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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 2
1) On a serial dilution with the following tubes set up, 1:2, 1:4,
1:8, 1:16, 1:32, and 1:64, there is no visible agglutination in
the 1:64 tube. What is the titer of the antibody?
2) If you want to make a 4mL of a 1:20 dilution, how much
serum would be needed?
3) When a staphylococcal infection is passed between patients
due to health-care workers not washing their hands, this
represents an example of:
4) When 0.5mL of serum is added to 1.5mL of diluent, what
dilution does this represent?
5) Use of universal precautions is best explained how?
6) If 0.9mL of saline is added to 0.1mL of serum, what does the
0.9mL represent?
7) What is the main part of the federal Occupational Exposure
to Bloodborne Pathogens Standard Act?
8) What applies to recapping of needles?
A) It can be done carefully as long as gloves are worn.
B) A sheath can be placed back on the needle with the other
hand.
C) Transport needles back to the lab for disposal.
D) Never manually recap a needle.
9) What should be part of a chemical hygiene plan?
10) Which series of dilutions would be best in order to make a
1:3000 dilution?
11) Information on any potentially toxic substance used in a
laboratory test kit would be found in:
12) The strength of binding of one Fab on an immunoglobulin to
one epitope on an antigen is referred to as
13) A situation in which antibody is in excess as compared to
antigen is called:
14) A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen and
antibody are both soluble and form an insoluble complex that
is detected macroscopically. What type of assay was
described?
15) An Ouchterlony immunodiffusion assay is set up and a line
of precipitation is seen forming between the antigen and
antibody wells. The lines of precipitation formed by two
adjacent antigen wells cross each other, forming an X. The
reaction described is called:
32
0.2mL
The chain of infection
1:4
Treating every specimen in
the lab as if it were
infectious
The diluent
All employees must
practice universal
precautions at all times
D
appropriate work practices,
engineering controls such as
fume hoods, employee
training
1:5, 1:6, 1:100
material safety data sheet
affinity
prozone
precipitation
non-identity
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 2
16) Your supervisor wants you to design a quantitative
precipitation assay for a new diagnostic test. What methods
would you adopt?
17) The zone at which antibody and antigen are at optimal
concentrations so that they form a large insoluble lattice
together is called the:
18) In radial immunodiffusion, the diameter of the precipitin ring
correlates with the:
19) Affinity between individual antigen and antibody molecules
depends on several types of bonds, such as ionic bonds,
hydrophobic bonds, hydrogen bonds, and van der Waals
forces. How is the strength of these attractions characterized?
20) The radial immunodiffusion test is a method involving:
21) An example of a qualitative precipitation procedure is:
A) Ouchterlony
B) radial immunodiffusion
C) rapid plasma reagin
D) complement fixation
22) A situation in which antigen is in excess as compared to
antibody is called:
23) In an Ouchterlony immunodiffusion procedure, a continuous
arc of precipitate is observed between two adjacent wells.
This is a reaction of:
24) In the Mancini endpoint method of RID:
25) Radial immunodiffusion combined with electrophoresis best
describes what?
26) Where does lattice formation occur to the greatest extent?
27) When antibody combines with a particulate antigen, this is
classified as which type of reaction?
28) In what zones is a false-negative reaction likely?
29) The initial force of attraction between an antigen and an
antibody is called:
30) What might adversely affect an electrophoresis reaction?
31) Which technique is best to determine if two fungal antigens
are identical?
32) The Western blot test used to confirm HIV is an example of
what?
33) Electrophoresis followed by diffusion of antibody from wells
cut in the gel best describes what?
34) Measurement of light scattered at an angle used to quantitate
antigen–antibody complexes best describes:
radial immunodiffusion
equivalence zone
concentration of antigen
avidity
precipitation
A
postzone
identity
The squared diameter is
proportional to the
concentration of antigen.
rocket
immunoelectrophoresis
zone of equivalence
agglutination
prozone
affinity
decreasing the strength of
the current, changing the pH
of the buffer, increasing the
strength of the current
Ouchterlony
immunodiffusion
immunofixation
immunoelectrophoresis
nephelometry
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 2
35) The force that keeps antigen and antibody together after the
initial attraction and which is responsible for stability of the
antigen–antibody complex is:
36) What would be considered a single diffusion reaction?
