Download Exam #2 - Florida International University

FLORIDA INTERNATIONAL UNIVERSITY
Physiology for the Exercise and Sport Sciences
Exam 2 Practice Questions
1. Which of the following lists the parts of a reflex arc in the correct sequence?
a. receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron, effector
b. effector, receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, interneuron
c. effector, sensory neuron, receptor, interneuron, motor neuron
d. receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron, effector
2. When a nerve fiber is polarized, the concentration of
a. sodium and potassium ions is higher on the inside of its membrane.
b. sodium and potassium ions is higher on the outside of its membrane.
c. sodium ions is higher on the inside of its membrane and potassium ions is higher on the outside.
d. sodium ions is higher on the outside of its membrane and potassium ions is higher on the inside.
3. Saltatory conduction
a. occurs only if the myelin sheath is continuous
b. occurs only if nodes of Ranvier are lacking.
c. is faster than conduction on an unmyelinated nerve fiber
d. is slower than conduction on an unmyelinated nerve fiber
4. The most rapid nerve impulses are conducted on fibers that are
a. thick and myelinated.
b. thick and unmyelinated
c. thin and myelinated
d. thin and unmyelinated
5. The nervous system
a. detects changes in the internal or external environment.
b. controls the movement of muscles and secretions of glands.
c. integrates information from several sources and uses it to make an appropriate response
d. all of the above
6. Which of the following neurotransmitters functions to relieve pain sensations?
a. beta-endorphin
b. acetylcholine
c. epinephrine
d. dopamine
7. Which of the following ions pass through cell membranes most readily?
a. potassium
b. sodium
c. calcium
d. none of the above
8. If a resting potential becomes more negative, the membrane is said to be
a. depolarizing.
b. hyperpolarizing.
c. repolarizing.
d. summating.
9. What is the correct sequence of these events that follow a threshold potential?
1. The membrane becomes depolarized.
2. Sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse inward.
3. The membrane becomes repolarized.
4. Potassium channels open and potassium ions diffuse outward.
a.
b.
c.
d.
3, 2, 4, 1
2, 1, 4, 3
1, 2, 4, 3
4, 1, 3, 2
10. When an action potential passes over the surface of a synaptic knob, the contents of the vesicles are
released in response to the presence of
a. calcium ions.
b. sodium ions.
c. neurotransmitters
d. neuropeptides.
11. Reflexes help to control
a. heart rate.
b. blood pressure
c. digestive activities.
d. all of the above
12. During an action potential, calcium ions cause
a. potassium channels to open
b. potassium channels to close.
c. sodium channels to open.
d. sodium channels to close.
13. A decreased blood calcium concentration is likely to be accompanied by
a. tetanic skeletal muscle contractions.
b. paralysis of skeletal muscles.
c. loss of vitamin D.
d. diarrhea.
14. Drugs that decrease membrane permeability to sodium
a. are used as local anesthetics.
b. prevent nerve impulses from passing.
c. cause a loss in the perception of pain
d. all of the above
15. Three general functions of the nervous system are
a. sensory, motor, and predictive.
b. integrative, motor, and sensory
c. predictive, manipulative, and integrative
d. reflexive, sensory, and predictive.
16. A nerve cell membrane may become depolarized as a result of
a. unequal distribution of ions on each side of the membrane.
b. some ion channels being opened while others are closed.
c. the relative ease with which potassium ions diffuse through membranes.
d. totally preventing sodium ions from passing through the membrane.
17.Action potentials are related to nerve impulses in that
a. many nerve impulses are required to cause one action potential.
b. active transport of Na+ and K- are required for a nerve impulse but not for an action potential
c. nerve impulses are stronger responses by the nerve than are action potentials.
d. propagation of action potentials along a fiber constitutes a nerve impulse
18. If the body had a low calcium level, then this could affect the release of neurotransmitters by
a. increasing the quantity released from synaptic knobs.
b. breaking down acetylcholine to acetyl and choline in synaptic knobs.
c. causing a decrease in the amount released from synaptic knobs.
d. causing a greater amount to be synthesized and stored in synaptic knobs.
19. The process of transmitting a nerve impulse from one neuron to another involves a
a. nerve impulse stimulating presynaptic dendrites to release a neurotransmitter into a synaptic cleft.
b. nerve impulse stimulating presynaptic axons to release a neurotransmitter into a synaptic cleft.
c. neurotransmitter traveling from presynaptic dendrites across a synapse to postsynaptic axons or
a cell body.
d. neurotransmitter traveling from postsynaptic axons across a synapse to presynaptic dendrites or
a cell body.
20. When a nerve fiber is polarized, the concentration of
a. sodium ions is higher on the outside of its membrane and potassium ions is higher on the inside.
b. sodium and potassium ions is higher on the inside of its membrane.
c. sodium and potassium ions is higher on the outside of its membrane.
d. sodium ions is higher on the inside of its membrane and potassium ions is higher on the outside.
21. The most rapid nerve impulses are conducted on fibers that are
a. thick and unmyelinated
b. thin and myelinated
c. thick and myelinated.
d. thin and unmyelinated
22. If a resting potential becomes more negative, the membrane is said to be
a. depolarizing.
b. summating.
c. repolarizing.
d. hyperpolarizing.
