Download In which of the following locations (spaces), there is collection of pus

1. In which of the following locations (spaces), there is collection of pus in
quinsy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Peritonsillar space
Parapharyngeal space
Retropharyngeal space
Within tonsil
2. Type of voice in nasopharyngeal fibroma is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rhinolalia aperta
Rhinolalia clausa
Hot-potato voice
Staccato voice
3. Most common benign tumour of oesophagus is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Leiomyoma
Lipoma
Fibroma
Papilloma
4. Amount of saliva secreted in 24 hours is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
50—100 ml
200—300ml
600—800 ml
1000—1500m1
5. Xerostomias can be caused by all of the following except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Antihistamines
Uraemia
Sjögren’s syndrome
Mouth breathing
Cerebral palsy
6. Non-neoplastic, non-inflammatory enlargement of parotid glands is seen
in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Obesity
Hypothyroidism
Diabetes mellitus
Malnutrition
All of the above
7. Most common site of origin of pleomorphic adenoma is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Parotid gland
Submandibular salivary gland
Minor salivary glands of soft and hard palate
Minor salivary glands of lip
1
8. Sensory nerve supply above the level of vocal cords is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Glossopharyngeal
Superior laryngeal
Recurrent laryngeal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
9. All of the following laryngeal cartilages undergo calcification except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Thyroid
Cricoid
Epiglottis
Arytenoid
10.Type of epithelium lining the vocal cords is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Keratinising stratified squamous
Non-keratinising stratified squamous
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
Cuboidal
11. Reinke’s oedema is responsible for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Vocal nodule
Vocal polyp
Diffuse polypoid degeneration of vocal cords
Laryngeal cyst
12. Laryngeal web most commonly involves region of:
A. Supraglottitis
B. Glottis
C. Subglottis
D. Both (a) and (b)
13. Acute epiglottitis in children is mostly caused by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Para-inf)uenzae type 1 and 2
Respiratory syncytial virus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae type B
14. Regarding multiple laryngeal papillomas of larynx, all are true except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Caused by a virus
Recurrent in nature
Premalignant
Laser excision is the best treatment
2
15. The highest incidence of distant metastases in laryngeal cancer is seen
in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lung
Bone
Liver
Brain
16. Most common malignancy seen in AIDS patients is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Kaposi’s sarcoma
Cancer nasopharynx
Hairy Leukoplia
17. Chemotherapy used after surgery or radiotherapy for cancer is termed
as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Combination chemotherapy
Adjuvant chemotherapy
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy
Concomitant chemotherapy
18. Typical clinical features of Horner’s syndrome include all except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dilated pupil
Ptosis
Enophthalmos
Nasal Stuffiness
19. Aim of mastoid surgery in CSOM which should receive first priority is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Making the ear dry
Improvement in hearing
Preservation of hearing
Rendering the ear safe
20. Which of the following muscles is most important in opening of the
eustach Ian tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Levator veil palatini
Tensor veil palatini
Salpingopharyngeus
Buccinator
Lateral pterygoid
21. Which of the following statements BEST describes the development of
the ear in an otherwise healthy child?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
At birth the ossicles are approximately half their eventual adult size.
The auricle develops from the ectoderm of the first three branchial arches.
At birth the auricle is adult shape and size.
The first otologic structure to develop is the inner ear.
The bony labyrinth develops from six separate centres of ossification.
3
22. What is the MOST common soft tissue malignancy in childhood?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Osteosarcoma
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Fibro-ossifying sarcoma Hemangiopericytoma
E. Neurofibiosarcoma
23. Which of the following statements concerning cutaneous hamangiomas
is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Haemangiomas are considered vascular malformations.
Haemangiomas are always present at birth.
Surgical removal of a haemangiomas is the primary treatment
A port wine stain is a cutaneous haemangioma involving the face.
Subglottic haemangiomas are frequently associated with cutaneous lesions.
