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PHYSICS
1. The number of neutrons in 92 U 235 nucleus is
A. 327
B. 235
C. 143
D. 92
2. Reverse saturation current of a diode
A. is independent of temperature
B. increases with increase in temperature
C. Decreases with increase in temperature
D. May increase or decrease with increase in temperature depending on the
semiconductor
3. A radioactive sample has a half – life of 10 minutes. If 64 nuclei are contained in the
sample the number of nuclei that would decay after 50 minutes is
A. 2
B. 5
C. 59
D. 62
4. The carrier of electromagnetic interaction is
A. Gluon
B. Photon
C. Meson
D. Graviton
5. The output of NOT gate when its input is 0
A. is 1
B. is 0
C. can be 0 or 1
D. is 0 and 1
6. LCD stands for
A. Light Carrying Diode
B. Liquid-Crystal Display
C. Long Crystal Display
D. Light Crystal Display
7. Which of the following statement is false
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A. Sound and light wave exhibit interference
B. Sound and light wave exhibit diffraction
C. Light wave exhibits polarization while sound wave does not
D. Sound wave exhibits polarization while light wave does not
8. The correct relation between S, θ, L and C for an optically active solution is
A. S = θLC
B. θ = SLC
C. L = θSC
D. C = θLS
9. An inductor and a resistor are connected to an ac supply of 50V and 50Hz. If the
voltage across the resistor is 40V the voltage across the inductor will be
A. 10V
B. 20V
C. 30V
D. 60V
10. A 10μF capacitor is charged to 10V and disconnected from the battery. If another
uncharged 10μF capacitor is connected across it in parallel the voltage across the
combination will be
A. 5V
B. 10V
C. 20V
D. 0
11. When two light nuclei fuse to form a relatively heavier nucleus, the Speci fic binding
energy of the product nucleus is
A. Lower than that of the reacting nuclei
B. Equal to that of the reacting nuclei
C. Greater than that of the reacting nuclei
D. Equal to exactly half of either of the reacting nuclei
12. Two point charges Q1 = 2μC and Q2 = 1μC are placed as shown. The coordinates of
the point P. are (2cm, 1cm). The electric intensity vector at P subtends an angle θ with