23. What is the correct sequence of these events that follow a threshold potential?
1. The membrane becomes depolarized.
2. Sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse inward.
3. The membrane becomes repolarized.
4. Potassium channels open and potassium ions diffuse outward.
a.
b.
c.
d.
3, 2, 4, 1
4, 1, 3, 2
1, 2, 4, 3
2, 1, 4, 3
24. When an action potential passes over the surface of a synaptic knob, the contents of the vesicles are
released in response to the presence of
a. sodium ions.
b. calcium ions.
c. neurotransmitters
neuropeptides.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
Reflexes help to control
heart rate.
blood pressure
digestive activities.
all of the above
25. Action potentials are related to nerve impulses in that
a. many nerve impulses are required to cause one action potential.
b. propagation of action potentials along a fiber constitutes a nerve impulse
c. active transport of Na+ and K- are required for a nerve impulse but not for an action
potential
d. nerve impulses are stronger responses by the nerve than are action potentials.
26. If the body had a low calcium level, then this could affect the release of neurotransmitters by
a. increasing the quantity released from synaptic knobs.
b. breaking down acetylcholine to acetyl and choline in synaptic knobs.
c. causing a greater amount to be synthesized and stored in synaptic knobs
d. causing a decrease in the amount released from synaptic knobs.
27. The process of transmitting a nerve impulse from one neuron to another involves a
a. nerve impulse stimulating presynaptic dendrites to release a neurotransmitter into a
synaptic cleft.
b. nerve impulse stimulating presynaptic axons to release a neurotransmitter into a synaptic
cleft.
c. neurotransmitter traveling from presynaptic dendrites across a synapse to postsynaptic
axons or a cell body.
d. neurotransmitter traveling from postsynaptic axons across a synapse to presynaptic
dendrites or a cell body.
28. For cells that communicate by electrical synapses, the message travels between cells via
__________.
A) ions moving across the synaptic cleft
B) the diffusion of neurotransmitters
C) gap junction proteins
D) active transport across the synaptic cleft
E) passive transport across the synaptic cleft
29.The chemical synapse is bounded by the __________ neuron, from which neurotransmitters
are released across the synaptic cleft, to the __________ neuron, where the receptors for that
neurotransmitter are located.
A) presynaptic : postsynaptic
B) postsynaptic : presynaptic
C) parasynaptic : postsynaptic
D) presynaptic : parasynaptic
E) terminal : presynaptic
30.The neurotransmitter that is released from the presynaptic neuron must diffuse across the
__________.
A) axon hillock
B) dendrite
C) cell body
D) axon
E) synaptic cleft
31.The influx of calcium into the axon terminal of a chemical synapse is responsible for the
__________.
A) initiation of an action potential
B) termination of an action potential
C) fusion of vesicles to the membrane and their exocytosis
D) diffusion of the neurotransmitter across the membrane and into the cleft
E) movement of calcium through gap junctions
32.Which of the following is NOT a mechanism whereby neurotransmitters are rapidly removed
from the synaptic cleft?
A) diffusion out of the cleft
B) degradation by enzymes
C) active reuptake across the presynaptic membrane
D) binding to the receptor
E) transport back up the axon to be immediately repackaged
33.Neurotransmitters can be reused through the process of __________, where
neurotransmitters are transported across the presynaptic membrane.
A) reuptake
B) regeneration
C) recycling
D) resynthesis
E) receptor binding
34.A change in the postsynaptic potential that brings membrane potential closer to threshold is
called a(n) __________.
A) excitatory postsynaptic potential
B) inhibitory postsynaptic potential
C) suprathreshold postsynaptic potential
D) hyperpolarizing postsynaptic potential
E) inhibitory presynaptic potential
35.The opening of sodium channels on the postsynaptic membrane is a clear indication that a(n)
__________ postsynaptic potential has been generated.
A) inhibitory
B) excitatory
C) suprathreshold
D) hyperpolarizing
E) subthreshold
36.The rapid change in membrane potential that occurs when a __________ channel opens
results from its large electrochemical gradient.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) calcium
D) chloride
E) magnesium
37.The binding of a neurotransmitter to its receptor at an inhibitory synapse can lead to the
__________ of __________ channels.
A) closure : sodium
B) opening : chloride
C) closure : potassium
D) opening : sodium
E) closure : chloride
38.The binding of a neurotransmitter to its receptor at an inhibitory synapse can lead to the
__________ of __________ channels.
A) closure : sodium
B) opening : potassium
C) closure : potassium
D) opening : sodium
E) closure : chloride
39.The opening of a chloride channel acts to __________ the development of an action potential
at the axon hillock.
A) stimulate
B) inhibit
C) facilitate
D) further
E) enhance
40.Which of the following is a biogenic amine that is NOT classified as a catecholamine?
A) norepinephrine
B) epineprine
C) adrenaline
D) seratonin
E) dopamine
42. The cell bodies of afferent nerve cells are located within the __________.
A) ventral horn
B) dorsal horn
C) dorsal root ganglion
D) ventral root ganglion
E) lateral horn
43.
The cell bodies of efferent nerve cells are located within the __________.
A) ventral horn
B) dorsal horn
C) dorsal root ganglion
D) ventral root ganglion
E) lateral horn
44. The __________ contains the primary motor cortex, which initiates voluntary movement.
A) occipital lobe
B) temporal lobe
C) parietal lobe
D) frontal lobe
E) medial lobe
45. The __________ is a subcortical nucleus through which most sensory information
(except olfaction) must pass. That sensory information is filtered and refined, allowing us
to direct our attention to specific external stimuli.
