Download 2007 practice apes exam

APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
a. activated sludge process
b. primary treatment
c. secondary treatment
d. tertiary treatment
1. Step that removes nutrients such as nitrates and phosphates from effluent
2. Process that allows for the gradual, natural degradation of sewage by placing sludge in shallow basins for several months
3. Step during which chlorine is added to effluent to kill the disease-causing pathogens
4. Step in which solid material and sediment are filtered out of the wastewater
a. ozone
b. sulfur dioxide
c. carbon monoxide
d. lead
e. NOx
5. Inhibits respiration by binding to hemoglobin and preventing absorption of oxygen
6. Considered beneficial in the stratosphere but harmful in the troposphere
7. Is the pollutant that scrubbers are designed to eliminate from power plant smokestack emission
8. Linked to neurological damage in humans
9. One of the main causes of acid deposition
10. The risks of disposing toxic chemicals underground were revealed at which of the following locations?
a. Three Mile Island
b. Bhopal, India
c. Minamata, Japan
d. Chernobyl, Ukraine
e. Love Canal, New York
11. The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement aimed at addressing which of the following environmental problems?
a. ocean dumping
b. trade in endangered species
c. global warming
d. deforestation
e. thinning ozone layer
12. A country currently has a population of 50 million and a growth rate of 2%. If the growth rate remains constant, what will the
population of this country be in 20 years?
a. 80 million
b. 100 million
c. 150 million
d. 200 million
e. 400 million
13. Most municipal solid waste is disposed in the US through which of the following methods?
a. sanitary landfills
b. incineration
c. composting
d. recycling
e. ocean dumping
14. What relationship is exemplified by tapeworms feeding off a human and making the human sick?
a. commensalism
b. parasitism
c. mutualism
d. intraspecific competition e. interspecific competition
15. Which two factors are most significant in determining the distribution of biomes?
I. soil characteristics
II. temperature
III. precipitation
a. I & III
b. I & IV
c. II & III
d. II & IV
IV. latitude
e. III & IV
16. Worldwide, which factor is the greatest threat to species extinction?
a. hunting & fishing b. habitat loss
c. smuggling of endangered species d. bioaccumulation
17. A population of wild Canadian Geese contains 1000 individuals. How long will it take the population to double if it grows at a
constant rate of 3.5% a year?
a. 70 years
b. 50 years
c. 30 years
d. 20 years
e. 10 years
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
18. Which is the most abundant gas in Earth’s atmosphere?
a. oxygen
b. carbon dioxide
c. hydrogen
d. water vapor
e. nitrogen
19. Place the terms in order from narrowest to broadest category.
I. biosphere
II. ecosystem
III species
IV population
a. I, II, III, IV
b. III, IV, II, I
c. III, II, IV, I
d. I, III, II, IV
e. IV, III, II, I
20. Photosynthesis is the major source of which of the following gases in Earth’s atmosphere?
a. O2
b. CO2
c. water vapor
d. N2
e. H2
21. Which treaty or piece of environmental legislation limits international trade in live specimens or the products derived from
endangered species?
a. CERCLA
b. the Montreal Protocol
c. RCRA
d. the CITIES treaty
e. Endangered Species Act
22. Which of the following in NOT a step in the demographic transition?
a. decrease in death rate
b. increase in birth rate
d. decrease in birth rate
e. country becomes developed
c. population stabilizes
23. What was Garrett Hardin’s point in the “Tragedy of the Commons”?
a. Under an open access system, resources are likely to be degraded by self-interest
b. People in a community should not feel responsibility towards their land
c. Technology will increase the worlds’ carrying capacity
d. Individuals should be given unregulated access to shared resources
e. Social justice is the only solution to environmental dilemmas
24. Which of the following embodies the concept of natural selection?
I. the pesticide treadmill
II. antibiotic resistant bacteria
III. polar bears having fur that camouflages with snow
IV. the different species of finches on the Galapagos Islands
a. III only
b. III & IV
c. II, III & IV
d. II & IV
e. I, II, III & IV
25. Which biome is characterized by low levels of precipitation, short growing season and permafrost?
a. desert
b. tundra
c. taiga
d. temperate forest
e. chaparral
26. Cultural eutrophication can directly lead to which of the following?
I. a hypoxic zone
II. algal blooms
III. increase in water clarity & O2 level
IV. reduction in water clarity & O2 levels
a. II only
b. I & II
c. I, II & IV
d. I, II & III
e. II & III
27. Soil bacteria play the most important role in which biogeochemical cycle?
a. nitrogen
b. hydrologic
c. phosphorous
d. sulfur
e. rock
28. Worldwide, which of the following sources provides the greatest percentage of commercial energy?
a. oil
b. nuclear power
c. natural gas
d. solar energy
e. hydroelectric energy
29.. Herbivores make up which trophic level?
a. primary producers
b. tertiary consumers
c. primary consumers
d. decomposers
30. Which of the following is the best example of a nonpoint source of water pollution?
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
a. thermal pollution from a power plant
d. factory effluent
b. sewer outfall
e. agricultural runoff
c. contaminated water from an abandoned mine
31. What are the two major mechanisms in the carbon cycle?
a. decomposition & erosion
b. respiration & photosynthesis
d. assimilation & protein synthesis
e. photosynthesis & transpiration
c. sedimentation & weathering
32. Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with the construction & use of large dams?
a. loss of free-flowing rivers
b. increased water loss through evaporation
c. desertification
d. displacing people from their homes
e. disruption of fish migrations
33. What happens to the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and Dissolved Oxygen (DO) levels immediately downstream from a
discharge of organic pollutants?
a. BOD increases & DO decreases
b. BOD decreases & DO increases
c. both BOD & DO increase
d. both BOD & DO decrease
e. BOD & DO remain the same
33. Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of a k-selected species?
a. populations remain fairly stable around carrying capacity
b. usually larger than r-selected species
c. provide a high degree of parental care
d. tend to be generalists
e. have fewer offspring
34. What are the three types of rock in the rock cycle?
a. igneous, metamorphic, volcanic
b. volcanic, igneous, sedimentary
d. metamorphic, sedimentary weathered
e. igneous, metamorphic, sedimentary
35. In a soil profile, the C horizon consists of
a. zone of leaching
b. surface litter
c. topsoil
c. granite, basalt, conglomerate
d. weathered parent material
e. subsoil
36. Why did the pesticide DDT reduce populations of predatory birds, placing many on the endangered species list?
a. DDT made predatory birds unable to capture prey
b. DDT caused the shells of the birds to be thin and brittle
c. DDT interfered with their immune system, making them susceptible to bird viruses
d. DDT is extremely acidic, which changed the pH in the blood of the birds
e. DDT is extremely basic, which slowed the neural pathways in the muscles of the birds
37. Which of the following are problems associated with groundwater depletion?
I. saltwater intrusion
II. algal blooms
III. acidification of aquifers
a. I only
b. IV only
c. I & IV
d. I, II & IV
IV. subsidence
e. I, III, & IV
38. Erosion can cause all of these except for
a. siltation of reservoirs
b. sedimentation of rivers & lakes
d. loss of topsoil
e. increase in turbidity of rivers & lakes
c. increase in crop production
39. Researchers discovered that a certain chemical used in the production of soft vinyl baby toys, when administered in large
quantities, presents a potential health hazard. They have not yet determined what dose is harmful. If the decision-makers follow the
Precautionary Principle, what will they do?
a. First assess potential risk by conducting further research, the, if necessary, recall all products containing the chemical.
b. Continue research, then place a warning label on the products if there is significant risk involved.
c. Halt research until a compromise is negotiated with the baby toy industry
d. take no action until an exact harmful dosage is established
e. Immediately recall from shelves all products containing the chemical until further research is completed and the chemical proven
safe.
