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Prenatal dx • A 36-year-old primigravida at 20 weeks’ gestation presents to her obstetrician’s office with a complaint of leaking fluid. Sonographic examination performed confirms markedly decreased fluid, and midtrimester rupture of membranes is suspected. The patient elects to continue her pregnancy, and minimal amnionic fluid is present around the fetus. At term,her fetus is born with a right-sided clubbed foot.This is an example of which of the following? • a. Sequence • b. Disruption • c. Deformation • d. Malformation • deformation- by which a fetus develops abnormally becauseof extrinsic mechanical forces imposed by the uterine envi-ronment. • deformation- by which a fetus develops abnormally because of extrinsic mechanical forces imposed by the uterine envi-ronment. • The finding seen below was identified prenatally during sonographic examination and is an example of which of the following? a. Syndrome b. Disruption c. Association d. Malformation disruption, which is a more severe change in form or function that occurs when genetically normal tissue is modified as theresult of a specific insult disruption, which is a more severe change in form or function that occurs when genetically normal tissue is modified as theresult of a specific insult • The infant shown below was also born with a cleft palate. These findings are consistent with which of the following processes? a. Syndrome b. Sequence c. Association d. Chromosome abnormality A sequence describes anomalies that all developed sequentially from one initial insult. An example is the Pierre-Robin sequence in which micrognathia A sequence describes anomalies that all developed sequentially from one initial insult.An example is the Pierre-Robin sequence in which micrognathia • • • • • • A pregnant 25-year-old postdoctoral student presents for genetic counseling following a multiple markerscreen that revealed an increased risk for an openneural-tube defect and trisomy 18. She is fromFrance and her husband s from Great Britain. Hermedical history is significant for a seizure disorder well controlled on phenytoin. Which of the followingis NOT an expected possible contributing factor inher elevated risk for an open neural-tube defect a. Ethnicity b. Medication exposure c. Chromosome abnormality d. None of the above gentic Family history—multifactorial inheritance MTHFR mutation—677C→T Syndromes with autosomal recessive inheritance— Meckel Gruber, Roberts, Joubert, Jarcho-Levin, HARDE (hydrocephalus-agyria-retinal dysplasiaencephalocele) Aneuploidy—trisomy 13 and 18, triploidy Environmental Exposures Diabetes—hyperglycemia Hyperthermia—hot tub or sauna, fever (controversial) Medications—valproic acid, carbamazepine, coumadin, thalidomide, efavirenz Geographical—Ethnicity, Diet, and Other Factors United Kingdom, India, China, Egypt, Mexico, Southern Appalachian United States • What is the recurrence risk for an open neuraltubedefect after a couple has had one child born with anencephaly? • a. 3% to 5% • b. 10% • c. 25% • d. Unknown • The recurrence risk is approxi-mately 3 to 5 percent if a couple has previously had a child with either anencephaly or spina bifida, 5 percent if either parent was born with an NTD, and as high as 10 percent if a couple has two affected children. Importantly, almost 95 percent of NTDsdevelop in the absence of a family history . • Other risk factors for NTDs include hyperthermia, medi-cations that disturb folic acid metabolism, and hyperglycemia from insulin-dependent diabetes • Polymorphisms in the methylene tetrahydrofolate reductase gene, which leads to impaired homocysteine and folate metabolism, have been associated with increased risk for anencephaly and spina bifida, aswell as for cardiac malformations (Aneji, 2012; Harisha, 2010;Munoz, 2007; Yin, 2012) • Four-milligram folic acid supplementation beforeconception and in the first trimester of pregnancywould be most indicated in which of the following scenarios? • a. Maternal pregestational diabetes • b. A personal history of open neural-tube defect • c. Maternal valproic acid use for seizure disorder • d. Maternal paroxetine use for depression • Most women at increased risk for NTDs benefit from 4 mg folic acid taken daily before conception and through the first trimester. This is particularly important if a woman has one or more prior affected children or if either the pregnant woman or her partner has such a defect. • Folic acid supplementation may not decrease the risk for NTDs in those with valproic acid exposure, pregestational diabetes, first-trimester fever or hot tub exposure, or defects associated with a genetic syndrome (American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists, 2013b • Which of the following maternal factors does not affect the maternal serum alpha fetoprotein (AFP) multiples of the median calculation? • • • • a. Race b. Parity c. Weight d. Gestational age • • • • • • 1. Maternal weight—The AFP concentration is adjusted forthe maternal volume of distribution. 