B) 10 J mol–1 K–1 (C) 1.0 J mol–1 K–1 (D) 0.1 J mol–1 K–1 If x is amount of adsorbate and m is amount of adsorbent, which of the following relations is not related to adsorption process? (A) (B) =PT =f(p) at constant T Answer: (C) Answer: (B) Answer: (C) Answer: (A) Answer: (A) Answer: (A) (C) 8. 9. 10. = f(T) at constant p (D) p = f(T) at constant In acetylene molecule, between the carbon atoms there are (A) three sigma bonds (B) two sigma and one pi bonds (C) one sigma and two pi bonds (D) three pi bonds In alkaline medium, alanine exists predominantly as/in ______. (A) zwitterion (B) anion (C) covalent form (D) cation In chromite ore, the oxidation number of iron and chromium are respectively ______. (A) +3, +6 (B) +3, +2 (C) +2, +3 (D) +2, +6 Answer: (C) Answer: (B) Answer: (C) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 12 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. In Dumas' method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound would be (Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm) (A) 14.45 (B) 15.45 (C) 16.45 (D) 17.45 In Kjeldahl's method, ammonia from 5 g of food neutralizes 30 cm3 of 0.1 N acid. The percentage of nitrogen in the food is ______. (A) 8.4 (B) 0.84 (C) 1.68 (D) 16.8 In order to increase the volume of a gas by 10%, the pressure of the gas should be (A) increased by 10 % (B) increased by 1 % (C) decreased by 10 % (D) decreased by 1 % In the brown ring test, the brown colour of the ring is due to Answer: (C) 2. 3. 4. Answer: (B) Answer: (C) Answer: (D) 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. (A) ferrous nitrate (B) ferric nitrate (C) a mixture of NO and NO2 (D) nitrosoferrous sulphate In the electrolytic refining of Zinc, ______. (A) the impure metal is at the cathode. (B) graphite is at the anode. (C) acidified zinc sulphate.is the electrolyte. (D) the metal ion gets reduced at the anode. In the ionic equation Bi + 6H+ + Xe- Bi3+ + 3H2O, the values of X is (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 6 In the periodic table metals usually used as catalysts belong to (A) s - block (B) p - block (C) d - block (D) f - block In which of the following process, a maximum increase in entropy is observed? (A) dissolution of salt in water (B) condensation of water (C) sublimation of naphthalene (D) melting of ice In which of the following, NH3 is not used? (A) Group reagent for the analysis of IV group basic radical. (B) Group reagent for the analysis of IIIgroup basic radical. (C) T0llen's reagent (D) Nessler's reagent In which one of the following, does the given amount of chlorine exert the least pressure in a vessel of capacity 1 dm3 at 273K? (A) 0.071 g (B) 0.0355 g (C) 0.02 mole (D) 6.023 x 1021 molecules Answer: (C) Answer: (C) Answer: (C) Answer: (C) Answer: (D) Answer: (B) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 13 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. Which one of the following statements is true'? (A) Drying of oil involves hydrolysis (B) Saponification of oil yields a diol. (C) Refining of oil involves hydrogenation (D) Addition of antioxidant to oil Answer: (D) 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. minimizes rancidity IUPAC name of (CH3)3CCl (A) 2 chloro 2 methyl propane (B) t-butyl chloride (C) n-butyl chloride (D) 3-chloro butane Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+) Lactose? (A) (+) Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8-OH groups (B) On hydrolysis (+) Lactose gives equal amount of D(+) glucose and D(+) galactose (C) (+) Lactose is a -glycoside formed by the union of a molecule of D(+) glucose and a molecule of D(+) galactose (D) (+) Lactose is reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation ln electrophillic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it (A) increases electron density at meta position (B) increases electron density at ortho and para positions (C) decreases electron density at ortho and para positions (D) decreases electron density at meta position ln the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of Hydrogen per second under S.T.P. condition. The current to be passed is (A) 19.3 Amp (B) 0.965 Amp (C) 1.93 Amp (D) 9.65 Amp Lucas test is associated with (A) Carboxylic acid (B) Alcohols (C) Aldehydes (D) Phenols Malleability and ductility of` metals can be accounted due to (A) the presence of electrostatic force (B) the crystalline structure in metal (C) the capacity of` layers of metal ions to slide over the other (D) the interaction of` electrons with metal ions in the lattice Mass of 0.1 mole of Methane is Answer: (A) Answer: (D) Answer: (C) Answer: (D) Answer: (B) Answer: (C) Answer: (C) (A) 1 g (B) 16 g (C) 1.6 g (D) 0.1 g Maximum number of molecules of CH3I that can react with a molecule of CH3NH2 are (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 3 Mercury is a liquid metal because (A) it has a completely filled s-orbital (B) it has a small atomic size (C) it has a completely filled d-orbital that prevents d-d overlapping of orbitals (D) it has a completely filled d-orbital that causes d-d overlapping 9. 