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
40. Which of the following is an example of a biological control used as an alternative to pesticides?
a. releasing lady bugs to reduce aphid populations
b. releasing sterile females into a pest population
c. crop rotation
d. removing all crop residue, including dead leaves and twigs
e. preventing the growth of a cover crop
41. What is the main purpose of control rods in a pressurized water reactor?
a. reduce radioactive waste produced during fission
b. moderate the reactions by absorbing neutrons
c. reduce thermal pollution
d. produce steam for running the turbine
e. act as a heat exchanger between warm and cool water
42 What does it mean if huge quantities of coliform bacteria are present in a lake?
a. The lake has high levels of dissolved oxygen
b. The lake has a low rate of secondary productivity
c. The lake has a high rate of primary productivity
e. The lake is undergoing succession
d. The lake is likely to contain infectious agents from untreated sewage
43. What is the greatest worldwide cause of soil degradation?
a. agricultural erosion of topsoil
b. overgrazing of land
d. soil contamination from industrial and urban runoff
c. acidification of soil
e. salinization of soil
44. Which of the following is an example of primary succession?
a. succession after Mt. Saint Helen’s erupted
b. succession in an area disrupted by logging
c. succession on the land left by a receding glacier
d. succession over a reclaimed pit mine
e. succession in a region destroyed by fire.
45. Which of these are environmental problems associated with strip mining?
I. Spoil banks erode easily
II. mutations in the riparian plants
III. acid mine run-off
IV. increased NOx in atmosphere
V. increased particulates in atmosphere
a. I & IV
b. I, II & III
c. IV & V
d. III & IV
e. I, III & V
46. All of these are ecological functions of wetlands except for
a. controlling populations of exotic species
b. supporting large biodiversity
c. recharging aquifers
d. naturally filtering pollutants & sediments
e. preventing floods during spring runoff
48.. Which of the following is an example of an emergent disease?
a. Alzheimer’s
b. epilepsy
c. West Nile Virus
49. Which of these are negative consequences of urban sprawl?
I. freeway congestion
II. decay in central cities
a. I & IV
b. III only
c. II & III
d. smallpox
III. brown fields
d. I & II
e. typhoid
IV. loss of habitat
e. I, II, III & IV
50. According to the 1st Law of Thermodynamics
a. matter is neither created nor destroyed, but only transferred
b. energy is neither created nor destroyed, but only transferred
c. with each successive energy transfer, some energy is dissipated as heat
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
51. Approximately what percent of the energy available at one trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 100%
52. In determining the toxicity of a chemical, what is its LD50?
a. The number of animal species used to test the chemical
b. The percentage of the test population that dies from 50mg of the chemical
c. The number of individuals in a test population that dies from 50 mg of the chemical
d. The dose that kills 50 individuals in a test population
e. The dose that kills 50% of a test population
53. The Competitive Exclusion Principle states that
a. Interspecific competition is harmful in ecosystems
b. Intraspecific competition is harmful in ecosystems
c. Two species in the same ecosystem can always occupy the same ecological niche
d. Two species in the same ecosystem cannot occupy the same ecological niche
e. Individuals only compete for resources with members of the same species.
54. What is the most commonly used measure of a country’s economic growth?
a. replacement level fertility
b. gross national product (GNP)
d. externalized costs
e. natality rate
c. Human Development Index (HDI)
55.. According to the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA), every government agency must file a(n) ________ before carrying
out a major federal project that could affect the environment.
a. Declaration of bioremediation
b. Environmental Impact Statement
c. Cost-benefit analysis
d. biogeographic reporte. Statement of Environment Alternatives
56. What irrigation technique used for agriculture results in the least amount of water lost to evaporation?
a. laser-level irrigation
b. gravity –flow irrigation
c. flood irrigation
d. drip irrigation
57. Which of the following best characterizes the soil in the tropical forests?
a. thin, acidic, nutrient-poor
b. thick, nutrient rich
c. considered the richest farmland in the world
d. similar to the soil in grasslands
e. usually includes a hardpan layer
58. Which of the following is the most abundant element in the Earth’s core?
a. phosphorus
b. nitrogen
c. carbon
d. oxygen
e. iron
59. Which of these is an environmental problem associated with used with a process (called heap-leach extraction) that separates
pure metals from ore?
a. emission of radioactive particulates
b. the extraction process may lead to massive fires & explosions
c. mutant species of invertebrates in local water supplies
d. cyanide may contaminate groundwater
60. Many bird species reduce competition by feeding at different levels and/or on different parts of trees. This describes
a. critical factors
b. tolerance limits
c. resource partitioning
d. territoriality
61. The relationship between epiphytes and the trees on which they grow is called
a. mutualism b. commensalism
c. parasitism
d. host-specific interaction
62. Humus is responsible for all of the following characteristics of soil except
a. gives soil its structure & texture
b. increases organic content
c. increase water absorption
d. increases nutrient-holding capacity
e. prevents soil particles from sticking together
63. Which is the primary fuel used in nuclear reactions of a pressurized-water reactor?
a. U-235
b. U-238
c. U-239
d. plutonium 239
e. Uranium ore
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
64. The bottom stratum of a lake that is low in dissolved oxygen but contains high levels of nutrients from sinking detritus is called the
a. limnetic zone
b. littoral zone
c. epilimnion
d. benthos layer
e. hypolimnion
65. Which of the following is NOT a method preferred in the US for the treatment of hazardous waste?
a. placement in permanent retrievable storage
b. placement in a secure landfill
c. bioremediation
d. incineration
e. recycling
66. A major source of radon contamination in American homes is _____________, which has been connected to __________
a. paint; lung cancer
b.atmospheric inversions; skin cancer
c. underlying bedrock; lung cancer
d. tropospheric ozone; neurological disorders
e. combustion of biomass; immune dysfunctions
77. What is the function of photovoltaic cells?
a. To capture solar energy & directly convert it to an electric current
b. To focus and redirect solar energy onto water-carrying pipes
c. To absorb megajoules of solar heat for storage
d. To reduce nitrogen-oxide emissions from automobiles
e. To increase photosynthetic rate by administering electric shock to green plants