the positive X axis. The value of θ is given by
A. Tan θ = 1
B. Tan θ = 2
C. Tan θ = 3
D. Tan θ = 4
13. The direction of the force on a current carrying conductor held perpendicular to an
Uniform magnetic field is given by
A. Fleming’s right hand rule
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B. Ampere’s swimming rule
C. Maxwell’s right hand cork screw rule
D. Fleming’s left hand rule
14. A convex lens of focal length F is placed in contact with a concave lens of focal
length F. The equivalent focal length of the combination is
A. Infinity
B. F/2
C. 2F
D. Zero
15. If x = at + bt2 where x is measured in m and t in s, then the dimension of (b/a) is
A. LT -2
B. LT
-1
C. T
D. T -1
16. A particle is moving eastward with a velocity 5ms -1 . In 10s the velocity changes to 5
ms -1 northwards. The average acceleration in this time is
A. img
B. img
C. img
D. img
17. A mass of 0.1 kg is hung at the 20cm mark from a 1m rod weighing 0.25kg pivoted at
its centre. The rod will not topple if
A. No other mass is attached to the rod
B. 0.15 kg is hung at 80 cm mark
C. 0.15 kg is hung at 70cm mark
D. 0.10 kg is hung at 70 cm mark
18. Which of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Bernoulli’s principle?
A. Lift on an aircaft’s wing
B. Ink filler
C. Swing of a cricket ball
D. Atomizer
19. The layer in the earth’s atmosphere which reflects radio waves from the earth thus,
helping radio communication is
A. stratosphere
B. Mesosphere
C. Troposphere
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D. Ionosphere
20. The reaction of the floor on an object placed on the floor of an elevator is maximum
when elevator
A. is stationary
B. Accelerates upwards
C. Cable snaps and it falls freely towards the earth
D. Accelerates downwards
21. A particle is projected at an angle of 30º with the horizontal with a momentum P. At
the highest point its momentum is
A. img
B. img
C. P
D. img
22. A block of mass 0.1 kg is held against a wall by applying a horizontal force of 5N on
it. If μs between the wall and the block is 0.5 the magnitude of the frictional force acting
on the block is
A. 0.98N
B. 0.49N
C. 4.9 N
D. 2.5 N
23. A ring rolls down an inclined plane. The ratio of the rotational kinetic energy to
translational kinetic energy is
A. 1:03
B. 1:01
C. 3:01
D. 2 : 1
24. If 120 J of work is done in 2 minutes by a water pump, the power of the pump is
A. 14.4 KW
B. 240 W
C. 60W
D. 1W
25. Assuming g (moon) = (1/6)g eart h and D (moon) = (1/4)D earth where g and D are the acceleration
due to gravity and diameter respectively, the escape velocity from the moon is
A. img
B. img
C. img
D. img
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26. The work done in taking an ideal gas through one cycle of operation as shown in the
indicator diagram below (img)
A. 10
-5
J
B. 10
-3
J
C. 10
-2
J
D. 10J
27. The ratio of speed of sound in Hydrogen to that in Oxygen at the same temperature is
A. 1:04
B. 4:01
C. 1:01
D. 16:01
28. A black body at a temperature T radiates energy at the rate of E Wm -2 . If the
temperature is decreased by (T/2) the energy radiated will be
A. E/4
B. E/16
C. E/8
D. E/32
29. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with amplitude A. The distance moved by
the particle in one oscillation is
A. Zero
B. A
C. 2A
D. 4A
30. A capacitor of 10μF is connected to a 10V cell. The maximum charge on the capacitor
will be
A. 1μC
B. 10μC
C. 100μC
D. 1000μC
31. A wire of uniform cross section has a resistance R. It is cut into ten equal parts. The
parts are connected in parallel between two points A and B. The effective resistance
between A and B will
A. 0.01 R
B. 0.1 R
C. R
D. 10 R
32. Wires made of Iron and Silicon is cooled from 500C to 300C
A. Resistance of both wires decreases
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B. Resistance of both wires increases
C. Resistance of Iron increases and that of Silicon decreases
D. Resistance of Iron decreases and that of Silicon increases
33. In a metre bridge a copper coil is connected in the right gap and a resistance of 10Ω
in the left gap. The balance point is obtained at 0.2m. The resistance of the coil is
A. 40Ω
B. 5Ω
C. 20Ω
D. 2.5Ω
34. Two identical concentric coils X and Y carrying currents in the ratio 1 : 2 are arranged
in mutually perpendicular planes. If the magnetic field due to coil X is B the net field at
their common centre is
A. B
B. 2B
C. 3B
D. img
35. Which of the following is based on mechanical effect of electric current?
A. AC Dynamo
B. DC Dynamo
C. AC or DC motor
D. Electric Geyser
36. According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction an emf is induced in a coil if
A. An Electric flux links with the coil
B. Magnetic flux links with the coil
C. Magnetic flux linked with the coil changes
D. Electric flux linked with the coil changes
37. The current in a coil changes form 1 mA to 5mA in 4 milli second. If the coefficient of
self-induction of the coil is 10mH the magnitude of the “self-induced” emf is
A. 10mV
B. 5mV
C. 2.5mV
D. 1mV
38. The graph of kinetic energy of photoelectron versus frequency of incident radiation is
shown for two metals M and N. We may definitely conclude (img)
A. Work function of M > work function of N
B. Work function of M < work function of N
C. Work function of M = work function of N
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D. At the threshold frequency of M the kinetic energy of the photoelectron emitted by M
is more than that emitted by N
39. Choose the wrong statement
A. Alpha particles can be scattered by Gold nucleus
B. X-ray can be diffracted by crystals
C. UV radiation can cause Photoelectric effect
D. Electrons cannot be diffracted by crystals
40. In the case of the Bohr atom model if EK and U are the kinetic and potential energies
of an electron in an orbit then
A. EK + U = 0
B. EK – U = 0
C. 2EK + U = 0
D. EK + 2U = 0
41. The ratio of the magnetic fields at the centre of a circular coil carrying current to that
at a point whose distance is half of the radius of the coil is
A. img
B. img
C. img
D. img
42. The difference between the wavelengths of the Stokes line and Anti -Stokes lines in
the Raman spectrum of H-Br molecule is 100Å. If the wavelength of the Anti-Stokes line
is 5000 Å the wavelength of the incident radiation is
A. 5050 Å
B. 4950 Å
C. 5100 Å
D. 4900 Å
43. Optical pumping means transferring electrons
A. from ground state to metastable state
B. from metastable state to a higher excited state
C. from a state higher than the metastable state to the metastable state
D. from a state lower than the metastable state to a state higher than the metastable
state
44. An open pipe immersed in water to half its length. The ratio of the fundamental
frequency of the pipe before and after immersion in water is
A. 1:02
B. 1:01
C. 1:03
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D. 1:04
45. Assuming R = 8.3 J mol
-1
K
-1
and γ = 1.4 the values of Cp and Cv of a gas are
A. 29.05 J mol
-1
K , 20.75 J mol
-1
K
-1
B. 20.75 J mol
-1
K -1 , 29.05 J mol
-1
K
-1
C. 16.60 J mol
-1
K -1 , 8.300 J mol
-1
K
-1
-1
D. 8.300 J mol -1 K -1 , 16.60 J mol -1 K -1
46. A star A is 100 times brighter than star B. Then mB – mA the difference in their
apparent magnitudes is
A. 100
B. 0.01
C. 5
D. 0.2
47. A monochromatic ray of light enters a glass slab (n = 1.5) along the normal to the
surface. The angle of deviation of the refracted ray is
A. 90º
B. 45º
C. 30º
D. 0º
48. A ray of light passing from glass to water is incident on the glass-water interface at
65º. If the critical angle for the pair of media is 63º.
