Download Pharmacy Tech Exam Review

Pharmacy Tech Exam Review
QUESTION #1
When state and federal requirements differ on how long records should be kept, what should take
precedence?
A) Federal requirement.
B) State requirement.
C) Longest time period.
D) Shortest time period.
QUESTION #2
A prescriber's DEA number is needed to prescribe which drugs?
A) A. Acetaminophen with Codeine.
B) B. Sumycin.
C) C. Talwin NX.
D) Both A and C.
QUESTION #3
The laminar flow workbench should be left operating continuously. If it is turned off, it should not be used
until it has been running for at least:
A) Ten minutes.
B) Thirty minutes.
C) Forty-five minutes.
D) Sixty minutes.
QUESTION #4
What is the total amount of Hydrocortisone found in eight 1-ounce tubes of Hytone cream 2.5%?
A) 6 gms.
B) 8 gms.
C) 10 gms.
D) 12 gms.
QUESTION #5
Which of the following is not a type of amino acid product used in admixing TPN?
A) Branched-chain amino acid solutions.
B) Essential amino acid solutions.
C) Mixed essential and non-essential amino acid solutions.
D) None of the above.
QUESTION #6
The doctor writes for Aminophylline 125 mg po QID x 10 days. You only have the solution 250 mg/5 ml. How
much would be needed for the treatment?
A) 200 ml.
B) 100 ml.
C) 125 ml.
D) 60 ml.
QUESTION #7
For a hospital inpatient order for Ceftriaxone 1 g QD IV piggyback the technician should do all of the
following except:
A) Prepare the dose in the laminar airflow hood using sterile technique.
B) Inform the pharmacist if the patient has a penicillin allergy recorded.
C) Convert the dosage from grams to grains so the nurse will know how much to give.
D) Confirm that he/she has the right drug - many other drugs sound similar (Cefotaxime, Ceftriaxone).
QUESTION #8
You are asked to make fluorouracil 3000 mg in 1000 ml of sodium chloride 0.9%. What auxiliary label should
be placed on the prepared admixture?
A) Drink plenty of water.
B) Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other that the patient for whom it was
prescribed.
C) Chemotherapy/biohazard.
D) Take with food or milk.
QUESTION #9
Who is the Pharmacy Technician accountable to?
A) The State Board.
B) The State Association.
C) The Pharmacist.
D) The Chief Pharmacy Technician.
QUESTION #10
Which medication is used as a rescue therapy from toxicity of methotrexate?
A) Ipecac.
B) Taxol injection.
C) Leucovorin.
D) Acetylcysteine.
QUESTION #11
The "C" designation for controlled substances must appear on a controlled prescription:
A) In red in the lower left hand corner of the Rx.
B) In any color in the lower left hand corner of the Rx.
C) In red in the lower right hand corner of the Rx.
D) In any color in the lower right hand corner of the Rx.
QUESTION #12
What volume of Betadine Solution would be needed to prepackage 152 pints?
A) 38 gallons.
B) 19 gallons.
C) 9.5 gallons.
D) 4.75 gallons.
QUESTION #13
What is the proper method of measuring a liquid in a graduated cylinder?
A) Hold at eye level and read the top of meniscus.
B) Hold at eye level and read the bottom of the meniscus.
C) Place graduate on table and read meniscus from above.
D) Place graduate on table and read meniscus from below.
QUESTION #14
Opiates or Narcotics are generally found in what schedule:
A) Schedule II.
B) Schedule III.
C) Schedule IV.
D) Schedule V.
QUESTION #15
What is the storage requirement for reconstituted Cefaclor 250 mg/5 ml?
A) 4 to 14 degrees F.
B) 36 to 46 degrees F.
C) 46 to 59 degrees F.
D) 59 to 86 degrees F.
QUESTION #16
If a patient has had an anaphylactic reaction to ASA, which analgesic may they not take?
A) Percocet.
B) Percodan.
C) Tylox.
D) Fioricet/codeine.
QUESTION #17
The doctor wants to give a dose of Amoxicillin 200 mg bid to a 4 year old female. You have Amoxicillin 250
mg/5 ml in 100 ml bottles. What would the dose be in ml?
A) 5 ml.
B) 4 ml.
C) 7 ml.
D) 8 ml.
QUESTION #18
A tracking log should be kept for?
A) Schedule IV order forms.
B) All cash transactions.
C) Schedule II order forms.
D) Drug price increases.
QUESTION #19
Scanning for drug prices and inventory levels would be accomplished with the aid of:
A) Compiler.