78. Which of the following is/are advantages of using biomass as a fuel source?
I. It emits less SO2 than conventional fuel sources
II. It is not time consuming to process
III. It releases insignificant quantities of particulate matter
IV. It reduces populations of exotic insects
a. I only
b. IV only
c. I & III
79. Replacement level fertility is
a. slightly less than 2
b. slightly more than 2
d. I & IV
c. 3
e. I, II, III & IV
d. slightly more than 3
e. 15
80. The giant saguaro cactus, which grows in the hot Sonoran desert, is extremely sensitive to low temperatures. In fact, an
exceptionally cold winter night can kill the growing tips on the branches. In this case, temperature is an example of a
a. an intolerance factor
b. sensitivity gauge
c. physiological stress limit
d. specialist factor
e. critical limiting factor
81. In a fire-climax community, fire is important in fulfilling which of the following functions?
I. returning nutrients to the soil
II. maintaining plant populations by preventing seed germination
III. clearing away dead plant material
IV. eliminating some exotic species
V. adding mulch which reduces soil erosion
a. II & III
b. IV & V
c. I & V
d. II, IV & V
e. I, III, IV
82. Researchers have observed that when toxins in asbestos react with toxins in cigarette smoke, their cumulative toxicity is greater
than the sum of the individual toxins. Asbestos and cigarette smoke are considered
a. additive toxins
b. antagonistic toxins
c. synergistic toxins
d. polar toxins
e. covalent toxins
83. The Clean Water Act requires all of these except for
a. the identification of water quality criteria for sediment, bacteria, pathogens, heavy metals, pesticides, fertilizers &
petroleum by-products.
b. issuing boat and ski-jet permits
c. providing permits for point-source water discharges
d. providing funds for the up-grade of waste-water treatment plants
e. monitoring and restoring watersheds & wetlands
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
84. Certain tropical figs bear fruit during seasons when no other fruit is available. When these tropical fig plants are removed, many
animals starve and many plant species disappear. These tropical fig plants play an integral part in the local ecosystem. Based on this
information, the tropical fig plant is
a. a generalist
b. a k-selected species
c. an r-selected species
d. a keystone species
e. a degenerative species
85. Why do invasive/exotic species usually become pests?
a. They proliferate quickly, since they lack natural predators
c. They have a low biotic potential
e. They usually are very mobile
86. Which of the following is a renewable resource?
a. soil
b. petroleum
c. minerals
b. They increase biodiversity
d. They usually are specialist species
d. metals
e. coal
87. Reliable wind patterns such as the westerlies and the trade winds are created and shaped by which factor(s)?
I. tornados & hurricanes
II. differential solar heating
III. differences in temperature & pressure
IV. upwelling currents
V. The Coriolis Effect
a. IV & V
b. I, II & III
c. V only
d. II, III & IV
e. I & V
88. The goal of ecological economics is to create a steady-state economy characterized by all of these except
a. recycling of materials
b. low birth and death rates
c. emphasis on efficiency
d. emphasis on durability of goods
e. all of these
89. The giant panda feeds exclusively on bamboo and tolerates a narrow range of environmental conditions. Based on this
information, the giant panda has a ____________________ niche
a. fundamental
b. realized
c. specialist
d. generalist
e. detritivore
90 Until recently, most superfund money came from what source?
a. taxes on the general public
b. taxes on producers of toxic and hazardous wastes
c. taxes on automobile manufacturers
d. budgetary funds cut from other federal agencies
e. donations by environmental concern groups
91. A certain radioactive substance has a half-life of 20 years. What percent of the original sample will remain after 40 years?
a. 75%
b. 65%
c. 50%
d. 30%
e. 25%
92. All of these are arguments used by environmentalists against increased petroleum exploration in the Arctic except
a. Machinery emissions would cause an overall decrease in temperature in the region.
b. Vegetation would be damaged by deposition of alkaline dust along roads.
c. Habitat would be destroyed by gravel roads.
d. Oil spills would contaminate soil and water
e. Machinery emissions would contribute to acid rain
93. Benefits of recycling include
I. Recycling usually does not require an initial investment
II. Recycled products are popular consumer items
III. Recycling saves raw materials
IV. Recycling does not require construction of special facilities
a. I only
d. I & III
b. II only
e. I, III & IV
c. III only
94. Which is the greatest source of freshwater for humans worldwide?
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
a. atmosphere
b. groundwater
c. glaciers
d. rivers
e. lakes
95. The combustion of one gallon of gasoline creates approximately 5 pounds of CO2. If an automobile gets 20 miles to the gallon,
how much CO2 will be released on a 400 mile drive?
a. 20 pounds
b. 40 pounds
c. 60 pounds
d. 80 pounds
e. 100 pounds
96. The process of smelting separates pure metals from ore by
a. heating the ore to high temperatures
b. dissolving the ore using cyanide
d. physically chipping away the surrounding rock
c. exposing the ore to calcium carbonate
e. heap-leach extraction
97. Which reaction is not involved in the formation of acid precipitation?
a. O3 + CxHy  PANs
b. SO2 + H2O  H2SO3
c. H2SO3 + ½ O2  H2SO4
d. NO + ½ O2  NO2
e. 2NO2 + H2O  HNO2 + HNO3
98. Minerals are an example of _________ resource.
a. a non-renewable
b. a renewable
99. Making manufacturers take into account the cost of dealing with their waste products is an example of
a. internalizing costs
b. externalizing costs c. cost/benefit analysis
100. Which of the following would not be a goal of sustainable development?
a. a demographic transition to a stable world population
b. an increasing reliance upon renewable energy
c. a resource transition to reliance on nature’s “income” without depleting its “capital”
d. a transition to a more efficient use of energy and resources
e. an attempt to simplify ecosystems
101. What is the relationship between supply and demand?
a. supply increases, demand increases
b. supply increases, demand decreases
c. supply decreases, demand decreases
d. supply decreases, demand increases
102. Which of the following is not a market-based incentive?
a. pollution fines
b. SO2 gas emissions trading
c. “gas-guzzler” taxes on cars
d. government subsidies for water
103. A toxin is sprayed on a pond. After a period of time, which organism of an aquatic food chain is most likely to contain the highest
level of toxin?
a. phytoplankton
b. mosquito larvae
c. small fish
d. large fish
104. What has happened to the world’s total agricultural production over the last century?
a. increased
b. remained the same
c. decreased
105. Which of the following is NOT associated with the Green Revolution?
a. new breeds of high-yielding crops
b. use of machinery to carry out high-intensity farming
greater use of fertilizers
d. use of a greater variety of crops
e. increased food production
106. Which of these is an example of a cash crop?
a. corn
b. coffee
c. apples
c.
d. oats
107. Which of the following is NOT part of an integrated pest management program?
a. Use biological controls such as ladybugs
b. Plant crops in strips to reduce pest transport
c. Abolish all chemical pesticides
d. Use varieties of crops that are pest-resistant
108. Which group tends to use more pesticides than necessary?
a. homeowners
b. farmers
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
109. Which of these is associated with the clean-up and removal of toxins at Love Canal?
a. CERCLA
b. FIFRA
c. NEPA
d. RCRA
e. EPCRA
110. Which of the following agricultural practices reduces the rate of soil erosion?
a. long row planting
b. application of herbicides
c. leaving a field bare all winter
d. mulching
e. using large harvesting machines
111. Which soil has the smallest size particles?
a. silt
b. clay
c. sand
112. Which soil has the fastest permeability?
a. silt
b. clay
c. sand
113. Which is leached from the A-horizon into the B-horizon? a. iron
114. Which soil horizon contains the most organic material?
A.
b. aluminum
B.
