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Transcript
Chapters 1-5 Review Test
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. The two most important properties of all matter are
a. the ability to carry an electric current well and to hold electric charge.
b. taking up space and having mass.
c. being brittle and hard.
d. being malleable and ductile.
____
2. A student recorded the following while completing an experiment.
Color of substance: yellow, shiny powder
Effect of magnet: yellow, shiny powder was attracted
The student should classify the substance as a(n)
a. element.
c. mixture.
b. compound.
d. plasma.
____
3. A state of matter in which a material has no definite shape but has a definite volume is the ____ state.
a. gas
c. plasma
b. liquid
d. solid
____
4. If a mixture is not uniform throughout, it is called
a. homogeneous.
c. chemically bonded.
b. heterogeneous.
d. a solution.
____
5. Which of these statements does not describe a measurement standard?
a. Measurement standards avoid ambiguity.
b. Measurement standards must be unchanging.
c. A standard can be easily changed to suit the experiment.
d. Confusion is eliminated when the correct measurement is applied.
____
6. The symbol mm represents
a. micrometer.
b. millimeter.
c. milliliter.
d. meter.
7. The liter is defined as
a. 1000 m3.
b. 1000 cm3.
c. 1000 g3.
d. 1000 c3.
8. The standard base unit for mass is the
a. gram.
b. cubic centimeter.
c. meter.
d. kilogram.
9. How many minutes are in 1 week?
a. 168 min
b. 1440 min
c. 10 080 min
d. 100 800 min
____
____
____
____ 10. If 1 inch equals 2.54 cm, how many centimeters equal 1 yard?
a. 0.0706 cm
c. 30.5 cm
b. 14.2 cm
d. 91.4 cm
____ 11. A measurement that closely agrees with an accepted value is best described as
a. precise.
b. reproducible.
c. significant.
d. accurate.
____ 12. When 64.4 is divided by 2.00, the correct number of significant figures in the result is
a. 1.
c. 4.
b. 3.
d. 6.
____ 13. The speed of light is 300 000 km/s. In scientific notation, this speed is written to one significant figure as
a. 3  105 km/s.
c. 3.  106 km/s.
5
b. 3.0  10 km/s.
d. 3.0  106 km/s.
____ 14. The capacity of a Florence flask is 250 mL. Its capacity in liters expressed in scientific notation is
a. 2.5  10–2 L.
c. 2.5  101 L.
–1
b. 2.5  10 L.
d. 2.5  102 L.
____ 15. If values for x and y vary as an inverse proportion,
a. their quotient is a constant.
c. their product is a constant.
b. their graph is a parabola.
d. their graph is a straight line.
____ 16. Two variables are directly proportional if their ____ has a constant value.
a. sum
c. quotient
b. difference
d. product
____ 17. If each atom of element D has 3 mass units and each atom of element E has 5 mass units, a molecule
composed of one atom each of D and E has
a. 2 mass units.
c. 15 mass units.
b. 8 mass units.
d. 35 mass units.
____ 18. In oxides of nitrogen, such as N2O, NO, NO2, and N2O3, atoms combine in small whole-number ratios. This
evidence supports the law of
a. conservation of mass.
c. definite composition.
b. multiple proportions.
d. mass action.
____ 19. According to the law of conservation of mass, when sodium, hydrogen, and oxygen react to form a
compound, the mass of the compound is ____ the sum of the masses of the individual elements.
a. equal to
c. less than
b. greater than
d. either greater than or less than
____ 20. The principles of atomic theory recognized today were conceived by
a. Avogadro.
c. Dalton.
b. Bohr.
d. Rutherford.
____ 21. According to Dalton's atomic theory, atoms
a. are destroyed in chemical reactions.
b. can be divided.
c. of each element are identical in size, mass, and other properties.
d. of different elements cannot combine.
____ 22. Which of the following is not part of Dalton's atomic theory?
a. Atoms cannot be divided, created, or destroyed.
b. The number of protons in an atom is its atomic number.
c. In chemical reactions, atoms are combined, separated, or rearranged.
d. All matter is composed of extremely small particles called atoms.
____ 23. In Rutherford's experiments, most of the particles
a. bounced back.
c. were absorbed by the foil.
b. passed through the foil.
d. combined with the foil.
____ 24. To determine the molar mass of an element, one must know the element's
a. Avogadro constant.
c. number of isotopes.
b. atomic number.
d. average atomic mass.
____ 25. The mass of a sample containing 3.5 mol of silicon atoms (atomic mass 28.0855 amu) is approximately
a. 28 g.
c. 72 g.
b. 35 g.
d. 98 g.
____ 26. A quantum of electromagnetic energy is called a(n)
a. photon.
c. excited atom.
b. electron.
d. orbital.
