Download FINAL EXAM

PRACTICE EXAM
TASICH
EARTH SCIENCE
1. What is the most common form of water?
a. solid
c. water vapor
b. liquid
d. ocean
2. What is it called when molecules of water are held almost stationary in a definite
crystal formation?
a. slush
c. solid
b. ice
d. sleet
3. In order for ice to breakdown, what must be added?
a. heat
c. hot water
b. cold
d. cold water
4. Describe the breakdown of ice.
a. Solidgas liquid
b. Liquid  solid  gas
c. Gasliquid solid
d. Solid liquid gas
5. Sublimation is when a _________________ changes to a _________________.
a. solid, liquid
c. gas, solid
b. solid, gas
d. liquid, gas
6. What is deposition?
a. solid, liquid
b. solid, gas
c. gas, solid
d. liquid, gas
7. What is the main source for atmospheric moisture?
a. water fountain
c. rivers
b. lakes
d. oceans
8. Define saturated.
a. meaning not full
b. meaning half full
9.
c. meaning full of
d. meaning ¾ full
What is the formula (ratio) for relative humidity?
a. s/p X 100
c. p/s X 1000
b. p/s X 100
d. s/p X 1000
10. At a given temperature, 1 cubic meter of air can hold 20g of water vapor. What is
the relative humidity at that temperature if 1 cubic meter of air is holding 10g?
(Write your answer with the work below)
a. 25%
c. 75%
b. 50%
d. 100%
11. Name 1 instrument used to measure relative humidity.
a. anemometer
c. psychrometer
b. barometer
d. radiosonde
12. What is the difference between relative humidity and specific humidity?
a. Nothing
c. relative is dependent on factors
b. specific is dependent on factors
d. Ms. T
13. The temperature at which air must be cooled to reach saturation is called the
__________________________________.
a. saturation point
c. frost
b. dew point
d. dew
14. _______________ is a form of condensation that you can see on plants after a
cool night.
a. Frost
c. Snow
b. Dew
d. Ice
15. What can frost do to plants?
a. help them grow
c. kill them
b. aid in maturation
d. make them bloom faster
16. Name three things that make up condensation nuclei
a. salt, dust, and other
c. salt, silver iodide, and other
b. ice, silver iodide, and other
d. salt, dust, ice
17. In order for clouds to form the air must be:
a. Cool
c. Both a and b
b. Warm
d. Saturated
18. T or F
Clouds are only high in the sky and fog is only close to the ground.
19. Most clouds form by:
a. Adiabatic cooling
b. Ms. T in a bottle
c. convective cooling
d. advective cooling
20. When air reaches a level where its temperature is lower than its dew point is
known as: (Hint: marked by the base of the cloud)
a. Clouds
c. adiabatic cooling
b. Convective cooling
d. condensation level
21. Which of the following could be a cause for forceful lifting?
a. Lakes
c. Hills
b. Mountains
d. Rivers
22. Name the three types of clouds
a. Cumulus, serious, stratus
b. Columbus, stratus, cirrus
c. Stratus, cumulus, serious
d. Cirrus, cumulus, stratus
23. Name at least 2 types of fog.
a. cumulus, advection
b. stratus, steam
c. steam, upslope
d. radiation, cirrus
24. Name the movie Ms. T played before Thanksgiving break.
a. Twister
c. Hitchhiker’s Guide to the Galaxy
b. Day After Tomorrow
d. TLC- Lightning
25. Any moisture that falls from the air to the earth’s surface is called
_________________________________.
a. Rain
c. Precipitation
b. Sleet
d. Snow
26. If the raindrops are smaller than 0.5mm in diameter is called
____________________.
a. Drizzle
c. sleet
b. Rain
d. pee
27. What is hail?
a. large lumps of snow
b. raindrops
c. large lumps of ice
d. frozen rain
28. _______________________ consist of alternate layers of clear and cloudy ice.