24. Which of the following is LEAST associated with Down’s syndrome?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Low-set ears
Subglottic stenosis
Subglottic haemangioma
Otitis media with effusion
Relative gA deficiency
25. You are asked to see a 2-year-old child with suspected sinusitis.
Which of the following sinuses is UNLIKELY to be involved?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
Maxillary
All of the above: a child of this age would not develop sinusitis
They all have an equal chance of being involved
26. Concerning nasal ciliary physiology and anatomy, which of the
following statements is LEAST accurate?
A. The nose is lined by ciliated pseudostratified glandular columnar epithelium.
B. The nasal cilia are arranged as 9 microtubule doublets formed in an outer circle
around a central pair.
C. The outer microtubular doublets are linked by the protein nexin.
D. Ciliary movement is described as having 2 phases.
E. Normal ciliary beat frequency is approximately 10—25 beats per minute.
27. Which of the following bones do not form part of the osteology of the
lateral nasal wall?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Maxilla
Palatine l
Ethmoid
Perpendicular plate of the sphenoid
Inferior turbinate
4
28. A 44 year male with a 4-month history of anosmia reports that he can
still smell ammc’nia. Which cranial nerve is likely to be responsible for
this?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
One — olfactory
Five — trigeminal
Seven — facial
Nine — glossopharyngeal
Ten — vagus
29. A 79-year-old man presents to the clinic with left-sided nasal discharge
and obstruction. A mass is found arising from the ethmoid sinuses and
histology shows an adenocarcinoma.
Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for developing
this disease?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Smoking
Alcohol
A and B
Wood dust
Asbestos
30. A 14-year-old boy presents to the hospital accompanied by his father
with hypovolaemic shock and active bleeding following a secondary
tonsillar haemorrhage. He has a haemoglobin of 5.5 g!dl on a blood
gas. You advise that the boy requires resuscitation including blood
transfusion and return to theatre to arrest the haemorrhage. The boy
informs you that he is a Jehovah’s Witness and he forbids you to
perform a blood transfusion. What is the next MOST appropriate
action?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Call a senior colleague and ask him to come in to give a second opinion.
Call the blood bank to find a cell saver device.
Perform the blood transfusion as clinically indicated.
Contact the hospital lawyer for advice.
Perform all measures necessary except the transfusion
31. Tumours of the lower tip are typically:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Basal cell carcinomas
Associated with poor oral hygiene
Associated with neck metastases in 45% of patients at presentation
Almost universally in males
Associated with tate metastasis in 50%
5
32. What is the single most common cause of an incorrect blood
transfusion being administered?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Laboratory error
Error in blood donor centre
Minor antigen reaction
Clerical error by doctor
Failure in pre-transfusion bedside checking
33. Which of the following is LEAST Likely to improve the symptoms from
an anterior nasal septal perforation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Nasal hygiene
Free tissue transfer cartilage graft repair (cartilage, perichondrium only)
Silastic button placement
Local flap repair
Free tissue transfer composite graft repair (epithelium, cartilage, epithetium)
34. A 42-year-old male presents with nasaL obstruction. A CT of the
paranasal sinuses is reported as showing opacification of the right
maxillary sinus with ‘doubLe density’ signals throughout the sinus.
Which of the followir.g is the LEAST likely pathology?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Allergic fungat sinusitis
Chondrosarcoma
Inverted papilloma
Antrochoanal polyp
Ossifying fibroma
35. Endotracheal intubation of patients with laryngeal injuries is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Problematic and should be avoided
Beneficial in all patients and avoids the need for tracheotomy
Permissible and frequently safely performed in the emergency room setting
Permissible when the airway appears intact and skilled personnel are available.
Cricothyrotomy or tracheotomy are the only options
36. Which of the following statements best describes the role of computed
tomography of the larynx after blunt trauma?
A. All patients with suspected laryngeal injuries should undergo computed
tomography to document the extent of their injury.
B. Computed tomography should be used only when the results of the study will
influence the course of treatment.
C. Suspected fractures of the laryngeal ‘skeleton that are difficult to document by
physical examination should be viewed by computed tomography.
D. b and c
E. All of the above
6
37. Which of the following is true regarding vocal fold nodules?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
They are often seen in men.
They are rarely unilateral.
They result from trauma to capillaries.
They are most often treated surgically.