115. Which of these causes the greatest health risk to humans?
a. human & animal wastes in water
b. pesticides
c. air pollution
c. nitrates
d. all
C.
d. radioactive wastes
116. When did synthetic pesticides become prominently used?
a. at the beginning of the 20th Century
b. at the onset of the Agricultural Revolution
c. at the onset of the Industrial Revolution
d. during World War II
e. during the late 1970s
117. Which of the following processes contributes to the “pesticide treadmill?”
a. Pests develop a resistance to a pesticide
b. Larger doses of pesticide are needed for the same result
c. New pesticides must continuously be developed
d. Pesticides kill natural predators of pests
e. all of these
118. Which of the following is FALSE about DDT?
b. DDT is a chlorinated hydrocarbon
d. DDT has been banned world-wide
a. DDT will bioaccumulate in a food chain
c. DDT is a broad-spectrum pesticide
e. DDT residue can be found throughout the world
119. Which has caused the greatest number of species extinction?
a. habitat destruction
b. overhunting
c. pollution
d. competition by exotic species
120. Which of these describes the current rate of extinction?
a. Current rates of extinction are slightly greater than rates in the past
b. Current rates of extinction are much greater than rates in the past
c. Current rates of extinction are not significantly different than normal extinction rates in the past.
121. What caused the ivory trade (for piano keys and jewelry) to collapse?
a. the CITES treaty
b. the US Endangered Species Act
c. the Montreal Protocol
122. What is the advantage of a monoculture forest compared to a mixed species forest?
a. higher biodiversity
b. fewer opportunities for pest infestation
c. reduced need for fertilizers
d. more efficient lumber production
e. more ecological stability
123. Which process is most responsible for soil degradation world-wide?
a. deforestation
b. agriculture
c. industrial pollution
d. overgrazing
124. Which US agency controls the most public land?
b. National Park Service
c. Army Corps of Engineers
a. Forest Service
d. Bureau of Land Management (BLM)
125. Which island is most likely to have the highest biodiversity?
a. closest to the mainland
b. located north of the Arctic Circle
c. sandy atoll in tropics
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
126. Which is the correct order starting at Earth’s surface?
a. core, mantle, crust
b. crust, core, mantle
c. crust, mantle, core
127. Which of these is not likely to be found at a subduction zone?
a. earthquakes
b. volcanoes
c. newly formed crust
d. deep trenches
128. Folded mountain ranges are mostly associated with
a. colliding plates
b. spreading plates
c. transverse-fault plates
129. What kind of rock forms from weathering, erosion and deposition? a. igneous b. metamorphic c. sedimentary
130. Which of these is the correct order of atmospheric layers beginning with the surface?
a. troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere
b. troposphere, thermosphere, stratosphere, exosphere
c. troposphere, meteorsphere, stratosphere
131. Which of these is FALSE?
a. The stratosphere contains the ozone layer which protects life from UV rays.
b. The troposphere contains weather
c. The temperature of the stratosphere increases with increasing elevation
d. Low pressure systems in the North America rotate clockwise
132. Which of the following best describes why there are rainforests near the equator?
a. warm air rises, cools and condenses into rain clouds
b. cold air descends, bringing rain
c. warm air is trapped under cold air, forming clouds
d. high pressure systems cause water vapor to condense into water droplets
133. Where do deserts form?
a. At high pressure areas formed by sinking air
c. At high pressure areas formed by rising air
134. At what latitude are many deserts located?
b. At low pressure areas formed by sinking air
d. At low pressure areas formed by rising air
a. O º
b. 30º N or S
c. 60º N or S
d. 90º N or S
135. Which of the following is not associated with El Niño?
a. less rain in Indonesia
b. more rain in South America
c. stronger equatorial winds pushing ocean currents westward
d. less upwelling of nutrient-rich water off the coast of South America
e. higher sea levels along the western coasts of North and South America
136. Which of these is NOT a greenhouse gas?
a. CFCs
b. CO2
c. CH4
d. nitrous oxide
e. SO2
137. Which of these is NOT a predicted effect of global warming?
a. higher sea levels
b. stronger storms c. droughts
d. decreased rates of photosynthesis
e. alteration of ecosystems
138. Which of these is a cause and effect of the Coriolis Effect?
a. rotation of the Earth: deflection of winds
c. tilt of the Earth’s axis of rotation : high and low ocean tides
b. distance to the Sun: change in seasons
d. presence of mountains : rainshadow effect
139. Which of these is NOT part of the photochemical reaction series?
a. NO2
b. particulates
c. PAN
d. VOC
e. O3
140. Which of these is an indoor pollutant linked to lung cancer?
a. PAN
b. O3
c. freon
d. SO2
e. radon
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141. Which of these is least likely to be associated with air pollution?