2. Gestational age—The maternal serum concentrationincreases by approximately 15 percent per week duringthe second trimester (Knight, 1992). In general, the MoM should be recalculated if the biparietal diameter differs fromthe stated gestational age by more than 1 week. 3. Race/ethnicity—African American women have at least10-percent higher serum AFP concentrations but are at lower risk for fetal NTDs. 4. Diabetes—Serum levels may be 10 to 20 percent lower inwomen with insulin-treated diabetes, despite a three- to fourfold increased risk for NTDs (Greene, 1988; Huttly, 2004). There is controversy whether sremains necessary or if results should apply to all types of diabetes (Evans, 2002; Sancken, 2001; Thornburg, 2008). 5. Multifetal gestation—Higher screening threshold values are used in twin pregnancies (Cuckle, 1990). At Parkland Hospital, an AFP level is considered elevated in a twin pregnancy if greater than 3.5 MoM, but other laboratories use4.0 or even 5.0 MoM. • Which of the following is NOT an indication for sonographic evaluation of an elevated maternal serum AFP level result? • a. Determination of fetal sex • b. Estimation of gestational age • c. Determination of fetal number • d. Documentation of fetal viability • • • • • • • • • • • • Your patient has a 1:100 risk for a fetal open neuraltube defect based on serum screening at 18 weeks’ gestation. She undergoes targeted sonographic examination, which documents a singleton fetus and a marginal placenta previa. No fetal abnormalities are detected. Following this examination, how should she be counseled regarding her fetus’s risk for having an open neural-tube defect? a. Reduced by 25% b. Reduced by 50% c. Reduced by 95% d. Unchanged from the 1% risk • • • • • • • • • More than 25 years ago, Nicolaides and colleagues (1986) described frontal bone scalloping—the lemon sign, and anterior curvature of the cerebellum with effacement of the cisterna magna—the banana sign—in second-trimester fetuses with open spina bifida (Fig. 14-4). These investigators also frequently noted a small biparietal diameter and ventriculomegaly in such cases. Watson and coworkers (1991) reported that 99 percent of fetuses with open spina bifida had one or more of these findings. • Multiple screening strategies exist to detect Down • syndrome during pregnancy. Which of the following • tests has the highest detection rate for Down • syndrome? • a. Maternal serum AFP • b. Integrated screening • c. Quadruple marker test • d. Combined first-trimester screening • A 38-year-old woman presents for first-trimester screening for Down syndrome at a gestational age of 12 weeks and 1 day. The ultrasound image below was seen. What is the next step in evaluating this finding? • • • • a. Offer diagnostic prenatal testing b. Repeat the ultrasound measurement in 1 week c. Complete the first-trimester screen and wait forher numeric risk assessment d. Offer a sequential test as it has a high sensitivityfor Down syndrome detection • Which of the following correctly identifies the second-trimester analyte level abnormalities in a pregnancy at increased risk for Down syndrome? • a. Decreased MSAFP, increased unconjugatedestriol, increased inhibin, increased beta hCG • b. Decreased MSAFP, decreased unconjugatedestriol, increased inhibin, increased beta hCG • c. Increased MSAFP, increased unconjugated estriol,decreased inhibin, decreased beta hCG • d. Decreased MSAFP, decreased unconjugatedestriol, decreased inhibin, increased beta hCG • • • Two analytes used for first-trimester aneuploidy screening arehuman chorionic gonadotropin—either intact or free β -hCG—and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). In casesof fetal Down syndrome, the first-trimester serum free β -hCG level is higher, approximately 2.0 MoM, and the PAPP-Alevel is lower, approximately 0.5 MoM 2nd trimester Pregnancies with fetal Down syndrome are character-ized by lower aternal serum AFP levels—approximately0.7 MoM, higher hCG levels— approximately 2.0 MoM, andlower unconjugated estriol levels—approximately 0.8 MoM(Merkatz, 1984; Wald, 1988). Levels of a fourth marker—dimeric inhibin alph—are ele a a -vated in Down syndrome, with an average value of 1.8 MoM(Spencer, 1996). The addition of dimeric inhibin to the otherthree markers is the quadruple or e quad test, which has a trisomy21 detection rate of approximately 80 percent at a false-positiverate of 5 percent • A 25-year-old primigravida from China has a Downsyndrome risk of 1:5000 based on her first-trimesterscreening results. The finding shown is noted duringa routine sonographic examination performed at17 weeks’ gestation. How should she be counseledregarding this finding? a. Schedule a fetal echocardiogram at 22 weeks’gestation • • • • • b. Offer an amniocentesis since she is nowconsidered “high-risk” c. Inform her that this finding is seen in up to 30% of fetuses of Asian descent d. Inform her that her Down syndrome risk has now increased from 1 in 5000 to 1 in 500 Second-Trimester