A) hypothalamus
B) thalamus
C) basal nuclei
D) limbic system
E) putamen
46. The __________ is a subcortical nucleus that is involved in the regulation of homeostasis
providing an important link between the endocrine and nervous system.
A) hypothalamus
B) thalamus
C) basal nuclei
D) limbic system
E) putamen
47. A reflex that involves a single synapse between two neurons.
A) bineuronal
B) bisynaptic
C) polysynaptic
D) monosynaptic
E) polyneuronal
48. The execution of a voluntary motor task involves a series of steps. Which of the following
present those steps in the correct order?
A) program, intent, feedback, execute
B) program, intent, execute, feedback
C) intent, program, execute, feedback
D) feedback, intent, program, execute
E) intent, feedback, program, execute
49. The efferent nerves that innervate skeletal muscle, and induce them to contract, originate
from the __________.
A) ventral horn of the spinal cord
B) dorsal horn of the spinal cord
C) motor cortex
D) basal nuclei
E) pyramidal tract
50. The __________ is involved in the control of fine, discrete movements of the extremities.
A) extrapyramidal tract
B) pyramidal tract
C) corticospinal tract
D) spinothalamic tract
E) intrapyramidal tract
51. The __________ is involved in the control of large muscle groups that function in posture
and balance.
A) extrapyramidal tract
B) pyramidal tract
C) corticospinal tract
D) spinothalamic tract
E) intrapyramidal tract
52. Damage to the cerebellum will lead to __________.
A) a complete inability to move (lack of execution)
B) an inability to accurately plan a movement
C) the generation of slow, fine movement only
D) the generation of clumsy, poorly directed movements
E) the generation of movement of large muscle groups only
53. The law of specific nerve energies states that __________.
A) a sensory receptor is specific for a particular energy modality
B) a sensory receptor will respond equally well to low and high energy levels from several energy
modalities
C) an energy modality that is at a low energy level will stimulate multiple sensory receptors
equally well
D) sensory receptors respond exclusively to one energy modality
E) each sensory receptor can only be stimulated by a unique energy modality
54. Sensory receptors are capable of converting __________.
A) one energy modality into several different modalities
B) different energy modalities into mechanical signals
C) different energy modalities into electromagnetic signals
D) different energy modalities into electrical signals
E) one energy modality into mechanical signals
55. A __________ refers to a single afferent neuron and all of the sensory receptors
associated with that neuron.
A) motor unit
B) neuronal field
C) sensory unit
D) second-order neuron
E) receptive unit
56. __________ describe the receptors within a region of skin that, when activated, will result
in the stimulation of a particular afferent neuron.
A) Motor units
B) Neuronal fields
C) Labeled lines
D) Second-order neurons
E) Receptive fields
57. The neural pathway for a specific sensory modality travels along a(n) __________ that
terminates in a specific region of the __________.
A) unlabeled line : medulla
B) first-order neuron : cerebellum
C) first-order neuron : cerebral cortex
D) labeled line : cerebral cortex
E) labeled line : cerebellum
58. The type of stimulus that we perceive when a sensory receptor has been activated is
determined by __________.
A) the region of the cortex where the sensory nerve pathway integrates
B) the receptor itself, which encodes information on the type of stimulus and sends it to the cortex
C) the method whereby the receptor transduces one energy modality into another
D) the modality of the stimulus
E) the sensory receptor itself
59. The intensity of a stimulus is encoded in the __________.
A) amplitude of the action potentials
B) frequency of the action potentials
C) number of receptors activated
D) A and C
E) B and C
60. _______________ is best characterized as a neurotransmitter responsible for the
transmission of a painful stimulus between first- and second-order neurons.
A) Acetylcholine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Bradykinin
D) Histamine
E) Substance P
61. The gate-control theory of pain modulation states that __________.
A) pain sensation must be modified within the sensory receptors
B) C fibers themselves can act to modify their own pain signal
C) the signal that modifies pain sensation in the spinal cord must originate from the nucleus raphe
magnus
D) non-painful somatic signals can inhibit signals of pain
E) painful somatic signals can inhibit signals of pain
62. Which of the following is NOT part of the gate-control theory of pain modulation?
A) Inhibitory interneurons can modulate second-order pain neurons.
B) Inhibitory interneurons originate from Ab fibers that are associated with mechanical stimuli.
C) Inhibitory interneurons are inhibited by collaterals from the nociceptor.
D) A non-painful stimulus can activate the inhibitory interneuron and thereby inhibit the painful
stimulus.
E) Signals that modify pain must originate from higher centers of the brain.
63. Based upon the two forms of pain modification that were discussed (gate-control theory
and analgesia), the blockade of a painful signal originating from a C fiber occurs at the
__________.
A) third-order neuron
B) second-order neuron
C) first-order neuron
D) periaqueductal gray matter
E) medulla
Answer: B
64. The autonomic nervous system innervates all effector organs and tissues except
__________.
A) skeletal muscles
B) cardiac muscles
C) endocrine glands
D) adipose tissues
E) the stomach
65. Dual innervation of organs by the autonomic nervous system refers to the observation
that __________.