a. bronchitis
b. cataracts
c. emphysema
d. asthma
e. fibrosis
142. Which of these is least likely to contribute to acid rain?
b. HNO3 c. HCl
143. Where in the US does most acid deposition occur?
a. H2SO4
a. NE
b. SW
c. NW
d. SE
e. central
144 All of these are associated with acid precipitation except for
a. spruce trees lose needles
b. damage to limestone and marble buildings
c. heavy metals are leached from the soil
d. pH of mountain lakes increases
e. many fish eggs die
145. Which of these is associated ozone depletion in the stratosphere?
a. ESA
b. Montreal Protocol
c. Kyoto Treaty
146. Which of the following is true of most aquifers today?
a. Recharge is slower than water withdrawal
b. The water table is rising
c. There is an increase of artesian wells
d. Infiltration occurs faster than previously
147. Which uses more water?
a. agriculture
b. industry
c. residential
148. What is the effect of adding organic wastes to a river?
a. increasing BOD and increasing DO
b. decreasing BOD and increasing DO
c. increasing BOD and decreasing DO
d. decreasing BOD and decreasing DO
149. How would a thermal plume affect the DO of an aquatic ecosystem?
a. DO increases
b. DO decreases
150. Eutrophication in a marine ecosystem can cause an increase of toxic dinoflagellates called
a. red tide
b. Minamata disease
c. turbidity
d. oligotrophy
151. What kind of feedback loop is demonstrated by a predator-prey population graph?
a. positive
b. negative
152. What kind of feedback loop is demonstrated by a human population growth graph?
a. positive
b. negative
153. Which of the following does not contain a form of potential energy?
a. water behind a dam
b. sugar and starch in a potato
c. a gallon of gasoline
d. ultraviolet light
e. a piece of coal
154. Which of the following processes does not use energy that originated in the Sun?
a. radioactive decay
b. hydroelectric energy
c. biomass energy
d. wind energy
e. heat derived from burning fossil fuels
155. Which process takes place in a nuclear power reactor?
a. fusion of hydrogen nuclei to form helium
b. U-235 nucleus absorbing a neutron and splitting into two smaller nuclei
c. C-14 decaying into N-14
d. U-235 and U-239 fusing into plutonium
156. What form of energy is produced during every energy conversion?
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
a. thermal
b. solar
c. radiant
d. kinetic
e. no energy is produced
157. Which of the following is an example of low quality energy?
a. radiant
b. kinetic (mechanical)
c. heat
d. chemical potential
158. Which of the following is an example of high quality matter?
a. bauxite (aluminum ore)
b. recycled steel
d. CO2 and H2O from gasoline emissions e. copper dissolved in the ocean
e. all of these
c. sugar dissolved in water
159. Which law explains why there is no “away”?
a. 1st Law of conservation of energy b. Law of Gravity c. 2nd Law of conservation of energy
d. Boyle’s law
160. What process is responsible for converting solar radiation into chemical potential energy?
a. cellular respiration
b. transpiration
c. decomposition
d. photosynthesis
161. Which of the following concepts includes all the rest?
a. population
b. habitat
c. community
d. ecosystem
162 Which is likely to have the highest biodiversity?
a terrestrial biome
b. marine biome
e. species
c. shoreline biome
163.hat kind of pyramid cannot have a smaller base (producers) than a top (tertiary consumers)?
a. energy
b. biomass
c. numbers
164. Which cycle does not directly involve the atmosphere?
a. hydrologic
b. nitrogen
c. carbon
d. phosphorus
e. none of these
165. What are Rhizobium bacteria doing in the root nodules of legumes?
a. photosynthesis
b. changing phosphorus ions into phosphates
c. creating CO2
d. protection the legumes from predation
166. Which biome requires the most rainfall?
a. deciduous forest
b. grassland
c. chaparral
e. none of these
d. desert
167. Which of the following are factors that create tolerance limits for a population?
a. temperature
b. concentration of phosphate
c. salinity
d. water
e. all of these
168. Which of the following is an uncommon limiting factor for a lake ecosystem?
a. rainfall
b. phosphate
c. light
d. dissolved oxygen
169. Which scientific law explains why there are always fewer tertiary consumers than primary consumers in an ecosystem?
a. 1st Law of conservation of energy (Thermodynamics)
b. 2nd Law of conservation of energy (Thermodynamics)
c. Law of gravity
c. Law of tolerance
d. Law of Conservation of Matter
170. Which of the following would not be a predicted effect of cutting the forest in a stream watershed?
a. increased soil erosion
b. less water infiltration
c. increased nutrients in the water
d. nutrient loss in the soil
e. decreased algae growth in the water
171. Spotted owl is to specialist as human is to ____________________
a. consumer
b. evolution
c. generalist
d. r-strategist
e. decomposer
172. A patch of weeds growing on soil in early summer may be exhibiting
a. interspecific competition
b. predation
c. mutualism
d. parasitism
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173. Which of the following biomes has the highest gross primary productivity?
a. Arctic tundra
b. coniferous forest
c. grassland
d. tropical rainforest
e. desert
174. Which of the following is NOT usually a trait of a complex ecosystem?
a. resilience
b. stability
c. high biodiversity
d. high rate of succession
175. Which of the following is a transitional community?
a. estuary
b. ocean
c. tropical rainforest
d. desert
e. tundra
176. The Army Corps of Engineers has returned the Kissimmee River to its original state. This is an example of
a. mitigation
b. bioaccumulation
c. negative feedback
d. efficiency
177. Another name for geometric growth is
a. exponential
b. arithmetic
c. sigmoid
178. What prevents a species from reaching its biotic potential?
a. environmental resistance
b. carrying capacity
c. geometric growth
179. “The human population grows faster than resources, eventually resulting in starvation,” was first proposed by
a. Julian Simon
b. Charles Darwin
c. John Muir
d. Thomas Malthus
180. Which process is most responsible for the great change in human population during the last century?
a. increased birth rate
b. decreased birth rate
c. increased death rate
d. decreased death rate
181. Demographic transition describes these observed changes after economic development
a. decreased death rate followed by increased birth rate
b. decreased birth rate followed by increased death rate
c. decreased death rate followed by decreased birth rate
d. increased death rate followed by decreased birth rate
e. increased death rate followed by increased birth rate
182. Which best describes the population of the United States?
a. population is growing
b. population is decreasing
c. population is stable
183. Which best describes the current size of the world human population?
a. 600 million
b. 2 billion
c. 4 billion
d. 6 billion
e. 10 billion
184. If the population fertility rate = replacement rate, then the population will
a. decrease rapidly
b. decrease gradually
d. increase rapidly
e. increase gradually
185. Which of these describes giraffes?
a. CO2 + H2O + energy  C6H12O6 + O2
c. become stable
b. C6H12O6 + O2  CO2 + H2O + energy
186. What is the “energy” of the giraffes in your answer to the previous question?
a. sunlight
b. glucose
c. ATP
187. Write “r” or “k” next to each characteristic to represent r-strategist or k-strategist.
___high investment in individual offspring
___generalist
___slow growth
___many small offspring
___short life
___large population fluctuations
___niche specialist
___adapted to unstable environment
___ large body size
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
Questions 188 – 190 refer to the following processes
(a) photosynthesis
(b) eutrophication
(c) denitrification
(d) decomposition
(e) transpiration
188. The rapid rate of this process in tropical forests results in low-nutrient soils
189. The process in which glucose is synthesized by plants
190. The process by which a soil nutrient is reduced and released to the atmosphere as a gas
Questions 191-194 refer to the following elements
(a) oxygen
(b) aluminum
(c) iron
(d) nitrogen
(e) argon
191. The most abundant element in Earth’s crust
192. The most abundant element in Earth’s atmosphere
193. The most abundant element in Earth’s core
194. The element commercially extracted from bauxite
Questions 195-197 refer to the following processes
(a) nitrification
(b) denitrification
(c) assimilation
(d) ammonification
(e) nitrogen fixation
195. Ammonia is converted to nitrite then to nitrate
196. Plant roots absorb ammonium ions & nitrate ions for use in making molecules such as DNA, amino acids & proteins
197. Nitrate ions and nitrite ions are converted into nitrous oxide gas and nitrogen gas (N2)
Questions 198-201 refer to the following air pollutants
(a) sulfur dioxide
(b) lead
(c) ozone
(d) particulates
198. Most often cited as the causative factor for acid deposition
199. Implicated in human neurological damage
200. Considered harmful in the troposphere but beneficial in the stratosphere
201. Is the major pollutant that electrostatic precipitators are designed to remove from power-plant smokestack emissions