37) Precipitation reactions involve combination of soluble
antibody with:
38) A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is bound
to a large carrier, the antibody is soluble, and they bind and
form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically.
What type of assay is described?
39) A serological test that uses red blood cells coated with
exogenous antigens such as bacterial polysaccharides as a
method to detect patient antibodies against that exogenous
antigen is called:
40) The process by which particulate antigens such as cells
aggregate to form larger complexes when specific antibody is
present is called:
41) In performing blood typing using the tube method, if the red
cell button is not resuspended properly, what are the most
likely results?
42) When a patient's red blood cells combine with anti-A typing
serum to produce a positive result, this reaction is known as:
43) When carrier particles are coated with an antigen that is not
normally found on them, this is known as:
44) If a Coombs' test is positive, what is true?
45) Coombs' reagent is used for what purpose?
46) What would be the best test to determine evidence of
hemolytic disease of the newborn?
47) What would enhance an agglutination reaction?
48) Which antibody class may require the use of an enhancement
technique to visualize the reaction?
49) An immunoassay is performed in the following manner to
look for an Ag in the patient serum: Patient serum + labeled
Ag + known Ab are added together and incubated. Unbound
material is washed off. The amount of labeled Ag is then
measured. What assay is performed?
50) An ELISA assay was performed on a patient's serum sample.
What is the relationship of the amount of enzyme activity to
the amount of patient analyte measured?
51) An immunoassay was performed in the following way:
Antigen is bound to a solid support. Patient serum is added
and patient antibodies bind to the antigen. The well is
washed and enzyme-labeled anti-immunoglobulin antibodies
avidity
RID
soluble antigen
agglutination
hemagglutination
agglutination
false-positive
hemagglutination
passive agglutination
Antibody has coated patient
red blood cells in vivo.
to enhance agglutination
with IgG coated red blood
cells
direct antiglobulin testing
polyethylene glycol (PEG)
IgG
competitive EIA
directly proportional
ELISA
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 2
are added. The well is washed and enzyme substrate is added
and enzyme activity is determined. Which immunoassay is
described?
52) Indirect immunofluorescence is similar to which type of
enzyme immunoassay as far as the performance of the assay?
53) What best describes competitive binding assays?
A) A limited number of binding sites are present.
B) Concentration of patient antigen is directly proportional to
the label detected.
C) All patient antigen present is allowed to bind.
D) Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal
amounts.
54) All of the following are characteristic of noncompetitive
enzyme immunoassays EXCEPT:
A) They are more sensitive than agglutination reactions.
B) Concentration is directly proportional to the amount of
color.
C) Washing carefully is very important.
D) Binding sites for patient antibody are limited.
55) What best describes homogeneous assays?
A) A washing step is necessary.
B) Concentration of patient antigen is directly proportional to
the label detected.
C) The reagent antibody has an enzyme tag.
D) Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal
amounts.
56) In the following equation, what is the ratio of bound
radioactive antigen to bound patient antigen? 8ag* + 4ag +
6ab ---> ag*ab + agab + ag* + ag
57) What is characteristic of noncompetitive enzyme
immunoassays?
A) Binding sites for patient antigen are limited.
B) Washing in between steps is not necessary.
C) All patient antigen is allowed to react with binding sites.
D) Color is indirectly proportional to the concentration.
58) Components of a competitive immunoassay include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A) labeled analyte
B) means of detection of the label
C) solid-phase antibody
D) standard different from the analyte
ELISA
A
D
B
2:1
Explanation: The original 8 to 4
ratio stipulates that there are
twice as many radioactive
antigens competing, so it would
figure that there would be the
same ratio of bound set as well,
given equal affinity/binding. See
text page 154.
C
D
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 2
59) In an indirect fluorescent immunoassay such as the FTA
confirmatory test for syphilis, all of the following are true
EXCEPT:
A) A labeled antigen is used.
B) Washing is an important step.
C) Patient antibody is detected.
D) Antihuman globulin has a fluorescent tag.
60) In a sandwich or capture assay to determine the presence of a
viral antigen in a patient sample, what would be on solid
phase?
61) In What testing situations is there a direct relationship
between the amount of bound label and the amount of patient
antigen present?
