Download GROUP QUESTIONS (26-28).

Roxy, Joanne, Amber, Matt, Becky
Chapter 26 Questions
1. What is NOT a function of the Urinary System?
A) To help regulate blood pressure, pH, and glucose levels
B) transport urine from kidneys to urinary bladder
C) maintain blood osmolarity
D) urethra discharges urine from body
E) urinary bladder stores urine and expels it into urethra
Rational: p. 1066, the chart explains that the urinary system functions as A,C, D, and E; while the
transportation of urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder is maintained by the ureters (it is not directly
transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder as they are separated by the ureters)
2. What is the deep layer of the kidney?
A) adipose capsule
B) renal fascia
C) renal hilum
D) hilus
E) renal capsule
Rational: on p. 1067, the external anatomy of the kidneys. It states that the deep layer is the renal capsule
which protects the kidney from trauma and holds it in place. The renal fascia is the superficial layer, the renal
hilum or hilus is where the ureter emerges from the kidney, and the adipose capsule is the middle layer which
protects the kidney and holds it in place.
3. What is the disease that is developed mostly in thin people whose adipose capsule or renal fascia is
deficient also called “floating kidney”?
A) Nephroptosis
B) Glycosuria
C) Diuretics
D) Urinary Incontinence
E) Nephrotic syndrome
Rational: p. 1069 the clinical connection.
Glycosuria is where some glucose is found within the urine (associated with diabetes mellitus). Diuretics are
substances that slow renal reabsorption of water and cause an elevated urine flow (dieresis). Urinary
Incontinence is the inability to control urination and Nephrotic syndrome is in which protein is found in the
urine (proteinuria) or high blood levels of cholesterol, phospholipids and triglycerides are present in the urine
(hyperlipidemia).
4. What is the scientific study of the anatomy, physiology, and pathology of the kidney?
A) Urology
B) Urologist
C) Nephrology
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Rational: p. 1065; it states that Nephrology is the scientific study of anatomy, physiology, and pathology of
the kidneys.
5. Which organ does the most work in the Urinary System?
A) Urinary bladder
B) Urethra
C) Rectum
D) Uterus
E) Kidneys
Rational: p. 1067; the start of Overview of Kidney Functions states that the kidneys are the organs that do the
majority of the work in the urinary system.
6. What regulating factor increases the Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)?
A) Myogenic mechanism
B) Neural regulation
C) Angiotensin II
D) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
E) Tubuloglomerular feedback
Rational:
The answer can be found on page 1081 Table 26.2
the reason why myogenic mechanism is NOT the answer is because it decreases the effect of the GFR.
Neural regulation also decreases the effect of GFR as it is a negative feedback loop.
Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor that narrows arterioles and reduces the renal blood flow which decreases
GFR
Tubuloglomerular feedback is a part of the renal autoregulation which decreases the GFR along with
myogenic mechanism.
7. Which of the following is NOT true about Nephrons?
A) They are constant at birth
B) If diseased, new nephrons will form to comply
C) Due to nephron individual growth, it can increase the kidneys size
D) Nephrons can adapt to handle larger-than-normal loads.
E) These are the functional units of the kidneys
Rational:
On page 1076, on the last paragraph before the next section, it states the following;
Nephrons are constant from birth, kidney size is due to the growth of individual nephrons, nephrons can also
adapt to handle larger-than-normal loads, and from the page 1071 they are the functional units of the kidneys.
However it states that if nephrons are diseased cannot create new ones to comply.
8. Which of the following processes are needed to produce urine?
A) Tubular secretion, basal lamina, and Glomerular filtration
B) Tubular secretion, Glomerular filtration, Tubular reabsorption
C) Glomerular filtration, Tubular reabsorption, Tubular absorption
D) Glomerular filtration, Tubular secretion, and Tubular absorption
E) None of the above are to help produce urine.
Rational:
Page 1076, overview of renal physiology states the order; Glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and
tubular secretion.
9. What is the correct order in which the fluid flows through to the collecting ducts?
A) Glomerular capsule, renal tubule, and to the collecting duct
B) Renal tubule, glomerular capsule, and the collecting duct
C) Collecting duct, renal tubule, to the glomerular capsule
D) Glomerular capsule, collecting duct, and renal tubule
E) Renal tubule, collecting duct, and glomerular capsule.