Questions 202-204 refer to the following countries
(a) Australia
(b) Brazil
(c) Chile
(d) Russia
(e) United State of America
202. Country with the largest area of boreal forests
203. Country with the greatest percentage of land area affected by desertification
204. Country with the largest area of temperate deciduous forest
205. The most commonly used measure of the economic growth of a country is which of the following?
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
a. gross national product
d. fertility rate
b. level of exports
e. externalized costs
c. level of imports
206. The factor that likely poses the greatest threat of extinction of species worldwide is
a. weakening of environmental legislation
b. increase in hunting and fishing
c. aggressive collecting of specimens by museums and zoos
d. black-market trade in endangered species
e. increasing loss of habitat
207. Which of the following energy sources is not derived directly or indirectly from solar energy?
a. natural gas
b. photovoltaic
c. hydroelectric
d. biomass
e. wind
208. Which of the following best exemplifies global collaboration for a sustainable environment?
a. The Montreal Protocol
b. The Antarctic Treaty of 1961
c. The Clean Air Act of 1972
d. CERCLA (superfund)
e. NAFTA
209. The presence of fecal coliform bacteria in a sample of river water suggests which of the following?
a. The pH of the river is very high
b. The water is contaminated with animal waste
c. The river is devoid of plant life
d. The dissolved oxygen level of the river is high
e. Fish caught from the river will be free of parasites
210. Which of the following best helps to explain why phosphorus is a limiting factor in many ecosystems?
a. There is usually a gaseous phase in the phosphorus cycle
b. Phosphorus cycles very quickly through environments
c. Under many conditions, phosphorus forms stable insoluble compounds.
d. Phosphate is not readily taken up by plants
e. There are no anthropogenic sources of phosphorus.
211. Factors contributing to the rise in world hunger include all of the following EXCEPT
a. unequal distribution of available food supplies
b. loss of or decline in arable land
c. increasing rate of population growth
d. increasing poverty in developing countries
e. increasing consumption of vegetable protein in place of meat protein
212. If a city of population 10,000 experiences 100 births, 40 deaths, 10 immigrants, and 30 emigrants in the course of a year, what is
its net annual percentage growth rate?
a. 0.4%
b. 0.8%
c. 1.0%
d. 4.0%
e. 8.0%
213. Which of the following statements about genetic diversity is true?
a. Genetic uniformity of a crop increases the crop’s overall resistance to pets and disease.
b. Genetic resistance to pests and diseases can be increased by crossing crop plant with ancestral varieties
c. Genetic engineering technology is used to increase genetic diversity by creating new species with synthetic genes
d. Genetic diversity within populations of common crop species such as corn is typically high
e. Genetic diversity is usually high in endangered species
214. In the United States, most municipal solid waste is disposed of by
a. composting
b. recycling
c. incineration
d. ocean dumping
e. landfilling
215. Negative environmental impacts associated with large-scale hydroelectric projects have been demonstrated in which of the
following areas?
a. James Bay, Quebec
b. Three Mile Island, Pennsylvania
c. Kissimmee River, Florida
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
d. Mono Lake, California
e. Aral Sea, former USSR
216. Which of the following factors is fundamentally responsible for seasons on earth?
a. the varying distance of Earth from the Sun
b. the tilt of the Earth’s axis of rotation
c. the latitudinal variation in temperature and precipitation d. the tidal pull of the Sun and the Moon
e. the anthropogenic greenhouse effect
217. If wastewater treatment plant effluent that contains nitrates and phosphates is allowed to flow into a body of water, which of the
following may result?
a. chlorination
b. decomposition
c. eutrophication
d. oxygenation
e. methylation
218. Which of the following describes a fundamental characteristic of the green revolution in food resources?
a. the application of higher levels of organic fertilizers to increase rice production
b. deforestation to provide field crops with increased sunlight for photosynthesis
c. the addition of calorie, fat and fiber percentages to the information provided on food package labels
d. the development of new strains of crops with higher yields
e. the discovery that chlorophyll adds nutritional value to wheat, rice, and sorghum
219. An industry uses natural gas for manufacturing and uses the waste heat to produce electricity. This is an example of which of the
following processes?
a. Cogeneration
b. Electrolysis
c. Gas hydration
d. Gasification
e. Reclamation
220. The water-holding capacity of soil is LEAST likely to be affected by the addition of which of the following?
a. Clay
b. Humus
c. Manure
d. Pesticide
e. Sand
221. Critics of incineration of municipal solid waste suggest that it may NOT be the best solution for the future, for which of the following
reasons?
a. Incineration produces ash that increases landfill volume
b. Incineration generates methane
c. Incineration involves advanced technology
d. Incineration contributes to air pollutant
e. Incineration requires large energy input
222.. Which of the following is likely to MINIMIZE soil erosion?
a. High-yield crops
b. Deforestation
d. Annual plowing
e. No-till agriculture
c. Herbicide use
223. A state highway was constructed over wetlands. The state obtained a permit to fill the existing wetlands in accordance with the
provisions of the Clean Water Act of 1972, and agreed to create another wetland. This trade-off approach to addressing an
environmental issue is known as
a. mitigation
b. restoration
c. preservation
d. remediation
e. sustainability
224. Information gathered by a scientist about the toxicity of chemical X and chemical Y showed that they had individual safe limits for
fish at particular concentrations. But when they were used together at safe concentrations, there were extensive fish die-offs. This is
an example of
a. homeostasis
b. synergism
c. commensalism
d. bioaccumulation
e. antagonism
225. An advantage of recycling aluminum rather than disposing of it in landfills is that aluminum can be
a. produced from recycled metal using much less energy than is required for its production from aluminum ore
b. produced from ore that is chemically reactive and dangerous to transport, store and process
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
c. produced from ore that is scarce and found primarily in remote, inhospitable regions at high latitudes
d. absorbed by plants and then biomagnified in both terrestrial and aquatic food chains
e. leached from landfills in the form of AL+++ ions that could increase the pH of lakes and streams.
226. As urbanization increases and natural soil surfaces are covered, the groundwater supply is reduced due to
a. increased evaporation and transpiration
b. decreased surface runoff
c. loss of recharge area
d. confinement of aquifers
e. capping of artesian wells
227. In 2003 the global human population was about 6.1 billion and was growing at an annual rate of 1.35%. If world population were
to grow at this rate for the next year, approximately how many people would be added?
a. 8 X 105
b. 8 X 106
c. 8 X 107
d. 8 X 108
e. 8 X 109
228. Which of the following methods of agricultural irrigation results in the loss of the least amount of water by evaporation?
a. conventional center-pivot irrigation
b. drip irrigation
c. laser-level irrigation
d. flood irrigation
e. gravity-flow irrigation
229. Ozone in the stratosphere is most important to life at Earth’s surface because it absorbs
a. gamma rays
b. microwaves
c. ultraviolet light
d. visible light
e. X-rays
230. Integrated waste management employs all of the following EXCEPT
a. using refillable soft-drink bottles
b. using disposable diapers instead of cloth diapers
c. using reusable canvas bags instead of plastic or paper bags
d. using tires for the construction of artificial reefs
e. redesigning automobiles to replace steel parts with aluminum and plastic parts
231. Economic benefits of building large dams include which of the following?
I. Storage of water for agriculture & domestic use
II. Controlling floods upstream
III. Production of renewable energy
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
(e) I, II and III
232. Of the following sources, which supplies the most commercial energy in the world today?
a. solar
b. oil
c. biomass
d. nuclear
e. hydroelectric
233. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas that is also a by-product of anaerobic respiration?
a. Methane
b. nitrogen
c. oxygen
d. nitrogen dioxide
e. hydrogen sulfide
234. If the population of a country grows at a rate of approximately 5% per year, the number of years required for the population to
double is closest to
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 15 years
d. 25 years
e. 35 years
235. The major cause for the decline in the worldwide catch of fish since 1990 is
a. acid deposition
b. escalating price of fuel
d. overfishing
e. decline in market price
c. competition from aquaculture
236. Which of the following will occur if the trend of global temperature increase continues?
a. Night temperatures will decrease as day temperatures increase.
b. Tropical areas will become cooler than they currently are.
c. Seal levels will drop due to increased evaporation.
d. The incidence of insect-borne diseases will decrease.