B) Modem.
C) Barcode reader.
D) Zip-drive.
QUESTION #20
The two parts of the syringe that should not be touched and remain sterile are:
A) The tip and barrel.
B) The collar and barrel.
C) The tip and plunger.
D) The collar and plunger.
QUESTION #21
Drugs within which class of controlled substances contain no legal use?
A) CIV.
B) CIII.
C) CII.
D) CI.
QUESTION #22
Suprax suspension requires which auxiliary label?
A) Shake Well.
B) Shake Well and Refrigerate.
C) Shake Well and Drug May Discolor Urine.
D) Shake Well and Avoid Dairy Products.
QUESTION #23
To prepare 450 ml of a 30% (w/v) solution of Potassium Chloride (KCl), how many grams of solute are
needed?
A) 13.5 g.
B) 15 g.
C) 135 g.
D) None of the above.
QUESTION #24
If 0.015 g of thyroid extract contains 25 mcg of Thyroxine, how much Thyroxine is contained in 15 mg of
thyroid extract?
A) 0.025 mcg.
B) 2.5 mcg.
C) 25 mcg.
D) 250 mcg.
QUESTION #25
The five schedules for controlled substances were established on the basis of:
A) Efficacy.
B) Abuse potential.
C) The Manufacturer Distribution Center.
D) None of the above.
QUESTION #26
The two parts of the syringe that should not be touched are:
A) The tip and barrel.
B) The collar and barrel.
C) The tip and plunger.
D) The collar and plunger.
QUESTION #27
Which of the following is an example of a side effect of antineoplastic therapy?
A) Bone marrow suppression.
B) Increased red blood cell formation.
C) Increased white blood cell formation.
D) Increased platelet formation.
QUESTION #28
A patient presents a prescription order for Morphine Sulfate tablets, prescribed by John Doe, M.D. Which of
the following DEA registration numbers is consistent with the prescriber?
A) BD 2147828.
B) BD 4695283.
C) AJ 436814.
D) BJ 4147828.
QUESTION #29
The form number for ordering Schedule II drugs is:
A) DEA Form 121.
B) DEA Form 200.
C) DEA Form 222.
D) DEA Form 240.
QUESTION #30
Furosemide or Lasix is used as:
A) An analgesic.
B) An anti-inflammatory agent.
C) A sedative.
D) A diuretic.
QUESTION #31
Which of the following federal regulations requires that a pharmacist counsel Medicaid patients?
A) Medication Safety Act.
B) Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act.
C) Health and Safety Act.
D) Patient Counseling Act.
QUESTION #32
If chosen for an audit, the CPhT must list all continuing education hours on the application and send ______
certificates of completion of the credits.
A) the original
B) certified copies of the original
C) photocopies of the
D) notarized photocopies of the
QUESTION #33
Nolvadex or ____________ is an anti-estrogen type medication that is often used in the treatment of breast
cancer.
A) Albuterol.
B) Tamoxifen.
C) Phenytoin.
D) Nifedipine.
QUESTION #34
Which auxiliary label should be affixed to the vial when dispensing Metronidazole?
A) May Discolor Urine.
B) May Cause Drowsiness.
C) Shake Well and Refrigerate.
D) Do Not Drink Alcoholic Beverages.
QUESTION #35
Which of the following types of syringes should be used in the mixing of Vinblastine?
A) Reusable.
B) Glass.
C) Plastic.
D) Luer-lock.
QUESTION #36
Which of the following is a Schedule III controlled substance under federal law?
A) Robitussin AC syrup.
B) Acetaminophen with Codeine.
C) Thioridazine.
D) Sertraline.
QUESTION #37
The directions for the use of Gentamicin Ophthalmic drops are "ii gtts au q4h x5d". The proper interpretation
of "au" is:
A) In both eyes.
B) In both ears.
C) In right eye.
D) In right ear.
QUESTION #38
A prescription with the directions 2 qtts ad qid should be administered to:
A) Both eyes.
B) Left eye.
C) Right ear.
D) Left ear.
QUESTION #39
Which class of drugs decreases the viscosity of respiratory tract secretions?
A) Antihistamines.
B) Vasoconstrictors.
C) Antitussives.
D) Expectorants.
QUESTION #40
A solution containing 300 g of solute in 1500 ml of solution, what is the ratio strength of (w/v)?
A) 1:04
B) 1/4.
C) 1 to 4.
D) 1:05
QUESTION #41
Which of the following statements is true regarding quality?
A) Quality control is a process of checks and balances.