10. Answer: (D) Answer: (C) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 14 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. Mesomeric effect involves delocalisation of (A) pi electrons (B) sigma electrons (C) protons (D) none of these Methoxy methane and ethanol are (A) Position isomers (B) Chain isomers (C) Functional isomers (D) Optical isomers Mg+2 is isoelectronic with (A) Ca2+ (B) Na+ (C) Zn2+ (D) Cu2+ Molarity of a given orthophosphoric acid solution is 3M. It's normality is (A) 1 N (B) 2 N (C) 0.3 N (D) 9 N Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is (A) 1.7700 (B) 0.1770 (C) 0.0177 (D) 0.0344 Molecules of a noble gas do not possess vibrational energy because a noble gas ______. Answer: (A) 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. Answer: (C) Answer: (B) Answer: (D) Answer: (C) Answer: (B) 7. 8. 9. 10. (A) is chemically inert (B) is monoatomic (C) is diamagnetic (D) has completely filled shells N2 + 3H2 Ý 2NH3 + heat. What is the effect of the increase of temperature on the equilibrium of the reaction? (A) equilibrium is shifted to the left (B) equilibrium is shifted to the right (C) equilibrium is unaltered (D) reaction rate does not change Name the type of the structure of silicate in which one oxygen atom of [SiO4]4– is shared? (A) Three dimensional (B) Linear chain silicate (C) Sheet silicate (D) Pyrosilicate n-propyl bromide on treating with alcoholic KOH produces (A) propane (B) propene (C) propyne (D) propanol Of the following complex ions, which is diamagnetic in nature? (A) [CoF6]3– (B) [NiCl4]2– (C) [Ni(CN)4]2– (D) [CuCl4]2– Answer: (A) Answer: (D) Answer: (B) Answer: (C) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 15 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. Of the following which one is classified as polyester polymer? (A) Nylon-66 (B) Terylene (C) Backelite (D) Melamine One dm3 solution containing 105 moles Answer: (B) 2. 3. each of Cl ions and CrO ions is treated with 104 mole of silver nitrate. Which one of the following observations is made? [KSP Ag2 CrO4, = 4 X 1012] [KSP AgCl = 1 x1010] (A) Silver chromate gets precipitated first. (B) Precipitation does not occur. (C) Both silver chromate and silver chloride start precipitating simultaneously. (D) Silver chloride gets precipitated first. One gram of silver gets distributed between 10 cm3 of molten zinc and 100 Answer: (D) Answer: (D) 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. cm3 of molten lead at 800°C. The percentage of silver in the zinc layer is approximately ______. (A) 91 (B) 89 (C) 94 (D) 97 One mole of an organic compound 'A' with the formula C3H8O reacts completely with two moles of HI to form X and Y. When 'Y' is boiled with aqueous alkali forms Z.Z answers the iodoform test. The compound 'A' is ______. (A) Propan 1 o1 (B) Propan 2 o1 (C) methoxyethane (D) ethoxyethane One mole of oxygen at 273 k and one mole of sulphur dioxide at 546 k are taken in two separate containers, then, (A) kinetic energy of O2 > kinetic energy of SO2 . (B) kinetic energy of O2 < kinetic energy of SO2. (C) kinetic energy of both are equal. (D) None of these One mole of which of the following has the highest entropy? (A) liquid nitrogen (B) hydrogen gas (C) mercury (D) diamond Paracetamol is a/ an (A) antimalarial (B) antipyretic (C) analgesic (D) both 2 and 3 Peroxide ion ______. a) is diamagnetic. b) has five completely filled antibonding molecular orbitals. c) is isoelectronic with neon. d) has bond order one. Which one of these is correct? (A) a), b) and d) (B) d) and c) (C) a) and d) (D) a), b) and c) pH value of which one of the following is not equal to one? (A) 0.05 M H2SO4 (B) 0.1 M HNO3 Answer: (C) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (D) Answer: (C) Answer: (D) (C) 50cm3 of 0.4 M HCI +50 cm3 of 0.2M NaOH (D) 0.1 M CH3 COOH 10. Phenol forms a tribromo derivative "X" is ______. (A) bromine in water (B) bromine in benzene (C) bromine in carbon tetrachloride at 0°C. (D) potassium bromide solution Answer: (A) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 16 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. Presence of halogen in organic compounds can be detected using (A) Beilstien's test (B) kjeldahl test (C) Duma's test (D) Leibig's test Rate of physical adsorption increases with (A) decrease in pressure (B) increase in temperature (C) decrease in surface area (D) decrease in temperature Reaction of methyl bromide with aqueous sodium hydroxide involves ______. (A) SN 1 mechanism (B) racemisation (C) SN2 mechanism (D) inversion of configuration Standard electrode potential for Sn4+ / Sn2+ couple is +0.15 V and that for the Cr3+ / Cr couple is –0.74 V. These two couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be (A) +1.83 V (B) +1.19 V (C) +0.89 V (D) +0.18 V Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and Z are – 1.2 V, +0.5 V and –3.0 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be (A) X > Y > Z (B) Y > Z > X (C) Y > X > Z (D) Z > X > Y The activation energy for a reaction at the temperature TK was found to be 2.303 RT J mol1. The ratio of the rate constant to Arrhenius factor is ______. Answer: (A) 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. Answer: (D) Answer: (C) Answer: (C) Answer: (D) Answer: (B) 7. 