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
e. The troposphere will contain more water vapor.
237. Which of the following is the primary environmental problem associated with the use of nuclear power to generate electricity?
a. Radon leaking into buildings
b. Production of greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide
c. Disposal of radioactive waste
d. Depletion of the ozone layer
e. Production of acid rain
238. Compared to a coal-fired power plant that produces the same amount of energy, a nuclear power plant generates more
a. CO2
b. SO2
c. fly ash
d. particulates
e. thermal pollution
239. Which of the following identifies the two factors thought to be the most harmful to biodiversity?
a. Acid deposition and increased use of fertilizers for agriculture.
b. Depletion of the ozone layer and oil drilling
c. Destruction of habitat and invasion by non-native species
d. Changes in climate and proliferation of endemic species
e. Global warming and decline in fisheries.
240. For a certain insecticide, the LD-50 dosage level for rats is determined to be 250 milligrams per kilogram of body mass. On the
basis of this information, which of the following is the best prediction regarding the consequences of receiving this dosage of the
insecticide?
a. Fifty percent of any rat population would be sickened.
b. Fifty percent of the population of any warm-blooded animal would die
c. Fifty percent of any population of mosquitoes would die
d. Five hundred out of every one thousand people would experience acute effects.
e. Five hundred out of every one thousand rats would die.
241. The major human health problem related to radon accumulation is
a. lung cancer
b. heart disease
c. pancreatic cancer
d. cataracts
e. malignant melanoma
242. Why do introduce species often become pests?
a. They displace native species
b. They increase biodiversity
c. They do not adapt well to local habitats
d. They contribute to habitat fragmentation
e. They have low biotic potential.
243. Acid rain is associated with which of the following?
a. Formation of the Antarctic ozone hole
b. Release of PCBs into the atmosphere
c. Damage to tropical rain forests
d. The burning of fossil fuels
e. The increasing pH of lake waters
244. Characteristics that tend to increase the risk of a species becoming endangered include which of the following?
I. Having a very limited distribution
II. Being a specialist at the end of a long food chain
III. Having a small population size
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. II & III
e. I, II and III
245. Stratospheric ozone depletion is most likely to result in which of the following?
a.. increased growth of food crops due to increasing amounts of UV radiation
b. Extended grazing season for cattle
c. Disruption of photosynthesis in plants
d. Increased movement of the human population toward equatorial regions
e. A higher percentage of cloudless days
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
246. Which of the following is the best explanation of the fact that agricultural production on flood plains is often relatively high?
a. On floodplains, soils tend to be nutrient-rich and fertile
b. On floodplains, high water tables make irrigation unnecessary
c. Periodic flooding leaches toxic pollutants out of floodplain soils
d. Periodic flooding prevents the pH of floodplain soils from becoming too high
e. Floodplains are usually sparsely settled and thus more acreage is available for agriculture.
247. The increase in the size of Earth’s human population in the last century has been dramatic. Which of the following identifies two
major contributors to this increase?
a. New methods of agriculture and the identification of new food crops.
b. The Industrial Revolution and modern medicine
c. Increased emigration/immigration and decreased warfare
d. New methods of birth control and deceased warfare
e. Increased education for women and the development of new pesticides
248. Many scientists maintain that a rise in sea level has occurred in the last hundred years as a result of global warming. If this is
true, which of the following factors best explains such a rise?
a. Increase precipitation
b. Increased cloud cove
c. Increased evapo-transpiration
d. Thermal expansion of the ocean
e. Melting of permafrost
249. Which of the following natural events would be most likely to contribute to the cooling of Earth’s atmosphere?
a. earthquake
b. volcanism
c. hurricane
d. tsunami
e. monsoon
250. The combustion of one gallon of automobile fuel produces about 5 pounds of carbon and 19 pounds of carbon dioxide. Two
autos are making a trip of 600 miles. The first auto gets 20 miles per gallon and the second gets 30 miles per gallon. Approximately
how much LESS CARBON will be produced by the second auto on this trip?
a. 300 lbs
b. 150 lbs
c. 100 lbs
d. 75 lbs
e. 50 lbs
251. Regulations that deal directly with the disposal of hazardous material sin the US include which of the following?
I. RCRA
II. Clean Water Act
III. Clean Air Act
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I & II
e. I, II and III
252. Which of the following is a true statement about replacement-level fertility?
a. It equals the average number of children a woman will give birth to during her child-bearing years.
b. It equals the annual number of live births per 1,000 people in a population
c. It equals the natural increase of a population in one year.
d. It is found by subtracting the number of emigrants from the number of immigrants in one year.
e. It is greater in countries with high infant-mortality rates than in countries with low infant-mortality rates
253. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of the Tragedy of Commons?
a. Destruction of landscape by surface mining on private land
b. Selective harvesting of trees by a timber company in a national forest
c. Legislation of catch limits to avoid depletion of fish stocks in a shared lake
d. Inadvertent destruction of beneficial species while attempting to control pests
e. Depletion of an aquifer by region farmers
254. Of the following, which is the best example of reclamation of disturbed lands?
a. Restoring vegetation to an area that has been mined.
b. Constructing a new wetland to compensate for the loss of wetlands
c. Growing crops on land formerly used for grazing
d. Reintroducing an endangered species into an area from which it has disappeared
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
e. Regulating the use of a natural resource in order for it to renew itself
255. One solution for reducing the amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide would be to
a. increase oceanic temperatures to enhance CO2 intake
b. increase the rate of removal of tropical rain forests
c. decrease the total area of rice paddies
d. decrease the use of fossil fuels
e. decrease the production of chlorofluorocarbons
256. The drop in stratospheric ozone levels in the Southern Hemisphere (the “ozone hole”) is most evident during which season?
a. Antarctic spring (October)
b. Antarctic autumn (April)
c. Antarctic summer only (January)
d. Antarctic winter only (July)
e. Both Antarctic summer and winter (January and July)
257. Uranium-235 has a half-life of 710 million years. If it is determined that a certain amount of stored U-235 will be considered safe
only when its radioactivity has dropped to 0.10 percent of the original level, approximately how much time must the U-235 be stored
securely to be safe?
a. 7.1 X 106
b. 7.1 X 107
c. 7.1 X 108
d. 7.1 X 109
e. 7.1 X 1010
258. Which of the following would be the strongest evidence in support of a scientist’s contention that a local area was experiencing
acid deposition?
a. A sudden die-off of all the fish in a local stream
b. A gradual increase in the temperature of a local lake
c. An increase in the rate of photosynthesis of aquatic plants in a local lake
d. A long-term increase in the pH of a local pond
e. An increase in the concentration of soluble heavy metals in a local pond.