A) two postganglionic sympathetic neurons innervate each target organ
B) both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves innervate most organs
C) autonomic innervation involves preganglionic and postganglionic nerves
D) autonomic and somatic nerves innervate all organs
E) autonomic nerves that innervate each target organ originate from two ganglia
66. Which of the following physiological responses are associated with elevated sympathetic
nervous system activity?
A) enhanced digestion
B) enhanced absorption of nutrients
C) decreased heart rate
D) increased contractile force of the heart
E) inhibition of cardiovascular function
67. Which of the following physiological responses are associated with an elevation in
parasympathetic nervous system activity?
A) shifting blood flow away from the gastrointestinal tract
B) enhanced absorption of nutrients
C) increased heart rate
D) increased contractile force of the heart
E) enhanced mobilization of energy stores
68. At rest, what is the relative contribution of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous
systems to the regulation of homeostasis?
A) Only the sympathetic system is active.
B) Both systems are active but the parasympathetic predominates.
C) Only the parasympathetic system is active.
D) Both systems are active but the sympathetic predominates.
E) Neither system is active.
69. When the body is stressed, what is the relative contribution of the sympathetic and
parasympathetic nervous systems to the regulation of homeostasis?
A) Only the sympathetic system is active.
B) Both systems are active but the parasympathetic predominates.
C) Only the parasympathetic system is active.
D) Both systems are active but the sympathetic predominates.
E) Neither system is active.
70. The preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system emerge from the
__________ of the spinal cord.
A) thoracic region only
B) sacral region only
C) lumbar region only
D) thoracic and lumbar regions
E) lumbar and sacral regions
71. The ability of the sympathetic nervous system to produce widespread responses within
the body is driven by the structural relationship between pre- and postganglionic neurons
where __________.
A) multiple preganglionic neurons innervate each ganglion, sending out individual postganglionic
neurons
B) one postganglionic neuron branches into many collaterals that affect multiple organs
C) one preganglionic neuron sends collaterals to multiple ganglia, affecting multiple
postganglionic neurons
D) one preganglionic neuron can activate only one postganglionic neuron
E) several preganglionic neurons activate a single postganglionic neuron
72. The __________, considered a postganglionic nerve of the sympathetic nervous system,
is directly innervated by a long preganglionic sympathetic neuron.
A) adrenal cortex
B) adrenal medulla
C) cerebrum
D) pons
E) medulla oblongata
73. Which of the following are indicative of the relative release of endocrine hormones from
chromaffin cells?
A) 80% epinephrine : 20% acetylcholine
B) 80% norepinephrine : 20% acetylcholine
C) 80% norepinephrine : 20% epinephrine
D) 80% epinephrine : 20% norepinephrine
E) 100% acetylcholine
74. The preganglionic nerves of the parasympathetic nervous system emerge from the
__________ of the spinal cord.
A) thoracic region only
B) sacral region only
C) lumbar region only
D) thoracic and lumbar regions
E) brainstem and sacral regions
75. After parasympathetic nerves exit the spinal cord, they merge into the __________, from
which they exit into __________.
A) spinal nerves : ganglia that are close to the effector organ
B) spinal nerves : the effector organ
C) cranial nerves : ganglia that are close to the effector organ
D) cranial nerves : ganglia that are still distant from the effector organ
E) sympathetic ganglia : the effector organ
76. Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT include parasympathetic nerves?
A) V - trigeminal nerve
B) X - vagus nerve
C) III - oculomotor nerve
D) IX - glossopharyngeal nerve
E) VII - facial nerve
77. Postganglionic nerves that release norepinephrine are referred to as __________ nerves,
whereas those that release acetylcholine are referred to as __________ nerves.
A) cholinergic : adrenergic
B) dopaminergic : cholinergic
C) adrenergic : cholinergic
D) adrenergic : dopaminergic
E) dopaminergic : nitridergic
78. The balance between sympathetic and parasympathetic activity is modified primarily by
__________.
A) voluntary mechanisms
B) hunger
C) time of day
D) body temperature
E) the activity of the body
79. The somatic nervous system regulates the activity of __________.
A) endocrine organs
B) many organs
C) skeletal muscle
D) the kidneys
E) the cardiovascular system
80. With respect to their innervation, individual skeletal muscle fibers (cells) are innervated by
__________.
A) a single somatic nerve
B) multiple somatic nerves
C) a single somatic and autonomic nerve
D) multiple somatic and autonomic nerves
E) a single somatic nerve and multiple autonomic nerves
81. __________ is the primary neurotransmitter released from somatic nerves.
A) Epinephrine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Acetylcholine
D) Dopamine
E) GABA
82. The location on skeletal muscle that contains a high density of nicotinic receptors.
A) terminal bouton
B) motor end plate
C) motor unit
D) dendrites
E) axon hillock
83. __________ is located around the border of the motor end plate of a neuromuscular
junction.
A) b2 receptors
B) b3 receptors
C) Acetylcholinesterase
D) Muscarinic receptors
E) Nicotinic receptors
84. __________ describes the graded change in membrane potential that occurs at the
motor end plate of skeletal muscle.
A) Inhibitory postsynaptic potential
B) End-plate potential
C) Muscarinic potential
D) Adrenergic potential
E) Action potential
85. The opening of a cation channel that allows both Na + and K+ to move through will cause
the membrane to __________ because of the __________.