8. 9. 10. (A) 102 (B) 101 (C) 2102 (D) 2103 The amino acid which is not optically active is (A) glycine (B) alanine (C) serine (D) lactic acid The amount of heat evolved when 500 cm3 of 0.1 M HCI is mixed with 200 cm3 of 0.2 M NaOH is ______. (A) 1.292 kJ (B) 2.292 kJ (C) 3.392 kJ (D) 0.292 kJ The angle strain in cyclobutane is (A) 2444' (B) 2916' (C) 1922' (D) 944' The basic principle of Cottnell's precipitator is (A) Le-chatelier's principle (B) peptisation (C) neutralisation of charge on colloidal particles (D) scattering of light Answer: (A) Answer: (B) Answer: (D) Answer: (C) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 17 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with (A) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine (B) Dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl 2 (C) PCl3 (D) PCl5 Answer: (A) 2. 3. 4. The calculated bond order of super oxide ion ( (A) 2.5 (B) 2 (C) 1.5 (D) 1 The carbon-carbon bond length in Benzene is (A) in between C2H6 and C2H2 (B) in between C2H4 and C2H2 (C) in between C2H6 and C2H4 (D) same as in C2H4 The characteristic not related to alkali metal is (A) low melting point (B) low electronegativity (C) high ionisation energy ) is Answer: (C) Answer: (C) Answer: (C) 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. (D) their ions are isoelectronic with noble gases The chemical name of anisole is (A) Ethanoic acid (B) Methoxy benzene (C) Propanone (D) Acetone The colour of sky is due to (A) transmission of light (B) wavelength of scattered light (C) absorption of light by atmospheric gases (D) All of these The complex, [Pt (Py) (lNH3) Br Cl ] will have how many geometrical isomers? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 0 The complexes [Co (NH3)6] [Cr (CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] are the examples of which type of isomerism? (A) Geometrical isomerism (B) Linkage isomerism (C) Ionization isomerism (D) Coordination isomerism The compound obtained when acetaldehyde reacts with dilute aqueous sodium hydroxide exhibits ______. (A) optical isomerism (B) geometric isomerism (C) both optical and geometric isomerism (D) neither optical nor geometric isomerism The compound on dehydrogenation gives a ketone. The original compound is (A) primary alcohol (B) secondary alcohol (C) tertiary alcohol (D) carboxylic acid Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (D) Answer: (A) Answer: (B) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 18 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. The compound which forms acetaldehyde when heated with dilute NaOH is (A) 1 Chloro ethane (B) 1, 2 Dichloro ethane (C) 1, 1 Dichloro ethane (D) 1, 1, 1 Trichloro ethane Answer: (C) 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. The compound which is not founded during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium format and calcium acetate is (A) Propanone (B) Ethanal (C) Methanal (D) Propanal The condensation polymer among the following is (A) PVC (B) Polyethene (C) Rubber (D) Protein The correct order in which the first ionisation potential increases is (A) Na, K, Be (B) K, Na, Be (C) K, Be, Na (D) Be, Na, K The correct order of increasing bond length of C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C is (A) C H < C O < C – C < C = C (B) C H < C = C < C – O < C C (C) C C < C = C < C O < C H (D) C O < C H < C C < C = C The correct order of ionisation energy of C, N, O, F is (A) C < N < O < F (B) C < O < N < F (C) F < O < N < C (D) F < N < C < O The correct sequence of reactions to convert p-nitrophenol into quinol involves ______. (A) hydrolysis, diazotization and reduction (B) reduction, diazotization and hydrolysis (C) diazotization, reduction and hydrolysis (D) hydrolysis, reduction and diazotization The correct sequence of steps involved in the mechanism of Cannizzaro's reaction is ______. (A) transfer of H, transfer of H+ and nucleophilic attack (B) nucleophilic attack, transfer of H and transfer of H+ (C) electrophilic attack by OH, transfer of H+ and transfer of H (D) transfer of H+, nucleophilic attack and transfer of H The correct set of four Quantum numbers for outermost electron of Potassium (Z = 19) is Answer: (D) Answer: (D) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (A) (A) 4, 0, 0, (B) 3, 0, 0, (C) 4, 1, 0, (D) 3, 1, 0, 10. The correct statement with regard to and (A) (B) Answer: (B) is is more stable than is more stable than (C) Both and are equally stable (D) Both and do not exist Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 17 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with (A) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine (B) Dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl 2 (C) PCl3 (D) PCl5 Answer: (A) 2. 