A. The ray will emerge into water with a deviation of 2º from the normal
B. The ray will be refracted into water with a deviation of 2º
C. The ray will be totally internally reflected back into glass with a deviation of 50º
D. The ray will be totally internally reflected back into glass with a deviation of 2º
49. An equilateral prism is kept in the minimum deviation position. If the angle of
incidence of a monochromatic ray at a refracting face is 49º 30| the angle of minimum
deviation of the ray will be
A. 39º
B. 49º30|
C. 40º30|
D. 51º
50. A glass hemisphere of radius 0.1cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed over a spot on
a table and the spot is viewed from above. The spot appears to be(img)
A. 0.1m above the top surface of the hemisphere
B. 0.1m below the top surface of the hemisphere
C. 0.033m above the top surface of the hemisphere
D. Exactly on the top surface of the hemisphere
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E. OPTIONS DOES NOT MATCH
51. Photoelectric Effect and Raman Effect can be explained on the basis of
A. Newton’s Corpuscular theory of light
B. Huygens wave theory of light
C. Maxwell’s Electromagnetic theory of light
D. Planck’s Quantum theory of light
52. In an interference pattern the ratio of the intensity of light at the bright fringe to that at
the dark fringe is 9 : 1. Then the ratio of the amplitudes of the two interfering waves
A. 3:01
B. 2:01
C. 1:04
D. 5:04
53. Diffraction effects are more easily detected in the case of sound waves than light
waves because
A. Sound waves are longitudinal
B. Sound waves have smaller wavelength
C. Sound waves have larger wavelength
D. Sound waves are transverse
54. If θ is the polarizing angle for a medium in which the speed of light is v then
according to Brewster’s Law
A. θ = sin
-1
(c/v)
B. θ = tan
-1
(c/v)
C. θ = cos
-1
(c/v)
D. θ = sin -1 (v/c)
55. Two polaroid A and B are kept with their transmission axes at an angle θ with respect
to one another. If the transmitted intensity of light It = 0.75 I 0 where I 0 is the intensity of
light incident on the system then θ is (img)
A. 30º
B. 45º
C. 60º
D. 90º
56. The electric force between two point charges separated by a certain distance in air is
F the distance at which they should be placed in a medium of relative permittivity k so
that the force remain the same is
A. d
B. d/k
C. kd
D. img
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57. A positively charged particle is released from rest in a region of unifor m electric field.