They are rarely associated with vocal abuse.
38.Which of the following risk factors are associated with laryngeal
cancer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Gastroesophageal reflux
Human papillomavirus
Alcohol use
Second-hand tobacco smoke
All of the above
39. The most important factor in predicting facial nerve recovery after
temporal bone fracture is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Severity of injury
Timing of onset
Presence of associated infection
Presence of sensorineural hearing loss
40.Which of the following statements about bullous myringitis is true?
A. The infection is usually painless.
B. The etiology may be viral.
C. The presentation involves an sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) alone.
D. The hearing loss is usually permanent.
E. The drainage is typically thick and mucopurulent.
41. Which one of the following has not been pro posed as an anatomic
mechanism of noise damage?
A. Mechanical injury
B. Metabolic exhaustion
C. Isehemia
D. Ionic poisoning
E. Chronic bleeding
42. Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause permanent
Sensorineural hearing loss in patients?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Erythromycjn
Vancomycin
Furosemide
Cisplatin
Torsemide
7
43. The pathology of hearing loss from congenital viral infections occurs
primarily in the
A. Perilymphatic structures
B. Endolymphatic structures
C. Spiral ganglia
D. Vestibular ganglia
E. All of the above
44. Hearing loss from mumps is most commonly
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Bilateral and congenital
Unilateral and congenital
Bilateral and acquired in childhood
Unilateral and acquired in childhood
Unilateral and acquired in adulthood
45. What is the mechanism of caloric stimulation of the labyrinth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Heating of the horizontal canal
Heating of the anterior canal
Direct stimulation of vestibular afferents
Heating of the horizontal canal and direct stimulation of afferents
None of the above
46. Which statement is true regarding the cochlear endolymph and
perilymph?
A. Perilymph is contained within the scala media and exhibits a high K and a low
Na ion concentration.
B. Endolymph is contained within the scalamedia and exhibits a high K and a low
Na ionconcentration.
C. Endolymph exhibits a negative electrical potential relative to perilymph.
D. Perilymph is contained within the scala tympani and exhibits a positive
electrical potential relative to endolymph.
E. Endolymph and perilymph communicate by way of the helicotrema.
47. Which of the following statements about outer hair cells is true?
A. There are roughly three times as many outerhair cells as inner hair cells.
B. Only —5% of auditory nerve fibers innervate outer hair cells.
C. Outer hair cells are more susceptible to noise damage than inner hair cells.
D. Outer hair cells are more susceptible to damage by aminoglycoside use than
inner hair cells.
E. All of these are true
48. Absence of transient evoked otoacoustic emissions (TEOAEs) in a child
is most consistent with which of the following conditions?
A. Normal hearing
B. Sensorineural hearing loss
C. Conductive hearing loss
D. Auditory neuropathy
E. b and c
F. b and d
8
49. Maximum conductive hearing loss occurs when
A. The incudostapedial joint is eroded behind an intact tympanic membrane.
B. The middle ear is filled with a thick effusion.
C. The tympanie membrane is completely perforated.
D. The round and oval windows are obliterated with otoselerosis.
E. The external canal is blocked by cerumen.
50. Otosclerosis is a disease that
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Is common to all
Occurs only in females
Is unique to the otc capsule
Is found at birth
Occurs mostly in males
51. Otosclerosis causes which type of hearing loss?
A. A purely conductive hearing loss
B. A progressive hearing loss
C. A purely sensorineural hearing loss
D. A profound hearing loss
E. All of the above
52. For which condition is magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) not the
imaging modality of choice?