3. 4. 5. The calculated bond order of super oxide ion ( (A) 2.5 (B) 2 (C) 1.5 (D) 1 The carbon-carbon bond length in Benzene is (A) in between C2H6 and C2H2 (B) in between C2H4 and C2H2 (C) in between C2H6 and C2H4 (D) same as in C2H4 The characteristic not related to alkali metal is (A) low melting point (B) low electronegativity (C) high ionisation energy (D) their ions are isoelectronic with noble gases The chemical name of anisole is (A) Ethanoic acid (B) Methoxy benzene (C) Propanone (D) Acetone ) is Answer: (C) Answer: (C) Answer: (C) Answer: (B) 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. The colour of sky is due to (A) transmission of light (B) wavelength of scattered light (C) absorption of light by atmospheric gases (D) All of these The complex, [Pt (Py) (lNH3) Br Cl ] will have how many geometrical isomers? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 0 The complexes [Co (NH3)6] [Cr (CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] are the examples of which type of isomerism? (A) Geometrical isomerism (B) Linkage isomerism (C) Ionization isomerism (D) Coordination isomerism The compound obtained when acetaldehyde reacts with dilute aqueous sodium hydroxide exhibits ______. (A) optical isomerism (B) geometric isomerism (C) both optical and geometric isomerism (D) neither optical nor geometric isomerism The compound on dehydrogenation gives a ketone. The original compound is (A) primary alcohol (B) secondary alcohol (C) tertiary alcohol (D) carboxylic acid Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (D) Answer: (A) Answer: (B) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 18 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. The compound which forms acetaldehyde when heated with dilute NaOH is (A) 1 Chloro ethane (B) 1, 2 Dichloro ethane (C) 1, 1 Dichloro ethane (D) 1, 1, 1 Trichloro ethane The compound which is not founded during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium format and calcium acetate is (A) Propanone (B) Ethanal (C) Methanal (D) Propanal The condensation polymer among the following is (A) PVC (B) Polyethene Answer: (C) 2. 3. Answer: (D) Answer: (D) 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. (C) Rubber (D) Protein The correct order in which the first ionisation potential increases is (A) Na, K, Be (B) K, Na, Be (C) K, Be, Na (D) Be, Na, K The correct order of increasing bond length of C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C is (A) C H < C O < C – C < C = C (B) C H < C = C < C – O < C C (C) C C < C = C < C O < C H (D) C O < C H < C C < C = C The correct order of ionisation energy of C, N, O, F is (A) C < N < O < F (B) C < O < N < F (C) F < O < N < C (D) F < N < C < O The correct sequence of reactions to convert p-nitrophenol into quinol involves ______. (A) hydrolysis, diazotization and reduction (B) reduction, diazotization and hydrolysis (C) diazotization, reduction and hydrolysis (D) hydrolysis, reduction and diazotization The correct sequence of steps involved in the mechanism of Cannizzaro's reaction is ______. (A) transfer of H, transfer of H+ and nucleophilic attack (B) nucleophilic attack, transfer of H and transfer of H+ (C) electrophilic attack by OH, transfer of H+ and transfer of H (D) transfer of H+, nucleophilic attack and transfer of H The correct set of four Quantum numbers for outermost electron of Potassium (Z = 19) is Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (A) (A) 4, 0, 0, (B) 3, 0, 0, (C) 4, 1, 0, (D) 3, 1, 0, 10. The correct statement with regard to Answer: (B) and (A) (B) is is more stable than is more stable than (C) Both and are equally stable (D) Both and do not exist Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 19 Sr. No. 1. 2. Question Answer 2+, The d-electron configurations of Cr Mn2+, Fe2+ and Co2+are d4, d5, d6 and d7 respectively. Which one of the following will exhibit minimum paramagnetic behaviour? (A) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (B) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (C) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Co(H2O)6]2+ (At. nos. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27) The electrode potentials for Answer: (D) Answer: (C) and are + 0.15 V and + 0.50 3. 4. V respectively. The value of will be (A) 0.150 V (B) 0.500 V (C) 0.325 V (D) 0.650 V The electronic configuration of Cr 3+ is (A) [Ar]3d54s1 (B) [Ar]3d24s1 (C) [Ar]3d34s0 (D) [Ar]3d44s2 The electrophile involved in the sulphonation of Benzene is Answer: (C) Answer: (B) (A) (B) so3 (C) 5. (D) The empirical formula of a nonelectrolyte is C1H2O1. A solution containing 6 g of the compound exerts the same osmotic pressure as that of 0.05 M glucose solution at the same temperature. The molecular formula of the Answer: (C) 6. compound is ______. (A) C3H6O3 (B) C2H4O2 (C) C4H8O4 (D) C5H10O5 The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their wavelengths i.e. be 7. 