The particle will move
A. With constant speed
B. With constant velocity
C. With constant acceleration
D. With variable acceleration
58. Two charges q and -2q are separated by a distance d. If the electric intensity at the
site of q is E then the electric field at the site of -2q is
A. E
B. E/2
C. -2E
D. –E/2
59. Choose the correct statement
A. A p-type semiconductor is positively charged
B. The Boolean expression 1 . 0 = 0
C. The majority carrier in N type semiconductor is hole
D. A transistor cannot be used as a switch
60. “Plum pudding” model of an atom was proposed by
A. C.V.Raman
B. N. Bohr
C. E. Rutherford
D. J.J. Thomson
CHEMISTRY
61. Which of the following is NOT a protein?
A. Wool
B. Cellulose
C. Hair
D. Nail
62. Which of the following is NOT TRUE for the adsorption of a gas on a solid?
A. Increase in temperature favours adsorption
B. Enthalpy change is negative
C. Adsorption is more specific
D. Entropy change is negative
63. Peptisation is a process in which
A. Precipitate becomes true soluiton
B. True soluiton becomes a suspension
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C. a colloid gets coagulated
D. a suspension gets converted into a colloid
64. The mole fraction of benzene in a soluiton containing 39% by mass in an organic
solvent of molecular mass 122 is
A. 0.5
B. 0.6
C. 0.4
D. 0.35
65. Zn (s) + Cl 2 (1 atm) → Zn 2+ + 2Cl : E0 = 2.0 V
To increase the e.m.f. of the above cell
A. [Zn 2+ ] should be increased
B. [Zn 2+ ] should be decreased
C. [Cl – ] should be increased
D. Partial pressure of Cl 2 should be decreased
66. Two ions A – and B – have radii 104 and 200 pm respectively, in a cubic close packed
crystal of compound AB. The co-ordination number of A+ is
A. 4
B. 8
C. 6
D. 3
67. The mass of a non-volatile solute of molar mass 60 gmol -1 that should be dissolved in
126 g of water to reduce its vapour pressure to 99% will be
A. 2.8 g
B. 5.6 g
C. 8.4 g
D. 4.2 g
68. The P H of boiling water is 6.4. This implies that boiling water is
A. Slightly basic
B. Slightly acidic
C. Neutral
D. Amphoteric
69. The spin only magnetic moment of Ni 2+ (in B.M.) in aquesous solution will be
A. 1.73
B. 2.84
C. 3.42
D. 2.25
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70. An organic compound which produces a bluish green flame when heated on a copper
wire is
A. Benzaldehyde
B. Aniline
C. Chlorobenzene
D. Benzoic acid
71. Phenol can be distinguished from Ethyl alcohol using
A. Na
B. AlCl 3
C. NaOH
D. FeCl 3
72. The time required for 100% completion of zero order reaction is
A. a/k
B. a/2k
C. 2a/k
D. k/a
73. The E.A.N. of central metal atom in [Co (NH 3 ) 6 ] Cl 3 is [At. No. of Co = 27]
A. 34
B. 35
C. 36
D. 32
74. The alcohol obtained during the hydrolysis of ground nut oil is
A. Glycol
B. Butan–1 –ol
C. Pentan-2-ol
D. Propane 1.2.3 – triol
75. Which one of the following ores is concentrated by froth floatation process?
A. Magnesite
B. Magnetitc
C. Galena
D. Malachite
76. Which of the following electron transitions in the H-atom will release the largest
amount of energy?
A. n = 3 to n = 2
B. n = 2 to n = 1
C. n = 5 to n = 2
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D. n = 6 to n = 2
77. An electron having spin quantum number of s = -1/2 and magnetic quantum number
m = + 3 can be present in
A. both s-orbital and p-orbital
B. p-orbital only
C. f-orbital only
D. both d-orbital and f-orbital
78. The atomic number of the element with highest ionization energy among the following
is
A. z = 16
B. z = 14
C. z = 13
D. z = 15
79. Number of atoms in 560 cm 3 of oxygen at S.T.P. is
A. img
B. img
C. img
D. img
80. The volume of CO 2 (in cm 3 ) liberated at S.T.P. when 1.06 g of anhydrous Sodium
carbonate is treated with excess of dilute HCl is [atomic mass of Na = 23]
A. 112
B. 224
C. 56
D. 2240
81. The oxidation number of oxygen is – 1 in
A. NO2
B. PbO2
C. Na 2 O2
D. MnO 2
82. The heat of formation of H 2 O (l) is – 286 KJ. The heat of formation of H 2 O (g) is likely
to be
A. -286 KJ
B. + 286 KJ
C. -341 KJ
D. – 242.8 KJ
83. The temperature of one mole of an ideal gas increases from 298 K to 308 K when it
absorbs 200 J of heat at constant volume. The change in the internal energy of the gas is
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A. 200 J
B. 140 J
C. – 200 J
D. – 140 J
84. 100 ml of 5N HCl was added to 1 gm of pure CaCO 3 . What would remain after the
reaction?