62) In the following equation, 10 Ag* + 5 Ag + 3 Ab --->
Ag*Ab + Ag Ab + Ag* + Ag, the ratio of bound radioactive
antigen to bound patient antigen is:
63) Pregnancy testing is based on an early increase in which
hormone?
64) Restriction endonucleases used in DNA analysis are
characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
65) What is meant by semi-conservative replication of DNA?
66) In order for a probe to hybridize to the target, which
condition must be met?
67) Restriction fragment length polymorphisms are characterized
by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Their DNA base sequences are the same.
B) Different DNA bases result in cleavage at different places.
C) They are detected by gel electrophoresis.
D) Different patterns can be used for identification purposes.
68) A reaction characterized by amplification of a specific region
of a DNA strand through denaturing and annealing best
describes what?
A) signal amplification
B) polymerase chain reaction
C) solution hybridization
D) ligase chain reaction
69) A short strand of DNA or RNA used to detect an unknown
nucleic acid in a patient specimen best describes a:
A) nucleic acid probe
B) restriction enzyme
C) primer
D) restriction fragment length polymorphism
70) Which is the correct conclusion if results of DNA restriction
analysis by gel electrophoresis show a difference in one
band?
A
unlabeled antibody
noncompetitive EIA using a
second labeled antibody
2:1
human chorionic
gonadotropin
They cleave both DNA and
RNA.
Each strand is the template
for another strand.
The target must have
complementary bases.
A
polymerase chain reaction
nucleic acid probe
The samples are not
identical.
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 2
A) The samples are the same.
B) The samples are not identical.
C) Gel electrophoresis should be repeated.
D) The wrong buffer was used in electrophoresis.
71) Which type of RNA is used to directly translate the DNA
code into making functional proteins?
A) transfer RNA
B) ribosomal RNA
C) messenger RNA
D) probe RNA
72) What steps are included in a Southern blot?
A) ligation of DNA probes by a DNA ligase
B) gel electrophoresis followed by transfer of the pattern to a
membrane
C) denaturation of DNA followed by annealing of primers
and bases
D) creating a nick in a DNA strand followed by amplification
73) In which technique is the signal amplified instead of the
actual target DNA?
A) branched DNA amplification
B) PCR
C) transcription-mediated amplification
D) solution hybridization
74) In DNA sequencing, what is the purpose of the
dideoxynucleotide bases?
A) to enhance synthesis of DNA
B) to stop growth of a DNA chain at a certain point
C) to make certain that only one strand of DNA is amplified
D) to create restriction fragment length polymorphisms
75) Use of microarrays consisting of either DNA or RNA to
identify an unknown nucleic acid best describes:
A) in situ hybridization
B) polymerase chain reaction
C) DNA chip technology
D) strand displacement amplification
76) What would be an advantage of using molecular diagnostic
techniques in identification of specific HLA antigens instead
of serological techniques?
77) What is meant by “gating” in flow cytometry?
A) the chromatic arrangement of cellular populations
B) process by which one cell population adheres to another
population
C) an electronic window separating subpopulations of cells
D) an electronic device measuring all populations of cells
78) A mature cytotoxic T cell expresses which markers?
messenger RNA
gel electrophoresis followed
by transfer of the pattern to
a membrane
branched DNA
amplification
to stop growth of a DNA
chain at a certain point
DNA chip technology
more specific, more rapid
an electronic window
separating subpopulations of
cells
CD8, CD3, and CD2
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 2
79) What is an intrinsic parameter that can be measured by a
flow cytometer?
80) As measured in flow cytometry, cells that are the smallest
and have the least granules would be identified as:
81) In most flow cytometers, labeled cells:
82) The expression of cell surface markers is determined in the
flow cytometer by what?
83) In flow cytometry, if there are two light detectors, what does
the amount of side scatter indicate?
84) Which is a difference between batch and random access
analyzers?
85) If a test system has many false-positive results, this is a
problem involving:
86) A range of values that all produce a positive result is known
as:
87) Anaphylactic reactions are mediated by:
88) The radioimmunosorbent assay can be used for the
diagnosis of which type of hypersensitivity?
89) Reaction to poison ivy is which type of hypersensitivity?
90) Immune injury resulting from the localization of immune
complexes in blood vessels and tissues describes which
hypersensitivity reaction?