8. 9. 10. (A) = (B) = (C) =2 and Answer: (C) will (D) =4 The enthalpy of formation of NH3 is 46 kJ mo11. The enthalpy change for the reaction : 2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g) is (A) +92kJ (B) +46 kJ (C) +184 kJ (D) +23 kJ The following data is obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of 2A(g) B(g) + C(s) , at constant volume and temperature. Sr. No. Time Total pressure in Pascal 1 At the end of 10 minutes 300 300 2 After completion 200 200 The rate constant in min1 is ______. (A) 6.93 (B) 0.0693 (C) 69.3 (D) 0.00693 The freezing point depression constant for water is –1.86°Cm–1. If 5.00 g Na2SO4 is dissolved in 45.0 g H2O, the freezing point is changed by 3.82°C. Calculate the van't Hoff factor for Na2SO4 (A) 0.381 (B) 2.05 (C) 2.63 (D) 3.11 The function of Fe(OH)3 in the contact process is (A) to remove moisture (B) to remove dust particles (C) to remove arsenic impurity (D) to detect colloidal impurity Answer: (A) Answer: (B) Answer: (C) Answer: (C) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 20 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. The general formula of a cycloalkane is (A) CnH2n + 2 (B) CnH2n 2 (C) CnH2n (D) CnHn The incorrect statement in respect of Chromyl chloride test is (A) formation of Chromyl chloride (B) liberation of Chlorine (C) formation of red vapours (D) formation of lead chromate The IUPAC name for tertiary butyl iodide is (A) 4-Iodobutane (B) 2-Iodobutane (C) 1-Iodo, 3-methyl propane (D) 2-Iodo 2·methyl propane The IUPAC name of [Co(NH3)5 ONO]2+ ion is (A) Penta ammine nitro cobalt (III) ion (B) Penta ammine nitro cobalt (IV) ion (C) Penta ammine nitrito cobalt (IV) ion (D) Penta ammine nitrito cobalt (III) ion The IUPAC name of K2 [Ni (CN)4] is ______. (A) Potassium tetracyanatonickelate (II) (B) Potassium tetracyanonickelate (II) (C) Potassium tetracyanonickel (III) (D) Potassium tetracyanatonickel (II) The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with conc. HNO 3 while testing for halogens. By doing so it. Answer: (C) 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. (A) Increase the concentration of ions (B) Decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed (C) Helps in the precipitation of AgCl (D) Increases the solubility product of AgCl The letter 'D' in D glucose signifies ______. (A) dextrorotatory (B) configuration at all chiral carbons (C) configuration at a particular chiral carbon (D) that it is a monosaccharide The magnetic moment of a transition metal ion is B.M. Therefore the number of unpaired electrons present in it is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 The mass of a metal, with equivalent mass 31.75, which would combine with 8 g of oxygen is (A) 31.75 (B) 3.175 Answer: (B) Answer: (D) Answer: (D) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (C) Answer: (C) Answer: (A) 10. (C) 8 (D) 1 The maximum number of hydrogen bonds that a molecule of water can have is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Answer: (D) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 21 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. The monomers of Buna-S rubber are (A) vinyl chloride and sulphur (B) butadiene (C) styrene and butadiene (D) isoprene and butadiene The noble gas mixture is cooled in a coconut bulb at 173 K. The gases that are not adsorbed are (A) He and Ne (B) Ar and Kr (C) He and Xe (D) Ne and Xe Which one of the following shows functional isomerism? (A) CH2Cl2 (B) C2H5OH (C) C3H6 (D) C2H4 The number of disulphide linkages present in insulin are (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 The number of gram molecules of chlorine in 6.02 1025hydrogen chloride molecules is (A) 5 (B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 10 The number of nodal planes present in s antibonding orbitals is (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 3 The number of unidentate ligands in the complex ion is called (A) EAN (B) Coordination number (C) primary valency (D) oxidation number Answer: (C) 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. Answer: (A) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (B) Answer: (A) Answer: (B) 8. 9. 