A. 0.5 g of CaCO 3
B. neither CaCO 3 nor HCl
C. 50 ml of HCl
D. 25 ml of HCl
85. The R.M.S. velocity of CH 4 , He and SO 2 are in the ratio of
A. 0.670185185
B. 2:01:04
C. 2:04:01
D. 1:04:02
86. A negative catalyst will
A. lower the activation energy of the reaction
B. does not alter the activation energy of the reaction
C. provide a new and easy path to the reaction
D. increases the activation energy of the reaction
87. The number of Sigma and Pi bonds in pent-2-yne is
A. 12 and 2
B. 11 and 2
C. 13 and 2
D. 12 and 3
88. In Lassigne’s test for Nitrogen in an organic compound, the blue colouration is due to
the formation of
A. Ferro ferric cyanide
B. Ferric ferrocyanide
C. Pot ferrocyanide
D. Pot ferrocyanide
89. The organic compound obtained during the addition of HBr to propene in the
presence of peroxide catalyst is
A. 2 – bromopropane
B. 2 – bromopopene
C. 1 – bromopropane
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D. 1 – bromopropene
90. On passing H 2 S into a solution containing both Zn 2- and Cu 2- in acidic medium, only
CuS gets precipitated. This is because
A. K sp of CuS < K sp of ZnS
B. K sp of CuS =Ksp of ZnS
C. K sp of CuS >K sp of ZnS
D. CuS is more stable then ZnS
91. The volume of H 2 obtained at S.T.P. when Mg obtained by passing a current of 0.5
amp through molten MgCl 2 for 32.2 minutes is treated with excess of dilute HCl is
approximately [Eq. Mass of Mg = 12]
A. 56 cm 3
B. 28 cm 3
C. 5.6 cm 3
D. 112 cm 3
92. Markovni Kov’s rule is applicable to
A. C 3H 6 + HBr
B. C 2H 4 + HCl
C. C 3H 6 + Cl 2
D. C 2H 4 + HBr
93. The reaction of Ethene is the presence of H+ can be example for
A. – I effect
B. #NAME?
C. – E effect
D. #NAME?
94. (img) The product ‘D’ in the above sequence of reactions is
A. Acetaldehyde
B. Ethyne
C. Ethene
D. Acetyl Chloride
95. An organic compound is optically active if it
A. is planar
B. is super imposable on its mirror image
C. contains chiral centres
D. is non-super imposable on its mirror image
96. Identify the electrophile in the following
A. R-NH 2
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B. NH 3
C. AlCl 3
D. CN 6
97. The ionization constant of Phenol is more than that of Ethanol because
A. Phenoxide ion is a stronger base than Ethoxide ion
B. Phenoxide ion is stabilized by resonance
C. Ethoxide ion is stabilized by resonance
D. Phenoxide ion is Aromatic while ehoxide ion is aliphatic
98. The product ‘C’ in the following sequence of chemical reaction is (img)
A. Acetaldoxime
B. Formaldoxime
C. Ethane nitrile
D. Acetoxime
99. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. Acetic acid is stronger than chloro acetic acid
B. Formic acid is the strongest of all aliphatic monocarboxylic acids
C. Benzoic acid is stronger acid than acetic acid
D. Propanoic acid is weaker than acetic acid
100. Maximum number of molecules of methyl iodide that can react with one molecule of
methyl amine is
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
101. The amine which will NOT liberate nitrogen with nitrous acid is
A. Ethyl amine
B. Methyl amine
C. Dimethyl amine
D. 2-amino propane
102. Which of the following is aromatic?
A. Lysine
B. Proline
C. Serine
D. Tyrosine
103. The mass of hydrogen in gm required to completely saturate 1 mole of triolein is
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A. 6
B. 3
C. 2
D. 9
104. (img) A and B in this sequence of reactions are
A. KOH (aq) and PCl 5
B. PCl 5 and KOH (aq)
C. Cl 2 and KOH (alc)
D. PCl 5 and KOH (alc)
105. The enthalpy of Neutralisation of HCl and NaOH is x KJ. The heat evolved when 500
ml of 2N HCl is mixed with 250 ml of 4 N NaOH will be
A. x
B. x/2
C. x/4
D. 2x/3
106. A + B ⇌ C + D
The initial concentrations of A and B are equal. At equilibrium, the concentration of C is
twice that of A. The equilibrium constant of the reaction is
A. 09-Apr
B. 4
C. 01-Sep
D. 04-Sep
107. For dissociation of lime stone is the slag zone of the blast furnace. The reaction is:
A. Exothermic accompanied by increase in entropy
B. Endothermic accompanied by decrease in entropy
C. Endothermic accompanied by increase in entropy
D. Exothermic with no change in entropy
108. Which of the following is NOT TRUE for concentrated H 2 SO4 ?
A. Sulphonating agent
B. Oxidising agent
C. Dehydratign agent
D. Deliquiscent in nature
109. Which of the following noble gases has the highest Vander Waal’s force of
attraction?