A) hyperpolarize : greater K+ electrochemical gradient as compared with Na+
B) hyperpolarize : greater Na+ electrochemical gradient as compared with K+
C) depolarize : greater K+ electrochemical gradient as compared with Ca2+
D) depolarize : greater Na+ electrochemical gradient as compared with K+
E) depolarize : greater Ca2+ electrochemical gradient as compared with Na+
86. A skeletal muscle is composed of a number of __________, each composed of many
muscle fibers bundled by connective tissue.
A) fascicles
B) myofibrils
C) muscle cells
D) myofilaments
E) sarcomeres
87. A(n) __________ is a structure composed of connective tissue that transmits force from
contracting skeletal muscle to bone.
A) myofibril
B) fascicle
C) tendon
D) ligament
E) aponeurosis
88. The sequence of events that links the action potential to changes in skeletal muscle force
development is called __________.
A) the sliding-filament model
B) crossbridge cycling
C) myoacto coupling
D) excitation-contraction coupling
E) oxidative phosphorylation
89. Contraction of skeletal muscle fibers is stimulated by __________.
A) autonomic nerves
B) sympathetic nerve
C) motor nerves
D) parasympathetic nerves
E) afferent nerves
90. Which ion's intracellular concentration is low when the skeletal muscle is relaxed and
increases dramatically during muscle cell contraction?
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) magnesium
D) calcium
E) selenium
91. The reaction that creates creatine phosphate is driven by the enzyme __________.
A) creatine phosphatase
B) creatine hydrolase
C) creatine hydrogenase
D) creatine kinase
E) ATP hydrolase
92. As the intensity of exercise increases, the muscles switch from oxidative to substratelevel phosphorylation, resulting in the increased generation of __________.
A) lactic acid
B) water from the electron transport chain
C) glucose
D) fatty acid
E) ATP
93. What is the source of variability in a smooth muscle cell's response from different organs
to autonomic nervous activity (some relax to sympathetic nervous output while others
constrict)?
A) the amount of neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft
B) the duration of neurotransmitter release from the autonomic nerves
C) the neurotransmitter released by the autonomic nervous system
D) the type of receptor present on the organ
E) the presynaptic modulation of the autonomic nerves
94. The synchronization of smooth muscle cell activity is mediated by __________.
A) gap junctions exclusively
B) neuromuscular junctions exclusively
C) the release of neurotransmitter from numerous varicosities exclusively
D) neuromuscular junctions and gap junctions
E) gap junctions and the release of neurotransmitter from numerous autonomic varicosities
95. Pacemaker activity of the heart originates from __________.
A) the sinoatrial node only
B) the atrioventricular node only
C) the ventriculo-aortic node only
D) the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes
E) the sinoatrial and ventriculo-aortic nodes
96.
The force that normally drives blood out of the heart involves __________.
A) relaxation of the aorta pulling blood out of the heart
B) increases in intraventricular pressure due to ventricular contraction
C) increases in intra-atrial pressure due to atrial contraction
D) increases in intrathoracic pressure that squeezes blood from the heart
E) cyclic changes in vascular resistance
97.
The opening and closure of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves is driven by
__________.
A) contraction of the valve
B) contraction of muscles attached to the valves
C) contraction of the ventricle and atria that pull the valves into place
D) differences in pressure across the valve
E) contraction and relaxation of the valve
98.
Closure of the atrioventricular valve occurs when __________.
A) the valve contracts
B) pressure inside the ventricle is less than pressure inside the atrium
C) pressure inside the ventricle is greater than pressure inside the atrium
D) the papillary muscle contracts
E) the atrium contracts
99.
The function of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves involves __________.
A) storing blood in the ventricles
B) ensuring the bidirectional movement of blood
C) ensuring the unidirectional movement of blood
D) ensuring the transmission of the action potential throughout the ventricle
E) ensuring the transmission of the action potential between atrium and ventricle
100.
Which of the following will occur within the systemic capillary beds?
A) net flux of oxygen out of the capillaries
B) net flux of carbon dioxide out of the capillaries
C) net flux of carbon dioxide into the capillaries
D) B & C
E) A & C
101.
The relative color (depth of redness) of blood is a direct indication of the amount of
__________ bound to hemoglobin.
A) sodium ions
B) oxygen
C) glucose
D) hydrogen ions
E) hormone
102.
Which of the following is NOT involved in triggering the coordinated contraction of
cardiac myocytes?
A) release of a neurotransmitter
B) change in membrane potential within individual cells
C) action potential
D) pacemaker potential
E) conduction system
103.
The term autorhythmicity refers to the heart's ability to __________.
A) conduct action potentials along the conduction pathway
B) generate its own contractile cycle
C) originate its contraction neurogenically
D) act as a functional syncytium
E) intrinsically modify its contractility
104.
__________ provide the pathway for the movement of electrical current between the
cells of the conduction pathway and the ventricular myocytes.
A) Desmosomes
B) Sodium channels
C) Gap junctions
D) Potassium channels
E) Funny channels
105.
The action potential wave that travels along the conduction pathway is slowed by the
__________, which allows time for atrial contraction to fill the ventricles before the
ventricles begin to contract.
A) atrioventricular node
B) sinoatrial node
C) atrioventricular valve
D) bundle of His
E) internodal pathway
106.
