Download Biomaterials BIOL0112 2 points/answer 2012 Exam 2 Septal Defect

Biomaterials BIOL0112
2012
Exam 2
2 points/answer
Septal Defect Repair
1. The atrial and ventricular septum are primarily comprised of
a. Connective tissue
b. Smooth muscle tissue
c. Neural conductive tissue
d. Epithelial tissue
2. Fetal circulation
a. Is an open looped system that includes the pulmonary vasculature
b. Involves both the ductus arteriosis and the atrial septal opening
c. Involves only the ductus arteriosis
d. Involves only cardiac shunting mechanisms
3. Atrial septal defects
a. Always manifest clinical symptoms
b. Result in the escape of blood from the arterial side of the circulation back into the
venous side of the circulation
c. Are always diagnosed prior to the age of 6
d. Correlate with an 80% mortality rate
4. Repair and closure of ventricular septal defects
a. Are only addressed in older patient populations
b. Can only be accomplished following atrial defect closures
c. are primarily accomplished by endovascular (noninvasive approach) procedures
d. are primarily accomplished by intracardiac procedures
5. The most relevant material characteristic of the nitinol struts that support ASD closure
devices is
a. Fatigue strength
b. Impact strength
c. Yield strength
d. Compressive strength
6. Thermoplastic materials that can be used in ASD closure devices
a. Become liquid when heated and solid when cooled
b. Become solid when heated and liquid when cooled
c. Can be molded but not extruded
d. Can be extruded but not molded
7. Patients that present with a patent Ductus Arteriosis
a. Have arterial blood that escapes into the venous circulation
b. Have venous blood that escapes into the arterial circulation
c. Always present with an associated ASD
d. Always present with an associated VSD
8. The host response most closely associated with successful implant of an ASD closure device
is
a. Neoendothelialization
b. Foreign body giant cell response
c. Ulceration
d. Extensive fibrosis
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9. The primary plasma protein that binds to both ASD and VS closure devices is
a. Albumin
b. Thrombin
c. Fibrinogen
d. Complement
Dialysis
10. In a 24 hour period the kidney clears
a. 5-10 grams of urea
b. 15-20 grams of urea
c. 5-10 grams of creatinine
d. 15-20 grams of creatinine
11. In a 24 hour period, the kidney produces (on average)
a. 500ml of fluid
b. 1.5 L of fluid
c. 15 L of fluid
d. 150L of fluid
12. A malnourished patient with normal renal function
a. Usually has normal levels of creatinine and urea
b. Usually has increased levels of creatinine and urea
c. Usually has decreased levels of creatinine and urea
d. None of the above
13. A nourished patient with renal disease
a. Usually has normal levels of creatinine and urea
b. Usually has increased levels of creatinine and urea
c. Usually has decreased levels of creatinine and urea
d. None of the above
14. Kidney function is reported in terms of
a. Glomerular protein binding
b. Distal tubular secretion rates
c. Proximal tubule reabsorption rates
d. Renal clearance rates
15. The molecule used for testing glomerular filtration rates is
a. Creatinine
b. Urea
c. Inulin
d. Albumin
16. Patients that elect for peritoneal dialysis
a. Between 1-10%
b. Between 10-20%
c. Between 20-30%
d. Between 30-40%
17. The two ways to access the vasculature during hemodialysis are
a. Arterio-venous fistula
b. Artificial vascular graft
18. Removal of fluid during hemodialysis occurs by
a. Diffusive mechanisms alone
b. Convective mechanisms alone
c. Diffusion and convection
d. Convection and ultrafiltration
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19. Complement activation during hemodialysis is primarily induced by
a. C3 binding and activation
b. C3b binding and activation
c. C5 binding and activation
d. C5a binding and activation
20. The dialysis membrane most closely associated with complement activation is
a. Polypropylene
b. Cellulose
c. Polysulphone
d. Polylactide
Drug and Gene Delivery for Cardiovascular Disease
21. The metal alloy used in stent applications due to its shape memory responses is
a. Cobalt chromium
b. Titanium
c. Stainless steel
d. Nitinol
22. Controlled drug delivery that occurs through a semi permeable membrane is classified as
a. A matrix delivery system
b. A reservoir system
c. A bioerodible system
d. Extended-release oral delivery system
23. Delivery systems that have the largest surface to volume ratios include
a. 10nm
b. 1000nm
c. 10um
d. 1000um
24. The formation of polyplexed drug delivery systems is based on
a. Covalent bonding
b. Electrostatic interactions
c. Surface adhesion
d. Surface immobilization
25. A non-viral vector system that can be used in conjunction with the gene gun is
a. Lipopolex system
b. Polyplex system
c. Plasmid DNA system
d. Artificial chromosome
26. Transfection of bone marrow cells is most effective with?
a. Adenovirus
b. Adeno-associated virus
c. Retrovirus
d. Herpesvirus
27. Which type of viral vector is most appropriate for transfecting neurons?
a. Herpes simplex virus
b. Retrovirus
c. Adenovirus
d. Adeno-associated virus
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28. The vascular cells that must be repopulated in order to restore a disease-free vascular lumen
are
a. Smooth muscle cells
b. Endothelial cells
c. Advential cells
d. Connective tissue cells
29. The first drug-eluting stent, developed by Boston Scientific, Inc., that effects tubulin
polymerization of smooth muscle cells is
a. Paclitaxel-releasing
b. Sirolimus-releasing
c. Methotrexate-releasing
d. Prednisone-releasing
30. The Taxus stent includes a polymer-coated bare metal construct that
a. Degrades over time thus releasing drug
b. Leaches drug over time but does not degrade
c. Provides a bolus release of drug upon implantation
d. Swells upon implantation
31. Following transfection of the target cell, the principle barrier to delivery of foreign DNA is
a. Migration through the nuclear pores
b. Release from the endosome
c. Enzymatic degradation in the cytoplasm
d. Transcription in the nucleus
32. Transient gene expression of VEGF following myocardial cell transfection is most efficiently
delivered by
a. Retroviral vectors
b. Herpes simplex vectors
c. Adeno-associated vectors
d. Adenoviral vectors
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