Rational:
pg. 1074, end of histology paragraph it states that fluid flows through the glomerular capsule, renal tubule,
and then the collecting duct.
10. Which of the following mechanisms does NOT control the glomerular filtration rate?
A) Renal Autoregulation
B) Tubuloglomerular feedback
C) Angiotensin II
D) Atrial natriuretic peptide
E) Tubular reabsorption
Rational:
pg. 1080 end of first paragraph states three mechanisms that control GFR; renal autoregulation, neural
regulation, and hormonal regulation (which includes Angiotensin II and atrial natriuretic peptide).
11. What does the presence of excess albumin in the urine indicate?
A) Glucosuria
B) Cirrhosis
C) E. coli
D) Acute inflammation of urinary organs due to disease
E) Increased permeability of filtration membranes due to injury (albuminuria)
Answer: E
Rational p.1095 on table 26.6, it states that albuminuria is in which there is a presence of excessive albumin in
the urine which could mean an increase in permeability of the filtration membranes.
12. The volume of blood that is cleaned or cleared of a substance per unit of time is
A) Renal plasma flow
B) Inulin
C) Renal plasma clearance
D) Countercurrent exchange
E) Filtration
Answer: C
Rational is found on p.1094 on renal plasma clearance. It cannot be Inulin because that is the plant
polysaccharide that easily passes the filter and is not reabsorbed or secreted. Countercurrent exchange is the
process by which solutes and water are passively exchanged between the blood of the vasa recta and
interstitial fluid of the renal medulla. Filtration is the general process in which water and small solutes are able
to pass through the capillaries and into the renal capsule before going on to the renal tubule and collecting
ducts (p. 1077). Renal plasma flow is the amount of plasma that passes through the kidneys in one minute.
13. Each of the two ureters transports urine from the ________ of one kidney to the urinary bladder.
A) Internal urethral orifice
B) Renal pelvis
C) Trigone
D) Detrusor muscle
E) Micturition center
Answer: B
Rational is found on p.1096 the first paragraph underneath ureters. Internal urethral orifice is the opening
into the urethra (1097). Trigone is the small triangular area in the floor of the urinary bladder, Detrusor
muscle which is also the muscularis that surrounds the mucosa of the urinary bladder. Micturition center is
within the sacral spinal cord segments S2 and S3 that trigger the micturition reflex which allows urination.
14. The ________ is a hollow, distensible organ situated in the pelvic cavity posterior to the pubic symphysis.
A) Uterus
B) Vas deferens
C) Urinary bladder
D) Trigone
E) Urethra
Answer C
Rational is found on p.1097, the first paragraph of the urinary bladder. The uterus is only present in females
and is part of the reproductive system, vas deferens is a duct which is a part of the reproductive system that
conveys sperm during sexual arousal (p. 1138). Trigone is the floor of the urinary bladder and the urethra is
the small tube leading from the internal urethral orifice to the exterior of the body (1099)
15. High levels of ________ may indicate diabetes mellitus, anorexia, starvation or too little carbohydrate in
diet.
A) Glucose
B) Erythrocytes
C) Bilirubin
D) Ketone bodies
E) Microbes
Answer D
Rational is found on p.1095, on table 26.6. Glucose while is a sign closely associated with diabetes mellitus it
is not present in anorexia or starvation. Erythrocytes (blood cells) could me kidney disease, menstrual blood,
or tumors. Bilirubin within urine could state bilirubinuria which could state a disease/disorder and Microbes
within the urine could mean urinary tract infections.
Pages 1096 – 1109
16. Out of the following procedures, which can be used to evaluate urinary bladder problems like cancer and
infections?
A) Intravenous Pyelogram
B) Polyuria
C) Cystoscopy
D) Peritoneal Dialysis
E) Kidney Transplant
Rational:
Page 1097 – clinical connection; Intravenous Pyelogram is a radiograph of the kidneys, ureters, and urinary
bladder. Polyuria is excessive urine formation, peritoneal dialysis is in which the peritoneum of the abdominal
cavity is used as the dialysis membrane to filter the blood. Kidney transplants are the removal of the disease
kidney and are replaced with a donor’s.
17. Of the following, which is NOT true about the ureters?
A) They are retroperitoneal like the kidneys
B) Curve medially and pass obliquely through the wall of the posterior aspect of the urinary bladder.