a. Hail
c. Sleet
b. Ice
d. Hailstones
29. For a cloud droplet to fall as precipitation, it must increase to about
____________ times its normal size!!!
a. 10
c. 1000
b. 100
d. 200
30. Large nuclei tend to form ____________ droplets!!!
a. small
c. water
b. large
d. ice
31. _____________________________ involves differences in size between cloud
droplets.
a. Supercooling
c. Advection
b. Ice
d. Coalescence
32. Rain is commonly by coalescence in ___________________ regions.
a. Temperate deciduous
c. Tropical
b. Mountainous
d. Tundra
33. Precipitation may also form in clouds that contain water vapor, ice crystals, and
water droplets have gone through known as :
a. Coalescence
c. Ice
b. Supercooling
d. Hail
34. Ice crystals gain enough mass to fall as rain or snow.
T or F
35. Name 3 ways you can do cloud seeding
a. silver iodide, throw it, planes
b. silver iodide, planes, burners
c. burners, planes, leaves
d. burners, planes, Ms. T
36. What could cloud seeding end? (Think about NC in October!!!)
a. Snow
c. Hailstorms
b. Drought
d. Drizzle
37. Name the instrument for measuring the amount of rainfall.
a. rain gauge
c. radiosonde
b. anemometer
d. thermograph
38. How do you measure snow? (There are 2 parts that are measured)
a. depth, color
c. depth, moisture
b. color, moisture
d. color, texture
39. The usual purpose of cloud seeding is to create precipitation.
T or F
40._______________air rises and _____________ air sinks!!!
a. cold, hot
c. hot, cold
b. cold, cool
d. hot, warm
41. Differences in air pressure at different locations on earth create ______________
______________________.
a. Coriolis Effect
c. Tasich winds
b. Wind patterns
d. Tornadoes
42. Polar vs. Tropical air is:
a. Cold/wet vs. Hot/dry
b. Hot/wet vs. Cold/dry
c. Cold/dry vs. Hot/wet
d. Cold vs. Hot
43. Means formed over a cold ocean:
a. maritime tropical
b. maritime polar
c. continental polar
d. continental tropical
44. These two characteristics are uniform in a large body of air.
a. temperature and pressure
c. pressure and moisture
b. lightning and thunder
d. temperature and moisture
45. Effect caused by the Earth’s rotation.
a. Coriolis effect
c. Sound
b. Tasich effect
d. Lightning
46. Air moves from areas of ________pressure to areas of
a. hot/cold
c. high/low
b. low/high
d. cold/hot
________pressure.
47. How many air masses flow over the U.S?
a. 3
c. 7
b. 5
d. 9
48. Waves along a boundary of a polar front are the beginnings of low pressure
storm centers are:
a. Hurricane
c. Thunderstorm
b. Wave cyclone
d. Anticyclone
49. Hurricanes have winds over ____________________ km/hr.
a. 120
c. 160
b. 140
d. 220
50. Describe the difference between a hurricane and a typhoon.
a. Nothing
b. They are the same thing
c. both formed over ocean
d. all of the above
51. The air of this flows outward from a center of high pressure.
a. wave cyclone
c. waterspout
b. anticyclone
d. tornado
52. Name the three stages of a thunderstorm.
a. mature, cumulus, stratus
c. cumulus, mature, dissipating
b. cumulus, status, lightning
d. cumulus, dissipating, lightning
53. When a cold air mass lifts a warm air mass completely off the ground it is
called ________________________.
a. Stationary Front
c. Warm Front
b. Occluded Front
d. Cold Front
54. A _______________________________ forms a line of thunderstorms.
a. squall line
c. storm line
b. condensation level
d. ten yard line
55. A ____________________________is the smallest, most violent shortestlived storm.
a. hurricane
c. thunderstorm
b. tornado
d. waterspout
56. What is a waterspout?
a. tornado
b. cyclone flood
c. tornado over water
d. hurricane
57. Only 10% to 20% of ________________________ takes place between
the clouds and the ground.
a. thunder
c. precipitation
b. lightning
d. hail
58. What measures wind speed?
a. Anemometer
b. wind vane
c. thermograph
d. Ms. T in the classroom
59. What measures wind direction?
a. Anemometer
c. thermograph
b. wind vane
d. Ms. T in the classroom
60. Electronic device that transmits pulses of radio waves in the form of a
a. Thermometer
c. Radar
b. Radiosonde
d. Anemometer
beam.