A. Ar
B. Ne
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C. Xe
D. He
110. Which one of the following metal ions is coloured?
A. Ti 1+
B. Cu +
C. V 4+
D. Zn 2+
111. Co-ordination number of Nickel in [Ni (C 2 O 4 ) 3 ] 4- is
A. 3
B. 12
C. 6
D. 4
112. IUPAC name of [Cr Cl 2 (NH 3 ) 4 ] NO 3 is
A. tetraamminedichloro Chromium (I) nitrate
B. dichloro tetraammine Chromium (III) nitrate
C. tetraammine dichlorochromium (IV) nitrate
D. tetraammine dichloro Chromium (III) nitrate
113. Decomposition of NH 3 on the surface of platinum has a rate constant of 2.5 x 10 4
moldm -3 S -1 at 350 K. The order of the reaction is
A. 0
B. 1
C. 21
D. 2
114. The rate equation of a gaseous reaction is given by : r = K [A] [B]. If the volume of
the reaction vessel is suddenly reduced to 1/2 of the initial volume, the reaction rate
relating to the original rate will be
A. 01-Apr
B. 4
C. 01-Feb
D. 2
115. The reduction potential of an electrode can be increased by
A. increasing the area of the electrode
B. decreasing the temperature
C. increasing the temperature
D. decreasing the concentration of metal ions
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116. An electric current is passed through silver and water voltameters conn ected in
series. The cathode of the silver voltameter weighed 0.05 g more at the end of
electrolysis. The volume of O2 evolved at the anode of water voltameter is
A. 5.6 cm 3
B. 11.2 cm 3
C. 22.4 cm 3
D. 2.8 cm 3
117. The P H of a mixture of 10 ml of 0.1 M H 2 SO4 . 5 ml of 0.2 N HCl and 5 ml of 0.1 M Ca
(OH) 2 is
A. 1
B. 0.5
C. 0
D. 1.5
118. The conjugate acid of NH 2 – is
A. NH 4 +
B. NH 3
C. NH 2 OH
D. NH –
119. Phenyl isocyanide is formed when chloroform is treated with alcoholic potassium
hydroxide and
A. Benzaldehyde
B. Aniline
C. Phenol
D. Nitrobenzene
120. Which of the following does not undergo aldol condensation reaction?
A. CH 3 – CHO
B. ClCH 2 – CHO
C. C 6H 5 – CHO
D. CHCl 2 – CHO
BIOLOGY
121. Which one of the following is a step in processing of Kipps and Buffs?
A. Deliming
B. Casting
C. Digesting
D. Reeling
122. Which one of the following agents affects hatching of silk worm eggs?
A. Protozoan parasites
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B. Fungus
C. Mulberry leaf fermentation
D. Virus
123. A terminator codon which is called amber is ……………
A. UGA
B. UAG
C. UAA
D. UUU
124. In which of following groups of plants, the life cycle includes the gametophytic phase
which is dominant, photosynthetic, independent and sexually reproducing?
A. Angiosperms
B. Gymnosperms
C. Bryophyta
D. Pteridophyta
125. Which of the following is the correct date of publication of the book entitled “Species
Plantarum” authored by Carolus Linnaeus? This date is starting point date for modern
plant nomenclature.
A. 1st May 1753
B. 1st January 1935
C. 1st January 1856
D. 1st May 1856
126. Which one of the following is NOT a pharmaceutical product obtained through
Biotechnology?
A. Human insulin
B. Human growth hormone
C. Clotting factor
D. Cholecystokinin
127. Choose the most appropriate combination of components of respiratory membrane,
from the following.
A. Alveolar wall and ducts
B. Inner and outer pleural membranes and pleural fluid
C. Membranes of alveolar ducts and capillaries
D. Alveolar wall, alveolar capillary and interstitial space
128. Giriraja is a
A. Cross breed of desi breed of poultry and white leghorn
B. Hybrid of aseel and bursa breeds of poultry
C. Desi breed
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D. Cross breed of Plymouth Rock and desi breed of poultry
129. Which one of the following codes for an amino acid?
A. Cistron
B. Exon
C. Codon
D. Intron
130. Plasmids were discovered by
A. Hayes and Lederberg
B. Lederberg and Tatum
C. Boliver and Rodriguez
D. Messing and Vieria
131. Which of the following is NOT a component of non specific defense?
A. Mucous membrane
B. Phagocytosis
C. Lysozyme
D. Killer T cells
132. From which part of the human heart does the largest artery arise?
A. Left ventricle
B. Right ventricle
C. Left atrium
D. Right atrium
133. In the electron transport chain the first ATP molecule is generated when the
hydrogen passes from ………..
A. FMN to NAD
B. FMN to COQ
C. NAD to FMN
D. NAD to COQ
134. Which one of the following is NOT a correct statement with reference to placenta?
A. It prevents the movement of maternal IgG antibody from the mother of the foetus
B. It acts as a foetal lung
C. It acts as a foetal liver by storing glycogen
D. It acts as an endocrine gland
135. A professor wanted to demonstrate a physiological process. He filled a glass bottle
with previously moistened gram seeds. He screw capped the bottle and kept it away in a
corner, and resumed the lecture. After about 45 minutes there was a sudden explosion
with shattering of the glass bottle into pieces of glass. Which of the following
phenomenon did the professor wanted to demonstrate?