259. Which of the following is the usual cause of cultural eutrophication in surface waters of both developed and developing countries?
a. Lack of proper filtration devices for power plant effluents
b. Introduction of cyanobacteria to streams and rivers
c. Runoff of metal ions in bodies of water
d. Runoff of nitrate compounds into bodies of water
e. Runoff of herbicides into bodies of water
260. If mean global temperature keeps on increasing as predicted by contemporary scientists, which of the following is most likely?
a. There will be fewer insect pests and disease-carrying organisms.
b. Specialist species living in fragile ecosystems will risk extinction.
c. There will be an increase in sulfate concentrations in wetlands
d. There will be an increase in the reproductive rate of mammals
e. The geographical range of many plants will move toward the equator.
261. Photosynthesis is the major source of which of the following gases in Earth’s atmosphere?
a. CO2
b. H20 (water vapor)
c. O2
d. H2
e. N2
262. Traveling southward from the Arctic regions of Canada to the topics of Panama, one passes through several biomes: tundra,
coniferous forest, temperate deciduous forest, and tropical rain forest. This pattern of change in vegetation is primarily the result of
a. primary and secondary succession
b. the invasion of exotic species
c. an increase in mean annual temperature and a decrease in mean annual precipitation
d. an increase in both mean annual temperature and mean annual precipitation
e. an increase in the total annual hours of sunlight
263. When did the last Ice Age end?
a. 12, 000 years ago b. 250,000 years ago
c. 500,000 years ago
d. 10 million years ago
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
264. How much of the Earth’s water is accessible for drinking?
a. <1%
b. 2% c. 10%
d. 25%
265. In which soil layer would you find fallen leaves?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. O
266. What is the ultimate source of energy?
a. Water
b. Solar energy
c. Photosynthesis
d. Fossil fuels
267. Which of the following has the greatest level of net primary productivity?
a. grassland
b. chaparral
c. desert
d. tundra
e. estuary
Use these options for the next three questions:
a. acornbear
b. acorninsectbear
c. acorninsectrodentsnakebear
d. acorninsectrodentsnakebirdbear
268. In which of the cases does the bear receive the greatest amount of energy from the acorn?
269. In which case would the bear be a tertiary consumer?
270. In which case does the bear receive the least amount of energy from the acorn?
271.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which would you likely to see in a developing country?
Higher percentage of the population with safe drinking water.
More urban population
Higher average life expectancy
Higher percentage of the population under age 15.
272. CFCs are the primary cause of ozone depletion in which layer of the atmosphere?
a. stratosphere
b. troposphere
c. thermosphere
d. mesosphere
273. In an ecosytem, the way an organism “makes a living” or the way it obtains its food and energy is called
a. ecocline
b. habitat
c. niche
d. biome
MATCHING: use the choices on the right to answer questions 274-277.
274. profundal zone
275. limnetic zone
276. littoral zone
277. benthic zone
a. deep & dark ocean zone inhabited by decomposers & detritus feeders
b. deep & dark area of a lake inhabited by decomposers and detritus feeders
c. open ocean layer that receives sunlight
d. shallow zone of lake closest to shore
e. open lake surface away from shore, lots of sunlight
278. As of the year 2000 the population of Earth was about _____ and the annual rate of population growth was _____
a. 1.2 billion; 3.7 %
b. 6.1 billion; 1.5%
c. 6.6 billion; 3.5%
d. 12.0 billion; 2.5%
e. 256 billion; 3.2%
279. Monocultures are more vulnerable to loss of soil fertility because
a. there is a loss of predators
b. monocultures introduce pests
c. monocultures subdivide habitats
d. contour plowing disturbs soil erosion
e. monocultures promote soil nutrient depletion
280. The Endangered Species Act authorizes the ____________agency to prepare a ___________ for each listed species.
a. EPA; red list entry
b. CITES; captive breeding plan
c. Bureau of Land Management; OSY
d. Kyoto Protocol; species reduction plan
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
e. U.S. Fish & Game; recovery plan
Choose the best answer for questions 281-283 from the answer box. Some answers may be used more than once.
a. agro-forestry
b. hunting and gathering
c. subsistence farming
d. shifting cultivation
e. slash and burn cultivation
281. Growing only enough food to feed one’s family
282. Survival by collecting wild plants, fishing, hunting and scavenging
283. Cultivation a mixture of tree crops and food crops
Choose the best answer for the questions 284-286.
a. Exxon Valdez
b. Montreal Protocol
d. Chernobyl
e. Bhopal, India
c. Kyoto Treaty
284. An international agreement to reduce use of chlorofluorocarbons
285. Site of nuclear power plant accident
286. Oil tanker accident in Prince William Sound
Choose the best answer for the questions 287-289.
a. peat
b. sulfur
c. lignite
d. anthracite
e. bituminous
287. Produces the most heat
288 The least energy producing coal, also called “brown coal”
289. Of all the coal types, United States has more of this type of coal
290. An underground supply of water is known as an
a. wetland
b. estuary
c. drainage basin
d. water shed
291. Fossil fuels and minerals are found in the
a. asthenosphere
b. lithosphere
d. troposphere
e. stratosphere
292. Which form of nitrogen is most usable to plants?
a. ammonia
b. nitrogen gas
c. proteins
e. aquifer
c. biosphere
d. nitrates
e. nucleic acids
293. During the El Niño-Southern Oscillation
a. prevailing easterly winds weaken
b. surface water along the South American and North American coasts becomes cooler
c. upwelling of cold, nutrient-rich water is suppressed
d. primary productivity increases
e. Australia and Indonesia have double the normal annual rainfall
294. Primary succession must occur prior to secondary succession in order to
a. change soil into rock
b. melt ice into water
d. change rock into soil
e. establish an O layer of soil
c. change lichen into algae
295. The biotic potential of a population
a. is the maximum reproductive rate of a population
b. is the current rate of growth of a population
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APES PRACTICE TEST: MULTIPLE CHOICE
c. is an expression of how many offspring survive to reproduce
d. can be determined precisely using an age-structure diagram
e. determines the fitness of a population
296. The most common use of trees worldwide is as
a. pulp in paper production
b. fuelwood
d. medicines
e. synthetic raw materials
c. lumber for building
297. Which of the following would most likely help protect and sustain old-growth forests and forest-related jobs
in the Pacific northwest and possible in other areas?
a. Allow raw logs to be exported without taxes on them.
b. Subsidize sawmills to cut larger-diameter logs.
c. Remove full-cost pricing approaches to timber product sales
d. Make recreation and tourism a major goal on public forest land
e. Increase new road building in national forests.
298. An example of a high Shannon diversity value is
a. 100.0
b. 60.0
c. 55
d. 1.6
299. An example of a low Shannon diversity value is
a. 0.6
b. 1.6
c. 10.0
d. 25
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