10. The one which has least Iodine value is (A) Ghee (B) Groundnut oil (C) Sunflower oil (D) Ginger oil The order of stability of metal oxides is (A) Fe2O3 < Cr2O3 < AIZO3 < MgO (B) Fe2O3 < Al2O3 < Cr2O3 < MgO (C) Al2O3 < MgO < Fe2O3< Cr2O3 (D) Cr2O3 < MgO < Al2O3 < Fe2O3 Which one of the following statement is no true? (A) Oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are the most widespread air pollutant (B) pH of drinking water should be between 5.5 – 9.5 (C) Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish (D) Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm Answer: (A) Answer: (A) Answer: (C) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 22 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. Which one of the following is wrongly matched? (A) [Ni(CO)4] neutral ligand (B) [Cu (NH3 )4]+2 square planar (C) [Co (en )3 ]+3 follows EAN rule (D) [Fe (CN )6]3 sp3d2 The oxidation state of iron in K4 [Fe (CN )6] is (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1 The oxide of an element whose electronic configuration is ls2 2s2 2p6 3s1 is (A) Basic (B) Acidic (C) Neutral (D) Amphoteric The product formed when hydroxylamine condenses with a carbonyl compound is called (A) hydrazone (B) hydrazine (C) oxime (D) hydrazide The r.m.s. velocity of molecules of a gas of density 4 kg m3 and pressure 1.2 105 Nm2 is (A) 120 ms1 (B) 600 ms1 (C) 300 ms1 (D) 900 ms1 The rate equation for a reaction: A B is r = K [A]°. If the Answer: (D) 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. Answer: (A) Answer: (A) Answer: (C) Answer: (C) Answer: (C) initial concentration of the reactant is a mol dm3, the half life period of the reaction is (A) (B) (C) 7. 8. 9. 10. (D) The reaction involved in the oil of Winter Green test is Salicylic acid product. The product is treated with N&2CO3 solution. The missing reagent in the above reaction is (A) Ethanol (B) Methanol (C) Phenol (D) NaOH The reagent used in Clemmenson's reduction is (A) alc. KOH (B) aq. K0H (C) Zn-Hg / con. HCl (D) Conc. H2SO4 The reagent used to convert an alkyne to alkene is (A) Zn / HCl (B) Sn / HCl (C) Zn Hg / HCl (D) Pd / H2 The set of quantum numbers for the outermost electron for copper in its ground state is ______. (A) 3, 2, 2, +½ (B) 4, 1, 1, +½ (C) 4, 2, 2, +½ (D) 4, 0, 0, +½ Answer: (B) Answer: (C) Answer: (D) Answer: (D) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 23 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. The spin only magnetic moment of Mn+4 ion is nearly ______. (A) 6 BM (B) 3 BM (C) 5 BM (D) 4 BM The standard electrode potential for the half cell reactions are: Answer: (D) 2. Answer: (B) 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. Zn++ + 2e Zn E° = 0.76 V Fe++ + 2e Fe E° = 0.44 V The E.M.F. of the cell reaction : Fe++ + Zn Zn++ +Fe is (A) +1.20V (B) +0.32V (C) -0.32 V (D) -1.20 V The standard emf of a galvanic cell involving 3 moles of electrons in its redox reaction is 0.59 V. The equilibrium constant for the reaction of the cell is ______. (A) 1020 (B) 1025 (C) l030 (D) 1015 The temperature of the slag zone in the metallurgy of Iron using blast furnace is (A) 400 700 °C (B) 800 1000 °C (C) 1200 1500 °C (D) 1500 1600 °C The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is (A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 32 The value of H for the reaction X2g + 4Y2(g) Ý 2XY4(g) is less than zero. Formation of XY4(g) will be favoured at (A) High pressure and low temperature (B) High temperature and high pressure (C) Low pressure and low temperature (D) High temperature and low pressure The van't Hoff factor i for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent and association in other solvent is respectively (A) Greater than one and greater than one (B) Less than one and greater than one (C) Less than one and less than one (D) Greater than one and less than one The volume of 10N and 4N HCl required to make 1 litre of 7N HCl are (A) 0.75 litre of 10N HCl and 0.25 litre of 4N HCl (B) 0.80 litre of 10N HCl and 0.20 litre of 4N HCl (C) 0.60 litre of 10N HCl and 0.40 litre of 4N HCl (D) 0.50 litre of 10N HCl and 0.50 litre of Answer: (C) Answer: (B) Answer: (C) Answer: (A) Answer: (D) Answer: (D) 9. 4N HCl The wave number of the spectral line in the emission spectrum of hydrogen will be Answer: (B) 10. equal to times the Rydberg's constant if the electron jumps from ______. (A) n = 10 t0 n = 1 (B) n = 3 to n = 1 (C) n = 2 t0 n = 1 (D) n = 9 t0 n = 1 There are 20 naturally occurring amino acids. The maximum number of tripeptides that can be obtained is (A) 7465 (B) 5360 (C) 8000 (D) 6410 Answer: (C) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 24 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. Thermodynamic standard conditions of temperature and pressure are (A) 0C and 1 atm (B) 273 k and 101.3 k Pa (C) 298 k and 1 atm (D) 0C and 101.3 k Pa Three moles of PCl5, three moles of PCI3 and two moles of Clz are taken in a closed vessel. If at equilibrium the vessel has 1.5 moles of PCl5, the number of moles of PCl3 present in it is (A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 4.5 Time required for 100 percent completion of a zero order reaction is ______. Answer: (C) 2. 