A. Conductive hearing loss
B. Sensorineural hearing loss
C. Intracranial meningeal disease
D. Perineural spread of tumor
53. The smallest acceptable procedure to remove a squamous cell
carcinoma localized to the osseous external auditory canal is
A. Localized resection of the skin of the external auditory canal with frozensection margins
B. Sleeve resection of the external auditory canal, including the tympanie
membrane
C. Lateral temporal bone resection
D. Subtotal temporal bone resection
E. Total temporal bone resection
54. The maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve (V2) travels through
which foramen in the floor of the middle cranial fossa?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Superior orbital fissure
Foramen rotundum
Foramen ovale
Foramen spinosum
Foramen lacerum
9
55. The frontal branch of the facial nerve runs deep to which of the
following structures?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Temporal parietal fascia
Superficial layer of the deep temporal fascia
Deep layer of the deep temporal fascia
Periosteum of the zygomatic arch
Temporal fat pad
56. Users of the multichannel auditory brainstem implant have experienced
all of the following except
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Variations in pitch sensations across electrodes
Open-set speech discrimination
Auditory sensations
Extra-auditory sensations
All have been experienced
57. patient undergoes resection of a skull base mass with a transnasal
endoscopically assisted approach and complains of visual changes in
the recovery room and is ultimately found to have optic nerve damage.
The injury to the optic nerve most likely accompanied injury in which
of the following areas
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The optic foramen
The anterior ethmoid air cells
The lamina papyracea
The superior-lateral sphenoid sinus wall
The inferior-lateral sphenoid sinus wall
58. Surgical manipulation near which of the following nerves has the
potential to cause brady cardia?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
CNV
CNVI
CN VII
CN VIII
CN IX
59- Which of the following BEST describes Koerner’s septum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The petrosquamous suture
The squamotympanic suture
The petrotympanic suture
The medial limit of the mastoid antrum
The bony covering of the sigmoid sinus
10
60- Cochlear anatomy and physiology. Which of the following statements
is FALSE?
A. Endolymph has an electrolyte composition similar to intracellular fluid (high
potassium and low sodium ions).
B. There are equal numbers outer and inner hair cells.
C. The inner hair cells receive 95% of the afferent innervation from the cochlear
nerve.
D. The sterocillia act as mechanical tranducers.
E. Inner hair cells are arranged in a single row.
61- Which of the following statements BEST describes otoacoustic
emissions (OAEs)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
OAEs represent sound generated by the outer hair cells.
OAEs are usually present in children with glue ear.
A positive test is subjective based on the interpretation of the result
In neonatal screening the demonstration of OAEs excludes severe SNHL
Evoked QAEs are generated by all normal cochleas.
62- patient is on your operating List for a right stapedotomy. Which of
the following would cause you MOST concern?
A. Suppurative ear discharge tympanic membrane perforation
B. CochLear otoscterosis on the CT scan
C. Previous stapes surgery
D. A dead left ear
63. Changes in nasal physiology associated with aging include
A. Reduction in nasal cilia
B. increase in mucociliary clearance
C. Decrease in olfactory epitheliuni
D. Decrease in nasal airflow resistance
E. General decrease in autonomic function
64. Head and neck malignancy arises as an alteration in
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
a RNA
b. DNA
c. Protein
d. in RNA
RNA
65. All of the following regarding the analysis of the ears are correct except
A. The ear protrudes from the skull at an angle approximately 20 to 30 degrees.
B. The helix of the ear lies 15 to 25 mm lateral to the mastoid skin.
C. The long axis of the ear is parallel to the long axis of the nasal dorsum and is
noted to have a posterior rotation of approximately 15
D. degrees.
E. The width of the ear is approximately two-thirds its length.
11
66. What is the preferred biopsy technique for melanoma?
A. Exeisional biopsy
B. Shave biopsy
C. Cryotherapy
D. Curettage
E. Electrodesjecatjon
67. Which of the following statements regarding scar re-excision is true?
A. Re-excision with primary closure is an irregularization procedure.
B. Sharp excision of the scar should proceed with the scalpel exactly parallel to
the skin surface.
C. Direct closure of the area should be performed without undermining.
D. Vertical mattress sutures are an effective way to properly evert the wound
edges.
68. In panfacial fractures, what should be the first and primary focus?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Orbital reconstruction
Establishing facial height
Occlusion
Repositioning the zygoma
Repairing the central face
69. Which mimetic muscle is part of the superficial muscular aponeurotic
system (SMAS)?