The binding of acetylcholine to its receptors on the sinoatrial node will result in a(n)
__________.
A) increase in PCa
B) increase in the rate of depolarization
C) decrease in the rate of depolarization
D) decrease in PK
E) increase in PNa
107.
The rapid upswing of the action potential in ventricular myocytes (Phase 0) is caused
by a(n) __________.
A) increase in PK
B) increase in PNa
C) decrease in PK
D) increase in PCa
E) decrease in PCl
108.
The ultimate role of the calcium ion in ventricular myocytes involves its ability to
stimulate __________.
A) the release of more calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) the release of neurotransmitters
C) the contraction of the myocardium
D) the generation of an action potential
E) the depolarization of the membrane
109.
The influx of calcium into the ventricular myocyte stimulates a __________ to further
increase intracellular calcium.
A) T-type calcium channel
B) funny channel
C) delayed rectifier potassium channel
D) calcium-induced calcium release channel
E) inward rectifier calcium channel
110.
Identify the electrical events of the heart that are reflected in the QRS complex of the
electrocardiogram.
A) atrial depolarization
B) ventricular depolarization
C) atrial repolarization
D) A & B
E) B & C
111.
Isovolumetric contraction of the heart refers to __________.
A) the ejection of blood that occurs as the ventricle contracts
B) the compression of blood that occurs before blood is ejected from the heart
C) the early portion of diastole
D) the late portion of systole
E) the increase in pressure during ventricular contraction that occurs without a change in volume
112.
Which of the phases of the cardiac pump cycle listed below are part of systole?
A) isovolumetric contraction
B) filling of the ventricle
C) ventricular ejection
D) B & C
E) A & C
113.
During which phase of the cardiac cycle are all four heart valves open?
A) phase 1
B) phase 2
C) phase 3
D) phase 4
E) all four heart valves are normally NEVER open simultaneously
114.
The small increase in ventricular pressure observed late in diastole is caused by
__________.
A) ventricular contraction
B) ventricular relaxation
C) atrial contraction
D) atrial relaxation
E) blood moving into the atria from vena cava
115.
Blood is ejected from the right ventricle once pressure within __________.
A) the ventricle is greater than pressure within the aorta
B) the ventricle is less than pressure within the aorta
C) the ventricle is greater than pressure within the pulmonary artery
D) the ventricle is less than pressure within the pulmonary artery
E) the muscles of the pulmonary semilunar valve decreases
116.
Following ventricular ejection, pressure within the ventricle __________.
A) increases to eject blood from the ventricle
B) decreases by 50%
C) increases to pull blood into the ventricle
D) decreases to near zero
E) will remain constant until the ventricle begins to fill
117.
The increased aortic pressure that occurs during systole reflects a(n) __________.
A) decreased resistance of the vasculature
B) decreased volume of blood within the aorta
C) increased resistance of the vasculature
D) increased volume of blood in the aorta
E) decreased stiffness of the aorta
118.
With a systolic pressure of 135 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure of 75 mm Hg, pulse
pressure would be __________.
A) 60 mm Hg
B) 95 mm Hg
C) 30 mm Hg
D) 75 mm Hg
E) 135 mm Hg
119.
__________ describes the volume of blood ejected from the ventricle with each
contraction cycle relative to the filling volume of the ventricle within that cycle.
A) Stroke volume
B) End-diastolic volume
C) Ejection fraction
D) End-systolic volume
E) Mid-diastolic volume
120.
What causes the sounds that one hears as the heart beats?
A) the snapping of the valves into a closed position
B) the turbulence created as the valves close
C) the snapping of the valves into the open position
D) the turbulence created as the valves open
E) the bulk movement of blood into and out of the ventricle
121.
If 75% of the volume of the right ventricle (100 mL) is ejected with each contraction
and the heart is beating once every second, what is cardiac output?
A) 6 L/min
B) 4.5 L/min
C) 75 mL/min
D) 0.075 L/min
E) 100 mL/min
122.
Which of the following structures is POORLY innervated by the parasympathetic
nervous system, therefore, an increase in parasympathetic activity has little effect on
this structure?
A) sinoatrial node
B) atrioventricular node
C) ventricles
D) conduction pathway
E) Purkinje fibers
123.
Increased activity within the parasympathetic nervous system will result in changes
primarily within the __________.
A) sinoatrial node only
B) atrioventricular node only
C) ventricles only
D) sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node
E) sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, and ventricles
124.
Increased activity within the sympathetic nervous system will result in changes
primarily within the __________.
A) sinoatrial node only
B) atrioventricular node only
C) ventricles only
D) sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node
E) sinoatrial node, atrioventricular node, and ventricles
125.
Which of the following would NOT result from an increase in ventricular contractility?
A) increased stroke volume
B) increased ejection fraction
C) decreased end-systolic volume
D) increased proportion of end-diastolic volume is ejected
E) increased end-diastolic volume
126.
Under resting conditions, heart rate is primarily under the control of __________.
A) the parasympathetic nervous system
B) the sympathetic nervous system
C) epinephrine
D) the somatic nervous system
E) intrinsic mechanisms
127.
An increase in heart rate can be mediated through __________.
A) a decrease in parasympathetic nervous activity
B) a decrease in sympathetic activity
C) an increase in sympathetic activity
D) an increase in parasympathetic activity and a decrease in sympathetic activity
E) a decrease in parasympathetic activity and an increase in sympathetic activity
128.