61. A bend formed in a cold front or a stationary front
a. Curve
c. Occluded front
b. Wave
d. Squall line
62. From 1962 to 1983 this group tried to prevent storms.
Name the group and the method they used to prevent storms.
a. Project Fury Storm, Planes
c. Project Fury Storm, cloud seeding
b. Project Storm Fury, burners d. Project Storm Fury, cloud seeding
63. A ___________________________________ is a cluster of symbols.
a. station model
c. weather map
b. thermograph
d. radiosonde
64. A long-term forecast is very cost-effective and accurate
T or F
65. What was founded in 1873 and is now a part of the United Nations?
a. WNO
c. WMO
b. NWS
D. DTO
66. A region where air masses can form must be fairly
a. Warm
c. Uniform
b. Cold
d. Mountainous
67. In an air mass designated cP, the “c” stands for
a. Cool
c. Coastal
b. Cold
d. Continental
68. The type of front formed when two air masses move parallel to the
front between them is called
a. Polar
c. Warm
b. Stationary
d. Occluded
69. Lines on a weather map connecting points of equal atmospheric pressure are
called _______________________________________.
a. isobars
c. station model
b. thermograph
d. cluster symbols
70. An instrument package attached to a weather balloon is
a.Thermograph
c. Bimetal thermometer
b.Anemometer
d. Radiosonde
71. The winds of an anticyclone flow inwards towards the center of high
pressure.
T or F
72. Dry weather is associated with an anticyclone
T or F
73. What is responsible for most deaths during hurricanes?
a. flying objects
c. falling
b. drowning
d. struck by lightning
74. Life on the earth is dependent upon the ________________, the star nearest
to the earth.
a. sun
c. Leo
b. moon
d. Big Dipper
75.
What size is the sun, in comparison to other stars?
a. small
c. large
b. medium
d. extra large
76.
Looks like a star is moving:
a. apparent
c. spinning
b. actual
d. revolution
77. What is another name for the North Star?
a. Sagittarius
c. Big Dipper
b. Aquarius
d. Polaris
78. How long does a typical star last?
a. 100years
c. millions of years
b. 1000 years
d. billions of years
79. What are the two causes of the increase of temperature in a protostar?
a. collision, temperature
c. collision, pressure
b. temperature, pressure
d. pressure, humidity
80. What is the second stage of a star called? (1 pt)
a. Protostar
c. nebula
b. main sequence
d. nova
81. What is the main source of fuel in a giant/supergiant?
a.Carbon
c. Helium
c. Oxygen
d. Hydrogen
82. Black holes are proven fact.
T or F
83. What 2 elements are involved in nuclear fusion within a star?
a. Hydrogen, helium
c. Hydrogen, oxygen
b. Helium, carbon
d. Helium, nitrogen
84. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Scientific
Method?