B) Quality is defined by what our patients perceive.
C) Quality improvement is an important part of meeting regulatory agency (e.g., JCAHO) requirement.
D) All of the statements are true.
QUESTION #42
Which governmental agency is responsible for safety in the workplace?
A) DEA.
B) NDA.
C) OSHA.
D) FDA.
QUESTION #43
In an order reading "Phenergan 25 mg q 6 hr prn n + v x 2 d", the most important missing piece of
information is the:
A) Generic drug name.
B) Route of administration.
C) Frequency.
D) Duration.
QUESTION #44
Which of the following drugs is a benzodiazepine?
A) Ranitidine.
B) Percodan.
C) Demerol.
D) Diazepam.
QUESTION #45
Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance?
A) Diazepam.
B) Meperidine.
C) Pentazocine.
D) Propoxyphene.
QUESTION #46
The "computer access code" for pharmacy software is used to:
A) Access prescription files.
B) Exit the program when finished.
C) Transmit data off-line.
D) Maintain prescription computer files.
QUESTION #47
Which of the following medications is Schedule IV substance?
A) Paregoric.
B) Alprazolam
C) Diphenoxylate with atropine.
D) Dronabinol.
QUESTION #48
Codeine, Demerol and Percodan all belong to which controlled schedule?
A) Schedule I.
B) Schedule II.
C) Schedule III.
D) Schedule IV.
QUESTION #49
"Syrup of Ipecac" indicated for what use?
A) To suppress a dry cough.
B) To induce vomiting.
C) To relieve the itching from hives.
D) As a sweetening agent in pharmaceutical products.
QUESTION #50
An I.V. infusion order is received for Lidocaine 2 g in 250 ml of 0.9% NaCl to be infused at 3 mg/min. What will
the flow rate be in ml/hr?
A) 11.5 ml/hr.
B) 22.5 ml/hr.
C) 33.5 ml/hr.
D) 44.5 ml/hr.
QUESTION #51
You receive a prescription for Amoxicillin 75 mg QID for ten days. How many ml's do you need to fill this
prescription to last the full ten days using Amoxicillin 125 mg/5 cc?
A) 60 ml.
B) 90 ml.
C) 120 ml.
D) 180 ml.
QUESTION #52
Which of the following inventory turnover rates is an indication of good inventory management?
A) Higher rate.
B) Lower rate.
C) No change in rate.
D) None of the above.
QUESTION #53
Which characteristic is important when preparing an IV admixture in a Laminar Flow Hood?
A) Sterility.
B) Solubility.
C) Stability.
D) All the above.
QUESTION #54
A third-party insurance program reimburses a pharmacy at 85% of the AWP, plus a $2.00 dispensing fee. If
the acquisition cost of a drug is $8.50 and the AWP is $10.00, how much will the pharmacy be reimbursed for
the prescription?
A) $10.15.
B) $10.50.
C) $11.50.
D) $12.50.
QUESTION #55
What is the therapeutic generic equivalent for Benadryl?
A) Ephedrine.
B) Phenylpropanolamine.
C) Phenylephrine.
D) Diphenhydramine.
QUESTION #56
An example of a major drug-drug interaction would be:
A) Warfarin-aspirin.
B) Digoxin-diltiazem.
C) Penicillin-cephalosporin.
D) Hydrocodone-codeine.
QUESTION #57
Which of the following medications is a Schedule IV controlled substance?
A) Alprazolam.
B) Lomotil.
C) Tylox.
D) Acetaminophen #4.
QUESTION #58
The purpose of complying with the "Universal Precautions" is to:
A) Prevent the spread of communicable diseases.
B) Prevent the transmission of blood-borne pathogens.
C) Prevent contamination of sterile equipment.
D) All of the above.
QUESTION #59
If State and Federal pharmacy law differ, which law applies?
A) Local law.
B) State law.
C) Federal law.
D) The more stringent law.
QUESTION #60
The pharmacy technician is filling a prescription for Cephalexin and notices in the patient profile that the
patient is taking Cefaclor. This is an example of:
A) A drug interaction.
B) A contraindication.
C) A therapeutic duplication.
D) An adverse reaction.
QUESTION #61
The fraction of the administered dose of Demerol that reaches systemic circulation and the rate at which this
occurs is the Demerol's:
A) Bioequivalence.
B) Bioavailability.
C) Biotransformation.
D) Therapeutic equivalence.
QUESTION #62
In which controlled substance schedule is Tylenol No. 2 classified?
A) Schedule I.
B) Schedule II.