Which of the following variables is NOT involved in the regulation of stroke volume?
A) ventricular contractility
B) preload
C) parasympathetic nervous activity
D) sympathetic nervous activity
E) afterload
129.
As a consequence of Starling's Law of the Heart, __________.
A) an increase in end-systolic volume will increase stroke volume
B) a decrease in end-diastolic volume will increase stroke volume
C) an increase in end-diastolic volume will increase stroke volume
D) a decrease in end-systolic volume will decrease stroke volume
E) stroke volume is unaffected by end-diastolic volume
130.
An increase in venous return would result in a(n) __________.
A) increased end-systolic volume
B) decreased end-systolic volume
C) decreased end-diastolic volume
D) increased end-diastolic volume
E) increase mid-systolic volume
131.
Which of the following variables is NOT capable of directly altering central venous
pressure?
A) blood volume
B) parasympathetic nervous activity
C) standing upright
D) posture
E) muscle activity
132.
A decrease in afterload will lead to a(n) __________.
A) increased heart rate
B) decreased heart rate
C) increased stroke volume
D) decreased stroke volume
E) decreased cardiac output
133.
Which of the following is NOT one of the proteins present within the plasma portion of
blood?
A) albumin
B) hormones
C) bicarbonate
D) fibrinogen
E) globulins
134.
Which of the following statements is NOT accurate with respect to erythrocytes?
A) They lack nuclei.
B) They lack mitochondria.
C) They contain large amounts of hemoglobin.
D) They migrate into infected regions of tissue.
E) They transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.
135.
Each of the subunits of the hemoglobin molecule contain a __________ that is
necessary for the binding of oxygen.
A) poietin group
B) vitamin B12 molecule
C) folic acid molecule
D) bilirubin molecule
E) heme group
136.
__________, while only a small percentage of the cells within the blood, are an
essential portion of the body's defense system.
A) Defensocytes
B) Immunocytes
C) Platelets
D) Leukocytes
E) Erythrocytes
137.
The first step in the formation of a platelet plug, platelet adhesion, is initiated by
__________.
A) contact of von Willebrand factor with platelets
B) exposure of von Willebrand factor to the subendothelium
C) secretion of ADP by the platelets
D) the production of thromboxane A2
E) ADP-stimulated aggregation of platelets
138.
Which of the following chemicals involved in the development of a platelet plug is
secreted by activated platelets in response to ADP?
A) arachadonic acid
B) seratonin
C) epinephrine
D) prostacyclin
E) thromboxane A2
139.
The formation of a platelet plug is inhibited by healthy endothelium through their
release of __________.
A) thrombin
B) seratonin
C) ADP
D) thromboxane A2
E) prostacyclin
140.
The formation of a clot requires the direct activation of __________ by the presence
of another activated molecule, __________.
A) fibrin : prothrombin
B) fibrin : thrombin
C) fibrinogen : thrombin
D) fibrinogen : prothrombin
E) prothrombin : fibrin
141.
Tissue plasminogen activator is secreted by endothelial cells in response to
__________.
A) thrombomodulin
B) protein C
C) plasmin
D) fibrin
E) platelet factor 3
142.
The lumen of every blood vessel is lined directly by a monolayer of __________.
A) endothelial cells
B) smooth muscle cells
C) fibroblasts
D) erythrocytes
E) platelets
143.
__________ is/are the component(s) of a blood vessel's extracellular matrix that
provide(s) the tensile strength required to withstand pressure.
A) Gap junctions
B) Elastin
C) Collagen
D) Hemoglobin
E) Albumin
144.
The elastic nature of the largest blood vessel's (the aorta's) walls allows them to act
as a __________, maintaining the driving force for blood flow while the heart is
relaxed during diastole.
A) volume reservoir
B) non-distensible structure
C) non-compliant structure
D) pressure reservoir
E) resistor
145.
Which of the blood vessels listed below have the greatest surface area?
A) capillaries
B) arterioles
C) arteries
D) veins
E) venules
146.
__________ function as volume reservoirs due to their high compliance.
A) Capillaries
B) Arterioles
C) Arteries
D) Venules
E) Veins
147.
Valves, which are __________, maintain the unidirectional movement of blood,
thereby facilitating the return of blood to the heart.
A) found in all veins
B) found only in central veins
C) found in all venules
D) found only in peripheral veins
E) found only in arteries
148.
The high compliance of veins allows them to __________.
A) act as pressure reservoirs
B) accommodate large volumes of blood with little change in pressure
C) rapidly change central venous pressure with small changes in blood volume
D) hold only small volumes of blood
E) provide the driving force for the movement of blood through the vasculature during diastole
149.
The greatest proportion of blood volume is present within the __________.
A) systemic arteries and arterioles
B) pulmonary blood vessels
C) heart
D) systemic veins and venules
E) systemic capillaries
150.
The proportion of cardiac output that reaches each organ of the systemic circulation
is ultimately determined by __________.
A) cardiac output itself
B) the resistance of each organ's vascular bed
C) the compliance of each organ's vascular bed
D) the extent of an organ's venular network
E) the extent of an organ's capillary network
151.
In response to an increase in physical activity, the greatest change in the relative
distribution of cardiac output occurs in the vessels that feed __________.