a. Observation
c. Creating an opinion
b. Gather data and info d. Publishing results
85. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is:
a. an undersea mountain range
b. a crack in the ocean
c. in the Pacific
d. divergent boundary
86. New ocean floor is constantly being produced through the process
known as:
a. terranes
c. seafloor spreading
b. continental drift
d. subduction
87. The term tectonics comes from a Greek word meaning
a. “movement”
c. “plate”
b. “construction”
d. “continent”
88. The region along lithospheric plate boundaries where one plate is moved beneath
another is called a:
a. subduction zone
c. transform fault
b. rift valley
d. convergent boundary
89. Convection occurs because heated material becomes:
a. more dense and thick
b. less dense and rises
c. more dense and rises
d. less dense and sinks
90. Geologists think that portions of the continents are made up of formerly separate
pieces of lithospheric plates are found in the:
a. lithosphere
c. terranes
b. asthenosphere
d. biosphere
91. The state of balance between the thickness of the crust and the depth at which it rides
on the asthenosphere is called:
a. stress
c. isostasy
b. strain
d. shearing
92. The force that changes the shape and volume of rocks is:
a. compression
c. tension
d. isostasy
d. stress
93. The type of stress that pulls rocks apart, making them thinner, is
a. folding
c. compression
b. tension
d. isostasy
94. Shearing:
a. bends, twists, or breaks rock
b. causes rocks to melt
95. Upcurved folds in rocks are called:
a. anticlines
b. geosynclines
c. push rocks together
d. pulls rocks apart
c. monoclines
d. synclines
96. Mount St. Helens in Washington State is an example of a
a. folded mountain
c. volcanic mountain
b. fault block mountain
d. dome mountain
97. Vibrations in the earth caused by the sudden movement of rock are called:
a. epicenters
c. faults
b. earthquakes
d. tsunamis
98. The point along a fault where an earthquake begins is called an:
a. focus
c. fracture
b. epicenter
d. fault
99. Most severe earthquakes occur:
a. in mountains
b. at plate boundaries
c. along major rivers
d. in the middle of plates
100. The Richter scale expresses an earthquake’s
a. magnitude
c. location
b. duration
d. depth
101. Most injuries during earthquakes are caused by
a. collapse of building
c. cracks in Earth’s surface
b. vibration of S waves
d. vibration of P waves
102. If an earthquake strikes while you are in a car, you should
a. continue driving
c. get out of the car
b. park under a bridge
d. stop the car in a clear space and stay in it
103. An earthquake is frequently preceded by:
a. change in P waves
c. change in surface waves
b. landslides
d. tsunamis
104. The asthenosphere is hot, but not to the point of melting because:
a. pressure
c. density
b. temperature
d. convection currents
105. Any activity that includes the movement of magma toward or onto the surface of the
Earth.
a. tectonic plates
c. earthquakes
b. volcanism
d. volcano tourism
106. Lava that breaks into jagged chunks when it is subjected to rapid cooling is called:
a. felsic lava
c. aa
b. lapilli
d. pahoehoe
107. Tephra is made up of
a. volcanic ash
b. volcanic bombs
c. volcanic dust
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
108. Krakatau is an example of:
a. crater
b. caldera
109. Mount St. Helens erupted in
a. 1972
b. 1982
c. vent
d. stratovolcano
c. 1981
d. 1980
110. This city was completely destroyed by a volcanic eruption
a. Java
c. Sumatra
b. Pompeii
d. Washington
111. Mars is known as which of the following:
a. Blue Planet
c. Red Planet
b. Green Planet
d. Yellow Planet
112. Mount St. Helen’s erupted in 1980 and Io produces as much lava, volcanic ash, and
gases like that eruption each:
a. hour
c. month
b. day
d. year
113. Matter is anything that takes up _____________ and has __________________.
a. space, width
c. space, volume
b. volume, width
d. space, time
114. Smallest part of an element that still retains that properties of that element is an
a. cell
c. atom
b. nucleus
d. matter
115. Any given atom having the same number of protons, but a different number of
neutrons is referred to as an:
a. ionic bond
c. compound
b. hydrogen bond
d. isotope
116. _________________________ joining of 2 or more elements.
a. hydrogen bond
c. ionic bond
b. compound
d. covalent bond
117. 6th planet from the sun
a. Venus
b. Jupiter
c. Saturn
d. Neptune
118. Named after the God of War, Aries.
a. Neptune
c. Jupiter
b. Mars
d. Venus
119. Known for an extremely cold climate, 1100 mph winds, and huge storms.
a. Pluto
c. Uranus
b. Saturn
d. Venus
120. Has an orbit of 365 days.
a. Earth
b. Mercury
c. Venus
d. Mars
121. Also known as “Planet X”
a. Mars
b. Mercury
c. Pluto
d. Jupiter
122. May have been a moon of Neptune.
a. Mars
c. Jupiter
b. Pluto
d. Mercury
123. 3rd planet from the sun.