3. Answer: (D) Answer: (D) (A) (B) (C) a k 4. (D) Two gases A and B having the same volume diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and 10 seconds respectively. The molecular mass of A is 49 u. Molecular mass of B will be (A) 25.00 u (B) 50.00 u Answer: (C) 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. (C) 12.25 u (D) 6.50 u Vapour pressure of pure 'A' is 70 mm of Hg at 25 °C. It forms an ideal solution with 'B' in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. lf the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25 °C, the vapour pressure of pure 'B' at 25 °C is (A) 70 mm (B) 140 mm (C) 28 mm (D) 56 mm Waxes are esters of (A) glycerol (B) long chain alcohols (C) glycerol and fatty acid (D) long chain alcohols and long chain fatty acids When a sulphur sol is evaporated sulphur is obtained. On mixing with water sulphur sol is not formed. The sol is (A) hydrophilic (B) hydrophobic (C) reversible (D) lyophilic When carbon monoxide is passed over solid caustic soda heated to 200°C, it forms (A) Na2CO3 (B) NaHCO3 (C) HCOONa (D) CH3COONa When compared to G0 for the formation of Al2O3 , the AG0 for the formation of Cr2O3 is (A) higher (B) lower (C) same (D) unpredicted When conc. H2SO4 is heated with P2 05 , the acid is converted into (A) sulphur (B) sulphur dioxide (C) sulphur trioxide (D) a mixture of sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide Answer: (B) Answer: (D) Answer: (B) Answer: (C) Answer: (A) Answer: (C) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 25 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. When KBr is dissolved in water, K+ ions are (A) oxidised (B) reduced (C) hydrolysed (D) hydrated Answer: (D) 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. When sulphur dioxide is passed in an acidified K2Cr2 O7 solution, the oxidation state of sulphur is changed from (A) + 4 to 0 (B) + 4 to + 2 (C) + 4 to + 6 (D) + 6 to + 4 When the azimuthal quantum number has the value of 2, the number of orbitals possible are (A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) O Which complex can not ionise in solution? (A) [Pt(NH3)6] Cl4 (B) K2[pt(F6)] (C) K4[Fe(CN)6] (D) [CoCl3(NH3)3] Which is the most easily liquifiable rare gas? (A) Xe (B) Kr (C) Ar (D) Ne Which metal has a greater tendency to form metal oxide? (A) Cr (B) Fe (C) Al (D) Ca Which of the following can be measured by the Ostwald-Walker dynamic method (A) Relative lowering of vapour pressure (B) Lowering of vapour pressure (C) Vapour pressure of the solvent (D) all of these Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point? (A) CaF2 (B) CaCl2 (C) CaBr2 (D) CaI2 Which of the following electrolytic solutions has the least specific conductance `? (A) 0.02 N (B) 0.2 N (C) 2 N (D) 0.002 N Which of the following elements is present as the impurity to the maximum extent in Answer: (C) Answer: (B) Answer: (D) Answer: (A) Answer: (D) Answer: (A) Answer: (D) Answer: (D) Answer: (C) the pig iron? (A) Phosphorus (B) Manganese (C) Carbon (D) Silicon Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 26 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. Which of the following forms a colour less solution in aqueous medium? (A) Ti 3+ (B) Sc 3+ (C) V 3+ (D) Cr 3+ Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired 'd' electrons? (A) Zn2+ (B) Fe2+ (C) Ni3+ (D) Cu+ Which of the following has the minimum bond length? (A) O2 Answer: (B) 2. 3. Answer: (B) Answer: (B) (B) (C) 4. 5. 6. 7. (D) Which of the following is an intensive property? (A) temperature (B) surface tension (C) viscosity (D) all of these Which of the following is correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition? (A) q = 0, T < 0, w 0 (B) q = 0, T 0, w = 0 (C) q 0, T = 0, w = 0 (D) q = 0, T = 0, w = 0 Which of the following is least likely to behave is Lewis base? (A) OH– (B) H2O (C) NH3 (D) BF3 Which of the following organic compounds answers to both iodoform test Answer: (D) Answer: (D) Answer: (D) Answer: (C) and Fehling's test'? (A) ethanol (B) methanal (C) ethanal (D) propanone Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method? (A) Ni and Fe (B) Ga and In (C) Zr and Ti (D) Ag and Au Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action? (A) CaCl2 (B) CaOCl2 (C) Ca(OCl)2 (D) CaO2Cl Which of the following species does not exert a resonance effect? (A) C6H5NH2 (B) C6H5NH3 (C) C6H5OH (D) C6H5Cl 8. 9. 10. Answer: (C) Answer: (C) Answer: (B) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 27 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. Which of the two ions from the list given below that have the geometry that is explained by the same hybridization of Answer: (B) orbitals, 2. 