C) Has a physiological valve that compresses the oblique openings into ureters and prevents the backflow of
urine.
D) They have anatomical valves, like veins or the heart that help prevent backflow of urine and shunt
the urine into the ureters
E) Has three layers of tissues; mucosa, lamina propria, and muscularis (including the adventitia
Rational:
page 1096, ureter’s first, second, and third paragraphs (as well as fourth) all of the follow is true but
anatomical valves.
18. Which of the following is not an effect of aging with the urinary system?
A) Both kidneys shrink in size as one ages
B) Both kidneys increase in size throughout the years
C) Kidneys have decreased blood flow
D) The kidneys filter less blood
E) Blood vessels could become easily damaged or decrease in number over the years
Rational:
Page 1103, Aging and the Urinary System. All the following are true but as with age, both kidneys shrink in
size instead of increase in size (unless there is a disease or disorder stating otherwise).
19. Which type of function does not belong with its specific waste management system?
A) Body Buffers – fluids bind excess hydrogen ions, which prevent an increase in the acidity of body fluids
B) Blood – Provides pickup and delivery of wastes as well as oxygen and CO 2
C) Liver – the site for metabolic recycling (amino acids into glucose) as well as conversion of toxins to less
toxic ones
D) Sudoriferous Glands – through the sweat we eliminate excess CO2, heat and water, including small
amounts of salts and urea.
E) Gastrointestinal Tract – through micturition AND defecation, the GI tract excretes not only
solids, undigested foods, and wastes, but; some water, salt, and heat are managed.
Rational:
Page 1100, Focus on Homeostasis. All of the following are true but the Gastrointestinal Tract, since it is only
responsible for defecation and absorption of nutrients.
20. Of the following, which is NOT a contribution of the urinary system to the other systems?
A) Along with the gastrointestinal tract, the kidneys help play a part in the final absorption process
before eliminating the wastes through urine.
B) Kidneys participate in synthesis of calcitriol and release erythropoietin
C) Along with the lungs, kidneys adjust the pH of body fluids
D) Kidneys also help adjust the blood calcium, which is needed for muscle contractions
E) Kidneys regular the volume, composition, and pH of body fluids by removing wastes and excess
substances through the urine
Rational:
P. 1102, Focus on Homeostasis. All of the following are true but the urinary system does NOT have any
absorption processes. It merely reabsorbs then secretes the fluids as urine.
21. What is the significance of the absence of Na+ pumps in apical membranes?
A) It ensures that reabsorption of Na+ is a one way process
B) It ensures that no absorption of Na+ takes place.
C) To help reduce the energy used by the Na+ and K+ pumps.
D) It ensures that reabsorption of Na+ and K+ is a two way process.
E) To increase the energy used by Na+ and K+ pumps.
Rational: p. 1083, left column second paragraph, it states that the absence of sodium-potassium pumps in the
apical membranes ensures that reabsorption of Na+ is a one way process. Most sodium ions that cross the
apical membrane will be pumped into interstitial fluid at the base and sides of the cell. There has to be
reabsorption of Na+ so B is wrong. Energy is neither reduced nor increased by Na+ and K+ pumps because
it only uses about 6% of the total ATP consumption of the body. (C and E are wrong) Reabsorption of Na+
is only a one way process and not a two way process between Na+ and K+.
22. Where specifically in the kidney does the largest amount of reabsorption take place?
A) Within the Glomerulus
B) Proximal Convoluted tubules
C) Loop of Henle
D) Medulla of the Kidneys
E) Distal Convoluted Tubules
Rational: p. 1081 states that the volume of fluid entering the proximal convoluted tubules is where
reabsorption takes place and that this is where they have the largest contribution of reabsorption.
It is not located within the glomerulus (p. 1069) that is the ball-shaped capillary network that is a part of the
glomerular filtration. Loop of Henle is where the proximal and distal convoluted tubules meet and where they
receive the blood supply from the peritubular capillaries or the vasa recta within the juxtamedullary nephrons.
Medulla of the kidneys holds the juxtamedullary nephron’s Loop of Henle and makes up only 15% of the
total nephrons found within the kidneys. (p. 1073) distal convoluted tubules have some reabsorption (p 1093)
but it transports the fluid into the collecting ducts where it will be excreted as urine.
23. What is a symporter?
A) Primary active transporters that moves two or more substances in opposite directions across a membrane.