A. Zygomatie major
B. Zygomatic minor
C. Orbicularis occuli
D. Platysma
E. Orbjcularis oris
70. After transection of the facial nerve, the distal branches retain their
stinaulability with a portable electrical stimulator for how long?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1 day
3 days
1 week
3 weeks
12 months
71. What is the most appropriate indication for pursuing otoplasty?
A. Age of patient
B. Aurieulocephalic angle
C. Cartilage proportions
D. Distance of helical rim from scalp
E. Cartilage stiffness
12
72. What is the embryologic basis for protruding ears?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Autosomal-dominant inheritance
Overgrowth of ectoderm from the first branchial arch
Overgrowth of mesoderm from the third branchial arch
Hypertrophy of the otic placode
Maldevelopment of the forth hillock of His
73. The primary neuron cell body for cranial nerve I is located in the
A. Olfactory bulb
B. Nasal mucosa
C. Entorhinal cortex
D. Cribriform plate
E. Prefrontal cortex
74. The most important tool in making the diagnosis of allergy is
A. A positive skin prick test
B. A positive intradermal skin test
C. A positive history for symptoms associated with exposure
D. A total IgE >100 IU/mL
E. An mRAST value of class II or higher
75. Nonelergic rhinitis usually presents with all of the following symptoms
except
A. Rhinorrhea
B. Nasal congestion
C. Nasal osbstruction
D. Itching
E. Negative skin testin
76. Which of the following statements about atrophic rhinitis is false?
A. May be related to granulomatous diseases
B. Aggressive nasal surgery
C. Associated with aging
D. Presents with crusting and foul odor
E. Demonstrates preservation of nasal airflow
77. Which of the following is false with regard to the uncinate process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
It is part of the ethmoid bone.
It is part of the lateral nasal wall.
It contacts the agger nasi cell.
It defines the infundibulum.
It is lateral to the hiatus semilunaris
78. The sinus lateralis is the
A. Space between the uncinate and the ethmoid bulla
B. Space between the posterior ethmoid and the basal lamella
C. Space between the ethmoid bulla and the basal lamella
D. Space between the agger nasi cell and the middle turbinate when the turbinate
inserts on the cribriform plate
13
79. The patient with a sinus computed tomography showing mucosal
thickening occluding the osteomeatal complex
A. Requires endoscopic sinus surgery
B. May have a cold, a bacterial sinus infection, nasal polyps, or an irreversible
obstruction of the maxillary infundibulum
C. Should be treated with a broad-spectrum antibiotic
D. Requires a culture-directed antibiotic and nasal steroid sprays
80. The imaging study most likely to provide accurate information
regarding tumor extension intracranially or intraorbitally is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Ultrasonography
Computed tomography scan
Magnetic resonance imaging
Positron emission tomography scan
81. Which of the following about macrolide antibiotics is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Chronic use often leads to resistance.
Are recommended primarily for acute sinusitis.
Should not be used in conjunction with nasal steroids.
Have important antiinflammatory effects
Have no role in treating sinusitis.
82. Patients with allergic fungal sinusitis have the following except
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Allergic mucin
Nasal polyps
Atopy
Fungal allergies
Immunodeficiency
83. Absolute Indications for endoscopic sinus surgery include all of the
following except
A. Mucoceles
B. Headaches
C. CSF rhinorrhea
D. Complications of rhinosjnusjtjs
E. Tumors
84. Which of the following statements regarding salivary flow rates is not
true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
They are reduced during sleep.
They are increased during exercise.
They are increased by mastication.
They are increased before an episode of vomiting
They steadily increase as the child grows and reach a maximum value by the
age of 3 to 4 years.
14
85. The percentage of calculi in the submandibular gland is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
20%
40%
50%
60%
80%
86. Two of the stages of swallow are under voluntary control. They are
A. Oral and pharyngeal
B. Pharyngeal and esophageal
C. Oral and oral preparation
D. Oral preparatory and pharyngeal
E. Oral and esophageal
87. Which of the following diseases is most likely to have oral
mucocutaneous ulcers?
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Renal osteodystrophy
D. Down syndrome
88. Which of the following statements regarding the management of
juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofi broma are true?
A. Best results are obtained by the combination of surgery and adjuvant
radiotherapy.