3. ? (A) and (B) and (C) and (D) SCN and Which one of the following conformations of cyclohexane is the least stable? (A) Boat (B) Half-chair (C) Chair (D) Twisted-boat Which one of the following conversions involve change in both hybridization and shape? (A) NH3 NH (B) CH4 C2H6 Answer: (B) Answer: (D) (C) H2O H3O+ 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. (D) BF3 BF Which one of the following does NOT involve coagulation? (A) Peptization (B) Formation of delta regions (C) Clotting of blood by the use of ferric chloride (D) Treatment of drinking water by potash alum Which one of the following forms propanenitrile as the major product? (A) Propyl bromide + alcoholic KCN (B) Ethyl bromide + alcoholic KCN (C) Ethyl bromide + alcoholic AgCN (D) Propyl bromide + alcoholic AgCN Which one of the following has maximum number of atoms of oxygen? (A) 2 g of water (B) 2 g of sulphur dioxide (C) 2 g of carbon dioxide (D) 2 g of carbon monoxide. Which one of the following is a molecular crystal? (A) Quartz (B) Rock salt (C) Diamond (D) Dry ice Which one of the following is a second order reaction? (A) CH3COOCH3 + NaOH CH3COONa + H2O (B) H2 + Cl2 2HCl (C) NH4NO3 N2 + 3H2O (D) H2 + Br2 2HBr Which one of the following is an example for homogeneous catalysis? (A) Manufacture of ammonia by Haber's process (B) Manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process (C) Hydrogenation of oil (D) Hydrolysis of sucrose in presence of dilute hydrochloric acid Which one of the following is employed as Antithistamine? (A) Omeprazole (B) Chloramphenicol (C) Diphenyl hydramine (D) Norothindrone Answer: (A) Answer: (B) Answer: (A) Answer: (D) Answer: (A) Answer: (D) Answer: (C) Chemistry Model Question Paper - MCQs Test 28 Sr. No. Question Answer 1. Based on the first law of thermodynamics, which one of the following is correct? (A) For an isochoric process, ΔU = q (B) For an isochoric process, q = +w (C) For a cyclic process, q = w (D) For an adiabatic process, ΔU = w G0 Vs T plot in the Ellingham's diagram slopes downwards for the reaction Answer: (C) 2. (A) Mg + (B) 2Ag + (C) C + 3. Answer: (C) O2 MgO O2 Ag2O O2 CO (D) CO + O2 CO2 -maltose consists of Answer: (C) (A) two -D-glucopyranose units with 1-2 glycosidic linkage (B) one -D-glucopyranose units and one -Dglucopyranose unit with 1-2 glycosidic linkage (C) two -D-glucopyranose units with 1-4 glycosidic linkage 4. 5. (D) two -D-glucopyranose units with 1-4 glycosidic linkage 0.06 mole of KNO3 solid is added to 100 cm3 of water at 298 k. The enthalpy of KNO3aq solution is 35.8 kJmol1. After the solute is dissolved the temperature of the solution will be (A) 293 k (B) 298 k (C) 301 k (D) 304 k 1 × 10–3 m solution of Pt(NH3)4Cl4 in H2O shows depression in freezing point by 0.0054°C. The structure of the compound will be (Given Kfp(H2O) = 1.860 km–1) (A) [Pt(NH3)4]Cl4 (B) [Pt(NH3)3Cl]Cl3 (C) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]Cl2 Answer: (A) Answer: (C) 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. (D) Pt(NH3)Cl3]Cl 1.2 g of organic compound on Kjeldahilization liberates ammonia which consumes 30 cm3 of 1 N HCl. The percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound is ______. (A) 35 (B) 30 (C) 20.8 (D) 46.67 50 cm3 of 0.2 N HCl is titrated against 0.1 N NaOH solution. The titration was discontinued after adding 50 cm3 of NaOH. The remaining titration is completed by adding 0.5 N KOH. The volume of KOH required for completing the titration is (A) 12 cm3 (B) 10 cm3 (C) 21.0 cm3 (D) 16.2 cm3 9.65 coulombs of electric current is passed through fused anhydrous MgCl2. The magnesium metal thus obtained is completely converted into a Grignard reagent. The number of moles of Grignard reagent obtained is (A) 1 10–4 (B) 5 10–4 (C) 1 10–5 (D) 5 10–5 A buffer solution contains 0.1 mole of sodium acetate dissolved in 1000 cm3 of 0.1 M acetic acid. To the above buffer solution, 0.1 mole of sodium acetate is further added and dissolved. The pH of the resulting buffer is ______. (A) pKa + 1 (B) pKa (C) pKa + Log 2 (D) pKa = Log 2 A chemical reaction proceeds into the following steps Step I, 2A Ý X fast Step II, X + B Ý Y slow Step III, Y + B Ý Product fast The rate law for the overall reaction is (A) Rate = k[A]2 (B) Rate = k[B]2 (C) Rate = k[A][B] (D) Rate = k[A]2[B] Answer: (A) Answer: (B) Answer: (D) Answer: (C) Answer: (D) 11. A mixture of CaCl2 and NaCl weighing 4.44 g is treated with sodium carbonate solution to precipitate all the calcium ions as calcium carbonate. The calcium carbonate so obtained is heated strongly to get 0.56 g of CaO. The percentage of NaCl in the mixture is [Atomic mass of Ca = 40] (A) 75 (B) 31.5 (C) 40.2 (D) 25 12. Answer: (A) Answer: (B) A plot of In k against (abscissa) is expected to be a straight line with intercept on ordinate axis equal to (A) (B) (C) (D) R S 13. 14. 15. A radioactive atom emits two particles and one particle successively. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of the product will be (A) X – 4 – Y (B) X – Y – 5 (C) X – Y – 3 (D) X – Y – 6 A solution is 0.1 M with respect to Ag+, Ca2+, Mg2+ and AI3+ which will precipitate at lowest concentration of [ ] when solution of Na3PO4 is added? (A) Ag3PO4(Ksp = 1 × 10–6) (B) Ca3(PO4)2(Ksp = 1 × 10–33) (C) Mg3(PO4)2(Ksp = 1 × 10–24) (D) AIPO4(Ksp = 1 × 10–20) A solution of two liquids boils at a temperature more than the boiling point of either of them. Hence, the binary solution shows (A) positive deviation from Raoult's law (B) negative deviation from Raoult's law (C) positive or negative deviation from Raoult's law depending upon the composition (D) no deviation from Raoult's law Answer: (B) Answer: (D) Answer: (B)