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A. Diffusion
B. Imbibition
C. Anaerobic respiration
D. Osmosis
136. A tactile organ in cockroach is ……….
A. Antennae
B. Ommatidia
C. Fanestrae
D. Anal cerci
137. Continuity of cytoplasm from cell to cell is maintained through ……….
A. Pit canals present in primary walls
B. Plasmodesmata
C. Plasmalemma
D. Middle lamella
138. Carl Correns a rediscoverer of Mendel’s work was from
A. Austria
B. Germany
C. Holland
D. Denmark
139. Humulin is produced by genetic engineering using one of the following organisms
A. Bacillus coagulens
B. Escherichia coli
C. Aspergillus species
D. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
140. Cranial nerves are part of ………
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. Parasympathetic nervous system
C. somatic nervous system
D. central nervous system
141. The pressure which favours filtration of blood in the kidney and the one which
opposes the filtration of blood are ……….. and ……….. respectively
A. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure and glomerular osmotic pressure
B. Capsular hydrostatic pressure and glomerular osmotic pressure
C. Glomerular osmotic pressure and glomerular hydrostatic pressure
D. Glomerular osmotic pressure and arterial pressure
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142. According to active K+ transport hypothesis, besides the organic acids, the turgidity
of guard cells is controlled by which one of the following combinations of ions?
A. K+, Na+, ClB. K+, Na+, H+
C. K+, H+, ClD. K+, Na+, H+, Cl143. Which one of the following is NOT a cause of male infertility?
A. Oligospermia
B. Asthenozoospermia
C. Teratazoospermia
D. Motile sperms
144. The first stable compound formed in Kerb’s cycle is
A. Acetyl Co A
B. Citric acid
C. Oxaloacetic acid
D. Fumaric acid
145. A prehensile tail as in chameleon is an adaptation for
A. swimming
B. grasping
C. sliding
D. climbing
146. Which one of the binomials is the source of an expectorant used in the treatement of
bronchitis, asthama and cough?
A. Oscimum sanctum
B. Adathoda vasica
C. Gymnema sylvestre
D. Phyllanthus emblica
147. Which of the following combination of physiological processes occur during
photosynthesis?
A. Water is reduced and CO2 is oxidized
B. Both CO2 and water get oxidized
C. CO2 is reduced and water is oxidized
D. Both CO2 and water get reduced
148. The children of a father with type ‘O’ blood and mother with type ‘AB’ blood could
have the blood type
A. ‘O’ type
B. ‘AB’ type
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C. ‘O’ or ‘AB’ type
D. ‘A’ or ‘B’ type
149. The phenomenon which shortens the vegetative period and hastens the flowering is
known as
A. Etiolation
B. Vernalization
C. Photoperiodism
D. Parthenocarpy
150. The two, more distantly related phyla are
A. Cnidarians and Platyhelminthes
B. Annelida and Arthropoda
C. Chordata and Eachinodermata
D. Mollusca and echinodermata
151. The process of transfer of genetic material (DNA) of one bacterium to the other
bacterium with the help of bacteriophage is called ………….
A. translation
B. transduction
C. transformation
D. conjugation
152. Which one of the following is NOT a function of Sertoli cells?
A. Acting as nurse cell to the sperms
B. Secreting the hormone inhibin
C. Forming a manchette
D. Secreting testicular fluid for transporting sperms to the lumen of the seminiferous
tubule
153. In the Lac-operon of Escherichia.coli there are three adjacent structural genes viz.
lac Z, lac Y, and lac A. Lac A gene codes for
A. Beta glactosidase
B. Beta galactoside transacetylase
C. Beta galactoside permease
D. Polymerase
154. Which one of the following features represents a recessive character in Mendel’s
pea plants?
A. Round seed
B. Green pod colour
C. Red flower
D. Yellow pod colour
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155. Where would you look for active cell division in a plant?
A. In the pith cells
B. At the tips of roots and stems
C. In cells of cortex
D. In the internodal region
156. Which one of the following is a correct combination of two biodiversity hot spots in
India?
A. Eastern Himalayas and Eastern ghats
B. Eastern Himalayas and Western ghats
C. Western ghats and Eastern ghats
D. West coast and Western ghats
157. Which one of the following reactions is catalyzed by the enzyme reverse
transcriptase?
A. Transfer of information from RNA to RNA
B. Transfer of information from DNA to RNA
C. Transfer of information from Protein to DNA
D. Transfer of information from RNA to DNA
158. Which of the following processes helps in maintaining blood glucose level under
fasting?