____ 27. The specific wavelengths of light seen through a prism that are made when high-voltage current is passed
through a tube of hydrogen gas at low pressure is a
a. line-emission spectrum.
c. photoelectric effect.
b. electron configuration.
d. continuous electromagnetic spectrum.
____ 28. A line spectrum is produced when an electron moves from one energy level
a. to a higher energy level.
b. to a lower energy level.
c. into the nucleus.
d. to another position in the same sublevel.
____ 29. For an electron in an atom to change from the ground state to an excited state,
a. energy must be released.
b. energy must be absorbed.
c. radiation must be emitted.
d. the electron must make a transition from a higher to a lower energy level.
____ 30. The French scientist Louis de Broglie theorized that
a. electrons could have a dual wave-particle nature.
b. light waves did not have a dual wave-particle nature.
c. the natures of light and quantized electron orbits were not similar.
d. Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom was completely correct.
____ 31. A three-dimensional region around a nucleus where an electron may be found is called a(n)
a. spectral line.
c. orbital.
b. electron path.
d. orbit.
____ 32. An orbital that can never exist according to the quantum description of the atom is
a. 3d.
c. 6d.
b. 8s.
d. 3f.
____ 33. The number of possible different orbital shapes for the third energy level is
a. 1.
c. 3.
b. 2.
d. 4.
____ 34. For the f sublevel, the number of orbitals is
a. 5.
b. 7.
c. 9.
d. 18.
____ 35. The main energy level that can hold only two electrons is the
a. first.
c. third.
b. second.
d. fourth.
____ 36. "Orbitals of equal energy are each occupied by one electron before any is occupied by a second electron, and
all electrons in singly occupied orbitals must have the same spin" is a statement of
a. the Pauli exclusion principle.
c. the quantum effect.
b. the Aufbau principle.
d. Hund's rule.
____ 37. Both copper (atomic number 29) and chromium (atomic number 24) appear to break the pattern in the order
of filling the 3d and 4s orbitals. This change in pattern is expressed by
a. an increase in the number of electrons in both the 3d and 4s orbitals.
b. a reduction in the number of electrons in both the 3d and 4s orbitals.
c. a reduction in the number of electrons in the 3d orbital and an increase in the 4s orbital.
d. a reduction in the number of electrons in the 4s orbital and an increase in the 3d orbital.
____ 38. If an element has an octet of electrons in its highest main energy level, there are ____ electrons in this level.
a. 2
c. 10
b. 8
d. 32
____ 39. An element with 8 electrons in its highest main energy level is a(n)
a. octet element.
c. Aufbau element.
b. third period element.
d. noble gas.
____ 40. The idea of arranging the elements in the periodic table according to their chemical and physical properties is
attributed to
a. Mendeleev.
c. Bohr.
b. Moseley.
d. Ramsay.
____ 41. A horizontal row of blocks in the periodic table is called a(n)
a. group.
c. family.
b. period.
d. octet.
____ 42. The electron configuration of cesium, atomic number 55, is [Xe] 6s1. In what period is cesium?
a. Period 1
c. Period 8
b. Period 6
d. Period 55
____ 43. Period 4 contains 18 elements. How many of these elements have electrons in the d sublevel?
a. 8
c. 16
b. 10
d. 18
____ 44. Calcium, atomic number 20, has the electron configuration [Ar] 4s2. In what period is calcium?
a. Period 2
c. Period 8
b. Period 4
d. Period 20
____ 45. Nitrogen's electron configuration is 1s2 2s2 2p3. To what group does nitrogen belong?
a. Group 2
c. Group 15
b. Group 7
d. Group 17
____ 46. The first member of the noble gas family, whose highest energy level consists of an octet of electrons, is
a. helium.
c. neon.
b. argon.
d. krypton.
____ 47. When determining the size of an atom by measuring the distance between bonded, identical, adjacent nuclei,
the radius of an atom is
a. equal to the distance between nuclei.
b. one-half the distance between nuclei.
c. twice the distance between nuclei.
d. one-fourth the distance between nuclei.
____ 48. The element that has the greatest electronegativity is
a. oxygen.
c. chlorine.
b. sodium.
d. fluorine.
____ 49. As you move down Group 14 in the periodic table from carbon through lead, atomic radii
a. generally increase.
c. do not change.
b. generally decrease.
d. vary unpredictably.
____ 50. Across a period, ionization energies of d-block elements generally
a. increase.
c. remain constant.
b. decrease.
d. drop to zero.