A) skeletal muscles and the skin
B) the brain
C) the gastrointestinal tract
D) the kidneys
E) the heart
152.
Blood flow is inversely proportional to __________.
A) blood volume
B) compliance
C) pressure gradient
D) resistance
E) pressure
153.
In the transition from rest to increased physical activity, the greatest decrease in the
relative distribution of cardiac output occurs within the vessels of the __________.
A) active skeletal muscle and skin
B) brain
C) kidneys
D) gastrointestinal system
E) heart
154.
__________ provides the driving force that pushes blood through the circulatory
system.
A) Transmural pressure
B) A pressure gradient
C) Resistance
D) Compliance
E) Viscosity
155.
The largest drop in pressure occurs across the __________ vasculature.
A) arterial
B) capillary
C) arteriolar
D) venular
E) venous
156.
Which of the following is NOT a determinant of resistance for individual blood
vessels?
A) viscosity
B) transmural pressure
C) vessel length
D) vessel radius
E) manner of flow (laminar vs. turbulent)
157.
Which of the components that modify resistance within the vasculature are most
likely to regulate resistance on a short-term basis?
A) manner of flow (laminar vs. turbulent)
B) viscosity of the blood
C) vessel length
D) vessel radius
E) velocity of the blood
158.
Which of the conditions listed below would lead to an increase in vascular
resistance?
A) decreased blood velocity
B) a more laminar flow (without a change in its magnitude)
C) decreased blood vessel length
D) increased red blood cell number
E) increased arteriole diameter
159.
When blood flow is laminar, the velocity of blood within the flow stream would be
greatest __________.
A) at the bottom of the vessel relative to gravity
B) somewhere within the cross-section of the vessel that is difficult to predict
C) anywhere within the flow stream, since blood moves through the vessel at the same velocity
D) in the center of the flow stream
E) at the edges of the flow stream
160.
Small changes in __________ can have a dramatic effect on vascular resistance.
A) vessel length
B) vessel radius
C) blood viscosity
D) type of flow (laminar vs. turbulent)
E) vessel wall thickness
161.
The individual blood vessels with the greatest resistance are the __________, while
the __________ are responsible for over 60% of the total resistance of the
vasculature.
A) arteries : arterioles
B) arterioles : capillaries
C) capillaries : arterioles
D) capillaries : arteries
E) arterioles : arteries
162.
__________ is a combination of the resistances of each vascular bed in the systemic
circulation.
A) Mean arterial pressure
B) Total peripheral resistance
C) Central venous pressure
D) Transmural resistance
E) Total peripheral compliance
163.
Holding all other variables constant, which of the conditions listed below would
decrease blood flow to a particular vascular bed?
A) decreased blood viscosity
B) decreased mean arterial pressure
C) dilation of that vascular bed's arterioles
D) decreased central venous pressure
E) decreased total peripheral resistance
164.
Holding all other variables constant, which of the conditions listed below would
increase blood flow to a particular vascular bed?
A) increased blood viscosity
B) decreased mean arterial pressure
C) constriction of that vascular bed's arterioles
D) decreased central venous pressure
E) increased total peripheral resistance
165.
Any change in the relative distribution of cardiac output to an organ is typically due to
changes in __________.
A) central venous pressure
B) viscosity of the blood moving through that organ's vascular bed
C) compliance of that organ's vascular bed
D) mean arterial pressure
E) resistance of that organ's vascular bed
166.
Which of the following is NOT a direct determinant of mean arterial pressure?
A) heart rate
B) central venous pressure
C) stroke volume
D) total peripheral resistance
E) cardiac output
167.
An increase in the volume of blood ejected from the heart, with no change in total
peripheral resistance, would __________.
A) elevate mean arterial pressure
B) elevate central venous pressure
C) reduce mean arterial pressure
D) elevate pulmonary venous pressure
E) reduce the stretch on the aorta
168.
An increase in total peripheral resistance, in the absence of any change in cardiac
output, would __________.
A) reduce mean arterial pressure
B) elevate central venous pressure
C) elevate mean arterial pressure
D) elevate pulmonary venous pressure
E) reduce the stretch on the aorta
169.
Reflex control of total peripheral resistance is mediated primarily through
__________.
A) sympathetic vasodilatory nerves
B) sympathetic vasoconstrictor nerves
C) parasympathetic vasoconstrictor nerves
D) parasympathetic vasodilatory nerves
E) autonomic vasoconstrictor nerves
170.
Blood loss decreases __________, which leads to a decrease in end-diastolic
volume, causing __________ to be reduced and thereby decreases mean arterial
pressure.
A) sympathetic nerve activity : heart rate
B) venous return : heart rate
C) stroke volume : sympathetic nerve activity
D) parasympathetic nerve activity : stroke volume
E) central venous pressure : stroke volume
171.
The __________ facilitates the return of blood to the heart during exercise by
inducing the rhythmic compression of peripheral veins.
A) resistance of arterioles
B) constriction of veins
C) respiratory pump
D) skeletal muscle pump
E) high compliance of veins
172.
Increasing the retention of salt by the kidneys will expand blood volume and lead to
__________.
A) an elevated mean arterial pressure
B) a reduced mean arterial pressure
C) a reduced central venous pressure
D) venous pooling
E) orthostatic hypotension