B) Primary active transporters that moves two or more substances in the same direction across a membrane.
C) Secondary active transports that move two or more substances in the opposite direction across a
membrane.
D) Secondary active transporters that move two or more substances in the same direction across a
membrane.
E) An active transporter that moves only one substance in one direction against its gradient.
Rational: on p. 1083 it states that Primary active transporters get energy from the hydrolysis of ATP used to
“pump” a substance across its membrane. Na+/K+ pumps are examples (which is NOT a symporter)
Secondary active transporters are broken down into Symporters and Antiporters; Symporters move two or
more substances in the same direction across a membrane and Antiporters move two or more substances in
different directions across the membrane.
24. Which of the following is false in how Angiotensin II affects the renal physiology?
A) It decreases the glomerular filtration rate by causing vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles.
B) It enhances reabsorption of Na+, Cl-, and water in the proximal convoluted tubules by stimulating the
activity of Na+/H+ antiporters.
C) Stimulates the release of Aldosterone
D) Stimulates the principal cells in the collecting ducts to reabsorb more Na+ and Cl- and to secrete
more K+
E) Causes an increase in blood volume and blood pressure systemically.
Rational: p. 1087
A, B, C, and E are all true in regards to how Angiotensin II affects not only the renal physiology but the body
as a whole. Stimulating the principal cells in the collecting ducts is what Aldosterone does, not Angiotensin II.
25. Of the following hormones, which controls whether or not urine is diluted or concentrated?
A) Aldosterone
B) Angiotensin II
C) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
D) Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)
E) Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)/Vasopressin
Rational: on p. 1088 and 1089 it states that ADH controls whether dilute or concentrated urine is formed. In
the absence of such urine is very dilute and in high levels of ADH stimulation of reabsorption of more water
in the blood causes more concentrated urine. Aldosterone simply increases secretion of K+ and reabsorption
of Na+/Cl- which in turn increases water and blood volume/blood pressure. Angiotensin II increases
reabsorption of Na+ and other solutes (including water) which increases blood pressure and blood volume.
Parathyroid hormone only increases the reabsorption of Ca 2+ while ANP increases urine output, excretion
of Na+ and decreases blood volume/pressure.
Chapter 27 Questions
BichHong Do, Lu Wang, Margot Garrido, Brittney Collins, Erin Hamilton, Abel Silacan
Essay choices:

Detail the various regulations of the body (dehydration, renal Na and Cl reabsorption, blood pH)
- see pages 1113 and 1121

Blood electrolyte Imbalances, page 1119
1. Which of the following is not a function of the ions that are formed during dissociation of
electrolytes?
a.) Carrying electrical current and producing action potentials and graded potentials
b.) Cofactors for enzyme activity
c.) Increasing polarity of cellular molecules allowing for easy transport within blood
d.) Controlling the osmosis of water between fluid compartments
e.) Maintaining the acid-base balance
The answer can be found on page 1115, first paragraph beneath the section title for 27.2. It is listed in
the text that ions formed when electrolytes dissolve and dissociate serve four general functions. “A” is
true because ions carry electrical current. “B” is true because as we have seen before, ions do serve as
cofactors. A famous example is iron, which is a cofactor of cytochrome of the heme group in red blood
cells. “D” is true because ions are confined to fluid compartments and are more numerous than
nonelectrolytes. “E” is true because according to acid-base theory, positive and negative ions affect pH.
Obviously, “C” is the right answer and not a function of ions because blood transport has nothing to do
with ion polarity.
2. For which of these ions does the value of mEq/liter not equal to the number of mmol/liter?
a.) Bicarbonate
b.) Sodium
c.) Potassium
d.) Phosphate
e.) Chloride
The answer can be found at the end of page 1115 and the beginning of page 1116. The number of
mEq/liter is equal to the number of mmol/liter for ions with a single positive/negative charge and
mEq/liter is twice the number of mmol/liter for ions with two positive or negative charges. Thus answer
“D” phosphate is the only one that has a charge of two and the only one in which the value of mEq/liter
not equal to mmol/liter.