Chapters 1-5 Review Test
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS:
REF:
STA:
2. ANS:
REF:
STA:
3. ANS:
REF:
STA:
4. ANS:
REF:
STA:
5. ANS:
REF:
STA:
6. ANS:
REF:
STA:
7. ANS:
REF:
STA:
8. ANS:
REF:
STA:
9. ANS:
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
c8f76709-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.6.A.7
C
PTS: 1
DIF:
c900f07d-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.6.A.7
A
PTS: 1
DIF:
c90aa101-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.6.A.7
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
c91b518c-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.6.A.7
C
PTS: 1
DIF:
c9902559-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.3.B.1
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
c999aecd-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.3.A
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
c9a31131-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.3.A
D
PTS: 1
DIF:
c9a33841-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.3.A
C
I
OBJ: 1
III
OBJ: 1
II
OBJ: 3
II
OBJ: 5
I
OBJ: 1
I
OBJ: 2
I
OBJ: 2
I
OBJ: 2
Solution:
PTS: 1
OBJ: 5
10. ANS: D
DIF: II
STA: 5.3.A
REF: c9cdfbbb-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
Solution:
PTS:
OBJ:
11. ANS:
REF:
STA:
12. ANS:
REF:
STA:
13. ANS:
1
DIF: II
REF:
5
STA: 5.3.A
D
PTS: 1
DIF:
c9d05e18-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.3.B.1
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
c9e5fa6d-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.3.A
A
PTS: 1
DIF:
c9ce22cb-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
I
OBJ: 1
III
OBJ: 3
III
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
REF:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
c9f8e645-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.3.A
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
ca026fb9-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.3.A
C
PTS: 1
DIF:
ca0296c9-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
C
PTS: 1
DIF:
ca04d216-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
ca23d0cf-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
ca289589-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
A
PTS: 1
DIF:
ca2fbca0-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
C
PTS: 1
DIF:
ca321efd-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.2.B.1
C
PTS: 1
DIF:
ca34a86a-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.2.B.1
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
ca36e3b7-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.2.B.1
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
ca4ebb59-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.2.B.1
D
PTS: 1
DIF:
ca9406f2-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.6.A.2
D
OBJ: 4
III
OBJ: 4
I
OBJ: 5
I
OBJ: 5
II
OBJ: 1
II
OBJ: 1
II
OBJ: 1
I
OBJ: 2
I
OBJ: 2
I
OBJ: 2
I
OBJ: 2
II
OBJ: 4
Solution:
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
PTS:
OBJ:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
1
DIF: III
REF:
5
STA: 5.3.A | 5.3.B.1
A
PTS: 1
DIF:
cadb66c8-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.2.B.3
A
PTS: 1
DIF:
cae28ddf-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.2.B.3
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
cae4f03c-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.2.B.3
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
caec1753-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.2.B.1
A
PTS: 1
DIF:
ca9b2e09-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
I
OBJ: 3
I
OBJ: 3
II
OBJ: 3
II
OBJ: 4
I
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
STA:
ANS:
REF:
caf82a34-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.2.B.1
C
PTS: 1
DIF:
cb08b3af-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.2.B.3
D
PTS: 1
DIF:
cb208b51-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.2.B.3 | 5.6.A.8
C
PTS: 1
DIF:
cb22edae-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.2.B.3 | 5.6.A.8
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
cb25771b-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.2.B.3 | 5.6.A.8
A
PTS: 1
DIF:
cb3ac550-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.6.A.8
D
PTS: 1
DIF:
cb3f8a0a-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.2.B.3
D
PTS: 1
DIF:
cb4dff48-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.3.C.1
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
cb5c2666-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.3.C.1
D
PTS: 1
DIF:
cb5e88c3-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.3.C.1
A
PTS: 1
DIF:
cb742518-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.2.B.1
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
cb9c8635-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.6.A.5
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
cba3ad4c-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.6.A.3
C
PTS: 1
DIF:
cba87206-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.6.A.3
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
cbaad463-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.6.A.3
C
PTS: 1
DIF:
cbc2ac05-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.6.A.3
C
PTS: 1
DIF:
cbcebee6-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
OBJ: 1
I
OBJ: 3
II
OBJ: 5
II
OBJ: 5
II
OBJ: 5
I
OBJ: 1
I
OBJ: 2
II
OBJ: 3
I
OBJ: 3
I
OBJ: 3
I
OBJ: 1
I
OBJ: 4
I
OBJ: 1
II
OBJ: 1
I
OBJ: 1
II
OBJ: 3
I
OBJ: 4
STA:
47. ANS:
REF:
STA:
48. ANS:
REF:
STA:
49. ANS:
REF:
STA:
50. ANS:
REF:
STA:
5.6.A.5 | 5.6.A.7
B
PTS: 1
DIF:
cbd383a0-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.6.A.5
D
PTS: 1
DIF:
cbe1aabe-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.6.A.5
A
PTS: 1
DIF:
cbf28259-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.6.A.5
A
PTS: 1
DIF:
cc0332e4-f97e-11de-9c72-001185f0d2ea
5.6.A.5
I
OBJ: 1
II
OBJ: 2
II
OBJ: 2
II
OBJ: 4