C) Schedule III.
D) Schedule IV.
QUESTION #63
You receive a prescription for Amoxicillin 75 mg QID for ten days. How many ml's of Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 cc
do you need?
A) 20 ml of Amoxicillin 250/5 cc.
B) 40 ml of Amoxicillin 250/5 cc.
C) 60 ml of Amoxicillin 250/5 cc.
D) 100 ml of Amoxicillin 250/5 cc.
QUESTION #64
ATS solution should be stored in the:
A) Refrigerator.
B) Injectable section.
C) Liquid section.
D) Topical section.
QUESTION #65
Which dosage form is formulated to dissolve under the tongue rather than the stomach?
A) Sublingual.
B) Transdermal.
C) Enteric-coated.
D) Intranasal.
QUESTION #66
What does DAW mean on a written prescription?
A) Product Selection Permitted.
B) The medication should be taken with water.
C) The brand name is to be dispensed as written.
D) Do Not Drink with Alcoholic Beverages.
QUESTION #67
Federal laws requires the following information to be documented daily.
A) A log of controlled substances dispensed.
B) Patient profiles of prescriptions dispensed for the first time.
C) A running inventory of all drugs dispensed.
D) Incident reports on mislabeled drugs.
QUESTION #68
Prescription drugs are also known as:
A) Legend drugs.
B) New drugs.
C) Over-the-counter drugs.
D) Investigational drugs.
QUESTION #69
Which of the following medications belongs to the same class of drugs as etodolac?
A) Phenylephrine.
B) Diclofenac.
C) Haloperidol.
D) Cefaclor.
QUESTION #70
Determine the flow rate of an IVPB containing 120 ml of Flagyl, if the solution is to be infused over a 1 hour
period and the administration set is calibrated to deliver 20 drops per ml.
A) 10 gtts/min.
B) 20 gtts/min.
C) 30 gtts/min.
D) 40 gtts/min.
QUESTION #71
What is the definition of "controlled room temperature"?
A) 2 - 8 degrees Centigrade.
B) 8 - 15 degrees Centigrade.
C) 15 - 30 degrees Centigrade.
D) 30 - 40 degrees Centigrade.
QUESTION #72
Which class of drugs decreases the viscosity of respiratory tract secretions?
A) Antihistamines. Example: Benedryl.
B) Vasoconstrictors. Decongestant example: Afrin Spray.
C) Antitussives. Example: Delsyn
D) Expectorants. Example: Robitussin.
QUESTION #73
Which of the following duties may a pharmacy technician not do?
A) Enter prescription data into the computer.
B) Call the wholesaler for a drug order.
C) Affix a drug label to a prescription container.
D) Accept a verbal medication order from a dentist.
QUESTION #74
What protective apparel must be worn when reconstituting Vinblastine?
A) 2 pair of gloves.
B) A hair covering.
C) A mask.
D) All of the above.
QUESTION #75
The most common route of administration is:
A) Per rectum.
B) Intramuscular.
C) Oral.
D) Sublingual.
QUESTION #76
Patients taking Piroxicam for an inflammation should be advised by the pharmacist to use which drug for
simple headache?
A) Tylenol.
B) Bufferin.
C) Ecotrin.
D) Ascriptin.
QUESTION #77
How much of 95% ethanol must be mixed with 20% ethanol to make 1 pint of a 40% ethanol solution?
A) 161 ml of 95%.
B) 126 ml of 95%
C) 296 ml of 95%.
D) 354 ml of 95%.
QUESTION #78
The purpose of a horizontal laminar airflow workbench is to:
A) Protect the technician when compounding sterile products.
B) Sterilize the admixture.
C) Provide a sterile environment for admixture compounding.
D) Provide a clean surface for compounding sterile products.
QUESTION #79
The doctor writes Neosporin ii gtts OU bid. What does this mean?
A) Two drops in the left eye twice a day.
B) Two drops in the right eye twice a day.
C) Two drops in each eye twice a day.
D) Two drops in the right ear twice a day.
QUESTION #80
A hermetically sealed container is impervious to:
A) Radiation.
B) Sunlight.
C) Air.
D) None of the above.
QUESTION #81
The purpose of OSHA is to:
A) Ensure safe and effective drug therapy.
B) Assign drug recall classifications.
C) Monitor 010 labeling requirements.
D) Assure a safe and healthful workplace.
QUESTION #82
Licensing and general professional oversight of pharmacists and pharmacies are carried out by:
A) U.S. Board of Pharmacy.
B) State Board of Pharmacy.