3. Which of the following is not true of bicarbonate ions?
a.) They are the second most prevalent extracellular anions
b.) They exchange with sodium ions to maintain the balance of ions in extracellular fluid
c.) The concentration of bicarbonate ions increases as blood flows through systemic capillaries
d.) Kidneys are main regulators of bicarbonate concentration
e.) Concentration of bicarbonate decreases as carbon dioxide is exhaled
The answer can be found on page 1117 on the bicarbonate section. All of the other answers were
mentioned within the text. The reason “B” is wrong and thus the answer is because bicarbonate
exchanges with chloride ions, not sodium ions.
4. Which of the following is most abundant in extracellular fluids?
a.) Na+
b.) K+
c.) Mg2+
d.) HPO42e.) Protein anions
The answer is on page 1116, on figure 27.6. All of the answers are abundant in intracellular fluid EXCEPT
for sodium, which is more abundant in extracellular fluid.
5. These people are all at risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalances excepta.) Infants
b.) Military personnel
c.) Athletes
d.) Diabetics
e.) Young Adults
The answer is on page 1118, in the last paragraph on the left. It says that people at risk for fluid
imbalances are those who depend on other for fluid and food- answer “A”; those who are in extremely
hot environments- answer “B” and “C”; and those who are chronic diseases- answer “D”. Thus “E” is the
right answer because young adults are not at risk for fluid imbalances.
6. Interstitial Fluid can be found in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. lymph
B. cerebrospinal fluid
C. plasma
D. synovial fluid
E. aqueous humor
Plasma is extracellular fluid, not interstitial fluid. Interstitial fluid makes up 80% of ECF; plasma a mere
20%. (1111)
7. Which is a way that water is gained in the body?
A. Ingestion of solid food
B. Absorbed via diffusion from the small intestine
C. Electrons accepted by oxygen during anaerobic cellular respiration
D. Dehydration synthesis reactions
E. Menstrual flow
Dehydration synthesis reactions are a way to gain water through metabolic synthesis. (1112)
8. Most solutes are:
A. K+
B. Electrolytes
C. Monosaccharides
D. Organic compounds
E. In dilute urine
Most solutes are electrolytes, inorganic compounds, that dissociate into ions. (1112)
9. Water is exits the body through all of the following except:
A. Kidneys excrete urine
B. Skin secretes sweat
C. Lungs exhale water vapor
D. Small intestine excretes feces
E. Menstrual cycle
D would be correct if it said the “GI tract” in lieu of “small intestine.” (1112)
10. The thirst center in the __________ governs the urge to drink.
A. Thalamus
B. Osmoreceptors
C. Pituitary gland
D. Parathyroid
E. Hypothalamus
The answer to this question is found on page 1112.
11. In which of these compartments is Na+ concentration the lowest?
A. interstitial fluid
B. plasma
C. intracellular fluid
D. lymph
E. extracellular fluid
(Reference: Page 1111)
12. All of these are effects of antidiuretic hormone EXCEPT
A. increased water reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubules collecting ducts
B. reduced urine osmolarity
C. increased permeability of the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts to water
D. reduced urine output
E. increased urine osmolarity
(Reference: Page 1113)
13. Which condition is caused by water output exceeding water intake?
A. water intoxication
B. ADH hyposecretion
C. dehydration
D. increased blood volume
E. decreased blood volume
(Reference: Page 1112)
14. Body water is lost through each of these organs EXCEPT the
A. Kidneys
B. Lungs
C. Skin
D. Muscles
E. Urine
(Reference: Page 1112)
15. Which buffer system is an important regulator of pH in the cytosol of a cell?
a. Protein buffer system
b. Phosphate buffer system
c. Carbonic buffer system
d. Ammonia buffer system
e. Carbonate buffer system
P.1121- Because the concentration of phosphates is highest in the intracellular fluid, the phosphate
buffer system is an important regulator of pH in cytosol.
16. What mechanism results in the elimination of acids other than carbonic acid from the body?
a. Exhalation of carbon dioxide
b. Potein buffer system
c. Kidney excretion of hydrogen ions
d. Phosphate buffer system
e. carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system
p1118- The excretion of hydrogen ions is the only way to eliminate acids other than carbonic acid. Buffer
systems can make a strong acid or strong base weaker but do not eliminate the acid or base.