B. The main consideration to the surgical approach is the age of the patient.
C. Endoscopic resection is ideal for all tumors as it avoids facial incisions and soft
tissue and bony disruption.
D. Locally advanced tumors with intracranial extension can be effectively
managed with radiotherapy alone.
E. Recurrence seldom occurs if the tumor is completely removed.
89. What medical conditions are associated with obstructive sleep apnea
syndrome?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Depression
Congestive heart failure
Gastroesophageal reflux
Diabetes mellitus
90. Which muscle opens the larynx?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cricothyroid
Thyroarytenoid
Lateral cricoarytenoid
Posterior cricoarytenoid
Interarytenold
15
91. The most common cause of unilateral vocal fold paresis is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Thyroid surgery
Thoracie surgery
Stroke
Idiopathic
Arnold-Chiarj malformation
92- Concerning the pharmacokinetics of local anesthetics, which of the
following statements is FALSE?
A. Lidocaine acts to reversibly block sodium channels in the nerve fibre.
B. Lidocaine acts to cause vasoconstriction when injected subcutaneously.
C. Alcoholic cirrhosis can reduce the metabolism of bupivocaine. D. Local anaesthetics with a low pKa have a faster onset of action.
E. 8.4% sodium bicarbonate added to 2% cocaine speeds up the onset of Action
93- Concerning the hyoid bone, which of the following statements is
FALSE?
A. The lesser cornu of the hyoid is derived from the second branchia arch.
B. The hyoid bone is incompletely ossified at birth.
C. The hyoglossus and middle constricter muscles attach to the greater cornu.
D. The intermediate tendon of the digastric muscle passes between the bifurcated
tendon of the stylohyoid.
E. The geniohyoid muscle acts to depress the larynx during swallowing.
94- You are asked by the haematologists to perform a local anesthetic
biopsy of a cervical lymph node. The patient, a 45-year-old woman, has
had a suspected relapse of her non- Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Following
her recent treatment, she is known to be thrombcytopaenic. What is the
lowest platelet count (in platelets x 1OIl) that you would consider it
acceptable to proceed with the operation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
10
20
50
100
150
95- A patient with HIV is placed on the waiting list for a parotidectomy.
You are keen to warn the operating department staff of his Infection
risk. When the operating List is printed, which of the following is
generally acceptable to use to highlight his status?
A. HIV positive
B. High-risk
C. AIDS
D. Special
E. None of the above — it is not ethical to highlight his status on acirculated list.
16
96- Which answer BEST describes the content of the cavernous sinus?
A. Internal carotid artery, oculomotor, trochlear, abducent and ophthalmic
maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve
B. Internal carotid artery, oculomotor, trochlear, abducent and ophthalmic
mandibular divisions of the trigeminal nerve
C. Internal carotid arter)c superior ophthalmic vein, optic. abducent
ophthalmic and maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve
D. Common carotid arter)c oculomotor. trochlear, abducent and ophthalmic
maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve
E. Superior ophthalmic vein, oculomotor, troch(ear. abducent and ophthalmic
maxillary divisions of the trigeminal nerve
and
and
and
and
and
97- If a mother and a father are both carriers of an autosomal recessive
gene, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
All of their children will have the disease.
Half of their children will have the disease.
One quarter of the children will have the disease.
All the males will have the disease.
None of the children will have the disease.
98- A patient is taking warfarin for paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (PAF).
Under what circurristances wouLd it be reasonable to stop the
warfarin and administer fresh frozen plasma (FFP) (or factor
concentrate) and Vitamin K?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Epistaxis controlled with anterior nasal packing
Epistaxis controlled only with posterior and anterior nasal packing
Elective admission for endoscopic sinus surgery
Pharyngoscopy for globus pharyngeus symptoms
Excision of a lipoma
99- Which of the following is NOT an opening into the temporal bone?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
internal auditory canal
Vestibular aqueduct
Jugular foramen
Cochlear aqueduct
Subarcuate fossa
100- Parasympathetic innervations to the sumandibular gland is carried
by the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Lesser petrosal nerve
Facial nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Jacobsen's nerve
Greater superficial petrosal nerve
17