Sonographic Markers or “Soft Signs” Associated with Down Syndrome Fetuses • An echogenic intracardiac focus (EIF) is a focal papillary mus-cle calcification that is neither a structural nor functional car-diac abnormality. It is usually left-sided (Fig. 14-6B). An EIFis present in approximately 4 percent of fetuses, but it may befound in up to 30 percent of Asian individuals (Shipp, 2000). • As an isolated finding, an EIF approximately doubles the riskfor fetal Down syndrome (. Particularly if bilat-eral, they are also common with trisomy 13 (Nyberg, 2001) • Which of the following fetal conditions or events is NOT associated with the finding of echogenic bowel during a secondtrimester sonographic examination? • a. Down syndrome • b. Cystic fibrosis • c. Toxoplasmosis infection • d. Intraamniotic hemorrhage • Echogenic fetal bowel appears as bright as bone and is seen in lapproximately 0.5 percent of pregnancies (Fig. 14-6D). Althoughj • typically associated with normal outcomes, it increases the risk • for Down syndrome approximately sixfold (see Table 14-8). • Echogenic bowel may represent small amounts of swallowed • blood and may be seen in the setting of AFP level elevation • (p. 287). It has also been associated with fetal cytomegalovirus • infection and cystic fibrosis—representing inspissated meconium • in the latter. • Which of the following skeletal findings during • sonographic examination suggest an increased fetal risk for Down syndrome? • a. Observed:expected femur ratio ≤ .90 • b. Observed:expected humerus ratio ≤ .90 • c. Femur length:abdominal circumference ratio < .20 • d. Observed:expected biparietal diameter ratio < .89 • The femur and humerus are slightly shorter in Down syn-drome fetuses, although the femur length to abdominal cir-cumference (FL/AC) ratio is generally within the normal rangein the second trimester. The femur is considered “short” forDown syndrome screening if it measures ≤ 90 percent of thatexpected. The expected femur length is that which correlates with the measured biparietal diameter (Benacerraf, 1987 • What is the appropriate screening test for • hemoglobinopathies in patients of African descent? • • • • a. Complete blood count b. Peripheral blood smear c. Hemoglobin electrophoresis d. Hemoglobin S mutation analysis • There is an increased pregnancy loss rate following • amniocentesis in all EXCEPT which of the • following conditions? • a. Twin gestation • b. Maternal BMI ≥ 40 kg/m2 • c. Transplacental puncture with needle • d. All of the above • • • • • • • • • • A 40-year-old infertility patient underwent an amniocentesis at 17 weeks’ gestation. She calls 1 day later and reports that she is leaking amnionic fluid. What should she be told about this postamniocentesis complication? a. Fetal survival is > 90%. b. The risk of fetal death is 25%. c. The risk for chorioamnionitis is 2%. d. Fluid leakage occurs in approximately 10% of patients. • Early amniocentesis is defined as amniocentesis • that is performed during which of the following • gestational age windows? • a. 9–11 weeks • b. 11–14 weeks • c. 12–15 weeks • d. 14–16 weeks • A woman undergoes a chorionic villus sampling • (CVS) at 11 weeks’ gestation. The result shows two • cell lines—46,XY and 47,XY,+ 21. What is the • appropriate next step? • a. Repeat CVS at 13 weeks’ gestation • b. Plan no further evaluation or treatment • c. Offer amniocentesis for clarification of results • d. Provide the patient with appropriate information • regarding Down syndrome • Chorionic villus sampling has been associated with • limb reduction defects under what condition? • a. Multiple needle passes are made. • b. Performed at a gestational age < 10 weeks • c. Performed using a transabdominal approach • d. Larger volumes of chorionic villi are sampled. • Fetal blood sampling performed at the placental • insertion site is associated with which of the • following? • • • • a. Shorter procedure duration b. Increased pregnancy loss rate c. Increased procedure success rate d. Decreased maternal blood contamination • Which of the following statements correctly • describes polar body analysis when used for • preimplantation genetic testing? • a. It involves sampling one cell of the embryo on • day 3. • b. It is associated with decreased pregnancy success • rates. • c. It can be used to determine paternally inherited • genetic disorders. • d. None of the above • Preimplantation genetic diagnosis may be used for • which of the following scenarios? • • • • a. Determine fetal gender b. Diagnose single gene mutations c. Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) typing d. All of the above • Which of the following is NOT a limitation of • preimplantation genetic screening using fluorescence • in situ hybridization? • a. The result may not reflect the embryonic • karyotype. • b. Genomic hybridization arrays have a high failure • rate. • c. Mosaicism is common in cleavage-stage embryo • blastomeres. • d. Pregnancy rates are lower following • preimplantation genetic screening