17. Where does the normal systemic arterial blood pH fall?
a. Between 7.35 and 7.45
b. Between 7.25 and 7.35
c. Between 7.45 and 7.55
d. Between 7.15 and 7.25
e. Between 7 and 7.10
P 1118- Normal blood pH falls between 7.35 and 7.45. Maintenance of this level is critical normal cellular
function
18. What characteristic of the typical American diet has the potential to increase the acidity of the
blood?
a. High fat content
b. High sugar content
c. High sodium content
d. High protein content
e. High fiber content
P1118- Proteins have a three dimensional shape and are very sensitive to pH changes. A diet high in
protein results in cellular metabolism producing more acids than bases.
19. What component of proteins act like an acid when pH rises by releasing hydrogen ions?
a. Amino group
b. Carbon
c. Hydrogen
d. Carboxyl group
e. Carbonic Acid
P 1120- The carboxyl group releases hydrogen ions that are then able to react with any excess hydroxide
ions and form water.
20. Which of the following are not related to aging and fluid electrolyte and acid base balance?
A. Metabolic Rate
B. Body surface Area
C. Dehydration and hypematermia
D. Functional development of the kidneys
E. Proportion and distribution of water
P.1125
The differences are related to the following conditions: Proportion and distribution of water, metabolic
rate, functional development of the kidney, body surface area, breathing rate, and ion concentration.
Metabolic rate- metabolic rate of infants is about double that of adults. This can results in the
production of more metabolic wastes and acid.
Body Surface Area- the ratio of body surface area to body volume of infants is about three times greater
than that adults.
Breathing rate- the higher breathing rate of infants causes greater water loss from the lungs.
Ion concentration- newborns have higher K+ and CL- concentration than adults.
21. What decreased HCO3 and decreases PH below 7.35 if no compensation?
A. Respiratory Alkalosis
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Metabolic Alkalosis
D. Respiratory Acidosis
E. Acidosis
P.1125
Respiratory alkalosis- decreased Pco2 and increased pH if no compensation
Metabolic Acidosis- decreased HCO3 and decreased Ph if no compensation
Metabolic Alkalosis- increased HCO3 and increased pH if no compensation
Respiratory Alkalosis- increased HCO3 and increased pH if no compensation
Acidosis-May occur due to impaired ability of the lungs and kidney to compensate for acid- base
imbalances.
22. Which of the following disorders are not age related change in adults and electrolyte?
A. Dehydration and hypernatremia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Iron concentration
E. Acidosis
p.1125
Dehydration and hypernatremia often occur due to inadequate fluid intake or loss of more water than
Na in urine.
Hyponatremia- may occur due to inadequate intake of Na elevated loss of na in urine, vomit, or
diarrhea.
Hypokalemia- often occurs in older adults who chronically use laxatives to relieve constipation or who
take K+ depleting diuretic drugs for treatment of hypertension or heart disease.
Iron concentration- newborns have higher K+ and cl concentrations than adults.
Acidosis- may occur due to impaired ability of the lungs and kidney to compensate for acid base
imbalances.
23. This is often occurs in older adults who chronically use laxatives to relieve constipation or who take
K+ depleting diuretic drugs for treatment?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyperokalenmia
E. Hypertension
P.1125
Hyponatremia- may occur due to inadequate intake of Na elevated loss of na in urine, vomit, or
diarrhea.
Hypokalemia- often occurs in older adults who chronically use laxatives to relieve constipation or who
take K+ depleting diuretic drugs for treatment of hypertension or heart disease.
Hypertension- High blood pressure
Hypernatremia - often occur do to inadequate fluid intake or loss of water than na.
24. ______________ is the physiological response to acid-base imbalance that acts to
normalized arterial blood pH.
A. Compensation
B. Renal compensation
C. Respiratory compensation
D. Brain compensation
E. Monetary compensation
Rationale: (p.1123 under Acid-base imbalances)
B. Renal compensation is a form of compensation and term used when hyperventilation
or hypoventilation help bring blood pH back to normal.
C. Renal compensation is the changes in secretion of hydrogen ions and reabsorption of
bicarbonate.
D and E they are made up choices
25. Decrease movement of CO2 from the blood to the alveoli of the lung to the atmosphere
causes the buildup of the following elements EXCEPT. (p.1123 under respiratory
acidosis)
A. CO2
B. HPO4-2
C. H2CO3
D. H+
E. None of the above
Rationale: (p.1122 under kidney excretion of H+)
B. HPO4-2(Monohydrogen phosphate ions) is the most plentiful buffer in the tubular
fluid of the collecting duct.