C) The American Board of Pharmacy.
D) The DEA.
QUESTION #83
A doctor wants to phone in a prescription for Demerol.
A) You inform the doctor that the pharmacist must take the order.
B) You ask the doctor if it is okay to use a generic.
C) You inform the doctor that this drug cannot be phoned in.
D) You take the order, but inform the pharmacist before filling.
QUESTION #84
Consider the following Rx: Dilantin 100 mg #180 Sig:1 cap po tid refill x3 If the patient pays a $7.00 copay for
a 30 day supply, what quantity should be dispensed for the patient to pay no more than the $7.00 copay?
A) 60 capsules.
B) 90 capsules.
C) 120 capsules.
D) 180 capsules.
QUESTION #85
A prescription is written for Tylenol caplet. What is a caplet?
A) A soft capsule.
B) A tablet shaped like a capsule.
C) A hard gelatin capsule.
D) None of the above.
QUESTION #86
Which of the following are true about cimetidine:
A) An over-the-counter preparation is available.
B) It reduces the acidity of the stomach.
C) It interacts with many other drugs.
D) All of the above.
QUESTION #87
A bottle of Nitroglycerin has the labeled strength of l/200 grains. What would this strength be in milligrams?
A) 0.2 mg.
B) 0.3 mg.
C) 0.4 mg.
D) 0.6 mg.
QUESTION #88
How many mcg of B-12 injection are contained in 0.5 ml of a B-12 1000 mcg/ml injection?
A) 500 mg.
B) 500 mcg.
C) 1000 mg.
D) 1000 mcg.
QUESTION #89
______ are defined as individuals working in a pharmacy who under the supervision of a licensed pharmacist
assist in pharmacy activities.
A) Pharmacy Technicians.
B) Chief Pharmacist.
C) Pharmacist Assistant.
D) LVN.
QUESTION #90
XYZ Pharmacy calls for a copy of a prescription and the pharmacist is busy counseling a patient. The
pharmacy technician should:
A) Convey the prescription information to the pharmacy.
B) Interrupt the pharmacist.
C) Ask the pharmacy to call the prescribing physician.
D) Tell them that the pharmacist is busy and to call back later.
QUESTION #91
The AWP for a drug is $24.65 with a 17% discount from the wholesaler. What would be the net cost of this
drug?
A) $20.21.
B) $20.46.
C) $20.63.
D) $20.87.
QUESTION #92
In which controlled substance schedule is Fioricet with Codeine classified?
A) Schedule I.
B) Schedule II.
C) Schedule III.
D) Schedule IV.
QUESTION #93
Selenium sulfide is an active ingredient often used in the treatment of:
A) Inflammation.
B) Diarrhea.
C) Dandruff.
D) Thyroid deficiency.
QUESTION #94
______ is the process of making a list or being enrolled in an existing list.
A) Licensure.
B) Certification.
C) Registration.
D) Initiation.
QUESTION #95
How many hours of continuing education must the CPhT have before re-certification?
A) Ten per year.
B) Ten every two years.
C) Twenty per year.
D) Twenty every two years.
QUESTION #96
Which of the following is proof of receipt of Class II controlled substances?
A) A. Daily log.
B) B. Third copy DEA Form 222C.
C) C. Commercial invoice.
D) D. Both B and C together.
QUESTION #97
How old must a person be to sign the exempt narcotic log:
A) 16 years old.
B) 18 years old.
C) 21 years old.
D) 25 years old.
QUESTION #98
What is the maximum number of refills permitted for a Schedule III medication?
A) 5 refills in 6 months.
B) No refills.
C) 1 refill in 6 months.
D) pm refills in 12 months.
QUESTION #99
The pharmacist asked you to check the compatibility of parenteral Dilantin with sodium chloride 0.9%. Which
reference would you select to find this information?
A) Handbook on Injectable Drugs.
B) Remington's Pharmaceutical Sciences.
C) Medication Teaching Manual: The Guide to Patient Drug Information.
D) None of the above.
QUESTION #100
Which of the following is a means of contamination?
A) Contaminated equipment.
B) Contaminated raw material.
C) Personnel.
D) All of the above.
QUESTION #101
The Roman numeral XLII is equivalent to:
A) 42
B) 62
C) 402
D) 92
QUESTION #102
Tobramycin ophthalmic ung refers to:
A) An ointment used for the eye.
B) A solution used for the eye.
C) A topical ointment for external use only.
D) An ointment used for the ear.
QUESTION #103
All of the drugs listed below are scheduled narcotics except:
A) Vicodin tablets.