A. Glycogenesis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Lipogenesis
D. Glycolysis
159. What happens during endosmosis? Choose the correct answer from the following
A. Water molecules diffuse from lower water potential to higher water potential
B. Water molecules diffuse from higher water potential to lower water potential
C. Water molecules move from a solution towards pure water
D. Water molecules move from cell towards its exterior
160. Which of the following is a structural polysaccharide in animals?
A. Glycogen
B. Chitin
C. Keratin
D. Pectin
161.
Which one of the following enzymes is NOT necessary for obtaining protoplasts for their
somatic
hybridization?
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A. Cellulase
B. Primase
C. Pectinase
D. Both cellulose and pectinase
162. Which one of the following breeds of cow is a milch breed?
A. Amrit mahal
B. Hallikar
C. Sindhi
D. Surti
163. Which of the following animals does not have a food value?
A. Snake
B. Lizard
C. Field rat
D. Domestic Cat
164. In which of the following groups, the majority of plant orders contain the vascular
tissue wherein the vessels and companion cells are absent in the xylem and phloem?
A. Angiosperms
B. Thallophytes
C. Bryophytes
D. Gymnsperms
165. Which one of the following families has features like bisexual, pentamerous,
gamopetalous corolla with epipetalous stamens, sagittate anthers, subapocarpous ovary
and a pair of follicles as their diagnostic characters?
A. Malvaceae
B. Leguminosae
C. Musaceae
D. Apocynaceae
166. Based on the course of the growth of pollen tube and entry into the ovule which one
of the following is known as misogamy?
A. Entry of pollen tube through the micropyle into the ovule
B. Entry of pollen tube through the plancenta and the funiculus
C. Entry of pollen tube through the integuments
D. Entry of pollen tube through the funiculus and chalaza into the embryo sac from the
egg apparatus end
167. Which one of the following events lead to double fertilization
A. Fusion of two polar nuclei
B. Fusion of a male gamete with the egg and the other with antipodal cells
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C. Fusion of a male gamete with the egg and the other with secondary nucleus
D. Fusion of a male gamete with two polar nuclei and the other with nucellar cells
168. Mature embryosac in majority of Angiosperms is ………………..
A. 8 celled and 8 nucleate
B. 7 celled and 8 nucleate
C. 5 celled and 7 nucleate
D. 3 celled and 4 nucleate
169. In which of the following cells the secondary cell walls are present?
A. The cells containing cytoplasm only
B. The cells with protoplast
C. The cells which are living at maturity
D. The cells which are non living at maturity
170. The grittiness of the pulp of wood apple is due to ………..
A. Macrosclereids
B. Bracnysclereids
C. Osteosclereids
D. Astrosclereids
171. Which one of the following statements regarding sclerenchyma is NOT correct?
A. Sclerenchyma fibres associated with xylem tissue are called wood fibres
B. Sclerenchyma fibres associated with phloem tissue are called bast fibres
C. Endocarp of coconut is rich in sclerenchyma fibres
D. Brachysclereids are isodiametric and polygonal
172. Fertilizin is ………………..
A. a glycoprotein
B. an acidic protein
C. a carbohydrate
D. a lipid
173. The fertilization membrane is formed in order to
A. Fecilitate the entry of sperm into the egg
B. Provide stability to the egg
C. Prevent monospermy
D. Prevent polyspermy
174. During amphimixis many events occur. Choose the INCORRECT event from the
following events.
A. Swelling of the sperm nucleus
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B. Initial movement of the male pronucleus along the copulationpath
C. Establishment of achromatic spindle by the proximal centriole
D. Completion of second meiotic division if it has not occurred already
175. The above mentioned features are associated with which syndrome?
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
C. Turner’s syndrome
D. Cri-du chat syndrome
176. The chromosomal condition of the above syndrome is …………
A. Autosomal aneuploidy
B. Allosomal hyperaneuploidy
C. Allosomal hypoaneuploidy
D. Autosomal partial deletion
177. Which one of the following is the correct chromosomal compliment of the above
syndrome?
A. 47 chromosomes due to extra chromosome 21
B. 47 chromosomes with 44A plus XXY
C. 45 chromosomes with 44A plus XO
D. Partial deletion of short arm of 5th chromosome
178. The above theory is known as …………
A. theory of origin of species by natural selection
B. mutation theory
C. theory of inheritance of acquired characters
D. theory of biogenesis
179. Change in gene structure is termed ………….
A. mutation
B. variation
C. genetic drift
D. Gene knock out
180. Who put forth the above theory of evolution?
A. Darwin
B. De Vries
C. Lamarck
D. Wallace
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