26. What is the important regulator of blood pH and the most abundant buffer in the
extracellular fluid?
A. Protein
B. Phosphates
C. Kidneys
D. Buffer system
E. Carbonic acid-bicarbonate (p.1123 under table 27.3)
Rationale (p.1123 table 27.3)
A. protein is the most abundant buffer in body cell and blood.
B. Phosphates important buffer in intracellular fluid and urine.
C. Kidneys - renal tubules secretes H+ into urine and reabsorb HCO3 so it is not lost in
urine.
D. Buffer system is consist most of a weak acid and its salt, which function as a weak
base. They prevent drastic changes in body fluid changes.
27. What is the MOST frequent cause of metabolic alkalosis?
A. vomiting/loss of hydrochloric acid (p.1124 above clinical connection)
B. Certain diuretics
C. Severe dehydration
D. Taking antacid
E. Endocrine disorder
Rationale:
B,C,D,E are other causes of metabolic disorder but the most frequent cause of metabolic
alkalosis is vomiting/loss of hydrochloric acid.
28. Is an acid-base imbalance where systemic arterial blood Pco2 drop below 35 mmHg.
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory Alkalosis (p.1123)
D. Respiratory acidosis
E. Alkalosis
Rationale (p.1123)
A. Metabolic Acidosis systemic arterial blood HC03 drops below 22mEq/liter.
B. Metabolic alkalosis systemic arterial blood HCO3 concentration is above 26mEq/liter.
D. Respiratory acidosis is an abnormally high Pco2 in systemic arterial blood- above
45mEq/liter.
E. Alkalosis is a condition in which blood pH is higher than 7.45
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM - CHAPTER 28 QUESTIONS
AMANDA HUYNH, TUYEN PHAM, NGOC VU, AND ALBA
Which hormone initiates the changes in puberty? (page 1160)
FSH
ICSH
Testosterone
GnRH (beginning the cycle)
LH
Which hormone thickens the lining of the uterus?
FSH (stimulate seminiferous tubules)
Estrogen
LH
ICSH
Progesterone (increase glycogen)
Which hormone causes the uterus to increase glycogen? (page 1160)
Progesterone
FSH
LH
Estrogen
GnRH
The shedding and bleeding of the deciduas during menses is directly caused by low level of ____ (Page
1161)
FSH
LH
Sex steroids (estrogen)
GnRH
ICSH
The mature follicle is also called a _______________ (Page 1161)
Graafian follicle
Granulosa cell
Primary follicle
Secondary follicle
Stromal cell
During ovulation, the oocyte passes into the __________
Uterine tube
Uterus
Ovary
Urethra
Cervical canal
Which of these is NOT a function of ESTROGEN?( page 1161)
Decrease adipose (increase adipose, secondary female sex characteristic)
Breast development
Increase skin blood vessels
Enlarge clitoris
Increase blood cholesterol level
What area experiences the greatest changes in a menstrual cycle?
Vagina
Perimetrium
Cervix
Endometrium
Uterus
Which factor causes the act of ovulation?
Blood pressure
LH level (causes ovulation)
FSH level (begins follicle development)
Estrogen
Testosterone
Where is the majority of progesterone produced?
Graafian follicle
Corpus luteum
Secondary follicle
Adrenal cortex
Primordial follicle
Which hormone is produced throughout the menstrual cycle? (page 1161)
FSH
LH
Estrogen
Progesterone
Oxytocin
Which factor will inhibit the secretion of estrogen? (page 1161)
FSH (rising levels of estrogen cause an inhinition of FSH production by negative feedback)
LH
Estrogen
Progesterone
Testosterone
Which factor is will inhibit LH secretion?
FSH
Progesterone
Estrogen (inhibit FSH)
LH(inhibit by increase estrogen)
ADH
Which structure is formed following ovulation?
Graafian follicle
Secondary oocyte
Corpus luteum
Coronal radiate
Primary follicle
All of the following are true about breast cancer treatment EXCEPT: (page 1172)
Staging which shows the size and spread of malignancy
Identifying the present of BCRA (Breast cancer tumor marker) predicting risk for optimum treatment
(this is screening for breast cancer not a treatment phase)
Performing breast sparing surgery (lumpectomy)
Incorporating chemotherapy as an adjunct to surgery
Hormone therapy
Which statement is true regarding to testosterone level?