a. Mars
b. Venus
c. Earth
d. Mercury
124. Which of the following is the correct order of the planets (including a dwarf planet)?
a. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
b. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Neptune, Saturn, Uranus, Jupiter, Mars, Pluto
c. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
d. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, Pluto
125. Has an orbit of 88 days.
a. Mars
b. Mercury
c. Venus
d. Jupiter
126. In 1986, a Voyager mission discovered 10 new moons for this planet, totaling 27.
a. Neptune
c. Saturn
b. Uranus
d. Jupiter
127. This scientist is responsible for the discovery of Uranus.
a. Tombaugh
c. Galileo
b. Herschel
d. Brahe
128. Mars has 2 moons named:
a. Michey and Minnie
b. Titan and Charon
c. Phobos and Diemos
d. Juliet and Oberon
129. Which planet has all of its moons named after Shakespeare characters?
a. Neptune
c. Jupiter
b. Uranus
d. Saturn
130. Kepler’s first law states that planets orbit the sun in paths called:
a. circles
c. epicycles
b. periods
d. ellipses
131. The tendency of an object to remain at rest until acted upon by an outside force is
called:
a. inertia
c. gravity
b. magnetism
d. velocity
132. Based on Kepler’s third law, the orbit period of an object 4 astronomical units away
from the sun would be:
a. 4 years
c. 16 years
b. 8 years
d. 32 years
133. The presence of a magnetic field indicates that a planet may have:
a. iron core
c. oceans
b. an atmosphere
d. high surface temperature
134. Which of the following is not a name of a Uranus moon?
a. Charon
c. Oberon
b. Juliet
d. Ophelia
135. Has an orbit of 250 years:
a. Neptune
b. Pluto
c. Uranus
d. Venus
136. This moon is greater than the size of Mercury and Pluto combined:
a. Charon
c. Oberon
b. Titan
d. Phobos
137. This planet is covered with lava, has a thin atmosphere, and is full of craters:
a. Mercury
c. Mars
b. Venus
d. Jupiter
138. This planet is 20% smaller than Earth.
a. Mars
c. Neptune
b. Venus
d. Mercury
139. Which of the following planets has no satellites?
a. Pluto
c. Venus
b. Mercury
d. Jupiter
140. Which ancient civilization noticed Mars in the solar system first?
a. Aztecs
c. Cherokees
b. Babylonians
d. Mesopotamians
141. Ptolemy modified Aristotle’s model of the universe to include
a. Oort clouds
c. comets
b. retrograde motion d. shooting stars
142. Copernicus’s model of the solar system differed from Ptolemy’s because it was
a. geocentric
c. ethnocentirc
b. lunacentirc
d. heliocentric
143. The planet that rotates in a direction that is opposite the direction of other planets is
a. Mercury
c. Earth
b. Venus
d. Mars
144. The most distinctive feature of Jupiter is
a. Great Red Spot
b. Rings
c. Great Dark Spot
d. Elongated orbit
145. The planet that rotates faster than any other planet in the solar system is
a. Earth
c. Jupiter
b. Uranus
d. Pluto
146. Ms. T referred to this planet as the “lonely” planet, when it is really a dwarf planet that no
one has set foot on.
a. Pluto
c. Mercury
b. Venus
d. Jupiter
147. A black hole is
a. full of light
b. out in the backyard
c. a myth
d. where light cannot escape
148. Astronomers
recognize _______ constellations.
a. 48
c. 56
c. 88
d. 108
149. Who is Stephen Hawking?
a. Ms. Tasich’s idol
b. theory on black holes
c. A man who thought outside the box
d. World recognized genius physicist
e. all of the above
150. Aren’t you glad this final exam is over?
A. YES
B. Bob Saggit
C. Yes and I want to enjoy the summer
D. I’m confused
E. A and C are correct, so bubble me for the right answer.