91) Which isotype of immunoglobulin is involved in a type I
hypersensitivity?
92) What diseases is an example of a type II hypersensitivity?
93) Hypersensitivities to poison ivy (catechol) and nickel are:
94) Type II hypersensitivity could involve all of the following
EXCEPT:
A) IgE cross-linking on the mast cell or basophile
B) phagocytic cell degranulation and proteolytic enzyme activity
C) a kidney membrane antigen and specific antibody
D) natural killer cell activation and killing
95) The principle difference between type II and type III
hypersensitivity reactions is the:
96) The normal activity of a type I hypersensitivity response is
protection primarily against what?
97) An example of a type III hypersensitivity is:
98) All of the hypersensitivity responses have what in common?
99) Preformed mediators that are released during the activation
phase of a type I hypersensitivity include what?
internal complexity
lymphocytes
scatter the light and emit
fluorescence
fluorescence
granularity of the cell
Batch analyzers only do one
type of analysis at a time.
accuracy
reportable range
mast cells
I
IV
III
IgE
myasthenia gravis
macrophage responses to a
hapten
A
whether the antigen is
cellular or soluble
parasites
rheumatoid arthritis
B
Histamine
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Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 2
100) A 5-year-old girl was rushed to the emergency department
because she was having trouble breathing. She had been
playing at the park when she fell down and her face and neck
started to swell up. One of her friends thought that the girl
might have been stung by a bee because a bee was flying
around them and shortly before the girl fell to the ground, she
had screamed. The girl had a large red bump on her cheek.
This girl has:
101) A hypersensitivity reaction characterized by presence of
IgG that reacts with soluble antigen best describes:
102) All of the following hypersensitivity reactions involve
activation of complement EXCEPT:
A) allergic reactions
B) hemolytic disease of the newborn
C) autoimmune hemolytic anemia
D) serum sickness
103) Anaphylaxis is characterized by all of the following
EXCEPT:
A) IgE-coated mast cells
B) massive release of histamine
C) bronchoconstriction
D) circulating immune complexes
104) What occurs in hemolytic disease of the newborn?
105) Precipitation of immune complexes in small blood vessels
under the skin that occurs when antigen is injected in an
animal with large amounts of circulating antibody describes
what?
106) All of the following are involved in killing of large
parasites EXCEPT:
A) degranulation of mast cells
B) action of eosinophil basic protein
C) production of IgE
D) activation of complement
107) The immune mechanism involved in contact dermatitis is
what?
108) In a direct antiglobulin test, what is being detected?
109) To determine if a patient is allergic to peanuts, the best
test to perform is:
110) An exaggerated reaction directed against an antigen that is
harmless is called:
type I hypersensitivity
type III hypersensitivity
A
D
Rh– Mom's exposure to Rh+
baby cells
Arthus reaction
D
sensitization of cytotoxic T
cells
in vivo attachment of
antibodies to red blood cells
RAST
Hypersensitivity
8
Immuno TB Flashcards Unit 2
111) What is true of immediate hypersensitivity reactions?
112) All of the following are characteristic of cold autoimmune
hemolytic anemia EXCEPT:
A) The antibody responsible is IgG.
B) It is usually in older patients.
C) The antibody reacts as an anti-I.
D) The reaction is only seen at cold temperatures.
113) The PPD reaction to determine exposure to tuberculosis is
based on what?
114) Reasons for autoimmunity include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A) antibody that cross-reacts with self-antigens
B) inheritance of certain MHC antigens
C) molecular mimicry
D) deletion of self-reactive lymphocytes during maturation
115) Complement is responsible for tissue damage in what
reactions?
116) T cell–dependent hypersensitivity occurs:
117) Anaphylaxis is characterized by what?
118) Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an example of
which type of hypersensitivity?
119) Complement is responsible for tissue damage in what
reactions?
120) A positive DAT test might indicate what?
121) What is a test for antibody to a specific allergen?
Histamine is released from
mast cells, Antigen must
bind to two IgE molecules,
Eosinophil chemotactic
factor is released.
A
a sensitized T-cell response
D
cytotoxic reactions
24 to 72 hours after
exposure to the antigen
degranulation of mast cells
type II
type III hypersensitivity
autoimmune hemolytic
anemia
RAST
9