Increase risk of prostate cancer
Little or no libido can indicate the sign of low testosterone
Testosterone promotes aggregation and violence
Abstinence increases testosterone level in men
Increase during female puberty
AIDS virus can be transmitted under specific condition and through infected bodily fluid EXCEPT:
Blood
Feces
Semen
Plasma
Breast milk
The most effective method of treating HIV virus is targeted at limiting replication of cells by the
administration of which type of medication?
Antifungal
Antiretroviral
Antiviral
Antibiotic
Antidepressant
Which statement is true about breasts and their functions: page 1158
Breasts are supported by and attached to the chest wall, resting on the scapular chest muscle.
The ejection of milk is stimulating by prolactin hormone
The areola deliver milk via the opening of the nipple
Fibrosis, cyst, mastitis contribute more than 70% added risk to developing breast cancer
The major hormones affecting breast are progesterone, estrogen, and prolactin
About half of people who become infected with HIV are:
Develop abnormal discharge from penis and vagina within a few days
Experience flu-like symptoms within a few weeks
Develop a rash within 3-10 days
Develop genital warts (Genital herpes not HIV infected patients)
Develop chancre during primary stage (Syphilis not HIV)
At what age, the hormone-directed changes start to occur? (page 1170)
15
10
12
18
21
The puberty is marked by _______________(page 1170)
Pulse or burst of ADH
Pulse or burst of Hgh
Pulse or burst of TSH
Pulse or burst of LH &FSH
Pulse or burst of ACTH &MSH
Which section of the brain the leptin may signal for reproductive function?
Cerebellum
Medulla oblongata
Pituitary Gland
Hypothalamus
Thalamus
Which method is 100% reliable for preventing pregnancy? (page 1165)
Surgical sterilization
Spermicides
Hormonal methods
Complete abstinence
Period abstinence
All of the following are the benefits of oral contraceptives, EXCEPT:
Regulation the length of menstrual cycle
Reduce hypertension
Decrease menstrual flow
Reduce the risk of endometriosis
Provide protection , endometrial, ovarian cancer
Which method can provide the protection against sexual transmitted disease (STDs)
Intrauterine device (IUD)
Spermicides
Hormonal therapy
Barrier method (practice safe sex)
Oral contraceptives
All of the following are true about oral contraceptive , EXCEPT:
Contains hormones designed to prevent pregnancy
COCs action is to inhibit ovulation by suppressing the gonaldotropins hormones FSH and LH
Block implantation in the uterus
Inhibit the transportation of sperm and ova in the uterine tubes
Contains estrogen and progesterone, act by inhibiting FSH and LH (page 1166)
All embryos have the following external structure, EXCEPT: (page 1169)
Urethra grove
Clitoris
Genital tubercle
Labioscrotal swelling
Urethral (urogenital) folds
Which of the following hormone that combined oral contraceptives (COCs) suppress in order to prevent
pregnancy? (Page 1166)
Progesterone and estrogen
FSH %LH
Testosterone
Prolactin and oxytocin
Inhibin and relaxin
Which of the following is NOT the result of menopause?
Increase bone mineral density
Decline production of estrogen
Insomnia
Atrophy of ovaries and breasts
The tip of the sperm is called the________________
Head
Acrosom
Tail
Progesterone is secreted from a female’s ____________ to help the implanted embryo and continue the
pregnancy:
Corpus luteum (progesterone, estrogen, inhibin, relaxin)
Mesoderm
Endoderm
Thyroid
Ovary (estrogen)
Ovulation occurs in which of the following phase? (page 1162 fig 28.24)
Menstrual
Secretory
Proliferation
Follicle
Postovulatory phase
Where does spermatogenesis occur?
Seminiferous tubules
Corpus spongiosoma
Prostate gland
Scrotum
Epididymis
Where does fertilization occur? Page1151
Ovaries
Vagina
Fallopian tubes (ampulla of uterine tubes)
Infundibulum
Urethra
Which of the following anchor the ovary to the pelvic wall? (page 1143)
Broad ligament
Suspensory ligament
Mesovarium
Ovian ligament
Hilum
Which muscles responses to the regulation of temperature of the testes? Page1130
Bulbospongiosus muscle
Dartos and cremaster muscles
Gluteus maximus muscle
Ischiocavernosus
Multifidus