B) Valium tabs.
C) Hydromorphone.
D) Toradol tablets.
QUESTION #104
Regulation of medical devices is the responsibility of which agency?
A) EPA.
B) DEA.
C) OSHA.
D) FDA.
QUESTION #105
OSHA's main purpose is to:
A) Ensure safe and effective drug therapy.
B) Assign drug recall classifications I, II and III.
C) Monitor labeling requirements.
D) Assure a safe and healthful workplace.
QUESTION #106
Which of the following medications is a Schedule IV substance?
A) Paregoric.
B) Triazolam.
C) Diphenoxylate with atropine.
D) Dronabinol.
QUESTION #107
Safety at the work place is the responsibility of which government agency?
A) DEA.
B) AA.
C) OSHA.
D) FDA.
QUESTION #108
Which drug requires a follow-up "cover" prescription when dispensed with an emergency verbal order?
A) Dilaudid.
B) Atenolol.
C) Buspirone.
D) Procainamide.
QUESTION #109
Which of the following nonprescription analgesics would be the safest choice for a patient taking Warfarin
(Coumadin)?
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol).
B) Ecotrin.
C) Anacin.
D) Ascription.
QUESTION #110
Lovastatin would be prescribed to:
A) Decrease blood pressure.
B) Increase blood sugar.
C) Treat a fungal infection.
D) Decrease cholesterol
QUESTION #111
The abbreviation "PCN" means what?
A) Primary Care Nurse.
B) Penicillin.
C) Nothing after meals.
D) Carcinoma.
QUESTION #112
A home care pharmacy compounds 30 TPN orders daily. Which device would assist in the preparation of
these orders?
A) Baxter ATT machine.
B) Automix.
C) McGraw TPN Bag Holder.
D) Abbott Micromixer.
QUESTION #113
An overdose of morphine would cause:
A) Diarrhea.
B) Enlarged pupils.
C) CNS stimulation.
D) Respiratory depression.
QUESTION #114
Reconstitution with Ampicillin (Omnipen) IVPB should be done with:
A) D10W
B) 0.9% NaCl.
C) Tap water.
D) Vinegar.
QUESTION #115
A doctor wants to phone in a prescription for Percocet.
A) You inform the doctor that the pharmacist must take the order.
B) You ask the doctor if it is okay to use a generic.
C) You inform the doctor that this drug cannot be phoned in.
D) You take the order, but inform the pharmacist before filling.
QUESTION #116
Pastilles are:
A) Placed under the tongue.
B) Inserted into the vagina.
C) Per rectum.
D) Held in the mouth and sucked.
QUESTION #117
When accepting a prescription for Warfarin from a patient the technician should:
A) Notify the pharmacist if the patient is also buying aspirin. There is an interaction with these medications.
B) Give a lower dose just to be safe if the patient is buying aspirin.
C) Tell the patient to take an iron supplement because this drug depletes iron.
D) Tell the patient that he/she should eat foods high in vitamin K.
QUESTION #118
What is the cost of 65 tablets if 120 tablets cost $8.73?
A) $4.73.
B) $5.67.
C) $6.59.
D) $7.42.
QUESTION #119
Which of the following medications is commercially available as a patch?
A) Morphine.
B) Meperidine.
C) Codeine.
D) Fentanyl.
QUESTION #120
Assuming that one-pint is equal to 473 ml., how many pints can be found in one liter?
A) 1.5 pints.
B) 2.1 pints.
C) 2.8 pints.
D) 3.1 pints.
QUESTION #121
The red "C" in the lower right corner of a prescription designates that the drug is:
A) Schedule I controlled substance.
B) Schedule II controlled substance.
C) Schedule III, IV or V controlled substance.
D) None of the above.
QUESTION #122
When use of or exposure to a product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death, it's recall is
designated:
A) Class I.
B) Class II.
C) Class III.
D) Class IV.
QUESTION #123
If a patient cannot tolerate a NSAID, which one of the following medications may he/she take?
A) Ibuprofen.
B) Piroxicam.
C) Acetaminophen.
D) Ketorolac.
QUESTION #124
Lanoxin contains 0.25 mg/ml. How much Lanoxin will 3.5L contain?
A) 87.5 mg.
B) 140 mg.
C) 875 mg.
D) 1400 mg.
QUESTION #125
Tobrex ophthalmic ung refers to:
A) An ointment used for the eye.
B) A solution used for the eye.
C) A topical ointment for external use only.
D) An ointment used for the ear.